Ultimate AP Biology Vocabulary Review – Flashcards
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polar
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Molecule with partial charges. Mixes with water.
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nonpolar
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No partial charges. Do not mix with water.
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electronegativity
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Attraction of an atom for electrons in a covalent bond.
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cohesion
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Water molecules sticking to each other.
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adhesion
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Water molecules sticking to other surfaces.
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solute
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Something dissolved in a solution.
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solvent
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Dissolving agent of a solution.
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isomers
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Same atoms but different arrangement.
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structural isomers
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Differ in arrangement of atoms.
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geometric isomer
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Differ in arrangement around a double bond.
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enantiomers
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Structures that are like a mirror-image.
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alpha glucose
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Monomer for starch and glycogen.
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beta glucose
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Monomer for cellulose and chitin.
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cellulose
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Carbohydrate component of plant cell walls.
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starch
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Storage polysaccharide of plants.
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glycogen
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Extremely branched polymer of glucose.
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chitin
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Polysaccharide found in arthropod exoskeletons and fungal cell walls.
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-ose
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Suffix of a sugar.
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tryiacylglycerol
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Glycerol and three fatty acids.
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steroids
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Made of four rings of carbon.
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cholesterol
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Steroid common in cell membranes, also in many hormones.
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peptide bond
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Bonds that connect amino acids.
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Fredrick Sanger
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Determined amino acid sequence of proteins.
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disulphide bridges
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Reinforce tertiary structure.
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primary structure
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Chain of amino acids.
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secondary structure
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Either an alpha helix or beta pleated sheet.
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tertiary structure
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Results from interactions between side chains.
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quaternary structure
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Results from two or more polypeptide subunits.
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-in
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Suffix of a protein.
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purines
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Bases with a double-ring structure.
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pyrimidines
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Bases with a single-ring structure.
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phosphodiester bonds
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Bonds between phosphate group and pentose sugar in nucleic acids.
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synthesis
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To put together.
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digestion
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To break apart.
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dehydration synthesis
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Condensation reaction where molecules are connected by loss of a water molecule.
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hydrolysis
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Reaction where water split into two hydrogens and one oxygen; this breaks a polymer.
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anabolism
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Metabolic pathways that construct molecules, requiring energy.
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catabolism
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Metabolic pathways that break down molecules, releasing energy.
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natural selection
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A population can change over time if individuals with more fit traits leave more offspring than less fit individuals.
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evolutionary adaptation
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An accumulation of inherited characteristics that enhance organisms' ability to survive and reproduce in specific environments.
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artificial selection
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Humans modifying species for desired traits through selective breeding.
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decent with modification
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Darwin's way of referring to evolution.
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MRSA
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Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
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fitness
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Individuals whose inherited traits confer an advantage have a better chance of surviving in a given environment and will leave more offspring.
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homology
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Similarity resulting from common ancestry.
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homologous structures
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Same structure, different function. Comes from common ancestor.
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comparative embryology
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Embryos of vertebrates share many anatomical homologies.
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vestigial structures
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Are little or no importance to organism, but remain from an ancestor.
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biogeography
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Geographic distribution of species.
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microevolution
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Change in genetic makeup of a population from generation to generation.
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macroevolution
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Evolutionary change above the species level.
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population
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Group of individuals of the same species living in the same area.
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population genetics
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Study of allele frequency distribution and change under the influence of evolutionary processes.
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gene pool
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All the genes in a given population at a given time.
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allele frequency
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Proportion of an allele in a gene pool.
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Hardy-Weinberg Theorem
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Helps measure changes in allele frequencies over time. Provides an "ideal" population to use as a basis of comparison.
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mutation
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Changes in the nucleotide sequence in DNA.
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sexual recombination
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Crossing over and shuffling of genes during meiosis.
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genetic drift
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Change in allele frequencies due to chance.
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bottleneck effect
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When a population has been dramatically reduced, and the gene pool is no longer reflective of the original population's.
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founder effect
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When a small number of individuals colonize a new area; the new gene pool is not reflective of original population.
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gene flow
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When a population gains or loses alleles., movement of alleles into or out of a population due to the migration of individuals to or from the population.
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genetic variation
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Heritable variations in a population.
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discrete characteristics
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Characteristics that are classified on an either-or basis, determined by a single gene locus.
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quantitative characteristics
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Characteristics that vary along a continuum, usually due to influence of two or more genes.
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geographic variation
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Difference in variation between population subgroups in different areas.
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cline
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A graded change in a trait along a geographic axis.
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relative fitness
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Fitness of a particular genotype.
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directional selection
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Shift toward a favorable variation.
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disruptive selection
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Shift toward the extremes.
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stabilizing selection
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Shift that favors the mean.
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heterozygous advantage
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Maintains recessive alleles in a population,
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sexual selection
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Natural selection for mating success.
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sexual dimorphism
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Differences between the sexes in secondary sexual characteristics.
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speciation
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Origin of new species and the source of biological diversity.
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biological species concept
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Species is a group of populations whose members have the potential to produce fertile offspring.
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reproductive isolation
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Barriers that impede members of two different species fro producing fertile offspring.
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prezygotic barriers
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Barriers that impede mating or hinder fertilization.
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habitat isolation
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When two species encounter each other only rarely.
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temporal isolation
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When two species breed at different times of day, season, or years.
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behavioral isolation
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Incompatible courtship rituals, pheromones, or bird songs.
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mechanical isolation
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Morphological differences prevent fertilization.
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gametic isolation
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When sperm can't fertilize the eggs.
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postzygotic barriers
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Barriers that prevent the hybrid zygote from becoming a fertile adult.
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reduced hybrid viability
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When the genes of different species interact and impair hybrid development.
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reduced hybrid fertility
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Sterile hybrids due to uneven chromosome number.
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hybrid breakdown
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Hybrid is fertile, but when they breed the next generation is sterile.
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allopatric speciation
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When a population is divided; leads to speciation.
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sympatric speciation
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Speciation without a divided population.
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polyploidy
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In plants, the result of an extra set of chromosomes during cell division.
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autopolyploid
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Having more than two sets of chromosomes from a single species.
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allopolyploid
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Sterile hybrid is changed to a fertile polyploid due to mutation; fertile with each other, but not parent species.
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adaptive radiation
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Evolution of many new species from a common ancestor as a result of introduction to new environments.
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punctuated equilibrium
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A model of evolution in which a new species will change the most as it buds from a parent species, and then will change little for the rest of its existence.
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gradualism
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A model of evolution in which gradual change over a long period of time leads to biological diversity.
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heterochrony
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Change in the rate or timing of a developmental event; an organism's shape depends on relative growth rate of body parts.
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allometric growth
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Proportioning that gives a body a specific form.
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homeotic genes
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Genes that determine basic features of where a body part is.
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Hox genes
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Class of homeotic genes. Changes in these genes can have a profound impact on morphology.
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phylogeny
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Evolutionary history of a species or group of species.
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systematics
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Analytical approach to understanding the diversity and relationships of present and past organisms.
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analogy
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Anatomical similarity due to convergent evolution.
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homoplasies
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Analogous structures that have evolved independently.
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taxonomy
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A classification of organisms into groups based on similarities.
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bionomial nomenclature
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Scientific name.
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genus
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First part of scientific name.
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specific epithet
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Second part of scientific name.
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phylogenetic trees
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Branching diagrams that depict hypotheses about evolutionary relationships.
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cladogram
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Diagram that shows patterns of shared characteristics.
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clade
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A taxonomic grouping that includes only a single ancestor and all of its descendants.
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cladistics
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A phylogenetic classification system that uses shared derived characters and ancestry as the sole criterion for grouping taxa.
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monophyletic group
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A taxonomic grouping that includes an ancestral species and all of its descendants.
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paraphyletic group
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A monophyletic group in which some descendants of the common ancestor have been removed.
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polyphyletic group
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A taxonomic grouping consisting of several species that lack a common ancestor (more work is needed to uncover species that tie them together into a monophyletic clade).
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shared primitive character
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Trait shared beyond the taxon.
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shared derived character
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Evolutionary novelty unique to that clade.
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outgroups
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Species or group of species closely related to the ingroup.
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phylograms
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Diagram in which the length of a branch reflects number of changes in a DNA sequence.
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ultrametric trees
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Diagram in which length of a branch reflects amounts of actual time.
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maximum parsimony
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"Occam's Razor." A principle that states that when considering multiple explanations for an observation, one should first investigate the simplest explanation that is consistent with the facts.
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maximum likelihood
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A principle that states that when considering multiple phylogenetic hypotheses, one should take into account the one that reflects the most likely sequence of evolutionary events, given certain rules about how DNA changes over time.
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gene families
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Groups of related genes in an organism's genome.
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orthologous genes
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Homologous genes passed in a straight line from one generation to the next.
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paralogous genes
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Homologous genes that are found in the same genome as a result of gene duplication.
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Miller and Urey Experiment
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Experiment that found that organic molecules can form in a strongly reducing atmosphere.
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protobionts
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Aggregates of abiotically produced molecules surrounded by a membrane.
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liposomes
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Membrane-bound droplets that form when lipids are added to water.
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radiometric dating
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Dating using decay of radioactive isotopes.
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radioisotopes
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Isotopes that have unstable nuclei and undergo radioactive decay.
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stromatolites
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Oldest known fossils formed from many layers of bacteria and sediment.
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endosymbiotic theory
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Ancestors of mitochondria and plastids was prokaryotes thatcame to live in a host cell.
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serial endosymbiosis
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Sequence of endosymbiotic events that led to an ancestral eukaryote.
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genetic annealing
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Horizontal gene transfer between different bacteria and archae.
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colonies
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Collections of autonomously replicating cells.
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the three-domain system
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Domains Bacteria, Archae, and Eukarya.
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cocci
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Spherical bacteria.
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bacilli
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Rod-shaped bacteria.
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spirilla
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Spiral bacteria.
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plasmolyze
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When the membrane shrinks away from the cell wall as a result of water loss.
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lyse
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Cell bursting.
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peptidoglycan
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Cell wall of prokaryotes, but NOT ARCHAEA. Made of a sugar polymer and polypeptide.
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Gram stain
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Used to classify prokaryotes based on cell wall composition. Important for antibiotics; some antibiotics work on one but not the other.
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Gram-positive bacteria
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Bacteria that have simple cell walls with much peptidoglycan.
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Gram-negative bacteria
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Bacteria that have complex cell walls with less peptidoglycan but with lipopolysaccharides. Very toxic and hard to treat.
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antibiotics
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Interfere with production of peptidoglycan; harm bacteria but not eukaryotes.
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capsule
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Covers the cell wall in prokaryotes.
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pilli
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Hollow tubes used to move cells or exchange DNA between bacteria by conjunction.
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conjugation
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In bacteria, the direct transfer of DNA between two cells that are temporarily joined.
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taxis
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Movement toward or away from a stimulus.
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plasmids
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Small rings of DNA found naturally in some bacterial cells in addition to the main bacterial chromosome. Can contain genes for antibiotic resistance, or other "contingency" functions.
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endospore
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A thick-walled protective spore that forms inside a bacterial cell and resists harsh conditions.
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photoautotrophs
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Photosynthetic bacteria.
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chemoautotrophs
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Organisms that use hydrogen sulfide or other chemicals as energy source instead of light.
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archaea
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Domain of unicellular prokaryotes that have cell walls lacking peptidoglycan. Like eukaryotes, DNA contains histone proteins.
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extremophiles
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Archaea that live in extreme environments.
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thermophiles
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Archaea that thrive in very hot environments, such as volcanic springs.
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methanogens
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Archaea that release methane, a greenhouse gas.
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antibiotic resistance
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Resistance evolving rapidly in many species of prokaryotes due to overuse of antibiotics, especially in agriculture.
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ecology
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Study of interactions between organisms and the environment.
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abiotic factors
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Nonliving components of environment.
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biotic factors
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All the plant and animal life of a particular region.
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biota
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Biotic factors.
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community
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All species that inhabit an area.
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biosphere
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The sum of all ecosystems.
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biogeographic realms
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Broad patterns of distribution due to continental drift and barriers such as deserts and mountain ranges.
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dispersal
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Movement of individuals away from centers of high population density or their area of origin.
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species transplant
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Movement of a species to areas where it was previously absent.
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potential range
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An area where an organism could potentially survive and reproduce.
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actual range
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Area an organism actually occupies.
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climate
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Prevailing weather conditions of an area.
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macroclimate
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Patterns on the global, regional and local level.
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microclimate
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Very fine patterns of climate influenced by features of the environment such as shade ares and wind patterns.
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turnover
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Seasonal changes in warm and cool water layers in lakes.
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biome
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Major types of ecological association that occupy broad geographic regions.
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population density
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The size of the population within a particular unit of space.
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dispersion
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Pattern of spacing among individuals.
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mark-recapture method
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A sampling technique used to estimate wildlife populations.
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immigration
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New individuals moving into population. Increases population size.
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emigration
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Movement out of population. Decreases population size.
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random dispersion
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Random spacing of individuals of the same species within an area.
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clumped dispersion
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The most common pattern of dispersion; individuals aggregated in patches.
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uniform dispersion
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The pattern in which individuals are equally spaced throughout a habitat.
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territoriality
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Defense of a space against encroachment by other individuals.
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demography
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Study of vital statistics of a population and how they change over time.
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life tables
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Age-specific summaries of survival patterns of a population.
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cohort
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A group of individuals of the same age.
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survivorship curves
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Graph of the proportion of a cohort still alive at each age.
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Type I
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Curve that shows low death rate at early and mid-life and drops at old age, as seen in humans and large animals.
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Type II
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Curve that represents constant death rate over lifespan small animals and invertebrates.
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Type III
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Curve that drops sharply at the start then levels off once individuals reach a critical age, as seen in organisms that produce large numbers of offspring.
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reproductive rates
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Study of females to determine reproductive output and how it varies with age of female.
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reproductive table (fertility schedule)
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Age-specific summary of reproductive rates in a population.
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life history
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Traits that affect an organism's schedule of reproduction and survival.
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big-bang reproduction
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Species that have only a single reproductive opportunity, such as agave and salmon.
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repeated reproduction
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Species that reproduce over and over.
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semelparity
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Big-bang reproduction.
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iteroparity
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Repeated reproduction.
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per capita offspring
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Average number of offspring produced per individual during a specified period of time.
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per capita death rate
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Expected number of deaths in a population in a specified period of time.
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reproductive rate
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Difference between per capita birth and per capita death rates.
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zero population growth (ZPG)
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When per capita birth and death rates are equal. (r = 0)
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exponential growth
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Population increase under ideal conditions, when r ; 0. Forms a J-shaped curve.
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logistic growth
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When limiting factors restrict size of population to the carrying capacity of the environment. Forms an S-shaped curve.
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carrying capacity (K)
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Maximum population size that a particular environment can support.
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K - selected species
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Life history traits sensitive to population density. Small number of large offspring, extensive parental care, repeated reproduction.
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r-selected species
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Life history traits maximize reproductive success in uncrowded environments. Many small offspring that mature quickly, little if any parental care.
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density-independent regulation
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When birth or death rates do not change with population density.
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density-dependent regulation
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When birth or death rates do change with population density.
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metapopulation
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When many populations are linked.
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demographic transition
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Movement from a high birth rate, high death rate to a low birth rate, low death rate.
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age structure
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Relative number of individuals at each age.
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infant mortality
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Number of infant deaths per thousand live births.
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life expectancy at birth
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Predicted average length of life at birth.
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ecological footprint
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Land and water area appropriated by each nation as a resource to consume or to absorb the waste it generates.
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interspecific competition
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Species compete for a limiting resource. (-/-)
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competitive exclusion
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Strong competition can lead to local elimination of one of the species.
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Competitive Exclusion Principle
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Two species competing for same limiting resource cannot coexist in one place; one species will have an advantage that will eventually lead to competitive exclusion
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ecological niche
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Sum total of a species' use of the biotic and abiotic resources.
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niche
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Sum total of a species' use of the biotic and abiotic resources; an organism's "role".
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fundamental niche
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The niche species could potentially occupy.
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realized niche
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The niche species actually occupies.
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resource partitioning
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Differentiation of niches that enables similar species to coexist.
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character displacement
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Tendency of characteristics to be more divergent in sympatric populations than allopatric populations.
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cryptic coloration
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Camouflage; makes an organism difficult to spot.
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aposematic coloration
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Bright warning colors in animals with a chemical defense.
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Batesian mimicry
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Species mimics the appearance of an unpalatable or harmful.
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Müllerian mimicry
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Two or more unpalatable species resemble each other.
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endoparasites
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Parasites that live within the body of their host.
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ectoparasites
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Parasites that feed on external surface of host.
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parasitoidism
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Insects that lay eggs on or in living host; larvae feed on body of host, eventually killing it. (+/-)
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mutualism
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Interspecific interaction that benefits both species. (+/+)
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commensalism
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Interaction between species that benefits one but neither helps or harms the other. (+/0)
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coevolution
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Reciprocal evolutionary adaptations of two interacting species.
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keystone species
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Not necessarily abundant, but exert a strong control on community structure due to a pivotal ecological role.
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species diversity
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Variety of different kinds of organisms that make up a community.
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species richness
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Total number of different species.
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relative abundance
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The proportion of each species.
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trophic structure
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Feeding relationships between organisms in a community.
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producer
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Autotroph.
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primary consumer
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Herbivore.
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secondary consumer
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Carnivore that eats herbivores.
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tertiary consumer
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Carnivore that eats carnivores.
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quaternary consumer
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Carnivore that eats tertiary consumers.
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food web
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Linked food chains.
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energy hypothesis
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Length of a food chain is limited by the inefficiency of energy transfer.
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dynamic stability hypothesis
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Long food chains are less stable than short chains.
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dominant species
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Species that are the most abundant or have the most biomass.
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biomass
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Total dry mass of all individuals in a population.
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invasive species
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Species generally introduced by humans, that take hold outside of their native range.
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foundation species
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Cause physical changes in environment that affect community structure.
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facilitators
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Foundation species have positive effects on other species.
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bottom-up model
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Unidirectional influence from lower to higher trophic levels. (V --> H)
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top-down model
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Influence moves from top trophic levels to bottom. (V <-- H)
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biomanipulation
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Technique for restoring eutrophic lakes that reduces populations of algae by manipulating higher-level consumers.
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nonequilibrium model
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Communities are constantly changing after being buffeted by disturbances.
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disturbance
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An event, such as storm, fire, flood, drought, overgrazing or human activity, that changes a community and alters resource availability.
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intermediate disturbance
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Moderate levels of disturbance can create conditions that foster greater species diversity.
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human disturbance
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Reduces species diversity in all communities.
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ecological succession
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Gradual recolonization of a disturbed area; species replaced by other species which are replaced by other species.
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primary succession
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Succession that begins in a virtually lifeless area.
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pioneer species
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The first species that colonize new area, such as lichen and mosses.
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secondary succession
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Succession when an existing community has been cleared, but soil left intact.
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equatorial-polar gradients
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Species diversity highest at equator, decreases toward poles.
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evapotranspiration
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Evaporation of water from soil plus transpiration from plants. Correlates with species richness.
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species-area curve
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The larger the geographic area, the greater the number of species.
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island equilibrium model
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Islands great for study due to isolation and limited size; can study species diversity and extinction rates.
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ecosystem
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Consists of all the organisms living in a community as well as all the abiotic factors with which they interact.
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detritivores
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Obtain energy from detritus.
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detritus
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Nonliving organic maters such as remains of dead organisms, feces, fallen leaves, dead wood.
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primary production
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Amount of light energy converted to chemical energy by autotrophs.
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gross primary production (GPP)
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Amount of light energy that is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis.
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net primary production (NPP)
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Energy used by primary producers for respiration.
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light limitation
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Depth to which light penetrates limits primary production.
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limiting nutrient
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Greater limiting factor than light in oceans and lakes.
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eutrophication
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Sewage and fertilizer runoff adds nutrients to lakes; phytoplankton decreases and cyanobacteria increases.
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actual evapotranspiration
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Annual amount of water transpired by plants and evaporated from landscape.
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secondary production
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Amount of chemical energy in consumers' food that is converted to new biomass.
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production efficiency
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The fraction of energy stored in food that was not used for cell respiration.
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trophic efficiency
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Percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next.
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pyramid of energy
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90% of all energy is lost between trophic levels.
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10% rule
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Only 10% of the total energy produced at each trophic level is available to the next level. The amount of energy passed up to the levels of the food pyramid reduces as you go up.
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pyramids of biomass
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Each on this pyramid tier represents standing crop.
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turnover time
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Standing crop biomass compared to production.
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pyramids of numbers
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Number of organisms at each trophic level.
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Green World Hypothesis
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Terrestrial herbivores consume relatively little plant biomass because they are held in check by predators, parasites and disease.
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critical load
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The amount of added nutrient that can be absorbed by plants without damaging ecosystem.
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biological magnification
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Toxins become more concentrated in successive trophic levels.
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Greenhouse Effect
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Carbon dioxide and water vapor in atmosphere trap infrared radiation, re-reflecting it back toward earth.
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ozone layer
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Protective layer in atmosphere that shields earth from UV radiation.
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conservation biology
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Integrates ecology, physiology, molecular biology, genetics and evolutionary biology to conserve biological diversity.
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restoration ecology
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Applies ecological principles in an effort to return degraded ecosystems to conditions as similar as possible to their natural state.
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endangered species
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Species that is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range.
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threatened species
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Species that is likely to become endangered.
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bioremediation
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Use of living organisms such as prokaryotes, fungi, or plants to detoxify polluted ecosystems.
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biological augmentation
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Uses organisms to add essential materials to degraded ecosystems.
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organelles
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Structures specialized to perform distinct processes within a cell.
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cytosol
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The soluble portion of the cytoplasm, which includes molecules and small particles, such as ribosomes, but not the organelles covered with membranes.
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eukaryotic cells
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Contain a nucleus and other organelles that are bound by membranes.
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cytoplasm
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The region of the cell between the cell membrane and the nucleus.
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plasma membrane
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The membrane at the boundary of every cell that acts as a selective barrier, thereby regulating the cell's chemical composition.
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nuclear envelope
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Double membrane perforated with pores that control the flow of materials in and out of the nucleus.
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nuclear lamina
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A netlike array of protein filaments lining the inner surface of the nuclear envelope; it helps maintain the shape of the nucleus.
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chromosomes
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A threadlike, gene-carrying structure found in the nucleus. Consists of one very long DNA molecule and associated proteins.
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chromatin
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The readily stainable substance of a cell nucleus consisting of DNA and RNA and various proteins.
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nucleolus
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Small, dense region within most nuclei in which the assembly of proteins begins.
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endomembrane system
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A network of membranes inside and around a eukaryotic cell, related either through direct physical contact or by the transfer of membranous vesicles.
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vesicle
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Small membrane-bound sac that functions in moving products into, out of, and within a cell.
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smooth ER
answer
Synthesis of lipids, phospholipids and steroid sex hormones-help detoxify drugs and poisons (liver cells).
question
rough ER
answer
A network of interconnected membranous sacs in a eukaryotic cell's cytoplasm; covered with ribosomes that make membrane proteins and secretory proteins.
question
glycoprotein
answer
A protein with one or more carbohydrates covalently attached to it.
question
transport vesicles
answer
Vesicles in transit from one part of the cell to another.
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Golgi apparatus
answer
Stack of membranes in the cell that modifies, sorts, and packages proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum.
question
phagocytosis
answer
Process in which extensions of cytoplasm surround and engulf large particles and take them into the cell.
question
lysosome
answer
A cell organelle that contains digestive enzymes.
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contractile vacuoles
answer
A membranous sac that helps move excess water out of the cell.
question
mitochondria
answer
The organelles in which nutrients are converted to energy.
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chloroplasts
answer
Organelles that capture the energy from sunlight and convert it into chemical energy in a process called photosynthesis.
question
peroxisome
answer
A microbody containing enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen, producing and then degrading hydrogen peroxide.
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cristae
answer
Infoldings of the inner membrane of a mitochondrion that houses the electon transport chain and the enzyme catalyzing the synthesis of ATP.
question
thylakoids
answer
Membranous structures within a chloroplast that serve as the site for light harvesting in photosynthesis.
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stroma
answer
The fluid of the chloroplast surrounding the thylakoid membrane; involved in the synthesis of organic molecules from carbon dioxide and water.
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cytoskeleton
answer
Network of protein filaments within some cells that helps the cell maintain its shape and is involved in many forms of cell movement.
question
cytoplasmic streaming
answer
The motion of cytoplasm in a cell that results in a coordinated movement of the cell's contents.
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cell wall
answer
Strong layer around the cell membrane in plants, algae, and some bacteria.
question
diffusion
answer
When a substance moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. Due to entropy.
question
osmosis
answer
The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane.
question
dialysis
answer
The diffusion of small solutes through a selectively permeable membrane.
question
passive transport
answer
Transport of a substance across a cell membrane by diffusion. No cell energy required.
question
active transport
answer
When a cell gets materials or excretes them by using its own energy, usually through ATP; going against a concentration gradient.
question
hypertonic
answer
Describes a solution that has a greater concentration of total solute.
question
hypotonic
answer
Describes a solution that has a lesser concentration of total solute.
question
isotonic
answer
Describes solutions that have an equal concentration of total solutes.
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turgor pressure
answer
The pressure inside of a cell as a cell pushes itself against the cell wall.
question
plasmolysis
answer
This happens when a cell shrinks inside its cell wall while the cell wall remains intact.
question
flaccid
answer
This happens when water moves, but the amount within the cell is constant; no pressure builds.
question
cytolysis
answer
This happens when a cell swells until pressure bursts it, resulting in cell death.
question
crenation
answer
This happens when a cell shrinks and shrivels; can result in cell death if severe.
question
water potential
answer
The physical property predicting the direction in which water will flow, governed by solute concentration and applied pressure.
question
solute potential
answer
This measurement has a maximum value of 0; it decreases as the concentration of a solute increases.
question
pressure potential
answer
This measurement has a minimum value of 0 (when the solution is open to the environment); it increases as pressure increases.
question
selective permeability
answer
A property of a plasma membrane that allows some substances to cross more easily than others.
question
amphipathic
answer
Molecules are said to be this when it has regions that are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic.
question
fluid mosaic model
answer
Structural model of the plasma membrane where molecules are free to move sideways within a lipid bilayer.
question
integral proteins
answer
Integral proteins that span the membrane.
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transmembrane proteins
answer
Integral proteins that span the membrane.
question
peripheral proteins
answer
The proteins of a membrane that are not embedded in the lipid bilayer; they are appendages loosely bound to the surface of the membrane.
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transport
answer
An exchange of molecules (and their kinetic energy and momentum) across the boundary between adjacent layers of a fluid or across cell membranes.
question
enzymatic activity
answer
A protein built into the membrane with active site exposed.
question
signal transduction
answer
A series of molecular changes that converts a signal on a target cell's surface to a specific response inside the cell.
question
cell-cell recognition
answer
The function of membrane proteins in which some glycoproteins serve as ID tags that are recognized by membrane proteins of other cells.
question
intercellular joining
answer
The function of membrane proteins in which membrane proteins of adjacent cells hook together, as in gap junctions or tight junctions.
question
glycolipids
answer
Membrane carbohydrates that are covalently bonded to lipids.
question
glycoproteins
answer
Membrane carbohydrates that are covalently bonded to proteins.
question
transport protein
answer
A membrane protein, specifically a transport protein, that has a hydrophilic channel that certain molecules or atomic ions use as a tunnel.
question
channel protein
answer
A membrane protein, specifically a transport protein, that has a hydrophilic channel that certain molecules or atomic ions use as a tunnel.
question
aquaporin
answer
A membrane protein, specifically a transport protein, that facilitates the passage of water through channel proteins.
question
carrier protein
answer
A membrane protein, specifically a transport protein, that holds onto molecules and changes their shapes in a way that shuttles them across the membrane.
question
concentration gradient
answer
A difference in the concentration of a substance across a distance.
question
tonicity
answer
The ability of a solution to cause a cell to gain or lose water; depends partly on concentration of nonpenetrating solutes relative to inside of cell.
question
osmoregulation
answer
The control of water balance.
question
turgid
answer
A cell with a cell wall that has a reasonable amount of pressure but is healthy.
question
facilitated diffusion
answer
Passive diffusion that is aided by transport proteins, but that does not require cellular energy.
question
membrane potential
answer
The voltage of a plasma membrane.
question
electrochemical gradient
answer
The combination of forces that acts on membrane potential.
question
gated channel
answer
A protein channel in a cell membrane that opens or closes in response to a particular stimulus.
question
electrogenic pump
answer
A transport protein that generates voltage across a membrane, causing a net separation in charge.
question
proton pump
answer
An electrogenic pump that works largely with H+ ions.
question
cotransport
answer
The coupling of the "downhill" diffusion of one substance to the "uphill" transport of another against its own concentration gradient.
question
exocytosis
answer
Occurs when a cell secretes certain biological molecules by the fusion of vesicles with the plasma membrane.
question
endocytosis
answer
Occurs when a cell takes in biological molecules and particulate matter by forming new vesicles from the plasma membrane.
question
phagocytosis
answer
Process in which extensions of cytoplasm surround and engulf large particles and take them into the cell.
question
pinocytosis
answer
A type of endocytosis in which the cell "gulps" droplets of fluid into tiny vesicles.
question
receptor-mediated
answer
A type of endocytosis in which the cell acquires bulk quantities of specific substances, even though they may not be very concentrated in the extracellular fluid.
question
ligand
answer
Any molecule that bonds specifically to a receptor site of another molecule.
question
signal transduction pathway
answer
The process by which a signal on a cell's surface is converted into a specific cellular response.
question
local regulators
answer
These regulators influence cells in the vicinity of them.
question
hormones
answer
Circulating chemical signals that are formed in specialized cells, travels in body fluids, and act on specific target cells.
question
ligand
answer
Any molecule that bonds specifically to a receptor site of another molecule.
question
protein kinase
answer
The enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to protein.
question
adenylyl cyclase
answer
Converts ATP to cyclic AMP in response to an extracellular signal.
question
protein phosphatases
answer
Enzymes that can rapidly remove phosphate groups from proteins.
question
second messengers
answer
Small, non-protein water soluble molecules or ions that send messages throughout the cells by diffusion.
question
inositol triphosphate
answer
Produced by cleavage of a certain kind of phospholipid in the plasma membrane.
question
scaffolding proteins
answer
A type of large relay protein to which several other relay proteins are simultaneously attached to increase the efficiency of signal transduction.
question
anatomy
answer
Study of the structure of an organism.
question
physiology
answer
Study of the functions an organism performs.
question
tissues
answer
Groups of cells with a common structure and function.
question
epithelial tissue
answer
Tissue that covers outside of the body and lines organs and cavities.
question
glandualar epithelia
answer
Tissue that absorbs or secretes chemical solutions.
question
mucous membrane
answer
Membrane that secretes mucus that lubricates the surface of organs and keeps them moist.
question
simple epithelium
answer
Single layer of cells.
question
stratified epithelium
answer
Multiples tiers of cells.
question
cubiodal epithelium
answer
Dice-shaped cells.
question
columnar epithelium
answer
Cells shaped like bricks standing on end.
question
squamous epithelium
answer
Cells that are like floor tiles.
question
connective tissue
answer
Tissue that functions mainly to bind and support other tissues.
question
collagenous fibers
answer
Fibers made of collagen.
question
elastic fibers
answer
Fibers made of elastin.
question
reticular fibers
answer
Fibers made of collagen fibers that are very thin and branched. Forma tightly woven fabric that joins connective tissue to adjacent tissues.
question
fibroblasts
answer
In connective tissue, cells that secrete the proteins of the fibers.
question
macrophages
answer
Amoeboid cells that roam connective tissue and engulf foreign particles and debris of dead cells.
question
muscle tissue
answer
Tissue made of cells capable of contracting.
question
nervous tissue
answer
Tissue that senses stimuli and transmits signals.
question
basement membrane
answer
Cells at the base of an epithelial layer are attached to this.
question
loose connective tissue
answer
Tissue that binds epithelia to underlying tissues and holds organs in place. Contains collagenous, elastic, and recticular fibers.
question
fibrous connective tissue
answer
Dense tissue, large number of collagen fibers organized into parallel bundles. Includes ligaments and tendons.
question
bone
answer
Mineralized connective tissue.
question
osteoblasts
answer
Bone-forming cells.
question
blood
answer
Connective tissue made of plasma, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.
question
adipose tissue
answer
Tissue that stores fat.
question
tendons
answer
Attach muscles to bones.
question
ligaments
answer
Join bones to bones at joints.
question
cartilage
answer
Made of collagenous fibers in matrix of chondroitin sulfate.
question
chondrocytes
answer
Cells that secrete cartilage.
question
skeletal muscle
answer
Muscle that is striated, multinucleated.
question
smooth muscle
answer
Muscle that is not striated, is single nucleated.
question
cardiac muscle
answer
Muscle that is branched, striated, singe nucleated.
question
organs
answer
Tissues are organized into:, group of tissues that work together to perform closely related functions.
question
mesenteries
answer
Sheets of connective tissue in moist or fluid-filled body cavities.
question
thoracic cavity
answer
cavity housing lungs and heart
question
abdominal cavity
answer
Cavity housing intestines.
question
bioenergetics
answer
Flow of energy through an animal. Limits its behavior, growth, reproduction.
question
metabolic rate
answer
Amount of energy an animal uses in a unit of time; the sum of all the energy-requiring biochemical reactions.
question
endothermic
answer
Animals that are warmed mostly by heat generated by metabolism.
question
exothermic
answer
Animals that gain heat mostly from external sources.
question
basal metabolic rate (BMR)
answer
The metabolic rate of a nongrowing, resting, fasting, nonstressed endotherm.
question
standard metabolic rate (SMR)
answer
The metabolic rate of a resting, fasting, nonstressed ectotherm.
question
interstitial fluid
answer
Watery, internal environment of vertebrates.
question
homeostasis
answer
"Steady state" or "constant internal milieu".
question
regulator
answer
An animal that uses internal control mechanisms to moderate internal change in the face of external fluctuation.
question
conformer
answer
An animal that allows its internal condition to vary with certain external changes.
question
negative feedback
answer
A type of regulation that responds to a change in conditions by initiating responses that will counteract the change. Maintains a steady state.
question
positive feedback
answer
A type of regulation that responds to a change in conditions by initiating responses that will amplify the change. Takes organism away from a steady state.
question
thermoregulation
answer
Process of maintaining an internal temperature within a tolerable range.
question
vasodialation
answer
Increases in the diameter of superficial blood vessels; cools the body.
question
vasoconstriction
answer
Reduces blood flow and heat transfer by decreasing the diameter of superficial blood vessels.
question
countercurrent heat exchanger
answer
In ectotherms, a circulatory adaptation that is an arrangement of blood vessels that warm or cool the blood.
question
nonshivering thermogenesis (NST)
answer
When hormones cause mitochondria to produce heat instead of ATP in some mammals.
question
brown fat
answer
Tissue in neck and between shoulders of some mammals that is specialized for rapid heat production.
question
acclimatization
answer
Adjusting to a new range of environmental temperatures.
question
heat-shock proteins
answer
Proteins that help maintain integrity of other proteins that would normally be denatured in extreme heat.
question
torpor
answer
Physiological state in which activity is low and metabolism decreases.
question
hibernation
answer
Long-term torpor that is an adaptation to winter cold and food scarcity.
question
estivation
answer
Summer torpor. Enables animals to survive long periods of high temperatures and scarce water supplies.
question
daily torpor
answer
in small mammals and birds, daily lowering of metabolism that allows them to survive on stored energy
question
metabolic pathway
answer
Begins with a specific molecule, which is then altered in a series of defined steps, resulting in a certain product.
question
catabolic pathways
answer
Metabolic pathways that release energy by breaking down complex molecules into simpler compounds.
question
anabolic pathways
answer
Metabolic pathways that consume energy to build complicated molecules from simpler ones.
question
bioenergenetics
answer
The study of how organisms manage their energy resources.
question
kinetic energy
answer
Energy associated with relative motion of objects.
question
thermal energy
answer
Kinetic energy associated with the random movement of molecules or atoms.
question
potential energy
answer
Occurs when an object is not moving, but may still posses energy.
question
first law of thermodynamics
answer
Energy can be transferred and transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed.
question
entropy
answer
A measure of disorder or randomness.
question
second law of thermodynamics
answer
Every energy transfer or transformation increases the entropy of the universe.
question
free energy
answer
Measures the portion of a system's energy that can perform work when temperature and pressure are uniform throughout the system, as in a living cell.
question
endergonic reaction
answer
Reaction that absorbs free energy from its surroundings.
question
exergonic reaction
answer
Reaction that proceeds with a net release of free energy.
question
energy coupling
answer
The use of an exergonic process to drive an endergonic one.
question
ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
answer
Composed of a sugar ribose, nitrogenous base adenine, and a chain of three phosphate groups bonded to it.
question
phosphorylation
answer
The metabolic process of introducing a phosphate group into an organic molecule.
question
catalyst
answer
A chemical agent that speeds up a reaction without being consumed by the reaction.
question
enzyme
answer
A catalytic protein.
question
activation energy
answer
The amount of energy needed to push the reactants over an energy barrier.
question
enzyme-substrate complex
answer
When an enzyme binds to its substrate, it forms:
question
active site
answer
A pocket or groove on the surface of the enzyme.
question
induced fit
answer
Brings chemical groups of the active site into positions that enhance their ability to catalyze the chemical reaction.
question
cofactor
answer
Non-protein helpers that may be bound tightly to the enzyme as a permanent resident, or may bind loosely and reversibly along with the substrate.
question
coenzyme
answer
If the cofactor is an organic molecule.
question
competitive inhibitors
answer
Reduce the productivity of enzymes by blocking substrates from entering active sites.
question
noncompetitive inhibitors
answer
Impede enzymatic reactions by binding to another part of the enzyme (other than the active site).
question
allosteric regulation
answer
When a protein's function at one site is affected by the binding of a regulatory molecule to a separate site.
question
cooperativity
answer
It amplifies the response of enzymes to substrates.
question
feedback inhibition
answer
A metabolic pathway is switched off by the inhibitory binding of its end product to an enzyme that acts early in the pathway.
question
fermentation
answer
A partial degradation of sugars that occur without the use of oxygen.
question
cellular respiration
answer
When oxygen is consumed as a reactant along with the organic fuel.
question
redox reactions
answer
When there is a transfer of one or more electrons from one reactant to another.
question
oxidation
answer
Loss of electrons.
question
reduction
answer
Gain of electrons.
question
reducing agent
answer
A reduces B, which accepts the donated electrons.
question
oxidizing agent
answer
B oxidizes A by removing A's electrons.
question
electron transport chain
answer
Breaks the fall of electrons to oxygen in several energy-releasing steps.
question
glycolosis
answer
Breaking glucose into two molecules of a compound called pyruvate.
question
citric acid cycle
answer
Completes the breakdown of glucose by oxidizing a derivative of pyruvate to carbon dioxide.
question
oxidative phosphorylation
answer
When energy is released at each step of the chain is stored in a form the mitochondrion can use to make ATP.
question
substrate-level phosphorylation
answer
When an enzyme transfers a phosphate group from a substrate molecule.
question
acetyl-CoA
answer
Is formed when pyruvate first enters into the mitochondria via active transport.
question
ATP synthase
answer
The enzyme that make ATP from ADPand inorganic phosphate.
question
chemiosmosis
answer
When energy is stored in the form of a hydrogen ion gradient across a membrane which is used to drive cellular work.
question
proton-motive force
answer
Emphasizes the capactiy of the gradient to preform work.
question
anaerobic
answer
Occurs by fermentation, which generate ATP solely by substrate-level phosphorylation.
question
alcohol fermentation
answer
When pyruvate is converted to ethanol in 2 steps.
question
lactic acid fermetation
answer
When pyruvate is reduced directly by NADH to form lactic as am end product, with no release of carbon dioxide.
question
facultative anaerobes
answer
Can make enough ATP to survive using using fermentation or respiration.
question
innate immunity
answer
Immunity that is present before exposure and effective from birth. Responds to a broad range of pathogens.
question
acquired immunity
answer
Immunity that is present only after exposure and is highly specific.
question
lymphocytes
answer
White blood cells.
question
antibodies
answer
Protein that is produced by lymphocytes and that attaches to a specific antigen.
question
neutrophils
answer
Most abundant white blood cell., The most abundant type of white blood cell. Phagocytic and tend to self-destruct as they destroy foreign invaders, limiting their life span to a few days.
question
complement system
answer
A group of about 30 blood proteins that may amplify the inflammatory response, enhance phagocytosis, or directly lyse extracellular pathogens.
question
interferon
answer
Protein produced by cells in response to being infected by a virus; helps other cells resist the virus.
question
inflammtory response
answer
Innate response with the purpose of containing a site of damage, localizing the response, eliminating the invader and restore tissue function.
question
histamine
answer
Chemical stored in mast cells that triggers dilation and increased permeability of capillaries.
question
natural killer (NK) cells
answer
These cells kill cancer cells and cells infected with viruses. They bind to their targets and deliver a lethal burst of chemicals to produce holes in the target cell's membrane leading to its destruction.
question
antigen
answer
Any foreign molecule that is specifically recognized by lymphocytes and elicits an immune response.
question
epitope
answer
Small, accessible portion of an antigen that can be recognized.
question
B lymphocytes (B cells)
answer
Lymphocyte that matures in the bone marrow and secretes antibodies.
question
T lymphocytes (T cells)
answer
Lymphocyte that matures in the thymus and acts directly against antigens in cell-mediated immune responses.
question
immunoglobulins
answer
Secreted antibodies.
question
antigen presentation
answer
The process by which an MHC molecule binds to a fragment of an intracellular protein antigen and carries it to the cell surface, where it is displayed and can be recognized by a T cell.
question
thymus
answer
Gland in the thoracic cavity above the heart where T lymphocytes mature.
question
memory cells
answer
General term for lymphocytes that are responsible for immunological memory and protective immunity.
question
primary immune response
answer
Immune response the first time the body is exposed to a particular antigen. Does not peak until 10-17 days after exposure.
question
secondary immune response
answer
Immune response after the body has already been exposed to a specific antigen. Response is faster, of greater magnitude, and more prolonged.
question
humoral immune response
answer
The branch of acquired immunity that involves the activation of B cells and that leads to the production of antibodies, which defend against bacteria and viruses in body fluids.
question
cell-mediated immune response
answer
The branch of acquired immunity that involves the activation of cytotoxic T cells, which defend against infected cells.
question
helper T cells
answer
Activate macrophages, B cells and T cells.
question
active immunity
answer
A form of acquired immunity in which the body produces its own antibodies against disease-causing antigens.
question
passive immunity
answer
Immunity conferred by transferring antibodies from an individual who is immune to a pathogen to another individual.
question
immunization
answer
The deliberate exposure of a pathogen to produce memory cells.
question
Rh factor
answer
Refers to the presence or absence of the Rh antigen on red blood cells.
question
graft versus host reaction
answer
When lymphocytes in donated bone marrow react against the recipient.
question
anaphylactic shock
answer
A severe reaction that occurs when an allergen is introduced to the bloodstream of an allergic individual. Characterized by bronchoconstriction, labored breathing, widespread vasodilation, circulatory shock, and sometimes sudden death.
question
autoimmune diseases
answer
Diseases caused when the immune system loses tolerance for self and turns against certain molecules in the body.
question
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
answer
The most advanced, and fatal, stage of an HIV infection.
question
B cell receptor
answer
The antigen receptor on B cells: a Y-Shaped, membrane-bound molecule consisting of two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains linked by disulfide bridges and containing two antigen-binding sites.
question
T cell receptor
answer
Antigen receptors on a T cell. Unlike antibodies, T cell receptors are never produced in a secreted form.
question
major histocompatibility compex (MHC)
answer
Binds to a fragment of an antigen within a cell and presents it on the surface of the membrane.
question
cytotoxic T cells or "killer T cells"
answer
T cells that directly attack infecting organisms; these cells attack antigen labeled foreign or host tissue.
question
hormone
answer
The secretion of an endocrine gland that is transmitted by the blood to the tissue on which it has a specific effect.
question
endocrine system
answer
The system of glands that produce endocrine secretions that help to control bodily metabolic activity.
question
edocrine glands
answer
Glands that secrete chemicals called hormones directly into the bloodstream.
question
neurosecretory cells
answer
Neurons that secrete neurohormone rather than neurotransmitter.
question
paracrine signaling
answer
Signal released from a cell has an effect on neighboring cells.
question
cytokines
answer
Chemicals released by the immune system communicate with the brain.
question
growth factors
answer
Factors that stimulate the cell to divide.
question
nitric oxide (NO)
answer
Local regulator that regulates blood oxygen levels, A gas produced by many types of cells that functions as a local regulator and as a neurotransmitter.
question
prostaglandins
answer
Modified fatty acids that are produced by a wide range of cells.
question
endocrine signaling
answer
Specialized cells release hormone molecules into vessels of the circulatory system, by which they travel to target cells in other parts of the body.
question
insulin
answer
Hormone produced by the pancreas that helps to decrease blood sugar.
question
glucagon
answer
The antagonist of insulin that helps increase blood sugar. It stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose.
question
cell differentiation
answer
Cell specialization in structure and function.
question
morphogenesis
answer
The process by which an organism takes shape and the differentiated cells occupy their appropriate locations.
question
fate maps
answer
A labor-intensive study to produce useful territorial diargams of embryonic development.
question
pattern formation
answer
The development of a spatial organization of tissues and organs.
question
positional information
answer
The molecular cues that control pattern formation.
question
sensory neurons
answer
Neurons that carry incoming information from the sense receptors to the central nervous system.
question
motor neurons
answer
Neurons that carry outgoing information from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands.
question
Central Nervous System (CNS)
answer
Includes the brain and spinal cord.
question
Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
answer
The sensory and motor neurons that connect the CNS to the rest of the body.
question
cell body
answer
Contains most of a neuron's organelles and its nucleus.
question
dendrites
answer
Highly branched extensions that receive signals from other neurons.
question
axon
answer
Long nerve fiber that conducts away from the cell body of the neuron.
question
axon hillock
answer
Cone shaped region of an axon where it joins the cell body.
question
synapse
answer
The junction between two neurons or between a neuron and a muscle.
question
synaptic terminal
answer
A bulb at the end of an axon in which neurotransmitter molecules are stored and released.
question
neurotransmitters
answer
Chemical messengers that cross the synaptic gaps between neurons.
question
presynaptic cell
answer
The transmitting neuron in a synapse.
question
postsynaptic cell
answer
The neuron, muscle, or gland cell that receives the signal from a neuron.
question
membrane potential
answer
The voltage across a cell's plasma membrane.
question
resting potential
answer
The membrane potential of a neuron that is at rest.
question
depolarization
answer
The process during the action potential when sodium is rushing into the cell causing the interior to become more positive.
question
voltage-gated ion channels
answer
Channels that open or close in response to a change in the membrane potential.
question
action potential
answer
A neural impulse; a brief electrical charge that travels down an axon.
question
threshold potential
answer
The minimum membrane potential that must be reached in order for an action potential to be generated.
question
myelin sheath
answer
A layer of electrical insulation that surrounds the axon.
question
oligodendrocytes
answer
Type of glial cell in the CNS that wrap axons in a myelin sheath.
question
Schwann cells
answer
Type of glia in the PNS, Supporting cells of the peripheral nervous system responsible for the formation of myelin.
question
nodes of Ranvier
answer
Gaps in the myelin sheath to which voltage-gated sodium channels are confined.
question
synaptic vesicles
answer
Membrane-bounded compartments in which synthesized neurotransmitters are kept.
question
synaptic cleft
answer
The narrow gap that separates the presynaptic neuron from the postsynaptic cell.
question
acetylcholine
answer
Common vertebrate neurotransmitter, especially in neuromuscular junctions.
question
serotonin
answer
A neurotransmitter that affects hunger,sleep, arousal, and mood.
question
dopamine
answer
Important neurotransmitter in the CNS that acts on the sympathetic nervous system.
question
epinephrine
answer
Neurotransmitter secreted by the adrenal medulla in response to stress. Also known as adrenaline.
question
norepinephrine
answer
A precursor of epinephrine that is secreted by the adrenal medulla and also released at synapses.
question
GABA
answer
An inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.
question
glutamate
answer
The most common neurotransmitter in the brain. Excitatory.
question
endorphins
answer
Natural analgesics that decrease pain perception.
question
neuron
answer
Structural and functional unit of nervous system.
question
effector cells
answer
Muscle cells or gland cells that carry out the body's response to stimuli.
question
astrocytes
answer
Provide structural and metabolic support for neurons.
question
glial cells
answer
Cells in the nervous system that support, nourish, and protect neurons.
question
ganglion
answer
A cluster of nerve cell bodies, often of similar function, located in the PNS.
question
white matter
answer
Whitish nervous tissue of the CNS consisting of neurons and their myelin sheaths.
question
grey matter
answer
The portions of the central nervous system that are abundant in cell bodies of neurons rather than axons. Unmyelinated.
question
autonomic nervous system
answer
The part of the nervous system of vertebrates that controls involuntary actions of the smooth muscles and heart and glands.
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sympathetic division
answer
The part of the autonomic nervous system that arouses the body to deal with perceived threats.
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parasympathetic division
answer
A branch of the autonomic nervous system that maintains normal body functions; it calms the body ever conserves energy.
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enteric division
answer
One of three divisions of the autonomic nervous system; consists of networks of neurons in the digestive tract, pancreas, and gallbladder.
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cerebrum
answer
Largest part of the brain; responsible for voluntary muscular activity, vision, speech, taste, hearing, thought, and memory.
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forebrain
answer
The largest and most complicated region of the brain, including the thalamus, hypothalamus, limbic system, and cerebrum.
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midbrain
answer
Region between the hindbrain and the forebrain; it is important for hearing and sight.
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hindbrain
answer
The posterior portion of the brain including cerebellum and brainstem.
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cerebral cortex
answer
Interconnected neural cells that covers the cerebral hemispheres; the body's ultimate control and information-processing center.
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brainstem
answer
The oldest part and central core of the brain, responsible for automatic survival functions.
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medulla oblongata
answer
Contains centers that control several visceral functions, including breathing, heart and blood vessel activity, swallowing, vomiting, and digestion.
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recticular formation
answer
Registers and controls activity level, increases excitement, and helps generate sleep.
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cerebellum
answer
The "little brain" attached to the rear of the brainstem; it helps coordinate voluntary movement and balance.
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thalamus
answer
Major input center for sensory information going to the cerebrum and the main output center for motor information leaving the cerebrum.
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circadian rhythms
answer
The 24-hour biological cycles found in humans and many other species.
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biological clock
answer
An innate mechanism in living organisms that controls the periodicity of many physiological functions.
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cerebral hemispheres
answer
The right and left halves of the cerebrum.
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corpus callosum
answer
Nerves that enable communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
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behavior
answer
The way an organism reacts to changes in its internal condition or external environment.
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proximate questions
answer
Address environmental stimuli, genetic, physiological, and anatomical causes of a behavior.
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ultimate questions
answer
Address evolutionary significance of a behavior.
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ethology
answer
The scientific study of how animals behave, particularly in natural environments.
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fixed action patterns (FAP)
answer
A sequence of unlearned behavioral acts that is unchangeable and usually carried to completion.
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sign stimulus
answer
External sensory stimulus that triggers a fixed action pattern.
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imprinting
answer
Includes both learning and innate components, generally irreversible.
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sensitive period
answer
A limited phase in an animal's development that is the only time when certain behaviors can be learned.
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innate behavior
answer
A behavior that is developmentally fixed.
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kinesis
answer
A simple change in activity or turning rate in response to a stimuli.
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taxis
answer
Automatic, oriented movement toward or away from some stimuli.
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migration
answer
Relatively long-distance movement of individuals, usually on a seasonal basis.
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signal
answer
A behavior that causes change in another's behavior.
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communication
answer
Signals among animals that include sounds, odors, visual displays, and touches that produce responses.
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learning
answer
The modification of behavior based on specific experiences.
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habituation
answer
A loss of responsiveness to stimuli that convey little or no information.
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spatial learning
answer
The modification of behavior based on experience with the spatial structure of the environment.
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cognitive maps
answer
An internal representation of the spatial relationships between objects in an animal's surroundings.
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associative learning
answer
The ability of animals to associate one feature with another.
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classical conditioning
answer
An arbitrary stimulus is associated with an award or punishment.
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operant conditioning
answer
Learning based on the consequences of responding.
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cognition
answer
The ability of an animal's nervous system to perceive, store, process, and use information gathered by sensory receptors.
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foraging
answer
Behavior associated with recognizing, searching for, capturing, and consuming food.
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optimal foraging theory
answer
Views foraging behavior as a compromise between benefits of nutrition and costs of obtaining food.
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promiscuous
answer
No strong pair bonds or lasting relationships.
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monogamous
answer
One male mating with one female.
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polygamous
answer
An individual of one sex mating with several of the other.
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polygyny
answer
One male, several females.
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polyandry
answer
One female, several males.
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agonistic behavior
answer
Competition that determines who wins a prize, such as food or mates.
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game theory
answer
Evaluates alternate strategies when outcome depends not only on each individual's strategy but also that of others.
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altruism
answer
Behavior that benefits another without benefiting oneself.
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inclusive fitness
answer
The total effect an individual has on proliferating its genes by producing its own offspring and by providing aid that enables other close relatives to increase the production of their offspring.
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coefficient of relatedness
answer
Probability that if two individuals share common parent or ancestor, a particular gene present in one will be present in other.
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Hamilton's rule
answer
when C < r x B C = cost to the altruistic party r = genetic relatedness B = fitness benefit to recipient of altuism
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kin selection
answer
Natural selection that favors altruistic behaviors by enhancing reproductive success of relatives.
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social learning
answer
Learning through observing others.
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culture
answer
A system of information transfer through influential social learning or teaching.
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mate choice copying
answer
Individuals in a population copy mate choice of others.
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cell division
answer
The process in reproduction and growth by which a cell divides to form daughter cells.
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genome
answer
The ordering of genes in a haploid set of chromosomes of a particular organism.
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binary fission
answer
A form of asexual reproduction in single-celled organisms by which one cell divides into two cells of the same size.
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somatic cell
answer
Any of the cells of a plant or animal except the reproductive cells.
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chromosomes
answer
Threadlike structures made of DNA molecules that contain the genes.
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chromatin
answer
The readily stainable substance of a cell nucleus consisting of DNA and RNA and various proteins.
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sister chromatids
answer
Identical copies of a chromosome; full sets of these are created during the S subphase of interphase.
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centromere
answer
The region of the chromosome that holds the two sister chromatids together during mitosis.
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centriole
answer
In animal cells, a cytoplasmic organelle that organizes the mitotic spindle fibers during cell reproductions.
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cell cycle
answer
Series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide.
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mitosis
answer
Cell division in which the nucleus divides into nuclei containing the same number of chromosomes.
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M phase
answer
Mitosis and cytokinesis.
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cytokinesis
answer
Division of the cytoplasm to form two separate daughter cells.
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S phase
answer
The synthesis phase of the cell cycle; the portion of interphase during which DNA is replicated.
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G1 phase
answer
The first gap, or growth phase, of the cell cycle, consisting of the portion of interphase before DNA synthesis begins.
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G2 phase
answer
The second growth phase of the cell cycle, consisting of the portion of interphase after DNA synthesis occurs.
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interphase
answer
Cell grows, performs its normal functions, and prepares for division; consists of G1, S, and G2 phases.
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mitotic spindle
answer
An assemblage of microtubules and associated proteins that is involved in the movements of chromosomes during mitosis.
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centrosome
answer
A structure in animal cells containing centrioles from which the spindle fibers develop.
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kinetochore microtubules
answer
Connects the centrosome with the kinetochore in the centromere region of the chromosome.
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kinetochore
answer
A specialized region on the centromere that links each sister chromatid to the mitotic spindle.
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asters
answer
Microtubules and fibers that radiate out from the centrioles.
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metaphase plate
answer
Plane midway between the two poles of the cell where chromosomes line up during metaphase.
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cleavage furrow
answer
The first sign of cleavage in an animal cell; a shallow groove in the cell surface near the old metaphase plate.
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cell plate
answer
A double membrane across the midline of a dividing plant cell, between which the new cell wall forms during cytokinesis.
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density dependent inhibition
answer
The arrest of cell division that occurs when cells grown in a laboratory dish touch one another.
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growth factors
answer
Regulatory proteins that ensure that the events of cell division occur in the proper sequence and at the correct rate.
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restriction point
answer
A point of no return in the cell cycle; once this point passes, a cell is committed to a full round of the cell cycle.
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Cdk
answer
Complex of cyclin and kinase.
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MPF
answer
A cyclin-Cdk complex that causes the cell to move from interphase into mitosis.
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cancer
answer
Any malignant growth or tumor caused by abnormal and uncontrolled cell division.
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cleavage
answer
The process of cytokinesis in animal cells, characterized by pinching of the plasma membrane; specifically.
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allele
answer
One of the alternative forms of a gene that governs a characteristic, such as hair color.
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alteration of generations
answer
The alteration of two or more different forms in the life cycle of a plant or animal.
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asexual reproduction
answer
One parent produces a genetically identical offspring by mitosis.
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autosomes
answer
Chromosomes that are not directly involved in determining the sex of an individual.
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chiasmata
answer
X-shaped regions where crossing over occurred.
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clone
answer
An identical genetically individual of the parent
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crossing over
answer
Nonsister chromatids exchanging DNA segments.
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diploid cell
answer
Has two sets of chromosomes.
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fertilization
answer
Union of gametes.
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gametes
answer
A haploid cell such as an egg or sperm that unite during sexual reproduction to produce a diploid zygote.
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gametophyte
answer
The stage in the life cycle of a plant in which the plant produces gametes, or sex cells.
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genes
answer
Units of heredity made up of DNA.
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genetics
answer
Scientific study of heredity and variation.
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haploid
answer
One set of chromosomes.
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heredity
answer
Transmission of traits from one generation to the next.
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homologous chromosomes
answer
Pair of chromosomes that are the same size, same appearance and same genes.
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independent assortment
answer
The random distribution of the pairs of genes on different chromosomes to the gametes.
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karyotype
answer
Photograph of chromosomes grouped in order and in pairs.
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life cycle
answer
All of the events in the growth and development of an organism until the organism reaches sexual maturity.
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locus
answer
The specific site of a particular gene on its chromosome.
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nonsister chromatids
answer
Different chromatids (maternal and paternal) of the same chromosome.
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recombinant chromosomes
answer
Chromosomes that carry genes from each parent.
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sex chromosomes
answer
X and Y chromosomes.
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sexual reproduction
answer
When two parents give unique combination of genes to offspring.
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spores
answer
Produced by meiosis. Grow into haploid organisms by mitosis.
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sporophyte
answer
Diploid, or spore-producing, phase of an organism. Makes haploid spores by meiosis.
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synapsis
answer
Homologous chromosomes pair up, aligned gene by gene.
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tetrad
answer
A pair of chromosomes form tetrads made up of four chromatids.
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zygote
answer
Fertilized egg. Carries one set of chromosomes from each parent.
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variation
answer
Is demonstrated by the differences in appearance that offspring show from parents and siblings.
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character
answer
A heritable feature that varies among individuals.
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trait
answer
Each variant of a character.
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true-breeding
answer
Organisms that, when reproducing, create offspring of all the same variety.
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hybridization
answer
The crossing of two true-breeding parents.
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P generation
answer
The name for the true-breeding parents.
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F1 Generation
answer
The hybrid offspring of true-breeding parents.
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F2 Generation
answer
After the self-pollenization of the F1 generation, this is produced.
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The Law of Segregation
answer
Two alleles separate during gamete formation and end up in different gametes because they are on on homologous chromosomes.
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dominant allele
answer
An allele whose trait always shows up in the organism when the allele is present.
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recessive allele
answer
An allele that is masked when a dominant allele is present
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Punnett square
answer
A diagram for predicting the allele composition of offspring from a cross between individuals of known genetic makeup.
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homozygous
answer
An organism having a pair of identical alleles for a character, either dominant or recessive.
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phenotype
answer
An organism's traits.
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genotype
answer
An organism's genetic makeup.
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testcross
answer
The result of breeding a recessive homozygote with an organism of dominant phenotype but unknown genotype.
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monohybrids
answer
Parents that are heterozygous for one character.
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dihybrids
answer
Parents that are heterozygous for two characters.
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multiplication rule
answer
To determine the probability, we multiply the probability of one event by the probability of another.
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addition rule
answer
Considering mutually exclusive events, the probability of both occurring is the sum of the probabilities of each event.
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complete dominance
answer
When the phenotypes of the heterozygote and dominant homozygote are indistinguishable.
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codominance
answer
When which the phenotypes of both alleles are exhibited in the heterozygote.
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incomplete dominance
answer
Creates a blended phenotype; one allele is not completely dominant over the other.
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Tay-Sachs disease
answer
A human genetic disease caused by a recessive allele that leads to the accumulation of certain lipids in the brain. Seizures, blindness, and degeneration of motor and mental performance usually become manifest a few months after birth.
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quantitative characters
answer
Characters that vary in the population along a continuum (in gradations).
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polygenic inheritance
answer
An additive effect of two or more genes on a single phenotypic character.
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pedigree
answer
A diagram that shows the occurrence of a genetic trait in several generations of a family.
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cystic fibrosis
answer
A genetic disorder that is present at birth and affects both the respiratory and digestive systems.
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sickle-cell disease
answer
Genetic disorder in which red blood cells have abnormal hemoglobin molecules and take on an abnormal shape.
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Huntington's disease
answer
Genetic disorder that causes progressive deterioration of brain cells. caused by a dominant allele. symptoms do not appear until about the age of 30.
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aminocentesis
answer
Prenatal diagnostic technique that involves inserting a needle to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid that surrounds the fetus.
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chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
answer
Prenatal diagnostic technique that involves taking a sample of tissue from the chorion.
question
chromosome theory of inheritance
answer
According to this theory, genes are carried from parents to their offspring on chromosomes.
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XY system
answer
A sex determination system in which females have two of the same kind of sex chromosome and males have two different ones.
question
XO system
answer
A sex determination system in some insects in which O stands for the absence of a sex chromosome. Females are XX, Males are XO. Males produce two classes of sperm: X sperm and sperm with no chromosome. The sperm determines the sex of the offspring.
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ZW system
answer
A sex determination system in fish, butterflies, birds where males are ZZ and Females are ZW. The egg determines the sex of the offspring.
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haplo diploid system
answer
A sex determination system in most species of bees and ants in which there are no sex chromosomes. Females develop from fertilized eggs (diploid) and males develop from unfertilized eggs (haploid).
question
sex linked genes
answer
Genes located on the sex chromosomes.
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X linked genes
answer
Genes found on the X chromosome.
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Duchenne muscular dystrophy
answer
A human genetic disease caused by a sex-linked recessive allele; characterized by progressive weakening and a loss of muscle tissue.
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barr body
answer
A dense body formed from a deactivated X chromosome.
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hemophilia
answer
An X-linked recessive disorder in which blood fails to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding if injured.
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linked genes
answer
Genes located on the same chromosome that tend to be inherited together in genetic crosses.
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genetic recombination
answer
The regrouping of genes in an offspring that results in a genetic makeup that is different from that of the parents.
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parental types
answer
Offspring with a phenotype that matches one of the parental phenotypes.
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recombinant types
answer
Offspring who have inherited new combinations of genes and have phenotypes that don't match either parental phenotypes.
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crossing over
answer
Process in which homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their chromatids during meiosis.
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genetic map
answer
An ordered list of the genetic loci along a particular chromosome.
question
linkage map
answer
A genetic map based on recombination frequencies.
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map units
answer
A measurement of the distance between genes; one map unit is equivalent to a 1 percent recombination frequency.
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nondisjunction
answer
Error in meiosis in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate.
question
aneuploidy
answer
Abnormal number of chromosomes.
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monosomic
answer
A chromosomal condition in which a particular cell has only one copy of a chromosome, instead of the normal two.
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trisomic
answer
A chromosomal condition in which a particular cell has an extra copy of one chromosome, instead of the normal two.
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inversion
answer
A type of mutation in which the order of the genes in a section of a chromosome is reversed.
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deletion
answer
A change to a chromosome in which a fragment of the chromosome is removed.
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translocation
answer
Change to a chromosome in which a fragment of one chromosome attaches to a nonhomologous chromosome.
question
Downs Syndrome
answer
A congenital disorder caused by having an extra Chromosome 21.
question
genomic imprinting
answer
Variation in phenotype depending on whether an allele is inherited from the male or female parent.
question
cytogenetic maps
answer
A chart of a chromosome that locates genes with respect to chromosomal features distinguishable in a microscope.
question
transformation
answer
A change in genotype and phenotype due to the assimilation of external DNA by a cell.
question
bacteriophages
answer
A virus that infects bacteria; also called a phage.
question
semiconservative model
answer
Type of DNA replication in which the replicated double helix consists of one old strand, derived from the old molecule, and one newly made strand.
question
origins of replication
answer
Site where the replication of a DNA molecule begins, consisting of a specific sequence of nucleotides.
question
replication fork
answer
A Y-shaped region on a replicating DNA molecule where new strands are growing.
question
DNA polymerase
answer
An enzyme that catalyzes the formation of the DNA molecule.
question
lagging strand
answer
A discontinuously synthesized DNA strand that elongates by means of Okazaki fragments, each synthesized in a 5' to 3' direction away from the replication fork.
question
leading strand
answer
The new continuous complementary DNA strand synthesized along the template strand in the mandatory 5' to 3' direction.
question
Okazaki fragments
answer
Small fragments of DNA produced on the lagging strand during DNA replication, joined later by DNA ligase to form a complete strand.
question
primase
answer
An enzyme that joins RNA nucleotides to make the primer using the parental DNA strand as a template.
question
helicase
answer
An enzyme that untwists the double helix at the replication forks, separating the two parental strands and making them available as template strands.
question
single-strand binding protein (SSB)
answer
Binds to and stabilizes single-stranded DNA until it can be used as a template.
question
nuclease
answer
A DNA cutting enzyme that excises damaged DNA.
question
telomeres
answer
Repeated DNA sequences at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.
question
telomerase
answer
An enzyme that catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres in eukaryotic germ cells.
question
Watson and Crick
answer
Developed the double helix model of DNA.
question
Hersey-Chase Experiment
answer
Devised an experiment that showed that only the DNA of T2 phages enters a bacterial cell during infection.
question
Frederick Griffith
answer
Discovered transformation during an experiment that involved injecting mice with smooth S cells, rough R cells, heat-killed S cells, and heat-killed S cells with living R cells.
question
McCarty, Avery, & MacLeod
answer
Confirmed that the transforming agent in Griffith's experiment was DNA.
question
one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis
answer
The premise that a gene is a segment of DNA that codes for one polypeptide.
question
transcription
answer
Synthesis of an RNA molecule from a DNA template.
question
messenger RNA (mRNA)
answer
Carries genetic message from the DNA to he protein-synthesizing machinery of the cell.
question
Erwin Chargaff
answer
Discovered that DNA composition varies, but the amount of adenine is always the same as thymine and the amount of cytosine is always the same as guanine.
question
Meselson ; Stahl
answer
Determined that DNA replication is semiconservative.
question
translation
answer
The synthesis of a polypeptide, which occurs under the direction of mRNA.
question
ribosomes
answer
Complex particles that facilitate the orderly linking of amino acids into polypeptide chains.
question
RNA processing
answer
The modification of mRNA before it leaves the nucleus that is unique to eukaryotes.
question
primary transcript
answer
The initial mRNA transcript that is transcribed from a protein coding gene. Also called pre-mRNA.
question
triplet code
answer
Three-nucleotide long set that specifies a specific amino acid for a polypeptide chain.
question
template strand
answer
The DNA strand that provides the template for ordering the sequence of nucleotides in an mRNA transcript.
question
TATA box
answer
A promoter DNA sequence crucial in forming the transcription initiation complex.
question
promoter
answer
A specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that binds RNA polymerase and indicates where to start transcribing mRNA.
question
RNA polymerase
answer
Enzyme that links together the growing chain of ribonucleotides during transcription.
question
poly-A tail
answer
Modified end of the 3' end of an mRNA molecule consisting of the addition of some 50 to 250 adenine nucleotides.
question
terminator
answer
In prokaryotes, a special sequence of nucleotides in DNA that marks the end of a gene.
question
5' cap
answer
The 5' end of a pre-mRNA molecule modified by the addition of a cap of guanine nucleotide.
question
exons
answer
Coding segments of eukaryotic DNA.
question
anticodon
answer
Specialized base triplet at one end of a tRNA molecule that recognizes a particular complementary codon on an mRNA molecule.
question
one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis
answer
there is one gene that codes for one polypeptide
question
codons
answer
mRNA base triplets.
question
reading frame
answer
Reading mRNA nucleotides in the correct groupings.
question
transcription factors
answer
Collection of proteins that mediate the binding of RNA polymerase and the initiation of transcription.
question
transcription initiation complex
answer
The assembly of transcription factors and RNA polymerase.
question
RNA splicing
answer
Process by which the introns are removed from RNA transcripts and the remaining exons are joined together.
question
introns
answer
Noncoding segments of nucleic acid that lie between coding sequences.
question
splicosome
answer
Different particles that recognize splice sites are compiled in a large assembly. A complex of RNA and protein subunits. Removes introns from a transcribed pre-RNA segments.
question
ribozymes
answer
RNA molecules that function as enzymes.
question
alternative RNA splicing
answer
Genes giving rise to two or more different polypeptides depending upon which segments are treated as exons.
question
domains
answer
Discrete structural and functional regions of proteins.
question
transfer RNA (tRNA)
answer
Interpreter of a series of codons along a mRNA molecule.
question
wobble
answer
Flexibility in the base-pairing rules in which the nucleotide at the 5' end of a tRNA anticodon can form hydrogen bonds with more than one kind of base in the third position of a codon.
question
ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
answer
RNA molecules that construct ribosomal subunits.
question
ribosomal P site
answer
Site that holds tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain.
question
ribosomal A site
answer
Site that holds the tRNA carrying the next amino acid to be added to the chain.
question
Ribosomal E site
answer
Site where discharged tRNAs leave the ribosome.
question
polyribosomes
answer
Strings of ribosomes that work together to translate a RNA message.
question
signal peptide
answer
A stretch of amino acids on a polypeptide that targets the protein to a specific destination in a eukaryotic cell.
question
signal-recognition particle
answer
A protein-RNA complex that recognizes a signal peptide as it emerges from the ribosome.
question
mutations
answer
Random errors in gene replication that lead to a change in the sequence of nucleotides. The source of all genetic diversity.
question
point mutations
answer
chemical changes in just one base pair of a gene
question
missense mutations
answer
Most common type of mutation, a base pair mutation in which the new codon makes sense in that it still codes for an amino acid.
question
nonsense mutations
answer
A mutation that changes an amino acid codon to one of three stop codons, resulting in a shorter and usually nonfunctional protein.
question
frameshift mutation
answer
Mutation occurring when the number of nucleotides inserted or deleted is not a multiple of three, resulting in improper grouping of nucleotides into codons.
question
mutagens
answer
physical and chemical agents that interact with DNA to cause mutations
question
activator
answer
A protein that binds to DNA and stimulates transcription of a specific gene.
question
bacteriophage
answer
A virus that infects bacteria; also called a phage.
question
capsid
answer
The protein shell that encloses a viral genome. It may be rod-shaped, polyhedral, or more complex in shape.
question
cyclic AMP (cAMP)
answer
A compound formed from ATP that acts as a second messenger.
question
episome
answer
A genetic element that can exist either as a plasmid or as part of the bacterial chromosome.
question
F factor
answer
A piece of DNA that confers the ability form a sex pili.
question
F plasmid
answer
The plasmid form of the F factor.
question
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)
answer
The infectious agent that causes AIDS. HIV is a retrovirus.
question
host range
answer
The limited range of host cells that each type of virus can infect and parasitize.
question
inducer
answer
A specific small molecule that inactivates the repressor in an operon.
question
insertion sequence
answer
The simplest kind of transposable element, consisting of inverted repeats of DNA flanking a gene for transposase, the enzyme that catalyzes transposition.
question
lysogenic cycle
answer
A phage replication cycle in which the viral genome becomes incorporated into the bacterial host chromosome as a prophage and does not kill the host.
question
lytic cycle
answer
A type of viral (phage) replication cycle resulting in the release of new phages by lysis (and death) of the host cell.
question
nucleoid
answer
A dense region of DNA in a prokaryotic cell.
question
operator
answer
Region of DNA that controls RNA polymerase's access to a set of genes with related functions.
question
operon
answer
A unit of genetic function common in bacteria and phages, consisting of coordinately regulated clusters of genes with related functions.
question
plasmid
answer
A small ring of DNA that carries accessory genes separate from those of a bacterial chromosome; also found in some eukaryotes, such as yeast.
question
prophage
answer
A phage genome that has been inserted into a specific site on the bacterial chromosome.
question
provirus
answer
Viral DNA that inserts into a host genome.
question
R plasmid
answer
A bacterial plasmid carrying genes that confer resistance to certain antibiotics.
question
regulatory gene
answer
A gene that codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.
question
repressor
answer
A protein that suppresses the transcription of a gene.
question
retrovirus
answer
An RNA virus that reproduces by transcribing its RNA into DNA and then inserting the DNA into a cellular chromosome; an important class of cancer-causing viruses.
question
reverse transcriptase
answer
An enzyme encoded by some certain viruses (retroviruses) that uses RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
question
temperate phage
answer
A phage that is capable of reproducing by either the lytic or lysogenic cycle.
question
transposable genetic element
answer
A segment of DNA that can move within the genome of a cell by means of a DNA or RNA intermediate; also called a transposable element.
question
transposon
answer
A transposable genetic element that moves within a genome by means of a DNA intermediate.
question
vaccine
answer
A harmless variant or derivative of a pathogen that stimulates a host's immune system to mount defenses against the pathogen.
question
viral envelope
answer
A membrane that cloaks the capsid that in turn encloses a viral genome.
question
cell differentiation
answer
the process by which a cell becomes specialized for a specific structure or function.
question
gene expression
answer
Conversion of the information encoded in a gene first into messenger RNA and then to a protein.
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differential gene expression
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The expression of different sets of genes by cells with the same genome.
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histone acetylation
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The attachment of acetyl groups to certain amino acids of histone proteins.
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DNA methylation
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The addition of methyl groups to bases of DNA after DNA synthesis; may serve as a long-term control of gene expression.
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epigenetic inheritance
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Inheritance of traits transmitted by mechanisms not directly involving the nucleotide sequence.
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control elements
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segments of noncoding DNA in eukaryotic genes that help regulate transcription by binding to certain proteins.
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enhancer
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A DNA segment containing multiple control elements that can recognize certain transcription factors that stimulate the transcription of nearby genes.
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micro-RNA (miRNA)
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small single stranded RNA molecules that bind to mRNA and can degrade mRNA or block its translation.
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siRNAs (small interfering RNAs)
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RNAs of similar size and functions as miRNAs that inhibit gene expression.
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proteasomes
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A giant protein complex that recognizes and destroys proteins tagged for elimination by the small protein ubiquitin.
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RNA interference
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Blocking gene expression by means of an miRNA silencing complex.
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recombinant DNA
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A DNA molecule made in vitro with segments from different sources.
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biotechnology
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The manipulation of living organisms or their components to produce useful products.
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gene cloning
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The production of multiple copies of a gene.
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restriction enzyme
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A degradative enzyme that recognizes and cuts up DNA (including that of certain phages) that is foreign to a bacterium.
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restriction site
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A specific sequence on a DNA strand that is recognized as a cut siteby a restriction enzyme.
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restriction fragment
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The fragment of DNA that is produced by cleaving DNA with a restriction enzyme.
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sticky end
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A single-stranded end of a double-stranded DNA restriction fragment.
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DNA ligase
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A linking enzyme essential for DNA replication; catalyzes the covalent bonding of the 3' end of a new DNA fragment to the 5' end of a growing chain.
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cloning vector
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DNA molecules that can carry foreign DNA into a host cell and replicate there.
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nucleic acid hybridization
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Base pairing between a gene and a complementary sequence on another nucleic acid molecule.
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nucleic acid probe
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Radioactively labeled nucleic acid molecule used to tag a particular DNA sequence.
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denaturation
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In proteins, a process in which a protein unravels and loses its native conformation, thereby becoming biologically inactive. In DNA, the separation of the two strands of the double helix.
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genomic library
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A set of thousands of DNA segments from a genome, each carried by a plasmid, phage, or other cloning vector.
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complementary DNA (cDNA)
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DNA molecule made in vitro using mRNA as a template and the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
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cDNA library
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A limited gene library using complementary DNA. The library includes only the genes that were transcribed in the cells examined.
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expression vector
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A cloning vector that contains the requisite prokaryotic promoter just upstream of a restriction site where a eukaryotic gene can be inserted.
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yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)
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A cloning vector that has telomeres and a centromere that can accommodate large DNA inserts and uses the eukaryote yeast as a host cell.
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electroporation
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A technique to introduce recombinant DNA into cells by applying a brief electrical pulse to a solution containing the cells. The pulse creates temporary holes in the cells' plasma membrane, through which DNA can enter.
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polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
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A technique for amplifying DNA in vitro by incubating with special primers, DNA polymerase molecules, and nucleotides.
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gel electrophoresis
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The separation of nucleic acids or proteins, on the basis of their size and electrical charge, by measuring their rate of movement through an electrical field in a gel.
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Southern blotting
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A hybridization technique that enables researchers to determine the presence of certain nucleotide sequences in a sample of DNA.
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restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)
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differences in the restriction sites on homologous chromosomes that result in different restriction fragment patterns.
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Human Genome Project
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An international collaborative effort to map and sequence the DNA of the entire human genome.
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linkage map
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A genetic map based on the frequencies of recombination between markers during crossing over of homologous chromosomes.
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physical map
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A genetic map in which the actual physical distances between genes or other genetic markers are expressed, usually as the number of base pairs along the DNA.
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bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC)
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An artificial version of a bacterial chromosome that can carry inserts of 100, 000 to 500, 000 base pairs.
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DNA sequencing
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Determining the exact order of the base pairs in a segment of DNA.
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genetic engineering
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The direct manipulation of genes for practical purposes.
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genomic equivalence
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All cells in an organism contain the same complement of genes. These are the same set of genes that are established in the fertilized egg.
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totipotent
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Cells that are able to develop into any type of cell found in the body.
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cloning
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Making a genetically identical copy of DNA or of an organism.
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nuclear transplantation
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A technique in which the nucleus of one cell is placed into another cell that already has a nucleus or in which the nucleus has been previously destroyed.
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reproductive cloning
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Using a somatic cell from a multicellular organism to make one or more genetically identical individuals.
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stem cell
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Unspecialized cell that can both reproduce itself indefinitely and differentiate into specialized cells of one or more types.
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pluripotent
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Able to give rise to multiple, but not all, cell types.
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therapeutic cloning
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The cloning of human cells by nuclear transplantation for therapeutic purposes, such as the generation of embryonic stem cells to treat disease.
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determination
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The point during development at which a cell becomes committed to a particular fate due to cytoplasmic effects or to induction by neighboring cells.
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cytoplasmic determinants
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Maternal substances in egg that influence the course of early development.
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induction
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The process by which neighboring cells can influence the determination of a cell.
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photoautotrophs
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Organisms that use light as a source of energy to synthesize organic substances.
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leaf
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The major sites of photosynthesis in most plants.
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chlorophyll
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Green pigment located within the chloroplasts.
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mesophyll
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Spongy tissue in the interior of the leaf where most chloroplasts are found.
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stomata
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Microscopic pores in the leaf which lets CO2 in and O2 out. Also where water is lost.
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veins
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Bundles of xylem and phloem.
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granum
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Stack of thylakoids.
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stroma
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Fluid inside the chloroplast where the Calvin Cycle happens.
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thylakoid
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Flattened membranes in the chloroplast where the light reactions take place.
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light reaction
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Part of photosynthesis that involves light. ATP and NADPH are produced. Takes place on the thylakoid membrane.
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pigments
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Molecules that absorb, reflect, or transmit light.
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photosystem
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A cluster of pigments embedded into a thylakoid membrane.
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oxidizing agent
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Accepts electrons and becomes reduced.
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reducing agent
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Donates electrons and becomes oxidized.
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noncyclic photophosphorolation
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Photosystem II performs photolysis to provide electrons for the electron transport chain that drives a chemiosmotic gradient that produces ATP.
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cyclic photophosphorolation
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Only Photosystem I works. ATP is made, no oxygen is produced, no water is split, no NADPH is made.
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photolysis
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In the thylakoid membranes of a chloroplast during light-dependant reactions, two molecules of water are split to form oxygen, hydrogen ions, and electrons.
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phosphoralation
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Process of adding a phosphate group.
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carbon fixation
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The initial incorporation of carbon into organic compounds.
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calvin cycle
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Carbon fixation process in photosynthesis. Forms sugar and other organic compounds.
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absorption spectrum
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A graph plotting a pigment light light absorption.
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action spectrum
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A profile of the relative performance of the different wavelengths in photosynthesis.
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chlorophyll a
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Only pigment that can participate directly in the light reactions.
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carotenoids
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Accessory pigments that broaden the spectrum of colors that can drive photosynthesis.
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p680
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Reaction center chlorophyll in the photosystem II.
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p700
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Reaction center cholophyll in the photosystem I.
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reaction center
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The location of the first light driven chemical reaction of photosynthesis.
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primary electron acceptor
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Specialized molecule that shares a reaction center with the chlorophyll a molecule in the light reaction. traps high energy electron before it can return to ground state in the chlorophyll.
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chemiosmosis
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Process by which a Hydrogen pump pumps protons into the thylakoid membrane. H+ passively flows through the ATP synthase which leads to the creation of ATP.
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rubisco
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The most abundant protein on earth. Performs Carbon Fixation in the Calvin Cycle.
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sepal
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A modified leaf in angiosperms that helps enclose and protect a flower bud before it opens.
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petal
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A modified leaf of a flowering plant; petals are the often colorful parts of a flower that advertise it to insects and other pollinators.
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stamen
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The pollen-producing reproductive organ of a flower, consisting of an anther and a filament.
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carpel
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The ovule-producing reproductive organ of a flower, consisting of the stigma, style, and ovary.
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receptacle
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The base of a flower; the part of the stem that is the site of attachment of the floral organs.
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anther
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In an angiosperm, the terminal pollen sac of a stamen, where pollen grains containing sperm-producing male gametophytes form.
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ovary
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In flowers, the portion of a carpel in which the egg-containing ovules develop.
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style
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The stalk of a flower's carpel, with the ovary at the base and the stigma at the top.
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stigma
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The sticky part of a flower's carpel, which receives pollen grain.
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ovule
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A structure that develops within the ovary of a seed plant and contains the female gametophyte.
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pistil
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A single carpel or a group of fused carpels in a flower.
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complete flower
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A flower that has all four basic floral organs: sepals, petals, stamens, and carpels.
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incomplete flower
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A flower in which one or more of the four basic floral organs such as sepals, petals, stamens, or carpels are either absent or nonfunctional.
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inflorescence
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A group of flowers tightly clustered together.
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monoecious
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If staminate and carpellate flowers are on the same plant.
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dioecious
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If staminate and carpellate flowers are on different plants.
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self-incompatibility
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The ability of a seed plant to reject its own pollen and sometimes the pollen of closely related individuals.
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endosperm
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In angiosperms, a nutrient-rich tissue formed by the union of a sperm with two polar nuclei during double fertilization. Provides nourishment to the developing embryo in angiosperm seeds.
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double fertilization
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A mechanism of fertilization in angiosperms, in which two sperm cells unite with two cells in the embryo sac to form the zygote and endosperm.
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pollen tube
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A tube that forms after germination of the pollen grain and that functions in the delivery of sperm to the ovule.
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seed coat
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A tough outer covering of a seed, formed from the outer coat of an ovule.
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hypocotyl
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The part of a plant embryo directly below the cotyledons, forming a connection with the radicle.
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radicle
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An embryonic root of a plant.
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coleoptile
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Covers and protects the shoot as it grows upward.
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fruit
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A mature ovary of a flower that protects dormant seeds and often aids in their dispersal.
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simple fruit
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A fruit derived from a single carpel or several fused carpels.
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aggregate fruit
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A fruit derived from a single flower that has more than one carpel.
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multiple fruit
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A fruit derived from an entire inflorescence.
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dormancy
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A condition typified by extremely low metabolic rate and a suspension of growth and development.
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etiolation
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Plant morphological adaptations for growing in darkness.
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de-etiolation
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The changes a plant shoot undergoes in response to sunlight; also known informally as greening.
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tropism
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A growth response that results in the curvature of whole plant organs toward or away from stimuli owing to differential rates of cell elongation.
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phototropism
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Growth of a plant shoot toward or away from light.
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auxin
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Indoleacetic acid (IAA), a natural plant hormone that has a variety of effects, including cell elongation, root formation, secondary growth, and fruit growth.
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cytokinins
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A class of plant hormones that retard aging and act in concert with auxin to stimulate cell division, influence the pathway of differentiation, and control apical dominance.
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gibberellins
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A class of related plant hormones that stimulate growth in the stem and leaves, trigger the germination of seeds and breaking of bud dormancy, and stimulate fruit development.
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abscisic acid (ABA)
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A plant hormone that slows down growth, promotes seed dormancy and facilitates drought tolerance.
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ethylene
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The only gaseous plant hormone. Among its many effects are response to mechanical stress, programmed cell death, leaf abscission, and fruit ripening.
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triple response
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A plant growth maneuver in response to mechanical stress, involving slowing of stem elongation, a thickening of the stem, and a curvature that causes the stem to start growing horizontally.
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apoptosis
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Programmed cell death.
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leaf abscission
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Aging and dropping of leaves controlled by auxin and ethylene.
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fruit ripening
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A burst of ethylene production in a fruit triggers the ripening process.
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photomorphogenesis
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Effects of light on plant morphology.
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blue-light photoreceptors
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A class of light receptors in plants. Blue light initiates a variety of responses, such as phototropism and slowing of hypocotyl elongation.
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phytochromes
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A class of light receptors in plants. Mostly absorbing red light, these photoreceptors regulate many plant responses, including seed germination and shade avoidance.
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circadian rhythm
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A physiological cycle of about 24 hours that is present in all eukaryotic organisms and that persists even in the absence of external cues.
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photoperiodism
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A physiological response to photoperiod, the relative lengths of night and day. An example of photoperiodism is flowering.
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short-day plant
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A plant that flowers only when the light period is shorter than a critical length. Usually fall or winter.
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long-day plant
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A plant that flowers only when the light period is longer than a critical length. Usually spring or early summer.
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day-neutral plant
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A plant whose flowering is not affected by photoperiod.
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vernalization
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The use of cold treatment to induce a plant to flower.
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florigen
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A flowering signal, not yet chemically identified, that may be a hormone or may be a change in relative concentrations of multiple hormones.
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jasmonic acid
answer
An important molecule in plant defense against herbivores.
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virulent
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A term describing a pathogen against which a plant has little specific defense.
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avirulent
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A term describing a pathogen that can only mildly harm, but not kill, the host plant.
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gene-for-gene recognition
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A widespread form of plant disease resistance involving recognition of pathogen-derived molecules by the protein products of specific plant disease resistance genes.
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elicitors
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A molecule that induces a broad type of host defense response
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oligosaccharins
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A type of elicitor that is derived from cellulose fragments released by cell wall damage
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PR protein
answer
A protein involved in plant responses to pathogens (PR = pathogenesis-related).
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hypersensitive response (HR)
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A plant's localized defense response to a pathogen
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systemic acquired resistance (SAR)
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A defensive response in infected plants that helps protect healthy tissue from pathogenic invasion.
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salicylic acid
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A plant hormone that may be partially responsible for activating systemic acquired resistance to pathogens.
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reception
answer
The target cell's detection of a signal molecule coming from outside the cell.
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transduction
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The binding of the signal molecule changes the receptor protein in some way.
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response
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The transduced signal finally triggers a specific cellular response.
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G-protein-linked receptor
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A plasma membrane receptor that works with the help of a G-protein.
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receptor tyrosine kinase
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A receptor with enzymatic activity that can trigger more than one signal transduction pathway at once, helping the cell regulate and coordinate many aspects of cell growth and reproduction.
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ligand-gated ion channel
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Type of membrane receptor that has a region that can act as a "gate" when the receptor changes shape.
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diacylglycerol (DAG)
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A second messenger produced by the cleavage of a certain kind of phospholipid in the plasma membrane.
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topoisomerase
answer
Enzyme that functions in DNA replication, helping to relieve strain in the double helix ahead of the replication fork.
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chromatin
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The complex of DNA and proteins that makes up a eukaryotic chromosome.
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totipotent
answer
Stem cells with the potential to differentiate into any type of cell.
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repolarization
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Return of the cell to resting state, caused by reentry of potassium into the cell while sodium exits the cell.
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virulent
answer
Viruses that reproduce only by the lytic cycle.