WEEK 21 TEST CONTENT

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Which of the following is not true regarding the Chesapeake Bay?
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it is one of many small estuaries along the east coast of the United States
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Human wastewater entering into bodies of water can be dangerous because
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it can lead to cultural eutrophication and the wastewater can carry pathogens
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Dead zones, such as the one in the Gulf of Mexico that exists off the coast of Louisiana, are characterized by all of the following except
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low nitrogen concentrations
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Put the events leading to cultural eutrophication in the correct order
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W->Y->X
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Which of the following diseases is not caused by wastewater exposure?
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HIV
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Use Figure 14-1. A country with approximately one sixth of the world’s population and reported incidences of cholera is
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country C
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Environmental advantages of septic tanks include all of the following except
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no byproducts of water treatment remain
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What is the first step of treating wastewater at a municipal sewage treatment plant?
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solid waste material settles out
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Primary treatment in a sewage treatment plant is designed to
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remove solids from wastewater
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Mercury is especially dangerous to the general public due to
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its accumulation as it moves up the aquatic food chain
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The resulting acid deposition from SO2 emissions can occur as
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acid rain, acidic snow, dry-acid deposition, all of the above are form s of acid deposition
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Use Figure 14-3. According to the data on the map, the coastal area most likely to be affected by mercury in the ocean waters would be
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the Gulf of Mexico
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What substance is believed to be responsible for the development of eggs in the testes of some male fish?
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reproductive hormones
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Use Figure 14-4. Which of the following areas would be associated with the most nutrient output?
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Gulf of Mexico
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Which pollutant or pollutants are most likely to create eutrophic areas?
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nitrates and phosphates
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Methods used to remove spilled oil from the surface of the ocean include
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containment boom and oil vacuums; chemical disperants
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For which substances does the EPA allow a MCL (maximum contaminant level) of 0 in drinking water?
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Giardia and Fecal coliform
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Use Figure 15-1. A daily measurement of toxic emission in Main measure 0.070 ppm. What amount of that would be attributed to gasoline powered automobiles such as a 4-door sedan?
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0.021 ppm
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Early air pollution legislation in the United States sought to control all of the following except
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CO2 emissions
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If a municipality wanted to take measures to decrease its air pollution, the largest impact would come from
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switching its city fleets of vehicles to natural gas from gasoline
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Ground level ozone is classified as a pollutant because it reduces lung functionality and
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it can degrade plant surfaces
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Which of the following correctly lists the 6 “criteria” air pollutants as specified under the Clean Air Act?
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Pb, SO2, NOx, CO, Pm, and tropospheric O3
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Which of the following is incorrect regarding SO2?
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it has only anthropogenic sources
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Which of the following is incorrect regarding CO?
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it is a product of respiration
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Which of the following is a secondary pollutant involved in photochemical smog?
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Tropospheric O3
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Which of the following pollutants bonds with hemoglobin thereby interfering with O2 transport in the blood stream?
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CO
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Which of the following pollutants would most adversely affect respiratory tracts?
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PM2.5
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The smog that frequently exists in major metropolitan areas such as Los Angeles, CA is known as brown smog and consists primary of what component?
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ozone
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The air pollutant that is a metal and is released primarily from the combustion of coal is
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merucry
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Use Figure 15-2. Which of the following statements aout California air quality on Aug. 25, 2010, is correct?
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the air quality between Sacramento and Los Angeles became much worse over the course of the day
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Which of the following ranges correctly describes the pH of acid deposition?
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pH<5.6
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The correct sequence of events for acid depsition are
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Y->X->Z->W
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Catalytic converters in cars have been instrumental in removing which of the following pollutants from vehicle emissions?
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NOx and CO
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In order to control tropospheric ozone it is necessary to limit
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VOC emissions and NOx
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The class of anthropogenic compounds responsible for the breakdown of stratospheric ozone are know as
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CFCs
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All of the following describe the production of stratospheric ozone except
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it is formed from the reaction of C with O2 in the presence of NOx
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The depletion of ozone over Antartica is greates during
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August through November
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Use Figure 15-4. The “hole” in the ozone layer is
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greatest over the South Pole
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The agreement that allowed for a reduction, and eventual elimination, of CFC production and use is
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The Montreal Protocol
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Specific reasons for sick building syndrome as identified by the EPA include all of the follwoing except
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CFCs
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Use Figure 15-5. The larges number of people affected by an air quality concentrations above the standard (NAAQS) level in 2006 were affected by
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O3
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The movement of large polluted air masses across the pacific ocean into the northern United States is an example of
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A reason that that collaborative international air quality legislation would be useful.
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Which of the following is a secondary pollutant involved in photochemical smog
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Tropospheric 03
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Costs associated with atmospheric brown clouds such as those covering large areas in Asia include all of the following EXCEPT
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Fluctuating surface beneath the smog
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A thermal inversion, which can lead to serious pollution events, occurs when
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Cool air stays close to the surface and is blanketed by a layer of warm air that traps pollutants
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A thermal inversion is most likely to occur
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Along a coast line Where cool air moves in at the ground In LA In a valley All of the these above-
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Photochemical smog is
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Brown
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The primary component of industrial smog is
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Particulate matter
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Which of the following ranges correctly describes the pH of acid deposition
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pH <5.6
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Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with acid deposition
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Negative effects on human skin with contact
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How does the Chattanooga’s location make it more susceptible to pollution?
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Its location in a bowl formed by mountains causes air pollution to get trapped.
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Large urban areas that have problems associated with high levels of particulate pollution also have
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Respiratory disease high above the national average Limited visibility- Haze
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Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding CO
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It is a product of respiration
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Which of the following is an anthropogenic source of nitrogen oxides
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Motor vehicles
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The clean air act was first enacted in ______ and identified _______ mail air pollution
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1960, 6
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Which particulate matter would be the most dangerous to human health
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PM2.5
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Early air pollution legislation in the United States sought to control all of the following EXCEPT
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CO2 emissions
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The smog that frequently exists in major metropolitan areas such as Los Angeles, CA is known as brown smog and consists primarily of what component
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Ozone
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Secondary pollutants require ______ to form
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Sunlight
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Which of the following pollutants can cause central nervous system damage
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Lead
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Catalytic converters in cars have been instrumental in removing which of the following pollutants from vehicle emissions
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NOx CO
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Which of the following pollution control measures reduces nitrogen oxide emissions from the burning of coal
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Lowering coal burning temperatures
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In order to control tropospheric ozone it is necessary to limit
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VOC emissions NOx Emissions
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The class of anthropogenic compounds responsible for the breakdown of stratospheric ozone are known as
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CFCs
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All of the following describe the production of stratospheric ozone EXCEPT
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It is formed from the reaction of C with O2 in the presence of NOx
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Which of the following is correct with regard to the effects of CFCs on ozone production
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UV radiation frees a chlorine atom which breaks down ozone
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Problems associated with the thinning ozone layer include all of the following EXCEPT
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Reduction in photosynthetic activity in plants
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The agreement that allowed for reduction and eventual elimination of EFC production and use is
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The Montreal Protocol
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Which of the following does NOT hold true regarding indoor air pollution
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Indoor air pollution is only a health risk in developing countries
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Which of the following best describes the indoor air pollutant asbestos
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A fibrous mineral that can cause respiratory diseases
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All of the following describes radon-22 EXCEPT
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It binds with hemoglobin in the blood and can lead to death
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The VOC that is common in particle board and carpeting glue and is dangerous to human health is/are
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Formaldehyde
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A phenomenon associated with the buildup of toxic compounds and pollutants in an airtight space is known as
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Sick building syndrome
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The major source of indoor air pollution in developing countries is
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Indoor cooking with biomass as a fuel
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The beneficial ozone is ______ and the dangerous ozone is _______
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Stratospheric, tropospheric
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A pungent reddish brown gas often associated with photochemical smog
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NO2
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A corrosive gas from burning coal often associated with industrial smog
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SO2
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A dangerous indoor air pollutant
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CO
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Emitted from both diesel and burning wood
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PM10
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All of the following are examples of primary air pollutants EXCEPT
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Tropospheric Ozone
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The greatest emission of sulfur dioxide comes from
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Electricity generation
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The least amount of nitrogen oxide emissions comes from
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Fires
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The accumulation of tropospheric ozone at night depends mainly upon the atmospheric concentration of
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Volatile organics
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Under natural condition the pH of rainfall is closest to
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5.6
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The effects of acid deposition include all of the following except
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Increased numbers of salamanders in ponds and streams
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The world health organization estimates that over half of the deaths worldwide due to indoor air pollution occur among
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Children less than 5 years old
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The major factors involved in the conversion of primary pollutants into secondary pollutants are
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Sunlight and water
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The pollutant least likely to be emitted from a smokestack would be
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Ozone
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The EPA identifies all of the following as reasons for sick building syndrome EXCEPT
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High levels of radon in the basement
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Which of the following statement regarding the decreased levels of stratospheric ozone is correct
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The largest decrease in the level of stratospheric ozone over the Artic region occurs between January and April
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The types(s) of ultraviolent radiation most strongly absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere is/are
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UV-B
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Natural sources of air pollution include all of the following EXCEPT
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Waterfalls
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A thermal inversion
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Occurs when a warm air layer overlies a cooler layer
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1-3
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in packet
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which of the following practices would act to reduce vehicular exhaust in urban areas? 1) establish “no Idling” zones 2) require enhanced auto inspections 3)retrofit gasoline pumps with sleeves to collect VOCs
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2 & 3
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How does Chattanooga’s location make it more susceptible to pollution – its tropical location causes high temps, which increases air pollution -its coastal location exposes it to pollution from the sea -its extremely cold location means tht the pollution from snow builds up over time -its location on a large, flat plain exposes it to the wind, which carries air pollution -its location in a bowl formed by mountains causes air pollution to get trapped
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its location in a bowl formed by mountains causes air pollution to get trapped
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Large urban areas tht have problems associated associated with high levels of particulate pollution also have 1) respiratory disease high above the national average 2) limited visibility- haze 3) decreased water quality
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1 & 2
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early air pollution legislation in the US sought to control all of the following except -NoX emissions -Co2 emissions -Open burning -Sulfur content in fuel -emissions from individual smokestacks
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-Co2 emissions
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possible economic benefits to legislation air pollution would include all of the following except -local businesses capitalize on new “clean”technologies -establishment of local manufacturers of “clean” technologies -creation of a municipal fleet of electric cars and buses -lowering the tax on a gallon of gasoline -population increase in local
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question

in a municipality wanted to take measures to decrease its air pollution, the largest impact would come from -switching its city fleets of vehicles to natural gas from gasoline -a voluntary recycling program -limiting the new business start-ups in the area -constructing new landfills -requiring specific materials be used in the manufacture of new homes
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question

the members of a municipality involved in the air pollution issues of the urban area are 1) the local govt 2) the public 3) the local industries
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ground level ozone is classified as a pollutant b/c it reduces lung functionality and -its conc. are low but the particle size is high -it occurs in the atmosphere only -its entirely anthropogenic in nature -in can degrade plant surfaces -it is an unstable molecule
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-in can degrade plant surfaces
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which of the following correctly lists the 6 “criteria” air pollutants as specified under the clean air act -pb, so2, nox, co,pm, and tropospheric o3 -troposphere, 03, so2, nox, pm, pb, and co2 -so2, nox, hg, pb, pm, 03 -so4, nox, co, pm, pb, tropospheric 03 -so2, nox, co, hg, pm, tropospheric 03
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-pb, so2, nox, co,pm, and tropospheric o3
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the movement of large polluted air masses across the pacific ocean into the northern US is an example of -the effects of the impact of the low air quality standards of ocean transport vehicles -violation of the Montreal protocol -ill effects of increased UV radiation – a violation of clean air act -a reason that collaborative international air quality legislation would be useful
answer

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which of the following is incorrect regarding so2 – it is a respiratory irritant -it can adversely affect plant tissue – it has only anthropogenic sources -it results from the combustion of coal and oil -it is a corrosive gas
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-it is a corrosive gas
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which of the following is incorrect regarding nox -it occurs as no2 and no gases -the occur as products of combustion in the atmosphere -motor vehicles and fossil fuel combustion are the primary anthropogenic sources – they play a role in the production of stratospheric ozone -they play a role in the production of photochemical smog
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-motor vehicles and fossil fuel combustion are the primary anthropogenic sources
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which of the following is incorrect regarding co -it is a product of respiration -it is odorless, colorless gas -it is a product of incomplete combustion -it is a common vehicle emission -it can be dangerous indoor pollutant
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-it is a product of respiration
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which of the following is a secondary pollutant involved in photochemical smog -stratospheric 03 -tropospheric 03 -co -co2 -so2
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-tropospheric 03
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which of the following pollutants bonds with hemoglobin thereby interfering with o2 transport in the blood stream -co2 -co -03 -no -pm
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-co
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which of the following is an anthropogenic source of nitrogen oxides -motor vehicles -forest fires -nitrogen fixation -lightning -planting of legumes by farmers
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-motor vehicles
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which of the following pollutants would most adversely affect respiratory tracts -mercury -lead -pm2.5 -pm10 -co2
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pm2.5
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haze in the amazon basin would most likely come from -slash and burn methodologies used to remove trees -microbial action in the river sediments -trade winds moving sea spray inland -cattle overgrazing the river basin -indigenous people’s life styles
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-slash and burn methodologies used to remove trees
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the smog that frequently exists in major metropolitan areas such as Los Angeles CA, is known as brown smog and consists primarily of what component – fog -ozone -sulfate compounds -carbon particulate matter -smoke
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-sulfate compounds
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costs associated with atmospheric brown clouds such as those covering large areas in asia include all of the following except -fluctuating surface temps beneath the smog -light absorption causing reduced photosynthesis in plants -human respiratory of recreation areas -diminished allure of recreation areas -loss of tourism dollars
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-loss of tourism dollars
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the air pollutant tht is a metal and is released primarily from the combustion of coal is -lead -mercury -arsenic -sulfur -none
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-lead
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gasoline is a voc. which of the following is not a characteristic of gasoline tht makes it a VOC -gasoline evaporates at a typical atmospheric temp -gasoline has a strong smell -gasoline is a hydrocarbon -gasoline is a hazardous compound -gasoline is an organic compound
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-gasoline is a hazardous compound
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sulfates are considered secondary pollutants b/c -their emissions are difficult to regulate -they form more readily at night and in dry areas -they result from the transformation of primary pollutants -they originate from the burning of primarily coal -they are a component of grey smog
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-they result from the transformation of primary pollutants
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27-28
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in packet
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thermal inversion, which can lead to serious pollution events, occurs when -warm air that normally rises, does so taking the pollutants with it -warm air that normally rises stays close to the surface holding pollutants close to the surface -cool air that normally rises does so taking the pollutants with it -cool air stays close to the surface but pollutants rise into the atmosphere -cool air stays close to the surface and is blanketed by a layer of warm air that traps pollutants
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-warm air that normally rises stays close to the surface holding pollutants close to the surface
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which of the following ranges correctly describes tht pH of acid deposition -pHpH>5.6 -75.6 -pH<8.6 -7<pH<8.6
answer

-pH< 5.6
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the correct sequence of events for acid deposition are w) deposition of ions on vegetation or soil x) secondary pollutants are formed y) combustion releasing so2 and nox z) dissociation of pollutants
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y,z,x,w
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which of the following is not a problem associated with acid deposition -compromised aquatic systems -lowered pH of lakes -negative effects on human skin with contact -erosion of buildings and monuments made of marble -erosion of paint on painted surfaces
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-negative effects on human skin with contact
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33-34
answer

question

catalytic converters in car have been instrumental in removing which of the following pollutants from vehicle emission 1) NOx 2) CO 3) so42-
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1 & 2
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which of the following pollution control measures reduces nitrogen oxide emissions from the burning of coal -electrostatic precipitators -fabric filters -scrubbers -lowering coal burning temps -fluidized bed combustion
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-lowering coal burning temps
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in order to control tropospheric ozone it is necessary to limit 1)VOC 2) NOx 3) CO
answer

1,2, & 3
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aspects of sulfur allowances as provided for in the acid rain program of the clean air act include all of the following except – a cost overrun for the entire program -an overall reduction in sulfur emissions in Us -companies can emit amounts of sulfur proportional to the amounts they emitted prior to 1990 -companies can sell sulfur allowances that they do not use to other companies -companies that emit quantities of sulfur above which they have allowances for must pay a fine
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– a cost overrun for the entire program
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the clean skies initiative proposed a so2 emissions reduction from 11 million tons in 2002 to a 4.5 million tons in 2010. what was the proposed total percentage decrease of so2 emissions -6.5% -41% -47% -59% -65%
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-59%
question

the clean skies initiative proposed a so2 emissions reduction from 11 million tons in 2002 to a 4.5 million tons in 2010. what was the proposed annual reduction of emissions assuming tht emissions are reduced at a constant rate -6.5 -4.5 -1.2 -0.8 -.3
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6.5
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in order to reduce the amount of ground-level pollutants, municipalities around the globe have instituted all of the following except -installing scrubbers on automobiles -permitting automobiles to be driven only every other day -expanding public transportation networks -carpool/high occupancy vehicle lanes on interstates -charging user fees to use certain roads at certian times
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-permitting automobiles to be driven only every other day
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the class of anthropogenic compounds responsible for the breakdown of stratospheric ozone are known as -VOC -CEC -VFC -COx -FCC
answer

CEC
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protective layer of oxygen and stratospheric ozone absorb over 99% of incoming -solar radiation -UV radiation -UV-A and UV-B radiation -UV-B and UV-C radiation -UV-A and UV-C radiation
answer

-UV-B and UV-C radiation
question

all of the following describe the production of stratospheric ozone except -it is a closed loop cycle -it is formed from the reaction of O with O2 in the presence of ultraviolet radiation -it is formed from the reaction of C with O2 in the presence of Nox -without interference there is a steady state of ozone being created and destroyed -ozone absorbs UV-B and decomposes into 02 and o
answer

-it is formed from the reaction of C with O2 in the presence of Nox
question

which of the following is correct with regard to the effects of CFCs on ozone production -UV radiation fees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone -infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom which breaks down ozone -UV radiation fees a fluorine atom which breaks down ozone -infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom which breaks down ozone -UV radiation frees a carbon atom which breaks down ozone
answer

-UV radiation fees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone
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the depletion of ozone over antarctica is greatest during -august through november -december through february -february through may -june through august -the ozone hole is constant in size throughout the year
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-august through november
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47-48
answer

question

problems associated with the thinning of the ozone layer include all of the following except -increased incidences of asthma -increased incidences of skin cancer -increased incidences of cataracts -reduction in photosynthetic activity in plants -suppressed immune system
answer

-increased incidences of asthma
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the agreement that allowed for a reduction and eventual elimination of CFC production and use is -montreal protocol -quebec protocol -kyoto protocol -clean skies initiative -clean air act
answer

-montreal protocol
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which of the following does not hold true regarding indoor air pollution -indoor air pollution causes more deaths than outdoor air pollution -indoor air pollution is only a health risk in developing countries -CO is an indoor air pollutant -respiratory problems are the primary health issue -VOCs are indoor air pollutants
answer

-respiratory problems are the primary health issue
question

which of the following best describes the indoor air pollutant arbestos -radioactive compound that can lead to lung cancer -VOC found in furniture and carpets -fibrous mineral tht can cause respiratory diseases -metal tht can cause brain damage in children -it is routinely found in homes in developing countries
answer

-fibrous mineral tht can cause respiratory diseases
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all of the following desvribe radon 222 except -it is a radioactive gas resulting from the natural decay of uranium -seeps into homes through cracks in the foundation or soil -the effects can be reduced by simply increasing ventilation -it binds with hemoglobin in the blood and can lead to death -it exists in the igneous rock granite all around the world
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-it binds with hemoglobin in the blood and can lead to death
question

VOC that is common in particle board and carpeting glue and is dangerous to human health is/ are -hydrocarbons -formaldehyde -radon 222 -asbestos -CFCs
answer

-formaldehyde
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a phenomenon associated with the buildup of toxic compounds and pollutants in an airtight space is known as -sealed building syndrome -synthetic building syndrome -sick building syndrome -sick worker syndrome -insulated building sick worker syndrom
answer

-sick building syndrome
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the major source of indoor air pollution in developing countries is -using synthetic materials in construction of buildings -indoor cooking with biomass as a fuel -release of radon 222 gas -using lead based paints on furniture and walls -smoking cigarettes
answer

-indoor cooking with biomass as a fuel
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specific reasons for sick building syndrome as identified by the EPA include all of the following except -copy machines -mold and pollen -vocs from carpet and furniture -faulty ventilation -CFCs
answer

-CFCs
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the compound tht is the leading cause of ozone depletion is -co -co2 -CFCs -nox -VOCs
answer

-CFCs
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the beneficial ozone is ___ and the dangerous ozone is ___ -02, 03 -03,02 -03,CFC -tropospheric, stratospheric -stratospheric,tropospheric
answer

-stratospheric,tropospheric
question

60-63
answer

question

which type of pollution control is most difficult -choosing a fuel with fewer impurities -including catalytic converter on new automobiles -removing pollutants after they have been dispersed over a wide area -burning fuel at lower temps -reducing pollutants after combustions but before release into the atmosphere
answer

-removing pollutants after they have been dispersed over a wide area
question

which harmful substance was once commonly used as insulation -asbestos -mercury -lead –ozone
answer

-asbestos
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Which is NOT a criteria air pollutant? A) Sulfur dioxide B) Lead C) carbon dioxide D) Particulate matter E) Tropospheric ozone
answer

C
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A secondary pollutant . . . A) Forms in the stratosphere B) Is transformed by sunlight or water C) Cannot be directly tracked D) Does not directly harm humans E) Forms primarily from incomplete combustion
answer

B
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Which is a source of sulfur dioxide found in nature? A) Forest fires B) Lightning strikes C) Plant emissions D) Volcanes E) Soil
answer

D
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Which size of particulate matter causes the greatest health concern? A) PM₂.₅ B) PM₁₀ C) PM₁₀₀ D) PM₃₀ E) PM₁₅
answer

A
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Carbon monoxide . . . A) Increases lung cancer rates B) Leads to the formation of photochemical smog C) Is most problematic in rural areas D) Does not directly cause deaths E) Is produced by incomplete combustion
answer

E
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High levels of photochemical smog are due to . . . I. Nitrogen dioxide II. Sulfur dioxide III. VOCs A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I and III only E) I, II, and III
answer

D
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Recent increases in acid deposition in the western United States are due to . . . A) Increased emissions in the United States B) Decreased precipitation due to climate change C) Increased emissions in China D) Increased precipitation due to climate change E) Increase emissions in Europe
answer

C
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Thermal inversions . . . A) Increase the rate of smog formation B) Trap high concentrations of pollution at ground level C) Result in increased levels of acid deposition D) Are caused by high levels of precipitation E) Reduce the negative effects of VOCs
answer

B
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Acid depositions form as a result of . . . A) Nitrogen oxides and photochemical smog B) Carbon monoxide and VOCs C) Sulfur dioxide and VOCs D) Nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide E) Carbon monoxide and photochemical smog
answer

D
question

The effects of acid deposition include . . . A) Increased cancer rates in aquatic organisms B) Decreased aquatic biodiversity C) Decreased mobilization of metals D) Increased pH of lake water E) Decreased human health in impacted areas
answer

B
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Which method is used to reduce nitrogen oxide emissions? A) Installation of catalytic converters B) Increased temperature of combustion C) The addition of oxygen to combustion processes D) The use of fluidized bed combustion E) The use of calcium carbonate to absorb emissions
answer

A
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Which is NOT used to prevent the emission of particulate matter? A) Gravitational settling B) Fabric filters C) Electrostatic precipitators D) Catalytic converters E) Scrubbers
answer

D
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Which pollution control method was proposed by an amendment to the Clean Air Act? A) Allowing tolls to limit the use of automobiles B) A market for sulfur emissions C) The regulation of radon emissions D) The use of catalytic converters E) Chemicals developed to prevent the formation of ozone
answer

B
question

If carbon monoxide emissions decreased from 145 million tons annually to 80 million tons annually, by what percentage have emissions been reduced? A) 41 percent B) 45 percent C) 47 percent D) 52 percent E) 55 percent
answer

B
question

The formation of ozone begins when an O₂ molecule is split by . . . A) UV-A radiation B) UV-B radiation C) UV-C radiation D) UV-A or UV-B radiation E) UV-B or UV-C radiation
answer

C
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How many ozone atoms can a single chlorine atom break down? A) 5,000 B) 10,000 C) 50,000 D) 100,000 E) 500,000
answer

D
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Which is NOT a result of the reduction in stratospheric ozone? A) Reduced photosynthetic activity B) Increased skin cancer C) Increased eye problems D) Increased birth defects E) Suppressed immune systems
answer

D
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Through international cooperation, the concentration of chlorine in the atmosphere . . . A) Has already decreased below 3 ppb B) Will stabilize around 3 ppb by 2030 C) Has stabilized at 5 ppb D) Is expected to stabilize at 5 ppb by 2100 E) Is expected to fall below 3 ppb by 2020
answer

C
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When is the Antarctic ozone hole largest? A) Early spring B) Late summer C) Mid-summer D) Late fall E) Early winter
answer

A
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What percentage of worldwide deaths due to indoor air pollution occurs in developing nations? A) 30 percent B) 50 percent C) 60 percent D) 70 percent E) 90 percent
answer

E
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Which outdoor air pollutant is also a significant indoor air pollutant? A) Sulfur dioxide B) Nitrogen oxides C) Carbon monoxides D) Lead E) Ozone
answer

C
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The primary source of radon is . . . A) Electronics B) Indoor fires C) Household chemical fumes D) Rocks and soils E) Construction materials
answer

D
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Sick building syndrome . . . A) Occurs most often in old buildings B) Is a primary cause of lung cancer C) Is a result of off-grassing D) Can be prevented by renovation E) Occurs most often in wet tropical areas
answer

C
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Asbestos . . . A) Is used for insulation B) Can be easily removed and treated C) Can be a problem in new construction D) Causes skin irritation, nausea, and fatigue E) Is commonly used in furniture
answer

A
question

A pungent reddish-brown gas often associated with photochemical smog . . . A) CO B) CH₄ C) NO₂ D) SO₂ E) PM₁₀
answer

C
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A corrosive gas from burning coal often associated with industrial smog . . . A) CO B) CH₄ C) NO₂ D) SO₂ E) PM₁₀
answer

D
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A dangerous indoor air pollutant . . . A) CO B) CH₄ C) NO₂ D) SO₂ E) PM₁₀
answer

A
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Emitted from both diesel and burning wood . . . A) CO B) CH₄ C) NO₂ D) SO₂ E) PM₁₀
answer

E
question

All of the following are examples of primary air pollutants except . . . A) Sulfur dioxide B) Carbon dioxide C) Tropospheric ozone D) Nitrogen oxide E) Particulates
answer

C
question

The greatest emission of sulfur dioxide comes from . . . A) On-road vehicles B) Biofuels C) Industrial processes D) Electricity generation E) Fires
answer

D
question

The least amount of nitrogen oxide emissions comes from . . . A) On-road vehicles B) Fossil fuel combustion C) Industrial processes D) Electricity generation E) Fires
answer

E
question

The accumulation of tropospheric ozone at night depends mainly upon the atmospheric concentration of . . . A) Nitrogen dioxide B) Volatile organics C) Chlorofluorocarbons D) Sulfates and nitrates E) Nitric acid
answer

B
question

Under natural conditions the pH of rainfall is closest to . . . A) 8.5 B) 7.1 C) 5.6 D) 4.5 E) 3.1
answer

C
question

The effects of acid deposition include all of the following except . . . A) Mobilization of metal ions from the soil into surface water B) Increased numbers of salamanders in ponds and streams C) Reduced food sources for aquatic organisms D) Erosion of marble buildings and statues E) Erosion of painted automobile finishes and metals
answer

B
question

The World Health Organization estimates that over half of the deaths worldwide due to indoor air pollution occur among . . . A) Children less than 5 years old B) Elderly people over 65 years of age C) People who work in office buildings D) Workers in the smelting industry E) Workers who manufacture asbestos
answer

A
question

Two major factors involved in the conversion of primary pollutants into secondary pollutants are . . . A) Sunlight and water B) Sulfates and sunlight C) Water and volatile organics D) Nitrogen oxides and sulfates E) Sulfur dioxide and sulfuric acid
answer

A
question

The pollutant least likely to be emitted from a smokestack would be . . . A) Carbon monoxide B) Carbon dioxide C) Ozone D) Sulfur dioxide E) Particulates
answer

C
question

How might the increased use of insulation in a home affect air pollution? A) Some common insulation off-gasses sulfur dioxide B) The production of insulation releases large amounts of particulate matter C) Increased insulation can create indoor air pollution problems D) Insulation prevents problems with radon in homes E) Good insulation can help prevent sick building syndrome
answer

C
question

The EPA identifies all of the following as reasons for sick building syndrome except . . . A) Faulty ventilation systems B) Emissions from carpets and furniture C) Contamination from outdoor air D) Contamination from molds and pollen E) High levels of radon in the basement
answer

E
question

Which statement regarding the decreased levels of stratospheric ozone is correct? A) Increased photosynthetic activity has been measured in the phytoplankton around Antarctica B) The largest decrease in the level of stratospheric ozone over the Arctic region occurs between January and April C) Although the Montreal Protocol led to a reduction in the use of CFCs, it will have little effect on stratospheric ozone levels in the long term D) There is no correlation between the incidence of cataracts and skin cancers and the lower levels of stratospheric ozone E) The global crop yields of wheat, rice, and corn have increased since the reduction in CFC use
answer

B
question

Which is most strongly absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-A B) UV-B C) UV-C D) UV-B and UV-C E) UV-A and UV-B
answer

B
question

Natural sources of air pollution include all of the following except . . . A) Forest fires B) Volcanic eruptions C) Waterfalls D) Dust storms E) Conifer trees
answer

C
question

A thermal inversion . . . A) Rarely occurs in cities but is common in rural areas B) Helps remove pollutants from the atmosphere C) Leads to decreased amounts of ground-level smog D) Occurs when a warm air layer overlies a cooler layer E) Occurs when a cool air layer overlies a warmer layer
answer

D
question

A pungent reddish-brown gas often associated with photochemical smog a) CO b) CH4 c) NO2 d) SO2 e) PM10
answer

c) NO2
question

A corrosive gas from burning coal often associated with industrial smog a) CO b) CH4 c) NO2 d) SO2 e) PM10
answer

d)SO2
question

A dangerous indoor air pollutant a) CO b) CH4 c) NO2 d) SO2 e) PM10
answer

a) CO
question

Emitted from both diesel and burning wood a) CO b) CH4 c) NO2 d) SO2 e) PM10
answer

e) PM10
question

All of the following are examples of primary air pollutants EXCEPT a) sulfur dioxide b) carbon dioxide c) tropospheric ozone d) nitrogen oxide e) particulates
answer

c) tropospheric ozone
question

The greatest emission of sulfur dioxide comes from a) on-road vehicles b) fossil fuel combustion c) industrial processes d) electricity generation e) fires
answer

d) electricity generation
question

The least amount of nitrogen oxide emissions comes from a) on-road vehicles b) fossil fuel combustion c) industrial processes d) electricity generation e) fires
answer

c) industrial processes
question

The accumulation of tropospheric ozone at night depends mainly upon the atmospheric concentration of a) nitrogen dioxide b) volatile organics c) chlorofluorocarbons d) sulfates and nitrates e) nitric acid
answer

b) volatile organics
question

Under natural conditions the pH of rainfall is closest to a) 8.5 b) 7.1 c) 5.6 d) 4.5 e) 3.1
answer

c) 5.6
question

The effects of acid deposition include all of the following EXCEPT a) mobilization of metal ions from the soil into surface water b) increased numbers of salamanders in ponds and streams c) lower food source for aquatic organisms d) erosion of marble buildings and statutes e) erosion of painted automobile finishes and metals
answer

b) increased numbers of salamanders in ponds and streams
question

The World Health Organization estimates that over half of the deaths worldwide due to indoor air pollution occur among a) children less than 5 years old b) elderly people over 65 years of age c) people who work in office buildings d) workers in the smelting industry e) workers who manufacture asbestos
answer

a) children less than 5 years old
question

Two major factors involved in the conversion of primary pollutants into secondary pollutants are a) sunlight and water b) sulfates and sunlight c) water and volatile organics d) nitrogen oxides and sulfates e) sulfur dioxide and sulfuric acid
answer

a) sunlight and water
question

The pollutant LEAST likely to be emitted from a smokestack would be a) carbon monoxide b) carbon dioxide c) ozone d) sulfur dioxide e) particulates
answer

c) ozone
question

The EPA identifies all of the following as a reasons for sick building syndrome EXCEPT a) faulty ventilation systems b) emissions from carpets and furnitures c) contamination from outdoor air d) contamination from molds and pollen e) high levels of radon in the basement
answer

c) contamination from outdoor air
question

Which statement regarding the decreased levels of stratospheric ozone is CORRECT? a) Increased photosynthetic activity has been measured in the phytoplankton around Antarctica b) The largest decrease in the level of stratospheric ozone over the Arctic region occurs between January and April c) Although the Montreal Protocol led to a reduction in the use of CFCs, it will have little effect on stratospheric ozone levels in the long term d) There is no correlation between the incidence of cataracts and skin cancers and the lower levels of stratospheric ozone e) The global crop yields of wheat, rice, and corn have increased since the reduction in CFC use
answer

b) The largest decrease in the level of stratospheric ozone over the Arctic region occurs between January and April
question

The type(s) of ultraviolet radiation most strongly absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere is/are a) UV-A b) UV-B c) UV-C d) UV-B and UV-C e) UV-A and UV-B
answer

d) UV-B and UV-C
question

Natural sources of air pollution include all of the following EXCEPT a) forest fires b) volcanic eruptions c) waterfalls d) dust storms e) conifer trees
answer

c) waterfalls
question

A thermal inversion a) rarely occurs in cities but is common in rural areas b) helps remove pollutants from the atmosphere c) leads to decreased amounts of ground-level amog d) occurs when a warm air layer overlies a cooler layer e) occurs when a cool air layer overlies a warmer layer
answer

d) occurs when a warm air layer overlies a cooler layer
question

Use Figure 15-1. A daily measurement of toxic emissions in Maine measures 0.070 ppm. What amount of that would be attributed to gasoline powered automobiles such as a 4-door sedan?
answer

0.021 ppm
question

How does Chattanooga’s location make it more susceptible to pollution?
answer

Its location in a bowl formed by mountains causes air pollution to get trapped.
question

Early air pollution legislation in the United States sought to control all of the following EXCEPT
answer

CO2 emissions
question

If a municipality wanted to take measures to decrease its air pollution, the largest impact would come from
answer

switching its city fleets of vehicles to natural gas from gasoline
question

Ground level ozone is classified as a pollutant because it reduces lung functionality AND
answer

it can degrade plant surfaces
question

Which of the following correctly lists the 6 “criteria” air pollutants as specified under the Clean Air Act?
answer

Pb, SO2, NOX, CO, PM, and tropospheric O3
question

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding SO2?
answer

It has only anthropogenic sources
question

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding CO?
answer

It is a product of respiration
question

Which of the following is a secondary pollutant involved in photochemical smog?
answer

Tropospheric O3
question

Which of the following pollutants bonds with hemoglobin thereby interfering with O2 transport in the blood stream?
answer

CO
question

Which of the following pollutants would most adversely affect respiratory tracts?
answer

PM2.5
question

The smog that frequently exists in major metropolitan areas such as Los Angeles, CA is known as brown smog and consists primarily of what component?
answer

ozone
question

The air pollutant that is a metal and is released primarily from the combustion of coal is
answer

mercury
question

Use Figure 15-2. Which of the following statements about California air quality on Aug. 25, 2010, is correct?
answer

The air quality between Sacramento and Los Angeles became much worse over the course of the day
question

A thermal inversion, which can lead to serious pollution events, occurs when
answer

cool air stays close to the surface and is blanketed by a layer of warm air that traps pollutants
question

Which of the following ranges correctly describes the pH of acid deposition?
answer

pH < 5.6
question

The correct sequence of events for acid deposition are W. deposition of ions on vegetation or soil X. secondary pollutants are formed Y. combustion releasing SO2 and NOX Z. dissociation of pollutants
answer

Y->X->Z->W
question

Use Figure 15-3. The change in acid deposition for the southern half of the state of Michigan from 1989-1991 to 2006-2008 is
answer

a decrease of approximately 50%
question

Catalytic converters in cars have been instrumental in removing which of the following pollutants from vehicle emissions? I. NOX II. CO III. SO42
answer

. I and II only
question

In order to control tropospheric ozone it is necessary to limit I. VOC emissions II. NOX emissions III. CO emissions
answer

I and II only
question

The Clean Skies Initiative proposed a SO2 emissions reduction from 11 million tons in 2002 to 4.5 million tons in 2010. What was the proposed annual reduction of emissions, assuming that emissions are reduced at a constant rate?
answer

0.8 million tons per year
question

The class of anthropogenic compounds responsible for the breakdown of stratospheric ozone are known as
answer

CFCs
question

The protective layer of oxygen and stratospheric ozone absorb over 99% of incoming
answer

UV-B and UV-C radiation
question

All of the following describe the production of stratospheric ozone EXCEPT
answer

it is formed from the reaction of C with O2 in the presence of NOX
question

The depletion of ozone over Antarctica is greatest during
answer

August through Novembe
question

Use Figure 15-4. The “hole” in the ozone layer is
answer

greatest over the South Pole
question

The agreement that allowed for a reduction, and eventual elimination, of CFC production and use is
answer

The Montreal Protocol
question

The major source of indoor air pollution in developing countries is
answer

indoor cooking with biomass as a fuel
question

Specific reasons for sick building syndrome as identified by the EPA include all of the following except
answer

CFCs
question

Use Figure 15-5. The largest number of people affected by an air quality concentration above the standard (NAAQS) level in 2006 were affected by
answer

O3
question

Which of the following best describes municipal solid waste (MSW) in the United States?
answer

Sixty percent comes from residences and 40% comes from commercial sources
question

Which of the following best explains the rise of MSW generated by individuals in developing countries?
answer

Their growing populations and the mass production of consumer goods used in developed countries
question

Which of the following items would most likely end up in the waste stream the fastest?
answer

A paper cup
question

The major component of MSW in the United States is
answer

paper
question

When MSW is categorized based on its source, the category that comprises the greatest amount is
answer

containers and packaging
question

Which of the following would NOT be categorized as e-waste?
answer

Construction debris
question

An environmental cost of sending computers to landfills is
answer

the disposed computers contain toxic metals that can end up in the environment
question

In order from the most desirable to the least desirable, the 3 R’s stand for
answer

Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
question

A company that produces laundry detergent switches from distributing its product in plastic bottles to instead using flexible pouches that require 84% less packaging. This is an example of
answer

source reduction
question

Which of the following is/are environmental benefit/s of recycling aluminum? I. Reduces the effects on the land from mining II. Reduces the effects of leaching in landfills III. Reduces the energy required to transport and process mined ore
answer

I, II, and III
question

Which of the following best explains why the recycling of plastic is an example of open-loop recycling?
answer

Plastic bottles can be recycled and used in the production of different plastic products.
question

Which of the following is least likely to be a danger associated with leachate from a sanitary landfill?
answer

The leachate can be at a high temperature
question

The environmental benefits of composting include all of following EXCEPT:
answer

reduction in work force of waste management company
question

Use Figure 16-2. The country that could benefit the most from a program that educates its population on the benefits of recycling and composting is
answer

Portugal
question

Use Figure 16-2. The country that would most likely have problems with toxic ash due to the nature of its MSW facilities is
answer

Denmark
question

The reclamation of a sanitary landfill occurs
answer

after the landfill is capped
question

A landfill in Minnesota receives an average of 50 cm of rainfall per year. 60 percent of the water runs off the landfill without infiltrating the surface. The landfill has a surface area of 5000 m2. What is the volume of water that annually infiltrates the landfill?
answer

1000 m3
question

Negative aspects of waste incineration include all of the following EXCEPT:
answer

generation of electric energy
question

If the United States produces approximately 40 million U.S. tons of hazardous waste annually, and only about 5% is recycled, what is the amount of waste that must be disposed of according to hazardous waste protocol?
answer

38 million tons
question

The US legislation that is designed to track hazardous waste from its production, “cradle,” to its disposal, “grave,” is
answer

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
question

The US legislation that imposes a tax on targeted industrial facilities and then utilizes those funds to cleanup selected abandoned hazardous waste sites is
answer

CERCLA
question

Use Figure 16-3. The region(s) of the United States in which at least 50% of the population is being served by curbside recycling is/are I. the Northeast II. the Midwest III. the South
answer

I and I
question

Use Figure 16-3. If the percentage of the population served by curbside recycling in the South were to double, its new rate would be closest to the rate of:
answer

the Midwest
question

Use Figure 16-4. There has been approximately a ____ in the use of plastics from 1980 to 2005.
answer

300% increase
question

Use Figure 16-4. The environmental costs associated with the trend in the amount of plastic recovery compared to the amount of plastic generated include I. large amounts of nonbiodegradable waste II. deforestation of old growth forests III. toxic compounds associated with petrochemicals
answer

I and III
question

In the United States, the primary method of disposal of MSW is to:
answer

collect it in a sanitary landfill
question

All of the following are environmental costs of relying on sanitary landfills for waste handling EXCEPT:
answer

the release of fly ash into the atmosphere
question

Which component of a landfill is extracted and either used as fuel or burned off?
answer

. methane
question

Which component of a landfill is extracted and transported to a wastewater treatment facility?
answer

leachate
question

which of the following statements about nonpoint source (NPS) pollution is not correct? a) NPS results from rain or snowmelt moving over or permeating through the ground b) NPS is form of water pollution that is more difficult to control, measure, and regulate c) NPS includes sediment from improperly managed construction sites as a pollutant d) NPS is water pollution that originates from a distinct source such as a pipe or tank e) NPS disperses pollutants over a large area, such as oil and grease in a parking lot
answer

d) NPS is water pollution that originates from a distinct source such as a pipe or tank
question

human wastewater results in which of the following water-pollution problems? I The organic matter decomposes and reduces dissolved oxygen levels II Decomposition of organic matter releases great quantities of nutrients III Pathogenic organisms are carried into surface waters
answer

e) I, II, and III
question

which of the following would be an indication that a body of water was contaminated by human waste water? a)low BOD and a fecal coliform bacteria count of zero b) high levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorous, and high BOD c) low BOD and low levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus d) low levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorous, and a fecal coliform bacteria count of zero e) a lack of dead zones
answer

b) high levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorous, and high BOD
question

Both septic systems and sewage treatment plants utilize bacteria to break down organic matter. Where in each system does the process occur? a)septic tank and leach field; primary treatment and secondary treatment b) septic tank only; primary treatment and chlorination c) leach field only; secondary treatment only d) septic tank and leach field; secondary treatment only e) leach field only; secondary treatment and chlorination
answer

a) septic tank and leach field; primary treatment and secondary treatment
question

under which of the following circumstances is a sewage treatment plant legally permitted to bypass normal treatment protocol and discharge large amounts of sewage directly into a lake or river? a) when the receiving surface water is designated for swimming only b) when the population of the surrounding community surpasses the plant’s capacity c) when combined volumes of storm water and wastewater exceed the capacity of an older plant d) when a permit to modernize the plant is denied by the EPA e) when an extended period of drought restricts water flow in a lake or rive
answer

c) when combined volumes of storm water and wastewater exceed the capacity of an older plant
question

Which of the following inorganic substances is naturally occurring in rocks, soluble in groundwater, and toxic at low concentrations? a) mercury b) lead c) PCBs d) copper e) arsenic
answer

e) arsenic
question

Acid mine drainage results from acidic water formed belowground that makes its way to the surface; the acidic water is formed as a result of the flooding of abandoned mines where the underground water a) reacts with a type of rock, pyrite, which releases iron and hydrogen ions b) reacts with sulfur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide to form sulfuric and nitric acids c) flushes out the chemicals used in the mining process d) permeates a limestone layer that lowers the pH e) reacts with copper and aluminum to form pyrite rock and hydrogen ions
answer

a) reacts with a type of rock, pyrite, which releases iron and hydrogen ions
question

all of the following are problems that result from the use of pesticides except a) most pesticides are not target-specific and kill other related and nonrelated species b) pesticide runoff enters surface waters and increases the solubility of heavy metals c) pesticides affect nontarget organisms by changing community relationships d) pesticides target specific physiological functions, but also disrupt other functions e) most inert ingredients are not tested for safety and may pose unacceptable risks
answer

a) most pesticides are not target-specific and kill other related and nonrelated species
question

all of the following are the result of the exxon valdez oil tanker running aground off the coast of alaska in 1989 except a)millions of gallons of crude oil spread over the ocean and shoreline b)thousands of animals were killed; some species have recovered, others have not c) the oil that contaminated the shoreline is now completely broken down d) exxon paid $500 million in damages and changed the name of the ship e) all oil tankers in north america must have a double-hull design to resist leaking
answer

c) the oil that contaminated the shoreline is now completely broken down
question

successful remediation of oil spills floating on the surface of the ocean from leaking oil tankers or off-shore platforms includes which of the following? I containment and vacuuming up the oil II high-pressure hot water III chemicals that break down oil
answer

d) I and III
question

all of the following are nonchemical forms of water pollution except a) industrial waste b) solid waste or garbage c) sediments d) noise e) thermal pollution
answer

a) industrial waste
question

which of the following provisions is defined in the Safe Drinking Water Act? a) support the protection and propagation of fish, shellfish , wildlife, and recreation in and on the water b) maintain and restore the chemical physical, and biological properties of natural waters c) protect the abundance and diversity of various species in and on the water d) issue permits to control how much pollution industries can discharged into the water e) establish maximum contaminant levels (MCLS) for specific substances in both surface water and groundwater
answer

e) establish maximum contaminant levels (MCLS) for specific substances in both surface water and groundwater
question

the passage of water-pollution legislation is most likely to occur when a) a developing country is still in the process of industrialization and rapid population growth b) a developed country has experienced industrialization and can afford the control measures demanded by its citizens c) a developing country has not yet industrialized and water quality is still good d) contaminating industries relocated in a developing country and begin to abuse the less-restrictive environmental laws e) nonpoint source of water pollution outnumber point sources
answer

b) a developed country has experienced industrialization and can afford the control measures demanded by its citizens
question

a pungent reddish-brown gas often associated with photochemical smog a) CO b) CH4 c) NO2 d) SO2 e) PM10
answer

c) NO2
question

a corrosive gas from burning coal often associated with industrial smog a) CO b) CH4 c) NO2 d) SO2 e) PM10
answer

d) SO2
question

a dangerous indoor air pollutant a) CO b) CH4 c) NO2 d) SO2 e) PM10
answer

a) CO
question

emitted from both diesel and burning wood a) CO b) CH4 c) NO2 d) SO2 e) PM10
answer

e) PM10
question

all of the following are examples of primary air pollutants except a) sulfur dioxide b) carbon dioxide c) tropospheric ozone d) nitrogen oxide e) particulates
answer

c) tropospheric ozone
question

the greatest emission of sulfur dioxide comes from a) on-road vehicles b) biofuels c) industrial processes d) electricity generation e) fires
answer

d) electricity generation
question

the least amount of nitrogen oxide emissions comes from a) on-road vehicles b) fossil fuel combustion c) industrial processes d) electricity generation e) fires
answer

c) industrial processes
question

the accumulation of tropospheric ozones at night depends mainly upon the atmospheric concentration of a) nitrogen diozide b) volatile organics c) chlorofluorocarbons d) sulfates and nitrates e) nitric acid
answer

b) volatile organics
question

under the natural conditions the pH of rainfall is closest to a) 8.5 b) 7.1 c) 5.6 d) 4.5 e) 3.1
answer

c) 5.6
question

the effects of acid deposition include all of the following except a) mobilization of metal ions from the soil into surface water b) increased numbers of salamanders in ponds and streams c) lower food sources for aquatic organisms d) erosion of marble buildings and statues e) erosion of painted automobile finishes and metals
answer

b) increased numbers of salamanders in ponds and streams
question

the world health organization estimates that over half of the deaths worldwide due to indoor air pollution occur among a) children less than 5 years old b) elderly people over 65 years of age c) people who work in office buildings d) workers in the smelting industry e) workers who manufacture asbestos
answer

a) children less than 5 years old
question

two major factors involved in the conversion of primary pollutants into secondary pollutants are a) sunlight and water b) sulfates and sunlight c) water and volatile organics d) nitrogen oxides and sulfates e) sulfur and dioxide and sulfuric acid
answer

a) sunlight and water
question

the pollutant least likely to be emitted from a smokestack would be a) carbon monoxide b) carbon dioxide c) ozone d)sulfur dioxide e) particulates
answer

c) ozone
question

the EPA identifies all of the following as reasons for sick building syndrome except a) faulty ventilation systems b) emissions from outdoor air c) contamination from outdoor air d) contamination from molds and pollen e)high levels of radon in the basement
answer

c) contamination from outdoor air
question

which statement regarding the decreased levels of stratospheric ozone is correct a) increased photosynthetic activity has been measured in the phytoplankton around antartica b)the largest decreased in the level of stratospheric ozone over the arctic region occurs between jan and april c) although the montreal protocol led to a reductionin the use of CFCs it will have little effect on stratospheric ozone levels in the long term d) there is no correlation between the incidence of cataracts and skin cancers and the lower levels of stratospheric ozone e) the global crop yields of wheat, rice, and corn have increased since the reduction in the CFC use
answer

b)the largest decreased in the level of stratospheric ozone over the arctic region occurs between jan and april
question

the types of ultraviolet radiation most strongly absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere is/are a)UV-A b) UV-B c) UV-C d) UV-B and UV-C e) UV-A and UV-B
answer

d) UV-B and UV-C
question

natural sources of air pollution include all of the following except a) forest fires b) volcanic eruptions c) waterfalls d) dust storms e) conifer trees
answer

c) waterfalls
question

a thermal inversion a) rarely occurs in cities but is common in rural areas b) helps remove pollutants from the atmosphere c) leads to decreased amounts of ground-level smog d) occurs when a warm air layer overlies a cooler layer e) occurs when a cool air layer overlies a warmer layer
answer

d) occurs when a warm air layer overlies a cooler layer
question

Which of the following isnt true regarding the Chesapeake bay -it is one of many small estuaries along the east coast of US -large amount of sediment travels down the watershed into the bay -it receives anthropogenic chemicals tht adversely affect the fish pops -it recieves nutrients from sewage treatment facilities -it esperiences algal blooms from the fertilizers used on the land of its watershed
answer

-it is one of many small estuaries along the east coast of US
question

a direct enviro benefit resulting from the Chesapeake bay action plan was -the partnership among states that share land around the bay -goals to limit the impact of dangerous compounds entering the watershed of the bay – 60% increase in pop of blue crabs in one year -state governors goals for their individual waterfronts -the money saved by reducing the amount of nitrogen and phosphorous compounds by agricultural sources
answer

– 60% increase in pop of blue crabs in one year
question

diff. btn a point source and a nonpoint source is -a non point source is easily identifiable -point sources can be targeted for reduction -nonpoint sources tend to be factory outputs -point sources tend to be agricultural in nature -nonpoint sources are less harmful to the environment
answer

-point sources can be targeted for reduction
question

which of the following are types of wastewater 1)sewage water from toilets 2) water from showering and bathing 3) water from washing clothes
answer

1,2,3
question

human wastewater entering into bodies of water can be dangerous b/c 1)it causes a drop in biological oxygen demand 2) it can lead to cultural eutrophication 3)wastewater can carry pathogens
answer

2, 3
question

BOD measurement of a liter of healthy water was found to be 20 mg. the BOD measurement of liter of more polluted water was 120 mg. which of the following statements is correct -healthy water produced 6 times as much oxygen as the polluted water -polluted water produced 6 times as much oxygen as healthy water water -healthy water consumed 6 times as much oxygen as the polluted water – polluted water consumed 6 times as much oxygen as the healthy water -none
answer

– polluted water consumed 6 times as much oxygen as the healthy water
question

dead zones such as one in the gulf of mexico tht exists off of the coast of louisiana, r characterized by all of the following xcept -reduced number of shellfish -fish die-off events -low oxygen conc. in the water -low nitrogen conc. -reduced number of marine plant species
answer

-low nitrogen conc.
question

put the events leading to cultural eutrophication in correct order, w- leaching of nutrients from fertilized agricultural lands x- fish die-off y- algal bloom
answer

w,y,x
question

a man made pond constructed to hold animal waste is called -septic tank -manure lagoon -feed lot -leach field -sewage treatment plant
answer

-manure lagoon
question

which of the following diseases is not caused by wastewater exposure -cryptosporidium -cholera -thyoid fever -stomach flu -HIV
answer

-HIV
question

the WHO estimates tht approx. 1.1 billion people worldwide do not have access to sufficient safe water supplies. this number represents about ___ of world pop. -1/20 -1/10 -1/6 -1/4 -1/3
answer

-1/6
question

tests on wtaer can be used to indicate the likelihood of human wastewater contamination by testing for indicator species such as -cryptosporidium -fecal coliform bacteria -vibrio cholerea bacteria -influenza -salmonella typhi bacteria
answer

-fecal coliform bacteria
question

enviro advantages of septic tanks include all of the following except -gravity is used to move the water -water is returned to the local environment -sewage is broken down by natural means -no byproducts of water treatment remain -harmful pathogens can be degraded by soil microorganisms
answer

-no byproducts of water treatment remain
question

what is the 1st step of treating wastewater @ a municipal sewage treatment plant -use of bacteria to break down organic matter -solid waste material settles out – disinfection using chlorine or ozone -water is removed from sludge -water undergoes aeration reduce offensive odors
answer

-solid waste material settles out
question

the most prevalent way 2 treat human waste in rural areas where a large amount of land is available is -septic systems -sewage treatment plants -manure lagoons -stormwater drainage systems -collective ponds
answer

-septic systems
question

primary treatment in sewage treatment plant is designed to -removed pathogens from wastewater -remove solids from wastewater -create sludge for use as fertilizer -move water from municipalities to the plant -recycle water
answer

-remove solids from wastewater
question

to decrease the likelihood of cultural eutrophication from the effluent released from a water treatment facility sewage plants may include a -secondary treatment of using bacteria to breakdown algae -secondary treatment of using ozone for disinfection -secondary treatment of removing nitrogen and phosphorous -tertiary treatment of removing nitrogen an phosphorous -tertiary treatment of using bacteria to breakdown algae
answer

-secondary treatment of removing nitrogen and phosphorous
question

which of the following is a possible end result for sludge from a sewage treatment plant 1)deposited in a landfill 2)incinerated 3) used as a fertilizer
answer

1,2,3
question

which of the following is not related to overflows of sewage in the US -human illness due to the eating of contaminated shellfish -human illness due to swimming in contaminated waters -human illness due to drinking of contaminated waters -pumping of untreated water from plants due to heavy rain events -all
answer

-all
question

an important enviro safety feature of manure lagoons is -a ledge for the cattle to walk on -liner to prevent leakage into groundwater -the use of disinfectants to treat manure -secondary treatment to remove antibiotics -an adequate water supply
answer

-liner to prevent leakage into groundwater
question

given feedlot of about 1200 cows if an individual cow produces about 5 liters of manure a day how many liters of manure would be produced in a months time -60 kl -600 kl -180 kl -1800 l -1800 kl
answer

-1800 kl
question

bacteria are beneficial to wastewater treatment b/c -they help solid material to settle out of the wastewater -they naturally breakdown organic matter -the nutrients produced are beneficial to the treated water -1 and 2 -all
answer

-1 and 2
question

which pollutant is most likely to be naturally released into groundwater supplies w/out human intervention -phosphates -lead -arsenic -mercury -sulfates
answer

-arsenic
question

what health threat is commonly found in the water of older homes due to old plumbing systems -lead -sulfates -mercury -arsenic -phosphates
answer

-lead
question

what pollutant is often released during the manufacturing of cement -phosphates -sulfates -arsenic -mercury -lead
answer

-mercury
question

heavy metal associated w/ burning coal is -lead -uranium -sulfur -mercury -carbon
answer

-mercury
question

mercury is especially dangerous to the general public due to -its accumulation as it moves up the aquatic food chain -the incineration of household waste -lack of regulation against emissions in the Us -effect on the respiratory system of infants -occurring naturally in bedrock
answer

-its accumulation as it moves up the aquatic food chain
question

the resulting acid deposition from si2 emission can occur as -acidic rain -acidic snow -dry-acid deposition -1 and 2 -all
answer

all
question

a low ph in water bodies can result from all of the following except -passing water through limestone treatment facilities -acid rain -flooded abandoned underground mines -mountaintop mining -acid snow
answer

-flooded abandoned underground mines
question

concerns over the wide use of synthetic pesticides include all of the following unintended effects xcept -pesticide may be lethal 2 nontarget species as well as target species -pesticide use leads to an altered species composition of the community -chemistry of the inert ingredients physiological side effects on pest and nonpest species -acidification of nearby streams
answer

-acidification of nearby streams
question

a class of carcinogens formerly used in the production of plastics are -reproductive hormones -DDT -PCBs -PBDEs -perchlorates
answer

-PCBs
question

what substance is believed to be responsible for the development of eggs in the testes of some male fish -DDT -PBDEs -perchlorates -reproductive hormones -PCBs
answer

-reproductive hormones
question

components of rocket fuel tht affect the thyroid gland and proper hormone production are called -perchlorates -PCBs -PDDEs -reproductive hormones -DDT
answer

-perchlorates
question

problems w/ the class of synthetic organic compounds called polybrominated diphenyl ethers include all of the following xcpet -presence of the compounds in human breast milk -common use of the compounds on childrens clothing -exposure of some types of the compounds can lean to brain damage -effect of the compounds on invertebrates -presence of the compounds in the aquatic food chain
answer

-effect of the compounds on invertebrates
question

it is estimated tht initially the deepwater horizon oil platform accident released 53000 barrels per day. at one barrel equivalent to 42 gallons tht would result in roughly ___ gallons per day
answer

2 million
question

possible sources of petroleum in the ocean waters include all of the following xcept -naturally occurring plumes from oceanic trenches -natural seeps from the ocean floor -oil tanker transportation -oil platform leaks -tanker or platform accidents
answer

-naturally occurring plumes from oceanic trenches
question

which pollutants are most likely to create eutrophic areas -nitrates and phosphates -synthetic organic compounds -heavy metals -solid waster -pharmaceuticals
answer

-nitrates and phosphates
question

methods used to remove spilled oil from the surface of the ocean include 1) containment boom and oil vacuums 2) chemical dispersant 3) large screens
answer

1,2
question

negative enviro. effects of using high pressure water hoses on rocky coastlines contaminated with spilled oil include all of the following xcept -removal of fine grained sediment -displacement of native plant life -washing away microorganisms -cost of energy to heat water to make steam -many organisms were unable to recolonize the coastline
answer

-cost of energy to heat water to make steam
question

genetically engineered bacteria are useful in the remediation of -synthetic organic compounds -oil spills -nitrates and phosphates -heavy metals -sedimentation
answer

-oil spills
question

the material rotation in the north pacific gyre can best be described as -solid waste composed of mostly plastics -organic waster dumped from cruise ships -medical waste dumped by the Us -coal slag dumped by china -solid waste from countries without landfills
answer

-solid waste composed of mostly plastics
question

the pollution of waterways creating conditions in which productivity is decreased and gills of bottom dwelling organisms are clogged is due to -erosion and sedimentation -runoff and flooding -urbanization -mining dams -thermal pollution
answer

-erosion and sedimentation
question

using water for industrial processes within a closed system where the hot water is cooled in a tower and then recycled for heating again reduces -thermal pollution by not releasing heated water into nature -the ambient temp of local area -the need for cogeneration -the effects of sedimentation -noise pollution by containing the movt. of water
answer

-thermal pollution by not releasing heated water into nature
question

noise pollution in water is a significant prob for what animal
answer

whales
question

federal water pollution control act of 1948 was the precursor legislation to the
answer

clean water act
question

clean water act 1) protects surface waters 2) protects groundwater 3) protects the diversity of aquatic species
answer

1 and 3
question

the Us legislation that empowers the EPA to establish max. contaminant levels in drinking water is -clean water act -superfund act -clean air act -MCL act -safe drinking water act
answer

-safe drinking water act
question

the enviro costs of moving contaminating industries from developed countries to developing countries include 1) less restrictive enviro laws 2) dense human pops. 3) additional pollution in the developing countries
answer

1,2,3
question

for which substances does the EPA allow MCL of 0 drinking water -giardia and fecal coloform -giardia and arsenic -mercury and atrazine -mercury and fecal coliform -benzene and mercury
answer

-giardia and fecal coloform
question

a green wastewater treatment process includes all of the folowing xcept -use of holding tanks -on-property wetland -use of microbes and algae -use of chemicals to remove harmful bacteria -use of pipes to move water
answer

-use of chemicals to remove harmful bacteria
question

one of the economic costs of green wastewater treatment is -large amount of water required -large amount of chemicals required -contaminated fruits tht are produced by the wastewater treatment process -fuel requires to heat the facilities during the winter in northern latitudes -solids remaining after the treatment process
answer

-fuel requires to heat the facilities during the winter in northern latitudes
question

waste from which of the following is an ex of a nonpoint source of water pollution -waste overflow from a water treatment plant dye to excessive rains -mercury emissions from coal burning power plants -runoff from sprayed agricultural fields -dumping at a abandoned landfill -acid drainage from an empty mine
answer

-runoff from sprayed agricultural fields
question

1) Is the following statement True or False? In the 60’s and 70’s, The problems with water systems were being dealt with in an uneven manner across the nation leading to Federal policy to regulate water supplies. a. True b. False
answer

a. True
question

2) Federal policy regulating water supplies consists of the __________ enacted December of 1974. a. Safe Drinking Water Act b. Primacy Act c. Florida Acts and Codes d. Primary Regulations
answer

a. Safe Drinking Water Act
question

3) Is the following statement True or False? The Public water system definition is “any system providing to the public piped water for human consumption.” a. True b. False
answer

b. False
question

4) A Public water system has at least 15 service connections or regularly serves an average of at least _____ individuals daily at least 60 days out of the year. a. 25 b. 100 c. 3300 d. 10,000
answer

a. 25
question

5) Is the following statement True or False? A Community Water System is a public water system that serves at least 15 service connections used by year-round residents. a. True b. False
answer

a. True
question

6) Is the following statement True or False? A Non-Community Water System is a public water system that serves at least 15 service connections used by people at most 60 days out of the year. a. False b. True
answer

a. False
question

7) Is the following statement True or False? The main difference between community and non-community water systems is that the former serves inhabitants and the latter serves transients or non residents who otherwise do not permanently inhabit the building served by the system. a. True b. False
answer

a. True
question

8) __________ is a non-community water system which serves at least 25 of the same persons six months out of the year. a. A Non Transient Non-Community Water System b. A Non-Community Water System c. A Community Water System d. A Water System
answer

a. A Non Transient Non-Community Water System
question

9) The Safe Drinking Water Act establishes Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) for all of the following EXCEPT: a. aesthetic contaminants b. radioactive contaminants c. microbiological contaminants d. turbidity
answer

d. turbidity
question

10) Is the following statement True or False? Public notification is in specific instances is a Florida requirement and is not part of the Safe Drinking Water Act. a. True b. False
answer

a. True
question

11) Is the following statement True or False? Informing the public about shortcomings of its water supply is left to the discretion of the water purveyor to avoid panic and mass hysteria. a. False b. True
answer

a. False
question

12) Is the following statement True or False? Notifying the general public of bacteriological contamination must be listed in the CCR as well as providing immediate notification. a. True b. False
answer

a. True
question

13) Is the following statement True or False? Florida has adoptrd standards that were equal or less stringent than those in the SDWA based on regional conditions. a. False b. True
answer

b. True
question

14) Is the following statement True or False? The purpose of the Secondary Drinking Water Regulations regulation was to provide an aesthetically appealing water, thereby discouraging consumers from using an alternate potentially unsafe source. a. True b. False
answer

a. True
question

15) Is the following statement True or False? The average consumer bases the evaluation of the quality of water on their senses. a. True b. False
answer

a. True
question

16) Is the following statement True or False? Secondary or Aesthetic contaminant levels of water are enforceable. a. False b. True
answer

b. True
question

17) Is the following statement True or False? Non-community systems generally supply drinking water to residential and institutional users who might be exposed to dangerous levels of contaminants for extended periods of time. a. False b. True
answer

a. False
question

18) Is the following statement True or False? Non-community systems generally supply drinking water to transients or non residents, who might be exposed to dangerous levels of contaminants for lesser periods of time. a. True b. False
answer

a. True
question

19) Which of the following is not a Community Water System? a. Medical care facilities b. Mobile home parks c. Condominiums d. Housing developments, public and private
answer

a. Medical care facilities
question

20) Which of the following is a Non-Transient Non-Community Water System? a. Residential schools b. Public buildings c. Restaurants and other food service places d. Highway rest areas
answer

a. Residential schools
question

The infiltration of pollutants into groundwater a. is rare in areas with sandy soils because water flows through them easily. b. is impossible in areas that were at one time connected with an ocean. c. is most likely in geologic regions with basaltic bedrock. d. is common in areas with sandy soils because water flows through them easily. e. is common in areas with clay soils because water flows through them easily.
answer

D
question

A heavy metal associated with the burning of coal is a. mercury. b. sulfur. c. carbon. d. uranium. e. lead.
answer

A
question

A class of carcinogens formerly used in the production of plastics is a. PBDEs. b. reproductive hormones. c. DDT. d. PCBs. e. perchlorates.
answer

D
question

The environmental costs of moving contaminating industries from developed countries to developing countries include I. less restrictive environmental laws. II. dense human populations. III. additional pollution in the developing country. a. I, II, and III b. II and III only c. I only d. II only e. I and III only
answer

A
question

Two common water pollutants that threaten human health over time are ______ , commonly found in the water of older homes due to old plumbing systems and _______, often released during the manufacturing of cement. a. lead, mercury b. arsenic, lead c. mercury, arsenic d. phosphates, sulfates e. sulfates, arsenic
answer

A
question

Methods used to remove spilled oil from the surface of the ocean include I. containment booms and oil vacuums. II. chemical dispersants. III. large screens. a. I only b. II only c. I, II, and III d. I and III e. I and II
answer

E
question

Possible sources of petroleum in the ocean waters include all of the following EXCEPT a. oil platform leaks. b. naturally occurring plumes from oceanic trenches. c. oil tanker transportation. d. tanker or platform accidents. e. natural seeps from the ocean floor.
answer

B
question

The BOD measurement of a liter of healthy water was found to be 20 mg. The BOD measurement of a liter of more polluted water was 120 mg. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The healthy water produced six times as much oxygen as the polluted water. b. The polluted water produced six times as much oxygen as the healthy water. c. The healthy water consumed six times as much oxygen as the polluted water. d. The polluted water consumed six times as much oxygen as the healthy water. e. None of the above
answer

D
question

To decrease the likelihood of cultural eutrophication from the effluent released from a water-treatment facility, sewage plants may include a a. secondary treatment of removing nitrogen and phosphorous. b. secondary treatment of using ozone for disinfection. c. tertiary treatment of removing nitrogen and phosphorous. d. tertiary treatment of using bacteria to breakdown algae. e. secondary treatment of using bacteria to breakdown algae.
answer

C
question

The Clean Water Act I. protects surface waters. II. protects groundwater. III. protects the diversity of aquatic species. a. II only b. I only c. I and III only d. I and II only e. I, II, and III
answer

C
question

Components of rocket fuel that affect the thyroid gland and proper hormone production are called a. DDT. b. PCBs. c. PBDEs. d. perchlorates. e. reproductive hormones.
answer

D
question

The United States legislation that empowers the EPA to establish maximum contaminant levels in drinking water is the a. Clean Water Act. b. Superfund Act. c. Clean Air Act. d. Safe Drinking Water Act. e. MCL Act.
answer

D
question

Problems with the class of synthetic organic compounds called polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs) include all of the following EXCEPT a. the common use of the compounds on children’s clothing. b. the effect of the compounds on invertebrates. c. the presence of the compounds in human breast milk. d. the presence of the compounds in the aquatic food chain. e. exposure of some types of the compounds can lead to brain damage.
answer

B
question

A low pH in water bodies can result from all of the following EXCEPT a. flooded, abandoned underground mines. b. acid snow c. passing water through limestone treatment facilities. d. acid rain. e. mountaintop mining.
answer

C
question

Bacteria are beneficial to wastewater treatment because a. they naturally break down organic matter. b. they help solid material to settle out of the wastewater. c. the nutrients produced are beneficial to the treated water. d. Both A and B e. All of the above
answer

A
question

Tests on water can be used to indicate the likelihood of human wastewater contamination by testing for indicator species such as a. fecal coliform bacteria. b. Cryptosporidium. c. Salmonella Typhi bacteria. d. Vibrio Cholerae bacteria. e. Influenza.
answer

A
question

Dead zones, such as the one in the Gulf of Mexico that exists off the coast of Louisiana, are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a. a reduced number of shellfish. b. low nitrogen concentrations. c. low oxygen concentrations in the water. d. fish die-off events. e. a reduced number of marine plant species.
answer

B
question

Put the events leading to cultural eutrophication in the correct order. W – leaching of nutrients from fertilized agricultural lands X – fish die-off Y – algal bloom a. W->Y->X b. Y->X->W c. X->W->Y d. W->X->Y e. X->Y->W
answer

A
question

The difference between a point source and a nonpoint source of water pollution is that a. nonpoint sources are less harmful to the environment. b. point sources can be targeted for reduction. c. a nonpoint source is easily identifiable. d. point sources tend to be agricultural in nature. e. nonpoint sources tend to be factory outputs
answer

B
question

For which substances does the EPA allow an MCL (maximum contaminant level) of 0 in drinking water? a. Benzene and mercury b. Mercury and atrazine c. Mercury and fecal coliform d. Giardia and fecal coliform e. Giardia and arsenic
answer

D
question

The Federal Water Pollution control Act of 1948 was the precursor legislation to the a. Superfund Legislation b. Clean Water Act c. Cradle to Grave Legislation d. Clean Air Act e. Endangered Species Act.
answer

B
question

Environmental advantages of septic tanks include all of the following EXCEPT a. gravity is used to move the water. b. no byproducts of water treatment remain. c. water is returned to the local environment. d. sewage is broken down by natural means. e. harmful pathogens can be degraded by soil microorganisms.
answer

B
question

One of the economic costs of “green” wastewater treatment is a. the large amount of chemicals required. b. the solids remaining after the treatment process. c. the fuel required to heat the facilities during the winter in northern latitudes. d. the contaminated fruits that are produced by the wastewater treatment process. e. the large amount of water required.
answer

C
question

What is the first step of treating wastewater at a municipal sewage treatment plant? a. Water undergoes aeration to reduce offensive odors b. Disinfection using chlorine or ozone c. Water is removed from sludge d. Use of bacteria to break down organic matter e. Solid waste material settles out
answer

E
question

Human wastewater entering into bodies of water can be dangerous because I. it causes a drop in the biological oxygen demand. II. it can lead to cultural eutrophication. III. the wastewater can carry pathogens. a. I, II, and III b. II only c. I only d. II and III e. III only
answer

D
question

Given a feedlot of about 1200 cows, if an individual cow produces about 50 liters of manure a day, how many liters of manure would be produced in a month’s time? a. 1800 L b. 1800 kL c. 180 kL d. 60 kL e. 600 kL
answer

B
question

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Chesapeake Bay?
answer

it is one of many small estuaries along the east coast of the United States
question

The difference between a point source and a nonpoint source of water pollution is
answer

point sources can be targeted for reduction
question

Which of the following are types of wastewater?
answer

I, II, and III
question

Human wastewater entering into bodies of water can be dangerous because
answer

II and III only
question

Dead zones, such as the one in the Gulf of Mexico that exists off the coast of Louisiana, are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
answer

low nitrogen concentrations
question

Put the events leading to cultural eutrophication in the correct order W – leaching of nutrients from fertilized agricultural lands X – fish die-off Y – algal bloom
answer

W->Y->X
question

A man-made pond constructed to hold animal waste is called a
answer

manure lagoon
question

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by wastewater exposure?
answer

HIV
question

Use Figure 14-1. A country with approximately one sixth of the world’s population and reported incidences of cholera is
answer

country C
question

Environmental advantages of septic tanks include all of the following EXCEPT
answer

no byproducts of water treatment remain
question

What is the first step of treating wastewater at a municipal sewage treatment plant?
answer

Solid waste material settles out
question

Primary treatment in a sewage treatment plant is designed to
answer

remove solids from wastewater
question

Which of the following is a possible end result for sludge from a sewage treatment plant? I. Deposited in a landfill II. Incinerated III. Used as a fertilizer
answer

I, II, and III
question

Bacteria are beneficial to wastewater treatment because
answer

they naturally break down organic matter
question

What health threat is commonly found in the water of older homes due to old plumbing systems?
answer

lead
question

Mercury is especially dangerous to the general public due to
answer

its accumulation as it moves up the aquatic food chain
question

Use Figure 14-2. It can be interpreted from the graph that the greatest environmental threat due to acid deposition most likely occurred
answer

In the 1980s
question

Use Figure 14-2. The SO2 emissions in 2009 are about half the amount of the emissions of
answer

2000
question

The resulting acid deposition from SO2 emissions can occur as
answer

all of the above are forms of acid deposition
question

Use Figure 14-3. The highest concentrations of mercury in 2008 are found
answer

in the desert southwest states
question

Use Figure 14-3. According to the data on the map, the coastal area most likely to be affected by mercury in the ocean waters would be
answer

the Gulf of Mexico
question

What substance is believed to be responsible for the development of eggs in the testes of some male fish?
answer

Reproductive hormones
question

It is estimated that initially the Deepwater Horizon oil platform accident released 53,000 barrels per day. At one barrel equivalent to 42 gallons that would result in roughly ____ gallons per day.
answer

2 million
question

Use Figure 14-4. Which of the following areas would be associated with the most nutrient output?
answer

Gulf of Mexico
question

Which pollutant or pollutants are most likely to create eutrophic areas?
answer

nitrates and phosphates
question

Methods used to remove spilled oil from the surface of the ocean include I. containment boom and oil vacuums II. chemical dispersants III. large screens
answer

I and II only
question

The Federal Water Pollution control Act of 1948 was the precursor legislation to the
answer

Clean Water Act
question

The United States legislation that empowers the EPA to establish maximum contaminant levels in drinking water is
answer

The Safe Drinking Water Act
question

For which substances does the EPA allow a MCL (maximum contaminant level) of 0 in drinking water?
answer

Giardia and Fecal coliform
question

Use Figure 14-5. The use of the Safe Water System provided the most significant results in which country?
answer

Uzbekistan
question

Which is NOT a drawback of clear-cutting? a. High cost compared to other harvest methods b.The possibility of raising water temperatures c. Herbicide use prior to replanting d. Lack of shelter for wildlife e. Increased soil erosion
answer

(a) high cost compared to other harvest methods
question

What is the benefit of an environmental impact statement? a. It ensures the availability of an environmental mitigation plan. b. It explores whether or not a project would be well served by multi-use zoning. c. It guarantees that landowners will do minimal damage to their land. d. It ensures that developers assess environmental impacts of a project. e. It reduces the likelihood of creating urban sprawl
answer

(d) it ensures that developers assess environmental impacts of a project
question

Use Figure 10-2. What was the approximate U.S. population in 2000? a. 280 million b. 330 million c. 180 million d. 200 million e. 150 million
answer

(a) 280 million
question

Use Figure 10-1. The United States has a total land area of about 980,000,000 hectares. Approximately how many hectares are used for cropland? a. 245,000,000 hectares b. 98,000,000 hectares c. 196,000,000 hectares d. 19,600,000 hectares e. 9,800,000 hectares
answer

(c) 196,000,000 hectares
question

Use Figure 10-1. The United States has a total land area of about 980,000,000 hectares. Approximately how many hectares are used for recreational and wildlife lands? a. 19,600,000 hectares b. 9,800,000 hectares c. 245,000,000 hectares d. 196,000,000 hectares e. 107,500,000 hectares
answer

(e) 107,500,000 hectares
question

Public lands in the United States are categorized for use based on the managing agency. In general U.S. Forestry Service (USFS) lands are used for a. recreation and conservation. b. wildlife conservation, hunting, and recreation. c. preservation. d. grazing, mining, timber harvesting, and recreation. e. timber harvesting, grazing, and recreation.
answer

(e) timber harvesting, grazing, and recreation
question

Which factor is most responsible for urban sprawl? a. Increasing pollution from industry b. Breakdown of traditional neighborhoods c. Increased mobility of a population due to the advent of the automobile d. Urban blight e. Zoning laws that separated societal functions such as work and culture centers
answer

(c) increased mobility of a population due to the advent of the automobile
question

In theory, a population grows most quickly at ____ percent of the environment’s carrying capacity. a. 75 b. 50 c. 100 d. 10 e. 25
answer

(b) 50
question

Which of the following is NOT associated with urban sprawl in the United States? a. Lower population densities make services such as mass transit economically prohibitive. b. Air pollution increases because of reliance on personal vehicles for transportation. c. Distance between work, goods, services, and home prevents pedestrian travel. d. The average number of miles driven annually has tripled over the past 50 years. e. Suburban housing is mixed in with shopping and offices.
answer

(e) suburban housing is mixed in with shopping and offices
question

The tendency of a shared, limited resource to become depleted because people act out of self-interest for short-term gain is generally referred to as a. Communism. b. Capitalism. c. the Hardin effect. d. the tragedy of the commons. e. the invisible hand.
answer

(d) the tragedy of the commons
question

Which does smart growth NOT advocate? a. Mixed land use b. Creating a range of housing choices c. Preservation of open spaces d. Transportation choice e. Moving development away from existing neighborhoods
answer

(e) moving development away from existing neighborhoods
question

Which nation has the largest percentage of publically held land? a. China b. The United States c. Costa Rica d. Russia e. India
answer

(b) the United States
question

Public lands in the United States are categorized for use based on the managing agency. In general Bureau of Land Management (BLM) lands are used for a. wildlife conservation, hunting, and recreation. b. timber harvesting, grazing, and recreation. c. preservation. d. grazing, mining, timber harvesting, and recreation. e. recreation and conservation.
answer

(d) grazing, mining, timber harvesting, and recreation
question

The U.S. government receives royalties for use of public lands from timber companies. After considering costs of management and upkeep this typically translates into a. 15 percent profit for the government. b. 50 percent profit for the government. c. 25 percent profit for the government. d. net loss for the government. e. 5 percent profit for the government.
answer

(d) net loss for the government
question

Sandhills Mall is a high-end mall that includes shopping, artist studios, and an apartment complex. Sandhills Mall is most likely a. zoned for multi-use. b. zoned for single-occupancy. c. the result of induced demand. d. contributing to urban blight. e. the result of urban blight.
answer

(a) zoned for multi-use
question

National wildlife refuges are usually managed by a. National Park Service b. Bureau of Land Management c. Federal Wildlife Service d. United States Forest Service e. Both the National Park Service and the Bureau of Land Management
answer

(c) Federal Wildlife Service
question

Most zoning laws in the United States a. follow the principles of smart growth. b. favor main street style mixed use development. c. do not specify the number of parking spaces required for shopping areas. d. favor automobile-dependent development. e. require housing for multiple income levels be developed together.
answer

(d) favor automobile-dependent development
question

Which development strategy can help reinvigorate urban areas? a. Compact building design b. Infill c. Mixed land use d. All of the above e. Transit oriented development
answer

(e) transit oriented development
question

Which is the most common complaint about the Taylor Grazing Act? a. The government spends more to manage rangeland than it receives in permit fees. b. It allows too much grazing to take place and the land is becoming barren. c. The fences erected as a result of this legislation are harmful to wildlife. d. The land should be used for farming crops rather than grazing. e. The taxes on grazing animals are too high for farmers to make a profit.
answer

(a) the government spends more to manage rangeland than it receives in permit fees
question

The northern Atlantic Coast of the United States is the principal habitat for the American lobster (Homarus americanus), a popular seafood item. However, populations of American lobster have been decreasing in southern New England. Which reason best explains this decline? a. Fishing vessels are catching lobster at a rate above the maximum sustainable yield. b. Catching lobster creates greater diversity. c. The lobsters have moved to warmer waters. d. Fishing vessels are catching lobster at a rate below the maximum sustainable yield e. The habitat is below the carrying capacity for lobster.
answer

(a) fishing vessels are catching lobster at a rate above the maximum sustainable yield
question

Massive forest fires that burn large areas and destroy forest canopy are most likely to benefit a. late succession species that are easily reestablished. b. apex species that dominated prior to the fire. c. density-dependent parasites such as bark boring species. d. mobile canopy species such as upper canopy warblers. e. early succession species seeking to fill a niche.
answer

(e) early succession species seeking to fill a niche
question

You and a friend decide to spend Saturday afternoon fishing in a nearby lake. Upon arrival, you notice massive algal blooms in the lake and dead fish floating on the surface. A scientist informs you that the cause was an accidental leakage at a biological waste treatment plant located upstream. This is an example of a. urban sprawl. b. overshooting maximum sustainable yield. c. lack of nutrients in the water. d. the tragedy of the commons. e. a negative externality.
answer

(e) a negative externality
question

In a tragedy of the commons situation where multiple farmers graze sheep on public lands a. the land will become barren from overgrazing. b. farmers share equally in all profits. c. the farmer with the fewest sheep will make the most profit. d. the maximum sustainable yield of the grass will increase. e. the farmer with the most sheep will make the least profit.
answer

(a) the land will become barren from overgrazing
question

The most common use of land in the United States is a. rangelands. b. plant agriculture for human consumption. c. urban landscape. d. forest. e. plant agriculture for animal consumption.
answer

(a) rangelands
question

Urban blight can best be described as the result of a. a negative feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services toward an urban center. b. a positive feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services away from an urban center. c. a positive feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services toward an urban center. d. a positive feedback loop involving tax revenue used to build roads which leads to urban exodus. e. a negative feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services away from an urban center.
answer

(b) a positive feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services away from an urban center
question

Land value can generally be quantified in terms of dollars. One notable exception is A. food value. B. shelter value. C. mineral value. D. natural resource value. E. intrinsic value.
answer

(e) intrinsic value
question

One example of the tragedy of the commons can occur when several farmers share the same pasture for feeding sheep. The root cause of this tragedy is that A. people are bad. B. sheep reproduce too quickly. C. the market cannot support too many farmers. D. the value to any farmer of adding one more sheep is far greater than the cost to that farmer due to the land being communal. E. the cost of the sheep is lessened by bulk purchase power.
answer

(d) the value to any farmer of adding one more sheep is far greater than the cost to that farmer due to the land being communal
question

4. The end result of the example of tragedy of the commons involving sheep is that A. the farmer with the most sheep ends up owning all of the land. B. the farmer with the fewest sheep ends up owning all of the land. C. the land becomes barren from overgrazing. D. all the farmers share equally in the profit from the land. E. None of the above
answer

(c) the land becomes barren from overgrazing
question

An example of a positive externality would be A. pollution removal from a natural wetland. B. pollution caused by production and use of petroleum products. C. loss of use of a forest after the timber is harvested. D. hydrologic regime change from impervious surfaces. E. an urban heat Island effect from blacktop.
answer

(a) pollution removal from a wetland
question

If a farmer overgrazes his sheep in a common pasture the end result is more harm than benefit. This example BEST demonstrates A. urban blight. B. an environmental externality. C. the invisible hand. D. the Hardin effect. E. free-market enterprise.
answer

(b) an environmental externality
question

One way to mitigate the effects of negative externalities is to A. create a completely free market. B. allow the invisible hand to work. C. include negative externalities in the cost of goods and services. D. construct highways. E. All of the above
answer

(c) include negative externalities in the cost of goods and services
question

Cave swallows make nests out of saliva, which some people then harvest to make expensive soup. If too many nests are harvested, then the swallows won’t be able to rear their young and the population will crash. When evaluating how many nests to harvest, we should focus on A. market forces such as the cost of bird’s nest soup. B. international policy. C. maximum sustainable yield. D. the tragedy of the commons. E. cave swallow cave preference.
answer

(c) maximum sustainable yeild
question

Approximately ____ % of the Earth’s land surface is considered “protected” by the United Nations. A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 75 E. 100
answer

(a) 10
question

Most environmental law, policy, and management plans in the United States are based on A. remediating externalities. B. ecological principles. C. economic forces. D. the resource conservation ethic. E. old English laws.
answer

(d) the resource conservation ethic
question

The type of site that is MOST likely to be a multiple-use land is a A. managed resource protected area. B. species management area. C. national monument. D. wilderness area. E. wildlife preserve.
answer

(a) managed resource protected area
question

The Taylor Grazing Act of 1934 was passed to A. allow more grazing of Bureau of Land Management (BLM) lands. B. limit grazing on Bureau of Land Management lands through a permit system. C. limit grazing on Bureau of Land Management lands through a large-scale fencing system. D. prevent grazing on Bureau of Land Management lands. E. tax grazing animals.
answer

(b) limit grazing on Bureau of land Management lands through a permit system
question

From an economic standpoint which forest harvesting technique is generally best? A. Clear-cutting B. Shelterbelt C. Shelter tree D. Selective cutting E. Ecologically sustainable forestry
answer

(a) clear-cutting
question

Which is NOT a problem with clear-cutting as a means of timber harvest? A. The possibility of raising water temperatures B. Increased soil erosion C. Lack of cover for certain wildlife D. Herbicide use prior to replanting E. High cost of clear-cutting when compared to other methods
answer

(e) high cost of clear-cutting when compared to other methods
question

Selective cutting has many benefits, which do NOT include A. mimicking natural canopy disturbances. B. optimum growth for sun-loving species. C. that mature trees that remain in the ecosystem aid in reseeding. D. that soil erosion is reduced when compared to clear-cutting. E. that the multi-age mosaic generally increases biodiversity.
answer

(b) optimum growth for sun-loving species
question

The major difference between the National Park Service (NPS) and the United States Forest Service (USFS) is that A. the NPS manages for people, whereas the USFS manages for trees. B. the NPS manages for ecosystems while the USFS manages for resource use. C. the NPS falls under the executive cabinet while USFS is legislative in nature. D. people can camp on NPS lands, but not on USFS lands. E. there is no real difference between management of NPS and USFS lands.
answer

(b) the NPS manages for ecosystems while the USFS manages for resource use
question

Before certain projects can begin in the United States, the project owner must file an EIS. The purpose of this is to A. discover whether the project would be well served by multi-use zoning. B. force land owners to proceed in the way that will have the least environmental impact. C. force land owners to file an environmental mitigation plan. D. reduce the likelihood of creating urban sprawl. E. force land owners to suggest alternative approaches to the project and assess the environmental impacts of those alternatives.
answer

(e) force land owners to suggest alternative approaches to the project and assess the environmental impacts of those alternatives
question

Currently, most of the U.S. population lives in ____ areas. A. rural B. suburban C. exurban D. urban E. superurban
answer

(b) suburban
question

Which of the following is NOT a result of urban sprawl? A. The average number of miles driven in the United States annually has tripled over the past 50 years. B. Due to larger parcel size, suburban populations use twice as much land area as similarly sized urban populations. C. Distance between work, goods, services, and home prevents pedestrian travel. D. Lower population densities make services such as mass transit economically prohibitive. E. Air pollution increases due to reliance on personal vehicles for transportation.
answer

(b) due to larger parcel size, suburban populations use twice as much land area as similarly sized urban populations
question

Which of the following is NOT a cause of urban sprawl? A. Automobiles B. Highway construction C. Government policies D. Urban blight E. Smart growth
answer

(e) smart growth
question

Induced demand, as it relates to urban sprawl, can best be described as A. a positive feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services away from an urban center. B. a negative feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services away from an urban center. C. a positive feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services toward an urban center. D. a negative feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services toward an urban center. E. a positive feedback loop involving the use of tax revenue to build roads, which leads to urban exodus.
answer

(e) a positive feedback loop involving the use of tax revenue to build roads, which leads to urban exodus
question

You are looking at two different houses. House #1 would have a daily 5-mile commute to work, while house #2 would have a daily 20-mile commute. How much more CO2 would you produce annually if you buy house #2? (Hint: Driving 1 mile produces 1.1 lb of CO2, and you work 240 days/year.) A. 1320 lb B. 3960 lb C. 5280 lb D. 9856 lb E. There is not enough information to tell.
answer

(b) 3960 lb
question

Smart growth includes all of the following precepts except A. mixed land use. B. creating a range of housing opportunities and choices. C. transportation choice. D. moving development away from existing substandard neighborhoods. E. preservation of open spaces.
answer

(d) moving development away from existing substandard neighborhoods
question

Public lands in the United States are categorized for use based on the managing agency. In general, Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) lands are used for A. grazing, mining, timber harvesting, and recreation. B. timber harvesting, grazing, and recreation. C. recreation and conservation. D. wildlife conservation, hunting, and recreation. E. primarily preservation.
answer

(d) wildlife conservation, hunting, and recreation
question

Public lands in the United States are categorized for use based on the managing agency. In general, National Park Service (NPS) lands are used for A. grazing, mining, timber harvesting, and recreation. B. timber harvesting, grazing, and recreation. C. recreation and conservation. D. wildlife conservation, hunting, and recreation. E. primarily preservation.
answer

(c) recreation and conservation
question

Public lands in the United States are categorized for use based on the managing agency. In general, U.S. Forestry Service (USFS) lands are used for A. grazing, mining, timber harvesting, and recreation. B. timber harvesting, grazing, and recreation. C. recreation and conservation. D. wildlife conservation, hunting, and recreation. E. primarily preservation.
answer

(b) timber harvesting, grazing, and recreation
question

The most common use of land in the United States is A. silviculture. B. plant agriculture for human consumption. C. plant agriculture for animal consumption. D. rangelands. E. urban landscape.
answer

(d) rangeland
question

Approximately ____ % of the forests used for commercial timber operations in the United States are privately owned. A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 75 E. 100
answer

(d) 75
question

The U.S. government receives royalties for use of public lands from timber companies. In general. this translates into A. 5% profit for the government (after considering costs of management and upkeep). B. 15% profit for the government (after considering costs of management and upkeep). C. 25% profit for the government (after considering costs of management and upkeep). D. 50% profit for the government (after considering costs of management and upkeep). E. net loss for the government (after considering costs of management and upkeep).
answer

(e) net loss for the government (after considering costs of management and upkeep)
question

North American (Canadian and U.S.) forests account for approximately ____ % of world commercial timber production. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 E. 50
answer

(c) 30
question

The best forest management techniques mimic natural processes. This is most likely to include A. clear-cutting to mimic natural disturbances such as wildfires and hurricanes. B. shelter tree cutting to mimic natural disturbances such as pine bark beetle infestations. C. selective burning to mimic natural disturbances such as pine bark beetle infestations. D. tree plantations of uniform age. E. allowing prescribed burns to remove accumulated dead biomass.
answer

(e) allowing prescribed burns to remove accumulated dead biomass
question

Which of the following is FALSE about the 1988 wildfires that burned through Yellowstone National Park? A. Drier than usual conditions all summer helped to cause the fires. B. Over the long term, the fires provided no benefits to the park ecosystems. C. More than a third of Yellowstone burned in 1988. D. Fires were caused by human activity and lightning strikes. E. Firefighting efforts succeeded in saving human lives and property.
answer

(b) over the long term, the fires provided no benefits to the park ecosystems
question

National wildlife refuges are managed primarily for the purpose of protecting wildlife. They are usually managed by A. FWS. B. BLM. C. USFS. D. NPS. E. whichever agency managed the land before the refuge was established.
answer

(a) FWS
question

The vast majority of wilderness areas in the United States exist in A. the southeastern states of South Carolina, Georgia, and Florida. B. the midwestern states of Wisconsin, Minnesota, and North Dakota. C. Texas and Hawaii. D. the western States (California, Oregon, and Washington). E. Alaska.
answer

(e) Alaska
question

One of the draws of suburban living is the higher standard of living per dollar spent. Which of the following does NOT contribute to this ratio? A. Higher tax rates in suburbia B. Fewer government services in suburbia C. Lower cost of land in suburbia D. Perceived feeling of openness in suburbia E. Higher tax rates in urban setting
answer

(a) higher tax rates in suburbia
question

Most zoning laws in the United States A. are too lax on the number of parking spaces required for shopping centers. B. still favor automobile-dependent development. C. now favor “main street” style mixed-use development. D. deny Euclidian zoning. E. require that housing for multiple income levels be developed in close proximity.
answer

(b) still favor automobile-dependent development
question

A neighborhood is considering redevelopment of its community and would like to invite all of the stakeholders to take part. The list of invitees may include all of the following EXCEPT A. residents of the neighborhood. B. businesses in or near the neighborhood. C. politicians whose constituents reside in the neighborhood. D. residents from nearby neighborhoods. E. people who live in a different area and are not affected by the redevelopment.
answer

(e) people who live in a different area and are not affected by the redevelopment
question

Transit-oriented development that seeks to move away from current transportation trends would likely include all of the following EXCEPT A. bicycle racks. B. light-rail system with frequent stops in high-density development. C. wide, attractive sidewalks. D. multiple parking lots in high-density developments. E. special lanes for bicycles and other alternative modes of transportation.
answer

(d) multiple parking lots in high-density developments
question

Another name for urban blight is the donut effect, due to the large swaths of underutilized lands surrounded by developed urban area. The main means to stop/reverse urban blight is through A. transit-oriented development. B. urban growth boundaries coupled with infill. C. mixed land use. D. Euclidian zoning. E. compact building design.
answer

(b) urban growth boundaries coupled with infill
question

Eminent domain is a tool that can be used to assist in smart growth. This tool allows A. citizens to sue the government if they feel that they are being ignored. B. citizens to sue the government if they feel that government practices are leading directly to urban blight. C. governments to force land-use restrictions on citizens to prevent urban blight. D. governments to force land-use restrictions on citizens to prevent any environmental problems (per the National Environmental Protection Act, NEPA). E. governments to acquire land at fair market value even if the owner does not wish to sell it.
answer

(e) governments to acquire land at fair market value even if the owner does not wish to sell it
question

If you could point to one root cause of urban sprawl, it would most likely be A. increased mobility of a population due to the advent of the automobile. B. zoning laws that separated societal functions such as work and culture centers. C. breakdown of traditional societal norms such as neighborhood gatherings. D. increasing pollutants from a more technological lifestyle. E. urban blight.
answer

(a) increased mobility of a population due to the advent of the automobile
question

The most difficult part of integrating TOD (transportation-oriented development) into existing urban settings is A. urbanites in developed areas already have a sense of identity and place that doesn’t include mass transit. B. urban areas rarely have infrastructure that can handle the rigors of mass transit. C. existing suburb-to-suburb routes do not lend themselves well to mass transit. D. mass transit is just not economically feasible in high population density urban environments. E. it will lead to a decrease in tax revenues, service fees will increase, and people will abandon the urban centers.
answer

(c) existing suburb-to-suburb routes do not lend themselves well to mass transit
question

A management system that includes prescribed burns will likely lead to I. large quantities of biomass accumulating on the forest floor. II. a decrease in the likelihood of uncontrolled natural fires. III. an increase in fire-dependent species. A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. II and III E. I, II, and III
answer

(d) II and III
question

A management system that includes fire suppression will likely lead to I. large quantities of biomass accumulating on the forest floor. II. an increase in the likelihood of uncontrolled natural fires. III. an increase in fire-dependent species. A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. II and III E. I, II, and III
answer

(b) I and II
question

Use Figure 10-1. The United States has experienced a shift in where its population lives over the last century. According to the figure above, in what decade were urban, suburban, and rural populations approximately equal? A. 1990s B. 1980s C. 1970s D. 1960s E. 1950s
answer

(d) 1960s
question

Use Figure 10-1. What was the approximate U.S. population in 1950? A. 150 million B. 180 million C. 230 million D. 260 million E. 330 million
answer

(a) 150 million
question

Use Figure 10-1. In approximately what year did the population residing in rural settings stop declining? A. 1950 B. 1960 C. 1970 D. 1980 E. 1990
answer

(e) 1990
question

Use Figure 10-1. What was the approximate U.S. population in 2000? A. 150 million B. 180 million C. 230 million D. 280 million E. 330 million
answer

(d) 280 million
question

Use Figure 10-1. Which setting showed the greatest overall growth rate? A. Urban B. Suburban C. Rural D. None of the settings showed overall growth. E. It is impossible to tell from the information given.
answer

(b) suburban
question

Use Figure 10-1. Urban populations grew approximately ____ % from 1970 to 1990. A. 5 B. 23 C. 58 D. 82 E. 145
answer

(b) 23
question

Use Figure 10-1. Rural populations decreased approximately ____ % from 1950 to 2000. A. 3 B. 8 C. 15 D. 28 E. 40
answer

(c) 15
question

Use Figure 10-1. In 2000, the suburban population was approximately what percent of the total population? A. 10% B. 25% C. 35% D. 50% E. 85%
answer

(d) 50%
question

Use Figure 10-2. What type of land use is LEAST common in the United States? A. Cropland B. Recreational and wildlife lands C. Timber production D. Defense E. Forest grazing land
answer

(d) defense
question

Use Figure 10-2. What percent of U.S. land is used to produce physical resources, including crops, wood, or food for grazing animals? A. 20% B. 25% C. 48% D. 68% E. 74%
answer

(e) 74%
question

Development that builds on vacant lots within cities rather than expanding into new land outside the city is known as A. infill. B. transit-oriented development. C. multi-use zoning. D. urban sprawl. E. induced demand.
answer

(a) infill
question

Before certain projects can begin in the US, the project owner must file an EIS. The purpose of this is to
answer

force landowners to suggest alternative approaches to the project and assess the environmental impacts of those alternatives
question

Currently, most of the US population lives in ____ areas.
answer

Suburban
question

All caused by urban sprawl
answer

-The average number of miles driven in the US annually has tripled over the past 50 years -Distance between work, goods, services, and home prevents pedestrian travel -Lower population densities make services such as mass transit economically prohibitive -Air pollution increases due to reliance on personal vehicles for transportation -Automobiles -Highway construction -Government policies -Urban blight
question

a cause of urban sprawl?
answer

question

Urban blight can best be described as
answer

A negative feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services toward an urban center
question

Induced demand, as it relates to urban sprawl, can best be described as
answer

A positive feedback loop involving the use of tax revenue to build roads which leads to urban exodus
question

Sandhills Mall is a high-end mall that includes shopping centers, artisans, and apartment complexes on site. Sandhills Mall is most likely
answer

Zoned for Multi-use
question

You are looking at two different houses. House #1 would have a daily 5-mile commute to work, while house #2 would have a daily 20-mile commute. How much more CO2 would you produce annually if you buy house #2? (Hint: driving 1 mile produces 1.1 lb of CO2 and you work 240 days/year.)
answer

3960 lb
question

One of the draws of suburban living is the higher standard of living per dollar spent. The following does contribute to this ratio.
answer

Fewer government services in suburbia Lower cost of land in suburbia Perceived feeling of openness in suburbia Higher tax rates in urban setting
question

Most zoning laws in the US
answer

Still favor automobile-dependent development
question

A neighborhood is considering redevelopment of its community, and would like to invite all of the stakeholders to take part. The list of invitees may include all of the following
answer

Residents of the neighborhood Businesses in or near the neighborhood Politicians whose constituents reside in the neighborhood Residents from nearby neighborhoods
question

Transit Oriented Development that seeks to move away from current transportation trends would likely include all of the following EXCEPT
answer

Bicycle racks Light rail system with frequent stops in high density development Wide, attractive sidewalks Special lanes for bicycles and other alternative modes of transportation
question

Another name for urban blight is the donut effect, due to the large swaths of underutilized lands surrounded by developed urban area. The main means to stop/reverse urban blight is through
answer

Urban Growth Boundaries coupled with Infill
question

Eminent Domain is a tool that can be used to assist in smart growth. This tool allows
answer

Governments to acquire land at fair market value even if the owner does not wish to sell it
question

If you could point to one root cause of urban sprawl, it would most likely be
answer

Increased mobility of a population due to the advent of the automobile
question

The most difficult part of integrating TOD (Transportation Oriented Development) into existing urban settings is
answer

Existing suburb-to-suburb routes do not lend themselves well to mass transit
question

Development that builds on vacant lots within cities rather than expanding into new land outside the city is known as
answer

Infill
question

the major difference between the national park park service and the unite states forest service is
answer

the NPS manages for ecosystems while the USFS manages for resource use
question

in theory a population grows quickly at — % of the enviornment’s carrying capacity
answer

50
question

one example of the tragedy of the commons can occur when several farmers share the pasture for feeding sheep. the root cause of this tragedy
answer

the value to any farmer of adding one more sheep is far greater than the cost to that farmer due to the land being communal
question

an example of a positive externality would be
answer

pollution removal from a natural wetland
question

before certain projects can begin in the US the project owner must file an EIS. the purpose of this is to
answer

force land owners to suggest alternative approaches to the project and assess the environmental impacts of these alternatives
question

a management system that includes prescribed burns will likely lead to
answer

large quantities of biomass accumulating on the forest floor a decrease in the likelihood of uncontrolled natural fires
question

land value can generally be quantified in terms of dollars. one notable exception is
answer

intrinsic value
question

national wildlife refuges are managed primarily for the purpose of protecting wildlife. they are usually managed by
answer

FWS
question

public lands in the us are categorized for use based on the managing agency. in general fish and wildlife service are used for
answer

wildlife conservation,hunting, and recreation
question

selective cutting has many benefits which do not include
answer

optimum growth for sun loving species
question

the tendency of a shared limited resource to become depleted because people act out of self interest for short term gain is generally referred to as
answer

the tragedy of the commons
question

approximately —% of the forest used for commercial timber operations in the US are privately owned
answer

75
question

which is not a problem with clear cutting as a means of timber harvests
answer

high costs of clear cutting when compared to other methods
question

smart growth includes all the following precepts except
answer

moving development away from existing substandard neighborhoods
question

the best forest management techniques mimic natural processes. this is most likely to include
answer

allowing prescribed burns to remove accumulated dead biomass
question

transit oriented development that seeks to move away from current transportation trends would likely include all of the following except
answer

multiple parking lots in high density developments
question

the type of site that is most likely to be a multiple use land is
answer

managed resource protected area
question

currently most of the us population lives in — areas
answer

suburban
question

public lands in the US are categorized for use based on the managing agency. in general US Forestry service lands are used for
answer

timber, harvesting, grazing, and recreation
question

the taylor grazing act of 1934 was passed to
answer

limit grazing on bureau of land management lands through a permit system
question

if you could point to one root cause of urban sprawl it would most likely be
answer

increased mobility of a population due to the advent of the automobile
question

from an economic standpoint which forest harvesting technique is generally best
answer

clear cutting
question

massive forest fires that burn large areas and destroy canopy are most likely to benefit
answer

early succession species seeking to fill a niche
question

one way to mitigate the effects of negative externalities is to
answer

include negative externalities in the cost of goods and services
question

which of the following is not a cause of urban sprawl
answer

smart growth

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