Hospital based OP facilities expected how many hours out of 40 to be generating income (direct patient care)

-31.5/40 hours (78.75%) -41.8 completed visits (roughly 1.04 visits) in a typical workweek More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/lecture-4-productivity-and-the-millennials-workplace/

How many hours of orientation shall be provided before a certified nurse assistant can provide direct patient care?

8 The first eight (8) hours of orientation shall be conducted prior to providing direct patient care More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/dsd/

17. The focus of nursing informatics is: a. direct patient care. b. increasing documentation time. c. the introduction of different EHRs. d. how patient care can be improved.

ANS: D The focus of nursing informatics is not on direct patient care but on how the process of patient care can be improved and patient safety ensured. There are challenges to advancements in IT, such as increased amount of time spent documenting, cost of equipment, protection of patient privacy, use of different EHRs in different facilities, and resistance by health care providers to new technology. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-15-nursing-informatics-questions/

8. A nursing home executive interviews RNs to fill a full-time position for direct patient care to maintain the standards of elder care. Which nurse should the nursing home hire? a. Nurse from a certified college c. Nurse with 15 years of experience b. Certified gerontological nurse d. Gerontological nurse practitioner

ANS: B A certified gerontological nurse receives education and training to care for older adults, assuring the nursing home and the public that the nurse has mastered the specialized skills and knowledge to care for older adults according to gerontological nursing standards. A nurse educated in a certified college does not necessarily have specialty education and training in gerontology. A nurse with 15-years experience might have no experience with gerontology and offers no proof of specialized knowledge or skills. Although a gerontological nurse practitioner receives specialized education and training in gerontology, these nurses provide primary care in a nursing home. PTS: 1 DIF: Apply REF: 9 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-2-gerontological-nursing-history-education-and-roles/

Does the health record have a role in direct patient care?

Absolutely More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-8-6-43947/

Direct Patient Care test questions and answers | Get Access To Direct Patient Care Flashcards and exam tests

Q: Clinical professionals who provide direct patient care

Who are the primary users of the health record? More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/health-record-content-chapter-2/

Q: Provides direct patient care

function of the LPN/LVN More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/nursing-review-141/

Home Page Arts And Humanities English Linguistics Direct Patient Care

We've found 11 Direct Patient Care tests

Acute Renal Failure Anatomy Blood In The Urine Direct Patient Care End Stage Renal Failure Inflammation Of The Bladder Medical Terminology

Chapter 2 Medical Terminology – Flashcards 35 terms

Kaiya Hebert

35 terms

Preview

Chapter 2 Medical Terminology – Flashcards

question

The combining form for urine, urinary tract is _____.

answer

ur/o

question

The combining form neur/o means _____.

answer

nerve

question

The suffix meaning "pertaining to the study of" is:

answer

-logic

question

The combining form ped/o can mean either foot or _____.

answer

child

question

The combining form for eye is _____.

answer

ophthalm/o

question

_____ is the use of radiant energy or radioactive substances to treat disease.

answer

Radiotherapy

question

_____ is the branch of medicine concerned with the administration of drugs or agents that are capable of producing a total loss of feeling.

answer

Anesthesiology

question

The suffix that means practitioner is _____.

answer

-iatrician

question

_____ is a medical specialty concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of conditions affecting the nose.

answer

Rhinology

question

Which type of physician would a pregnant woman consult in preparation for childbirth?

answer

obstetrician

question

A patient with a heart condition may be referred to a(n) _____.

answer

cardiologist

question

George has been healthy most of his adult life, but since his 80th birthday, several of his body systems don't seem to be functioning as well as before. Which kind of medical specialist should George consult?

answer

geriatrician

question

A physician who uses radiation to destroy cancer cells is called a(n) _____.

answer

radiation oncologist

question

_____ is the combining form in the terms immunology and immunologist.

answer

Immun/o

question

_____ is the general study of the characteristics, causes, and effects of disease.

answer

Pathology

question

Choose the word part that completes the term _____logist, meaning a physician trained to diagnose and treat skin disorders.

answer

dermat/o

question

Disorders caused by abnormal fluctuations of growth hormones in the body would be investigated by a(n) _____.

answer

endocrinologist

question

Patients with disorders of the blood (hemat/o) consult with which type of medical specialist?

answer

hematologist

question

A specialist in the branch of medicine that specializes in disorders of the bones and associated structures is called an _____.

answer

orthopedist

question

Physicians who look at the incidence, prevalence, spread, prevention, and control of disease or health-related events are called _____.

answer

epidemiologists

question

The branch of medicine involved in the study of cancerous growths, or malignancies, is _____.

answer

oncology

question

The medical specialty that involves the diagnosis and treatment of persons who suffer sudden illness or trauma and require immediate medical care is called _____.

answer

emergency medicine

question

The health rehabilitation profession that deals with the evaluation, diagnosis, and treatment of persons whose ability to perform the activities of daily living has been compromised by injury, illness, or aging is called _____.

answer

occupational therapy

question

Which term means the specialty of caring for newborns?

answer

neonatology

question

The practice of preparing and dispensing drugs is called _____.

answer

pharmacy

question

The combining form in the term otology is _____. The term means _____.

answer

ot/o, study of the ear

question

The suffix in the term psychiatrist is _____.

answer

-iatrist

question

The term rhinology contains which combining form?

answer

rhin/o

question

Radiologist contains which word root?

answer

radi/o

question

Which combining forms are in the term otolaryngology?

answer

ot/o, laryng/o

question

What is the prefix in the term anesthesia?

answer

an-

question

Type the term meaning "study of the care and treatment of newborns".

answer

neonatology

question

Type the term meaning "specialist in the study of drugs and medicines".

answer

pharmacologist

question

During pregnancy and through the process of childbirth, a woman is cared for by a physician known as a(n) _____, abbreviated _____.

answer

obstetrician, OB

question

Which professions, abbreviated LPN and LVN, are health care workers who train in basic nursing techniques and direct patient care and work under the supervision of a registered nurse?

answer

licensed practical nurse, licensed vocational nurse

STUDY

American Nurses Association Direct Patient Care Evidence Based Practice Nursing

WEEK 1 EBP – Flashcards 33 terms

Bettina Hugo

33 terms

Preview

WEEK 1 EBP – Flashcards

question

PICO-a technique used in health research for formulating a clinical question

answer

Patient, population or problem Interventions Comparisons Outcomes

question

Category of question?

answer

Once your question is developed its helpful to understand the category type of your question. Clinical questions generally fall into one of the following areas - diagnosis, therapy, harm or etiology, and prognosis. The type of question will influence the search strategies you will pursue, and the types of resources you will consult

question

Diagnosis

answer

Questions concerning the ability of a test to predict the likelihood of a disease. "In patients with suspected depression what is the accuracy of a two-question case-finding instrument for depression compared with six-previously validated instruments?"

question

Therapy

answer

Questions concerning the effectiveness of a treatment or preventative measure. "In children with colds, are zinc lozenges safe and effective for relief of cold symptoms?"

question

Harm/Etiology

answer

Questions concerning the likelihood of a therapeutic intervention to cause harm. "Is there an increased risk of breast cancer for a healthy post-menopausal patient on HRT?"

question

Prognosis

answer

Questions concerning outcome of a patient with a particular condition. "What are the risk factors for developing diabetes mellitus type II in adolescent males?"

question

Are there any risks associated with Evidence Based Medicine?

answer

Three: Evidence based paralysis=looking for the perfect evidence which doesn't exist instead look for the best evidence which might just be a professional opinion, Changing your entire belief system because of one Latest and Greatest Experiment always be skeptical of everything we read, EBM Ass-hole=don't alienate the people we are trying to teach by the way we are presenting research who you are where you work and who you treat may be different than who you are talking with thus the evidence may mean something different to them.

question

What is evidence based medicine?

answer

Clinical Experience, Patient Preferences, Best Evidence=intersection between all three is Evidence Based Medicine or (The Optimal Decision)

question

How to Create an Answerable Clinical Question?

answer

1. Two Types of Questions: • Background:BROAD provides general concepts and options for interventions Example: What are some techniques used to prevent pressure ulcers during hospitalization? • Foreground: Once the Background Question is asked you ask the Foreground Question (could be made into a PICO question)-FOCUSED asked something specific in order to make an informed clinical decision or action Example: How does continuous lateral rotation compare to mattress overlays in preventing the occurrence of pressure ulcers?

question

Could a Background question be formatted using PICO?

answer

1. Absolutely NOT only Foreground questions can be formatted into PICO questions.

question

What is the PICO format?

answer

1. P (Problem, Patient, Population, Program), I (Intervention, prognostic factor or exposure) aka what I am wanting to do to help the patient, C (Comparison) aka what you are doing now to help patient, O (Outcome) what can you hope to accomplish, measure, improve, or affect Also the health practitioner needs to know about the study 1. T (Type of Question) and T (type of study)? What type of Question goes with which study or research design to answer particular question? Therapy (RCT, Systematic review, meta-analysis), Diagnosis (Prospective, Blind comparison to gold standard), Etiology/Harm (cohort study, Case-control study, case series), Prognosis (Cohort Study), Quality Improvement (RCT and qualitative studies), Cost (Economic evaluation)

question

Therapy study

answer

Most common question (RCT, Systematic review, meta-analysis)

question

Diagnosis study

answer

(Prospective, Blind comparison to gold standard) RCT is not the best study design for diagnostic studies (more covered in week 5) Prospective cohort study design that can be formatted into a 2x2 table

question

Etiology/Harm study

answer

(cohort study, Case-control study, case series) (more in week 5)

question

Prognosis study

answer

(Cohort Study) (More in week 4)

question

Quality Improvement study

answer

(RCT and qualitative studies)

question

Cost study

answer

(Economic evaluation)

question

What is the Search Process?

answer

1. 1. Problem/ construct question 2. Formulate your search strategy 3. Choose the appropriate database or resource for your topic 4. Perform the search 5. Evaluate the results 6. Good results=Use the data Bad results=start over

question

How to read a research paper?

answer

Title and Abstract, Methods, and Results should be the most objective sections of the paper. Intro, Discussion, and conclusion are subjective

question

Study Design? Evidence Hierarchy Pyramid

answer

the bottom of the pyramid usually cannot prove causality Studies further up the pyramid get stronger and stronger at inferring causality

question

Even if a treatments effects are supported by best evidence, what four questions must I consider before concluding that I should use the treatment?

answer

• Do you have good reason to believe that your patient is sufficiently similar to the patients in the studies you have examined? • does the treatment have a clinically relevant benefit that outweighs the harms? • Is another treatment better? • Are the patient's values and circumstances compatible with the treatment?

question

What are the different kinds of study designs?

answer

• Case series and case reports-collections of reports on the treatment of individual patients or a report on a single patient. No control groups to compare outcomes • Case control studies-patients WHO ALREADY HAVE A SPECIFIC CONDITION are compared with people who do not have the condition • Cohort studies-identify a group of patients who are ALREADY TAKING A PARTICULAR TREATMENT OR HAVE AN EXPOSURE, follow them forward over time, and then compare their outcomes with a similar group that has not been affected by the treatment or exposure being studied. • Randomized controlled clinical trials- are carefull planned experiments that introduce a treatment or exposure to study its effect on real patients. Use randomization and blinding and use comparison between intervention group and control group (control=no intervention) • Systematic review-focus on a clinical topic and answer a specific question • Meta-analysis-thoroughly examine a number of valid studies on a topic and mathematically combine the results using accepted statistical methodology to report the results as if it were one large study • Cross-sectional studies-describe the relationship between diseases and other factors at one point in time in a defined population. This is a controlled trial that looks at patients with varying degrees of an illness and administers both diagnostic tests-the test under investigation and the "GOLD STANDARD" test=to all of the patients in the study group. The sensitivity and specificity of the new test are compared to that of the gold standard to determine potential usefulness • Qualitative research- answers a wide variety of questions related to human responses to actual or potential health problems. The purpose of qualitative research is to describe, explore and explain the health-related phenomena being studied. • Retrospective cohort (or historical cohort)-follow the same direction of inquiry as a cohort study. Subjects begin with the presence or absence of an exposure or risk factor and are followed until the outcome of interest is observed. However, this study design uses information that has ben collected in the past and kept in files or databases.

question

What are the three question that need to be answered for every type of study?

answer

1. Are the results of the study valid? What are the results? will the results help in caring for my patient?

question

What are the validity criteria?

answer

• Randomization: were patients randomized? • Concealed allocation: Was group allocation concealed? • Baseline characteristics: Were patients in the study similar with respect to known prognostic (aka intervention) variables? • Blinding: To what extent was the study blinded? • Follow-up: Was follow-up complete? • Intention to treat: Were patients analyzed in the groups to which they were first allocated? Equal treatment: Aside from the experimental intervention, were the groups treated equally?

question

Results terms.

answer

Experimental Event Rate (EER) = 15 / 20 = 75% outcome present / total in experimental group Control Event Rate (CER) = 2 / 20 = 10% outcome present / total in control group Absolute Benefit Increase (ABI) = 75% - 10% = 65% is the arithmetic difference between the rates of events in the experimental and control group. An Absolute Benefit Increase (ABI) refers to the increase of a good event as a result of the intervention. An Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR) refers to the decrease of a bed event as the result of the intervention. [ARR = EER-CER] Relative Risk (RR) = .75 / .10 = 7.5 is the ratio of the risk in the experimental group compared to the risk in the control group.proportional reduction in risk between the rates of events in the control group and the experimental group. [RR = EER/CER] Relative Benefit Increase (RBI) = 65% / 10% = 650% is the proportional increase in benefit between the rates of events in the control group and the experimental group. [RBI = EER - CER / CER] Numbers Needed to Treat (NNT) = 1 / .65 = 2 is the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one bad outcome or produce one good outcome. In other words, it is the number of patients that a clinician would have to treat with the experimental treatment compared to the control treatment to achieve one additional patient with a favorable outcome. [NNT = 1/ARR]

question

Clinical versus statistical significance?

answer

Large studies can be significant without being clinically important and small studies may be important without being significant.

question

Applying results to my patients?

answer

• Were the study patients similar to my population of interest? • Does your patient match the study inclusion criteria? If not, are there compelling reasons why the results should not apply to your patient? • Were all clinically important outcomes considered? • Are the likely treatment benefits worth the potential harm and costs?

question

Ms. MP is an 86 year old highly-functional resident of Croasdaile who presents to the emergency room after a fall in her home. Workup identifies a right femur fracture. The orthopaedic surgeon recommends urgent repair and perioperative antibiotics. Ms. MP, who with her husband operated a health food store for 40 years, has spent her life avoiding medications and using natural remedies. Her husband mentions concern over the possibility of diarrhea as a side effect of the antibiotics and asks if using fermented milk with lactobacillus or some other probiotic product would prevent this side effect. Should she start taking a form of probiotic to prevent this problem?

answer

ASK the question Choose the BEST clinical question: What is the best treatment for diarrhea? In patients taking antibiotics, are probiotics helpful in preventing diarrhea? BEST CLINICAL QUESTION Do probiotics prevent diarrhea in the elderly hospitalized patient? Choose the best PubMed search strategy to address the clinical question. Search: diarrhea AND best treatment Limited to Free Full Text. Search: diarrhea AND probiotics AND elderly AND female AND adult Limited to English. Search: antibiotics AND diarrhea AND probiotics Limited to randomized controlled trial. BEST PUBMED SEARCH STRATEGY

question

1. You are working in an out-patient Physical Therapy Department in a rural community in North Carolina. Your regular patient, Ms. Baxter is here for her monthly visit for physical therapy related to osteoarthritis of the hip. She is 65 years old, recently retired and has no other serious medical problems. She shows up wearing a new magnetic bracelet which her daughter sent her. Her daughter swears that this will help the hip pain. Ms. Baxter is very skeptical and asks you if you would recommend the bracelet for pain control. You don't know if there is any good evidence to demonstrate the effectiveness of the magnetic bracelets but promise to look into it before her next visit. Will this bracelet help her hip pain?

answer

ASK the question Choose the BEST clinical question: Do magnets help control pain in elderly patients? Do magnetic bracelets help control pain in patients with osteoarthritis? Do magnetics help control pain in patients with osteoarthritis of the hip? (BEST CLINICAL QUESTION) Choose the best PubMed search strategy to address the clinical question. Search: magnets AND pain AND elderly Limited to English. Search: magnetics AND osteoarthritis AND hip Limited to randomized controlled trial. (BEST PUBMED SEARCH STRATEGY) Search: magnetics AND pain Limited to randomized controlled trial.

question

19. Peripheral IV catheter insertion is a common nursing procedure often required for the administration of chemotherapy, antibiotics, blood products, fluids, and other medical therapies in hematologic patients with cancer. Although necessary and usually brief, IV insertion often is a source of patient anxiety and discomfort and can be extremely difficult to achieve, particularly in individuals receiving repeated courses of chemotherapy. Unfortunately, not all IV insertions are successful on the first attempt; multiple attempts may occur, which may cause patient distress and anxiety and increase costs as a result of additional supplies and nursing time. Nurses currently use various techniques, including heat, to improve the success rates of IV insertion; however, few are based on evidence. (Fink RM, 2009) In an effort to improve the patient experience you are asked by the Nursing Council to look at the evidence for using dry versus moist heat for IV catheterization.

answer

ASK the question Choose the BEST clinical question: Is dry or moist heat more effective at reducing pain and anxiety? Does heat help improve the time to insertion of an IV catheter? Is dry or moist heat helpful in reducing pain and time of IV catheter insertion in patients undergoing chemotherapy? (BEST CLINICAL QUESTION) Choose the best PubMed search strategy to address the clinical question. Search: heat AND chemotherapy Limited to randomized controlled trial. Search: hyperthermia AND catheterization Limited to randomized controlled trial. (BEST PUBMED SEARCH STRATEGY) Search: heat AND IV catheter Limited to Human and English and last 5 years.

question

What is a Boolean connector?

answer

(AND, OR, NOT)

question

What is MeSH?

answer

Medical Subject Headings database

question

What is the CINAHL Database?

answer

The Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature

STUDY

Direct Patient Care Ethics Of Care Making Ethical Decisions Nursing

Fundamentals Exam 1 -TAMUCC – Flashcards 82 terms

Joel Boykin

82 terms

Preview

Fundamentals Exam 1 -TAMUCC – Flashcards

question

Justice

answer

Fairness and is used frequently in discussion regarding access to health care resources

question

Fidelity

answer

Agreement to keep promises

question

Benificence

answer

Taking positive actions to help others; do good

question

Nonmalficence

answer

Avoidance of harm; Do no harm

question

Ethics

answer

Distinguishing between right and wrong

question

Morality

answer

Behavior in accordance with customs or tradition. Usually reflecting personal or religious beliefs

question

Autonomy

answer

Refers to the freedom to make decisions free of external control Respect for this refers to the commitment to include patients in decisions about all aspects of care.

question

Advocate

answer

A person who speaks up for or acts on the behalf of the patient, protects the patient's right to make his or her own decisions, and upholds the principle of fidelity.

question

Feminest Ethics

answer

Focuses on the nature of relationships, especially those where the is a power imbalance or point of view that is ignored or invisible.

question

Utilitarianism

answer

The greatest good for the greatest number of people

question

Consent

answer

The client's approval (or that of the client's legal representative) to have his or her body touched by a specific individual. They are legal documents that indicate the client's permission to perform surgery, perform a treatment or procedure, or give info to a third party.

question

Living Will

answer

Can be changed (as long as the pt. is not declared legally incompetent or lacks the capacity to make decisions)

question

Assault

answer

Any action that places a person in reasonable fear of harmful, imminent, or unwelcome contact. No actual contact is required for this to occur. Ex: Verbal

question

Battery

answer

Any intentional touching without consent. This is physical

question

Restraints

answer

Anything that will restrain the pt. Try least invasive first.

question

When can restraints be used? *Select all that apply* a. Only to ensure the physical safety of the pt or other pts. b. When less restrictive interventions are not successful. c. Only on the written order of a health care provider. d. Whenever the nurse feels they are necessary.

answer

A, B, C

question

Libel

answer

A published false statement that is damaging to a person's reputation. EX: Writing false information in the chart.

question

Slander

answer

The action or crime of making a false spoken statement damaging to a person's reputation

question

Negligence

answer

Conduct that is lacking in care; care provided by non-professionals

question

Standard of care

answer

Deviation from what a reasonable person would do in the same situation.

question

Malpractice

answer

Professional negligance; Professional actions by professional people; Failure to act in a reasonable manner as a person with the same education experiences would in the same situation.

question

What are incident reports used for?

answer

As a means of identifying risk situations and improving client care.

question

Veracity

answer

The principle of truth telling, and it is grounded in respect for persons and the concept of autonomy

question

T or F. Carbs are the main source of energy

answer

True

question

What are the two types of carbs?

answer

Simple and Complex

question

Simple carbs

answer

Glucose, fructose, galactose

question

Complex carbs

answer

Fiber; exist naturally in grains, potatoes; Increasing fiber intake deters constipation and enhances appetite

question

What is the normal value for total serum protein? a. 19-38 b. 3.5-5/2 c. 6-8

answer

question

What is the normal value for albumin? a. 19-38 b. 3.5-5/2 c. 6-8

answer

question

What is the normal value for Pre-Albumin? a. 19-38 b. 3.5-5/2 c. 6-8

answer

question

HDL Cholesterol

answer

"Good" cholesterol; Male levels: >40 mg/dl ; Female levels: >50 mg/dl General recommendation is >60 mg/dl

question

LDL

answer

"Lousy" or "Bad" Cholesterol; <100 mg/dl

question

Total Cholesterol

answer

Calculation: LDL+HDL+ (1/5) Triglyceride. Goal: <200 mg/dl

question

BMI Greater than 30 means what? a. Overweight b. Obese c. Normal d. Underweight

answer

question

BMI that is 25-30 is what? a. Overweight b. Obese c. Normal d. Underweight

answer

question

BMI that is <25 is what? a. Overweight b. Obese c. Normal d. Underweight

answer

question

BMI that is <18.5 is what? a. Overweight b. Obese c. Normal d. Underweight

answer

question

What is Esophageal Dysphagia?

answer

It's where the food stops in the esophagus. Caused by narrowing of esophagus. Signs and Symptoms are: Heartburn, chest pain.

question

What is Oropharyngeal Dysphagia?

answer

It is difficulty moving food to back of mouth to swallow. Liquid is more of a problem. Signs/Symptoms: Drooling, choking, coughing during or after meals, pocketing of food between teeth and cheeks, weight loss

question

What is a stressor?

answer

Physical stress, injury, infection

question

Stress effects on body

answer

Signals the SNS, dilates pupil, increases HR, CO, BP, blood flow to skeletal muscles, glucose, Respiratory rate, dilates brochiolars, increases mental activity

question

Critical Thinker

answer

Considers what is important in each clinical situation, imagines and explores alternatives, considers ethical principles, and makes informed decisions about the care of patients.

question

What is urine that remains in the bladder after voiding? a. Retention b. Residual Urine c. Bladder Scan

answer

question

What is it called when there is a distended bladder due to nerve impulses not being perceived of muscle fibers unable to function? a. Retention b. Residual Urine c. Bladder Scan

answer

question

It is used for postvoid residual; measure 10 min after voiding. a. Retention b. Residual Urine c. Bladder Scan

answer

question

What is oliguria?

answer

Production of abnormally SMALL amount of urine.

question

What is the perineum/perineal area?

answer

The region of the body below the pelvis and between the legs, includes the anus, and in females, the vagina

question

What is micturition?

answer

Contraction and relaxation of the walls of the bladder.

question

What is Polyuria?

answer

Production of abnormally LARGE amounts of urine.

question

What is Anuria?

answer

Failure of the kidneys to produce urine

question

What is Nocturia?

answer

Waking up in the middle of the night to urinate

question

What is Urinary retention?

answer

Inability to completely or partially empty bladder.

question

What is Hesitancy?

answer

Trouble starting urination

question

What is Urgency?

answer

Sudden compelling urge to urinate.

question

What is Dysuria?

answer

Painful urination

question

What is Hematuria?

answer

Blood in urine

question

What is Noctural Enuresis

answer

Bedwetting

question

What is Specific Gravity?

answer

How concentrated the urine is.

question

What is the normal urine output?

answer

100mL/hour; 1200-1500 mL/day

question

< 30 mLs/hour or lack of urine output for more than 15 minutes means what?

answer

Abnormal= You want to notify the doctor IMMEDIATELY.

question

What does urinary incontinence mean?

answer

Leaking urine.

question

What are the types of urinary incontinences? *Select all that apply* a. Stress b. Urge c. Overflow d. Functional

answer

All of the above

question

Stress Incontinence

answer

Leak urine when you laugh, sneeze, cough or exert pressure on the bladder.

question

Urge Incontinence

answer

Also called: Overactive bladder. When you have a sudden and intense urge to urinate, even if you have just emptied your bladder. In other words, you have an urgent need to get to the bathroom and may not get there in time and you leak urine

question

Overflow Incontinence

answer

You are not able to empty your bladder appropriately therefore you have leakage once the bladder is full... dribbling of urine

question

Functional Incontinence

answer

When physical problems such as dementia prevent you from getting to the bathroom on time (LTC pts)

question

What are some interventions for urinary incontinence?

answer

1. Assist pt in voiding. a) warm water over perineal area. b) assume normal position. c) Privacy. d) Power of suggestion. (running water while the pee) 2. Pelvic floor exercises/Kegel exercises. 3. Timed voiding/ bladder training-Complete a chart of the times you urinate and the times you leak. You observe patterns and then plan to empty your bladder before an accident would likely occur. Retrain your bladder by gradually increasing the time between bathroom visits 4. Catheter

question

What are some considerations for older pts. when it comes to urination?

answer

Decreased ability of kidneys to concentrate urine and decreased bladder capacity = nocturia Decreased muscle tone of bladder = increased frequency Decreased bladder contractility & stasis= increased frequency of UTI Changes in cognition and mobility (in some)= increased incontinence issues

question

What is peristalsis?

answer

The involuntary constriction and relaxation of the muscles of the intestines creating wavelike movements that push the contents forward

question

What is digital removal? Do you have to have a dr. order?

answer

Using your fingers (digits), to remove the stool. Yes, you have to have a dr. order.

question

What are HYPOactive bowel sounds?

answer

HYPOmotility of GI tract -> constipation

question

What are HYPERactive bowel sounds?

answer

HYPERmotility of GI tract -> Diarrhea

question

What is the lab reference range for K+ (potassium)? a. 5-25 b. 3.5-5.5 c. 3.5-5.7 d. 4.6-6

answer

3.5-5.5

question

What is the lab reference range for Na+ (sodium)? a. 98-107 b. 138-148 c. 8.2-10 d. 70-110

answer

138-148

question

What is the lab reference range for Cl- (chlorine)? a. 98-107 b. 3.5-5.5 c. 31-41 d. 0.6-1.5

answer

98-107

question

What is the lab reference range for CO2? a. 0.6-1.5 b. 3.5-5.5 c. 3.5-5.7 d. 31-41

answer

31-41

question

What is the lab reference range for BUN? a. 138-148 b. 5-25 c. 0.6-1.5 d. 98-107

answer

5-25

question

What is the lab reference range for Cr? a. 3.5-5.5 b. 0.6-1.5 c. 70-110 d. 98-107

answer

0.6-1.5

question

What is the lab reference range for Gluc? a. 4.6-6 b. 31-41 c. 8.2-10 d. 70-110

answer

70-110

question

What is the lab reference range for Ca++? a. 70-110 b. 0.6-1.5 c. 8.2-10 d. 5-25

answer

8.2-10

question

What is the lab reference range for Alb? a. 3.5-5.5 b. 3.5-5.7 c. 0.6-1.5 d. 4.6-6

answer

3.5-5.7

question

What is the lab reference range for HbA1c? a. 3.5-5.7 b. 3.5-5.5 c. 4.6-6 d. 8.2-10

answer

4.6-6

STUDY

Direct Patient Care Long Term Care Facility

California State Exam Practice Q & A – Flashcards 201 terms

Daniel Jimmerson

201 terms

Preview

California State Exam Practice Q & A – Flashcards

question

No nursing facility, agency or public institution shall make or disseminate false or misleading statements or advertisements regarding training provided. (71828) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Which of the following is a requirement of the DSD or Instructor during a performance evaluation for non-certified nursing assistants? (71833) A. A performance evaluation is not a requirement. B. Must be an LVN or RN. C. Must be free from other responsibilities. D. Non-certified nursing assistants are not allowed to work in a SNF.

answer

C. Must be free from other responsibilities.

question

In a certified training program, supervised clinical training shall be done between what hours? (71835) A. 6:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m. B. 7:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. C. 9:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. D. 6:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.

answer

D. 6:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.

question

Prior to any direct contact with a patient at least 16 hours of training shall be provided in the following areas except? (71835) A. Communications and interpersonal skills. B. Promoting the independence of patients. C. Infection Control. D. Assessment and diagnosis.

answer

D. Assessment and diagnosis.

question

Which module addresses bed making, admissions, collections of specimens, bandages and dry dressing? (71835) A. Patient care skills. B. Long term care patient. C. Patient care procedures. D. Introduction.

answer

C. Patient care procedures.

question

When a non-certified or certified assistant has a change of address who is responsible to notify the Department? (71837) A. The DSD or instructor. B. The individual applying or holding the certificate. C. The facility. D. The administrator.

answer

B. The individual applying or holding the certificate.

question

When an individual completes the CNA program and passes the examination, who notifies the Department? (71837) A. Administrator. B. Individual completing the program. C. The DSD or instructor. D. The facility

answer

C. The DSD or instructor.

question

One hour of classroom theory shall be accepted as how many hours of CEU's? (71845) A. 1 Hour B. 2 Hours C. 3 Hours D. 0 Hours

answer

A. 1 Hour

question

Three hours of clinical training shall be accepted as how many hours of CEU's? (71845) A. 1 Hour B. 2 Hours. C. 3 Hours. D. 0 Hours.

answer

A. 1 Hour

question

What is the wage requirement for a CNA attending an in-service training session? (71847) A. Half the normal rate B. Minimum wage C. At least the normal hourly wage D. Double time

answer

C. At least the normal hourly wage.

question

Providers who are out of compliance with Chapter 2.5 shall make the corrections to the program within what time frame? (71853) A. 30 Days B. 60 Days C. 2 Months D. 90 Days

answer

B. 60 Days

question

An object or an article of clothing or material that is not in itself contaminated but is able to harbor pathogenic microorganisms which may by that means be transmitted to others is known as what? (72049) A. Fomites B. Scabies C. Carrier D. Host

answer

A. Fomites

question

A voluntary agreement of a patient or representative of an incapacitated patient to accept a treatment or procedure after receiving information is known as what? (72052) A. Voluntary consent. B. Informed consent. C. Consent to treat. D. Admission agreement.

answer

B. Informed consent.

question

A licensed Psychiatric Tech is also a licensed nurse. (72057) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Unit patient health record is also known as what? (72119) A. Financial chart. B. Patient medical record. C. Patient chart. D. Patient care plan.

answer

B. Patient medical record.

question

Separate licenses are required for separate buildings even though they are on the same grounds or adjacent grounds. (72207) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

License renewal fees are required to be paid even during the period of suspension. (72215) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

How does a licensee keep their license current if their license automatically expires because it was not reinstated during an approved period of suspension. (72215) A. Apply for reinstatement. B. Automatic renewal one year after completion of suspension. C. Apply for a new license. D. At completion of suspension license will automatically renew.

answer

C. Apply for a new license.

question

If an unusual occurrence involves the discontinuance or disruption of services occurring during other than regular business hours of the Department, which of the following would be true? (72513) A. Fax a written notice to the Department immediately. B. Call it in and leave a message. C Make a telephone report ASAP when the Department resumes business hours. D. Report verbally within hours of the next business day.

answer

C. Make a telephone report ASAP when the Department resumes business hours.

question

How often must the advisory dentist prove oral hygiene in-service to personnel and review oral hygiene policies and procedures? (72301) A. Quarterly. B. Annually. C. Every six months. D. Not required.

answer

B. Annually

question

An unlicensed person may under direct supervision of a licensed nurse or licensed medical personnel may administer the following except which one? (72313) A. Medicinal shampoos and baths. B. Laxative, suppositories and enemas. C. Non legend topical applications for intact skin. D. Eye and/or ear drops.

answer

D. Eye and/or ear drops.

question

Initials may be used for administering medications or treatment only when what? (72313) A. The person's signature is in the medication/treatment record. B. It is the initials of the nurse giving the medication. C. Only if policy and procedure is being followed. D. Only when the 2 hours rule is applied.

answer

A. The person's signature is in the medication/treatment record.

question

What must be taken upon admission? (72315) A. Weight. B. Weight and length. C. Length. D. Weight, length and height.

answer

B. Weight and length.

question

PRN orders for physical restraints are allowed in a SNF. (72319) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Placing a patient in a room alone as a form of seclusion is allowed. (72319) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Required documentation of the episode leading to a physical restraint is all of the following except which one? (72461) A. Type of restraint used. B. Length and restraint time. C. The location in the facility where the restraint was applied. D. Name of person applying the restraint.

answer

C. The location in the facility where the restraint was applied.

question

All of the following shall be available at the nursing station except which one? (72321) A. Infection control policies and procedures B. Administrative policies and procedures. C. Drug reference materials. D. Name, address and telephone number of local Health Department.

answer

B. Administrative policies and procedures.

question

Recipes for all items that are prepared for therapeutic and regular diets shall be available? (72335) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Plastic ware, china and glassware with chips, cracks or only loss of glaze are not considered hazardous? (72345) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Which of the following method is not appropriate for allowing utensils to drain and dry? (72347) A. Baskets. B. Racks. C. Dry cloths. D. Non absorbent surfaces.

answer

C. Dry cloths.

question

Canned foods with only seam and/or rim dents may still be used. (72349) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Milk may be poured from plastic water and/or juice dispensers as long as the milk is pasteurized. (72349) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

There must be a policy and procedure for left over food. (72349) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The Dietary Supervisor is allowed to do what kitchen task as long a they have sufficient time to do their managerial task? (72351) A. Inspect the kitchen hood sprinkler. B. Do the food shopping. C. Cook. D. Wash dishes.

answer

C. Cook

question

As a general rule all new drug orders, except when the drug wouldn't start until the next day shall be available when? (72355) A. The same day. B. The next day. C. Within 2 hours. D. Within 4 hours.

answer

A. The same day.

question

What is the rule for internal and external drugs? (72357) A. They are stored together unless contraindicated. B. They must be stored separately. C. Both are stored in the freezer. D. There are no rules.

answer

B. They must be stored separately.

question

Drugs may be transferred between containers. (72357) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

What is the storage alternative to discontinued drugs that are not marked? (72357) A. Throw them in the trash. B. Store in a separate location marked solely for discontinued drugs. C. Maintain a separate log. D. Return to the pharmacy.

answer

B. Store in a separate location marked solely for discontinued drugs.

question

Signature stamps are permissible in being used for signing orders. (72361) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

A report of irregularities found during the pharmacy consultant monthly review of the drug regimen should be given to whom? (72375) A. Administrator B. Primary Physician & DON C DON D Administrator and DON

answer

D. Administrator and DON

question

It is not a requirement to file an application with the Department for the approval of optional services. (72401) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Special Treatment Program is only allowed in a facility licensed as a what? (72443) A. SNF only B. ICF only C. SNF or ICF D. Neither

answer

A. SNF only

question

A Special Treatment Program is specifically designed for what group? (72443) A. Alcohol and drug abuse B. Developmentally disabled. C. Mental retardation. D. Mentally disordered.

answer

D. Mentally disordered.

question

A physician may deny or limit a patient's right for good cause except for which one? (72453) A. Right to refuse lobotomy. B. Right to refuse shock treatment. C. Right to refuse lobotomy and shock treatment. D. Right to refuse medication.

answer

C. Right to refuse lobotomy and shock treatment.//////

question

The delegation of any authority by a licensee shall do what? (72501) A. Diminish the responsibility of the licensee. B. Alleviates 50% of the responsibility of the licensee. C. Delegate 100% of the responsibility to another authority. D. Does not diminish the responsibility of the licensee.

answer

D. Does not diminish the responsibility of the licensee.

question

In Special Treatment Program, care plans must be approved, signed and dated by the licensed healthcare practitioner. (72471) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

In the event of a language or communication barrier between staff and patients, arrangements must be made for an interpreter. (72501, 72528) A. True B. False

answer

A. True/////////

question

Skilled nursing facilities are allowed to notify the consumer that they have been approved by the Department with the words "Approved by the California Department of Health Services." (72509) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Who is responsible to make available to staff a copy of Title 22 Division 5 Regulations specific to Skilled Nursing Facilities? (72513) A. Not required B. Licensee C. Administrator D. DON

answer

C. Administrator

question

Who is responsible for keeping staff informed of appropriate additions, deletions and changes to skilled nursing facilities regulations? (72513) A. Not required B. Licensee C. Administrator D. DON

answer

C. Administrator

question

Alterations in the Standard Admission Agreement may be made without the Departments approval. (72516) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Who must provide evidence of reviewing recommendations provided by outside resources such as consultants? (72511) A. The DON B. Administrator C. Not required D. Medical Records

answer

B. Administrator

question

A licensee who follows the bed hold process in its exactness as required by Title 22 is still required to provide the next available bed even if it is beyond the 7 day bed hold. (72520) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

What is the exception to the required Admission and Discharge Policy and Procedure specific to race, color, religion ancestry or national origin? (72521) A. Exempt for profits. B. Any bona fide non-profit C. Any bona fide non-profit proving that its substantial purpose is not to evade this section. D. There are no exceptions

answer

C. Any bona fide non-profit proving that its substantial purpose is not to evade this section.

question

What type of documentation must be in the patient health record when an interpreter is used? (72528) A. The full name of the interpreter. B. The interpreter's relationship to the patient and the facility. C. The name of the interpreter, the agency an their license number. D. Both A & B.

answer

D. Both A & B.

question

In order for there to be no violation for a treatment given in an emergency situation with no informed consent there must be what? (72528) A. A notice to responsible party. B. Documentation. C. Signed doctors orders. D. No other alternative.

answer

B. Documentation.

question

Space approved for specific uses at the time of licensure shall be converted to other uses without the approval of the Department. (72603) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

A facility discontinuing it re-certification training program must also formally discontinue any beds designated for training purposes. (72607) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

In an ICF, what is the time frame for a license application approval or disapproval? (73203) A. 30 Days B. 60 Days C. 90 Days D. No time frame

answer

A. 30 Days

question

In an ICF, what happens if the department does not give an approval or disapproval for a license application within the given time frame? (73203) A. Nothing the licensee just waits. B. It is automatically deemed approved. C. It is the licensee's responsibility to make it happen. D. Must re-apply.

answer

B. It is automatically deemed approval.

question

If the Supervisor of Health Services is an LVN, not an RN, what must be provided? (73319) A. RN Consultant not less then 4 hours weekly. B. Part time RN consultant. C. Full time RN consultant. D. No other requirements.

answer

A. RN Consultant no less then 4 hours weekly.

question

In an ICF, what type of milk is the exception and may be served from a dispensing device approved for such use? (73345) A. Buttermilk B. Homogenized C. Pasteurized D. Non-fat milk

answer

B. Homogenized

question

A facilities action to expel or treat negatively a patient within a 120 days of that patient filing a formal complaint to the Department shall be considered what? (73727) A. Illegal B. Abuse C. A violation D. Retaliation for the filing of the complaint.

answer

D. Retaliation for the filing of the complaint.

question

A resident account on site and available immediately upon request is known as a what? (72529) A. Demand Trust B. Personal Account C. Petty Cash D. Drawing Account

answer

D. Drawing Account

question

Which of the following is not a required policy and procedure in the Administrative Manual? (72521) A. Health records B. Health & Grooming C. Nursing Services D. Out on pass

answer

C. Nursing Services

question

An organizational chart is required to be in the Administrative Manual. (72521) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Which of the following is not a required physicians services Policy and Procedure in the Patient Care policy and procedures manual? (72523) A. Orientation to the facility B. Physician visits C. Physician alternate schedules D. All required physician services

answer

D. All required physician services.

question

Which of the following is not a required physician service? (72303) A. Consultant to the DON. B. Health record progress notes. C. Patient diagnosis. D. Written and signed orders for all treatments.

answer

A. Consultant to the DON.

question

The phone numbers of all of those physicians providing emergency services if the attending physician is unavailable shall be conspicuously posted in the facility. (72301) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Who is responsible to ensure that residents are served their diets as prescribed? (72311) A. Dietician B. CNA C. Dietary supervisor D. Nursing

answer

D. Nursing

question

In an ICF, what is the basic staffing requirement for a facility with less than 100 beds? (73319) A. RN 8 hours day shift 7 day week. B. LVN 8 hours day shift 7 day week. C. Full time RN or LVN. D. RN or LVN 8 hours day shift 7 day week.

answer

D. RN or LVN 8 hours day shift 7 day week.

question

How long should sanitizing and disinfecting recording thermometer charts be kept on file? (72619) A. 3 years B. 1 year C. 4 years D. No requirement

answer

B. 1 year//////

question

Mop heads are required to be changed daily. (72621) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

If a physician's discharge orders do not include provisions for drug disposition, drugs shall be furnished to the patient. (72371) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Doors to resident's rooms meet the requirement of visual privacy? (72615) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

What are the requirements of the head of housekeeping? (72621) A. Experience and training B. 5 years experience in housekeeping C. No requirements D. 90 hour certification program

answer

A. Experience and training.

question

Who is responsible for providing medical and standard dictionaries, directories of community resources and current publications relating to gerentological nursing? (72557) A. Facility B. Nursing C. Pharmaceutical services D. Medical Director

answer

A. Facility

question

Which of the following is not required to be provided by the facility? (72557) A. Reading light B. Flash lights C. Night stand D. Transportation

answer

D. Transportation

question

Resident identification at a minimum must include which of the following? (72555) A. Resident name, doctor's name, facility name. B. Facility name and number. C. Facility name and number, doctor's name and number. D. Resident and facility name.

answer

D. Resident and facility name.

question

The name, address and telephone number of the treating psychologist, if such practitioner is primarily responsible for the treatment of the patient, is required to be on the admission record. (72545) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

It is not a requirement to note whether a PRN medication was effective or not. (72547) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

The Patient Care Policy Committee shall review and approve the following services except which one? (72525) A. Nursing services B. Infection Control C. Housekeeping D. Administration

answer

D. Administration

question

Who reviews and approves Administrative Policy and Procedure Manual? (72521, 72305) A. Administration B. Patient Care Policy Committee C. Governing body or licensee and Medical Director D. Medical Director

answer

C. Governing body or licensee and Medical Director.

question

The Pharmaceutical Committee shall be composed of all of the following except who? (72525) A. Medical Director B. DON C. Administrator D. Pharmacist

answer

A. Medical Director

question

Who is in charge of monitoring Policies and Procedures for storage, distribution and use of drugs? (72525) A. Pharmaceutical Committee B. QA Committee C. Patient Care Committee D. Pharmacy Consultant

answer

A. Pharmaceutical Committee

question

Per OBRA, who is responsible for monitoring the storage, distribution and administration of drugs? (F-Tag 520) A. Pharmaceutical Committee B. QA Committee C. Patient Care Policy Committee D. Pharmacy consultant

answer

B. QA Committee

question

What is Task number 4 of the survey process? (SOM, Appendix P) A. Tour B. Information gathering C. Analyzing information D. Sample selection

answer

D. Sample selection

question

Within what time frame must the results of an abuse investigation be submitted? (F-Tag 223) A. 7 Days B. 24 Hours C. 5 Days D. 5 Working Days

answer

D. 5 Working Days

question

What are the requirements for screening a patient for tuberculosis? (72523) A. Upon admission B. 30 Days prior to 15 days after admission C. Within 90 days of the date of admission to the facility D. Both A & C

answer

D. Both A & C

question

What are the requirements to be the Supervisor of Health Services? (73319) A. RN B. LVN C. Licensed Nursing Home Administrator D. RN or LVN

answer

D. RN or LVN

question

In an ICF who is allowed to review medications monthly? (73313) A. Pharmacist B. RN C. RN or Pharmacist D. Licensed Nurse or pharmacist

answer

C. RN or pharmacist

question

Which of the following is discussed in the second 8 hours of orientation? (71833) A. Communication System B. Facility tour C. Philosophy of care D. Unusual occurrence

answer

C. Philosophy of care

question

Which of the following is not a general area of service? (72443) A. Self help skills B. Behavior intervention C. Prevocational preparation D. Interpersonal relationships

answer

C. Prevocational preparation

question

Out-of-home placement is a part of what therapeutic service? (72445) A. Social counseling B. Pre-Vocational training C. Pre-Release planning D. Home Making

answer

C. Pre-Release planning ///////

question

Frustration tolerance, money management, use of transportation and physical fitness are a part of what general area of service? (72445) A. Pre-Release planning B. Self help skills C. Behavior intervention D. Interpersonal relationships

answer

B. Self help skills

question

Helium is a medical gas. (72649) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A Speech Pathologist in a SNF at a minimum must have the following qualifications. (72107) A. A related degree B. Masters degree in the field with authorization to practice under supervision. C. Licensed by the California Board of Medical Quality Assurance D. Approved speech tech program

answer

B. Masters degree in the field with authorization to practice under supervision.

question

A class "B" violation is best described by what? (73705) A. Imminent danger B. Minimal relationship C. Direct relationship D. Isolated deficiency

answer

C. Direct relationship

question

"Good faith" is considered in what process? (72711) A. Issuing a citation B. Writing a citation C. Fixing a civil penalty. D. Issuing a 2567

answer

C. Fixing a civil penalty.

question

Per OBRA, irregularities found during the monthly drug regimen review are reported to who? (F-Tag 329, 428) A. Administrator and DON B. Administrator, DON and the physician C. Physician and DON D. Administrator

answer

C. Physician and DON

question

How often does the QA Committee meet? (F-Tag 520) A. Annually B. Quarterly C. Monthly D. No requirements

answer

B. Quarterly

question

Per Title 22, how often does the QA Committee meet? (72525) A. Not required B. 6 month intervals C. Quarterly D. Monthly

answer

A. Not required

question

What is the consequence to a facility for not being found in substantial compliance within 3 months after being found out of compliance? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. Civil penalties B. Denial of payment for new admissions C. POC D. Notice of Isolated Deficiencies

answer

B. Denial of payment for new admissions

question

What is another term for the Enforcement Grid? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. Citation Grid B. Scope & Severity Grid C. State Grid D. Substantial Compliance Grid

answer

B. Scope & Severity Grid

question

Scope refers to what? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. Isolated B. Pattern C. Wide spread D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

The best example of severity is which of the following? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. Substantial compliance B. K C. POC D. Immediate jeopardy

answer

D. Immediate jeopardy

question

What is the civil money penalty for a Category 2 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. $1,000.00 - $5,000.00 per violation B. $50.00 - $3,000.00 per day of non-compliance C. $3,050.00 - $10,000.00 a day D. $1,000.00 - $5,000.00 per instance

answer

B. $50.00 - $3,000.00 per day of non-compliance

question

Which of the following is a part of Task 1? (SOM, Appendix P). A. Entrance B. Sample Selection C. Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Report (CASPER) D. Tour

answer

C. Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Report (CASPER)

question

What report provides information from a facilities last survey compared to State, Region and National averages? (Survey Protocol, SOM, Appendix P). A. Resident Level Summary B. OSCAR/Casper Report 3 C. Facility QI Report D. OSCAR/Casper Report 4

answer

D. OSCAR/Casper Report 4

question

What report shows the compliance history of a facility for the last four surveys? (Survey Protocol, SOM, Appendix P) A. OSCAR/Casper Report 3 B. OSCAR C. OSCAR Report 4 D. Facility Quality Indicator Profile

answer

A. OSCAR/Casper Report 3

question

What is the allowable time span between the evening meal and the breakfast meal given that there was an evening snack? (F-Tag 368) A. 10 Hours B. 16 Hours C. 12 Hours D. 18 Hours

answer

B. 16 Hours

question

Per State regulations, what is the allowable time span between the evening meal an the breakfast meal given that there was an evening snack? (72335) A. 14 Hours B. 16 Hours C. 12 Hours D. 18 Hours

answer

A. 14 Hours

question

What is the full name of the regulatory changes to the Federal Social Security Act in 1987 that significantly changed how nursing homes and home health agencies are regulated for Medicare and Medicaid certification? (James Allen, NHA 5th Edition, pg. 392-393) A. National Labor Relations Act B. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) C. Surveyor Guidelines D. Older American Act

answer

B. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)

question

What report shows the facilities quality indicators with State and National comparisons? (Survey Protocol, SOM, Appendix P). A. Facility Characteristics Report B. Facility Quality Measure/Indicator Profile C. Resident Level Summary Report D. Resident Listing Report

answer

B. Facility Quality Measure/Indicator Profile

question

What report do the surveyors use to pick their sample selection? (Survey Protocol, SOM, Appendix P) A. Facility QI Report B. Resident Listing Report C. Facility Characteristic Report D. Resident Level Summary Report

answer

D. Resident Level Summary Report

question

How often should dose reduction be attempted regarding sedatives/hypnotics? (F-Tag 329) A. Quarterly B. 2 times a year C. 3 times within 6 months D. 2 times every 6 months

answer

A. Quarterly

question

What best defines a significant change? (F-Tag 274) A. A substantial improvement B. A substantial decline C. A substantial improvement or decline D. Any noticeable change

answer

C. A substantial improvement or decline

question

Per OBRA, what best describes the approach towards dose reduction of psychopharmacological medications? (F-Tag 329) A. 2 times within a year B. 2 Quarters within the first year at least one month apart and annually thereafter unless contraindicated C. 3 times within 6 months D. No requirements

answer

B. 2 Quarters within the first year and at least one month apart and annually thereafter unless contraindicated.

question

Which of the following best describes a Stage IV pressure sore? (F-Tag 314) A. Partial thickness of skin loss B. Area of redness C. Exposed bone and muscle D. Full thickness of skin loss

answer

C. Exposed bone and muscle

question

Which of the following describes an "unnecessary drug"? (F-Tag 329) A. No indication for use B. Excessive dose C. Inadequate monitoring D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

Per OBRA, which of the following is true regarding the bed hold process? (F-Tag 205-206) A. After 7 day bed hold expires not required to provide bed. B. Must give next available be even after 7 day bed hold expires. C. Bed hold are only offered to Medi-Cal residents. D. If bed hold state regs followed....not required to provide next available bed after 7 day bed old expires.

answer

B. Must give next available bed even after 7 day bed hold expires.

question

What best describes a Stage I pressure sore? (F-Tag 314) A. Prevents as an abrasion, blister or shallow crater. B. Exposed bone and/or muscle. C. Full thickness of skin loss. D. Persistent area of skin redness.

answer

D. Persistent area of skin redness.

question

A citation "AA" would be a result of what? (Health & Safety Code 1424.5) A. G Deficiency B. A deficiency resulting in death C. J Deficiency D. Citation C

answer

B. A deficiency resulting in death.

question

Which of the following are allowable reasons for transfer or discharge? (F-Tag 177, 201-204) A. Resident's welfare cannot be met in the facility. B. Resident's health has improved no longer needing facilities services. C. Resident has not paid facility after reasonable notice. D. All of the above.

answer

D. All of the above.

question

Title 22 is found in what book of regulations? (No page) A. 42 CFR (Code of Federal Regulations) B. CCR (California Code of Regulations) C. Health & Safety Code D. OBRA

answer

B. CCR (California Code of Regulations)

question

The required internal temperature when cooking poultry should be what? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 145 degrees F B. 155 degrees F C. 165 degrees F D. 175 degrees F

answer

C. 165 degrees F

question

The required internal temperature when cooking red meat should be what? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 145 degrees F for 15 seconds B. 165 degrees F for 15 seconds C. 155 degrees F for 15 seconds D. 175 degrees F for 15 seconds

answer

A. 145 degrees F for 15 seconds

question

The required internal temperature when cooking fish should be what? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 145 degrees F 15 seconds B. 165 degrees F 15 seconds C. 155 degrees F 15 seconds D. 175 degrees F 15 seconds

answer

A. 145 degrees F for 15 seconds

question

A family member and/or visitor is allowed to bring food and give it to a specific resident and/or other resident's. (F-Tag 371, 372) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The grievance process is a part of what program? (F-Tag 223) A. Abuse prevention B Admission packet C. Resident Council D. Family Council

answer

A. Abuse prevention

question

The facility must allow a resident to keep all of their belongings in the facility regardless of quantity and/or of available space? (F-Tag 174) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

In issuing a citation which of the following is considered regarding the likelihood that an incident/event did happen? (72701, 73701) A. Time frame to correct B. Number of residents affected C. Equipment needed to make correction D. Substantial probability

answer

D. Substantial probability

question

Which citation involves a minimal relationship? (72701, 73709) A. Citation "B" B. Citation "AA" C. Citation "C" D. Citation "A"

answer

C. Citation "C"

question

When all residents are involved in the writing of a citation what must be given? (73715) A. A partial list B. No list at all C. A list of all residents D. Not relevant what residents were affected.

answer

B. No list at all

question

What is a QIS? (SOM, Appendix P) A. Quality Insurance Survey B. Quality Indicator System C. Quality Indicator Survey D. Quality Insurance Set

answer

C. Quality Indicator Survey

question

How many tasks are in a QIS? (SOM, Appendix P) A. 7 B. 10 C. 8 D. 9

answer

D. 9

question

Substandard Quality of Care (SQOC) found during QIS standard survey will result in a QIS extended survey. (SOM, Appendix P) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A resident using the phone at the nursing station and/or staff offices satisfies the requirement of having a phone available for the resident. (72617, F-Tag 174) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Meats being cooled after having been cooked must set the following requirements. (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 140 - 40 degrees within 6 hours B. 165 - 70 degrees within first 4 hours C. 140 - 70 degrees within the first hour D. 135 - 70 degrees within the first 2 hours

answer

D. 135 - 70 degrees within the first 2 hours

question

Menus shall be planned with consideration of cultural background and food habits of patients. (72341) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Powdered milk may be used as a beverage but not in cooking. (72349) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Meat cooling from 70 degrees after having been cooled for 2 hours must meet what requirement? (F-Tag 371-372) A. 70-45 degrees within 4 hours B. Immediately frozen C. 70-41 degrees within the next 4 hours D. No requirements

answer

C. 70-41 degrees within the next 4 hours

question

Milk may be dispensed from an approved dispensing device in which of the following? (72349) A. Into a glass pitcher to be poured into the resident's drinking glass. B. Individual cartons of milk must be opened in front of the resident right before they drink it. C. No specific requirements. D. Must be poured directly into patient's drinking glass from the approved dispenser or served in individual cartons.

answer

D. Must be poured directly into patient's drinking glass from the approved dispenser or served in individual cartons.

question

Married couples have a right to what? (F-Tag 175) A. Share a room B. Privacy C. Choice D. Dignity

answer

A. Share a room

question

The issue of dignity most relates to what? (72527, F-Tag 241) A. Privacy B. Individuality C. Respect D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

What is the medication error rate for 45 doses of which 2 were not given and 2 were given at the wrong time? (F-Tag 332, 333) A. 8.8% B. 10% C. 4.65% D. 5%

answer

A. 8.8%

question

All facilities get a QIS survey. (SOM, Appendix P) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Who approves the facility for the QIS survey? (SOM, Appendix P) A. CMS B. HCFA C. DHS D. The State

answer

A. CMS

question

Health & Safety Code is to Title 22 what the Code of Federal Regulations is to what? (SOM, Appendix P) A. Quality of Life B. OBRA C. Quality of Care D. Welfare and Institutions Code

answer

B. OBRA

question

Staff speaking their primary language such as Spanish in front of a resident when the resident only speaks English or any other language is a violation of what regulation? (72527, F-Tag 241) A. Privacy & confidentiality B. Free choice C. Dignity D. Abuse

answer

C. Dignity

question

What is the civil money penalty per instance of non-compliance for a Category 2 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. $3,050 - $10,000 B. $1,000 - $10,000 C. $50.00 - $3,000 D. $5,000

answer

B. $1,000 - $10,000

question

What is the civil money penalty per instance of non-compliance for a Category 3 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. $3,050 - $10,000 B. $1,000 - $10,000 C. $50.00 - $3,000 D. $5,000

answer

B. $1,000 - $10,000

question

What is the deficiency for a wide spread finding resulting in no actual harm with less than minimum potential? (Deficiencies Matrix, Appendix P) A. A B. B C. C D. F

answer

C. C

question

What is the deficiency for an isolated finding with actual harm that is not immediate? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. I B. G C. D D. E

answer

B. G

question

What is the civil money penalty per day of non-compliance for a Category 2 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. $3,050 - $10,000 B. $1,000 - $10,000 C. $50.00 - $3,000 D. $5,000

answer

C. $50.00 - $3,000

question

What is the civil money penalty per day of non-compliance for a Category 3 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. $50 - $3,000 per violation B. $3,050 - $10,000 per day C. $1,000 - $10,000 per day D. No penalty

answer

B. $3,050 - $10,000 per day

question

Termination of management involves what? (Deficiencies Matrix, Appendix P) A. Category 2 deficiency B. Substantial probability C. Category 3 deficiency D. G deficiency

answer

C. Category 3 deficiency

question

What is an isolated deficiency causing actual harm that is immediate? (Deficiencies Matrix, Appendix P) A. K B. J C. I D. L

answer

B. J

question

How must wash rags in the kitchen that are currently being used for the day be stored? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. On a rack B. Laid out flat C. Soaking in a mix of sanitizer & water D. No requirements

answer

C. Soaking in a mix of sanitizer & water

question

Hand sanitizer is allowed to be used in the kitchen as a replacement for hand washing with soap & water. (F-Tag 371-372) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Which of the following is a required part of the Infection Control program? (F-Tag 441) A. Isolation procedures B. Work restrictions for ill employees C. Screening employees for communicable disease D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

The facility should follow the CDC's "Guidelines for Hand Hygiene in Health Care Settings." (F-Tag 441) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Which of the following are "black box warning" drugs? (F-Tag 329) A. Anti psychotics B. Anti depressants C. Beta blockers and narcotics D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

An alert resident who does not have a medical necessity for full length side rails may be allowed to have them if it is his/her preference? (F-Tag 222) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

What is true of the reduction process for side rails being used as a restraint? (F-Tag 222) A. There are no reduction requirements. B. The patient must be able to release the device themselves. C. Side rails must be removed immediately. D. Reduction must be gradual.

answer

D. Reduction must be gradual.///////

question

Life Safety Code is not an OBRA requirement but rather an OSHA requirement. (F-Tag 454-469) A. True B. False

answer

B. False//////

question

When a legal obligation is owed and that obligation is not delivered resulting in a wrong to an individual is known as what? (James Allen, NHA 6th Edition, pg. 246-247) A. Negligence B. Malpractice C. Battery D. Tort

answer

D. Tort

question

Intentional threat or action that causes fear to another individual with reasonable alarm for harm is known as what? (James Allen, NHA 6th Edition, pg. 246) A. Negligence B. Malpractice C. Battery D. Assault

answer

D. Assault

question

Intentional touching of another person without consent of that individual is known as what? (James Allen, NHA 6th Edition, pg. 246) A. Tort B. Battery C. Assault D. Abuse

answer

B. Battery

question

A consent to treat signed upon admission will also suffice as an informed consent. (72528) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

What is the financial fine for writing an insufficient fund check or a fictitious check to the Department for CNA fees? (71841) A. $1,000 plus jail B. $500 C. $10 D. $250 plus community service

answer

C. $10///////

question

Bed and room assignments for each LN & CNA must be posted daily in a clearly visible space. (72329.1) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Which of the following is true regarding the direct care giver to patient ratio requirement? (72329.1) A. Day shift 1:8; Evening shift 1:10; Night shift 1:12 B. Day shift 1:5; Evening shift 1:8; Night shift 1:13 C. Day shift 1:6; Evening shift 1:8; Night shift 1:12 D Day shift 1:10; Evening shit 1:12; Night shit 1:13

answer

B. Day shift 1:5; Evening shift 1:8; Night shift 1:13

question

Which of the following is the required LN to patient staffing ratio? (72329.1) A. 1 LN for every 8 or less patients B. 1 LN for every 10 or less patients C. 1 LN for every 8 or less patients depending on census. D. 1 LN for every 15 or less patients.

answer

C. 1 LN for every 8 or less patients depending on census.

question

In staffing ratios regarding calculations what is the rule regarding census? (72329.1) A. Include bed holds B. Use the highest census number within the 24 hour period. C. Base on total number of licensed beds. D. Use the census at the beginning of the day rather then the end of the day.

answer

B. Use the highest census number within the 24 hour period.

question

The following statement: "This record shall be retained by the certified nurse assistant for a period of four (4) years starting from the date of enrollment" shall be kept in each CNA personnel file documenting in-service attendance. (71849) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Of all of the theory and clinical hours for the CNA training program which area has by far the greatest focus? (71835) A. Long term care patient B. Patient care procedures C. Patient care skills D. Interpersonal skills

answer

C. Patient care skills

question

Which of the following are considered direct care givers? (72038) A. CNA's and LVN's B. Psych tech's and RN's C. Nurse assistants in approved training program D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

A patient who is able to leave a building unassisted under emergency conditions is known as what? (72077.1) A. Non-ambulatory B. Independent C. Ambulatory D. High level functioning

answer

C. Ambulatory

question

A patient who is unable to leave a building unassisted under emergency conditions is known as what? (72077.1) A. Non-ambulatory B. Dependent C. Handicapped D. Low level functioning

answer

A. Non-ambulatory

question

A patient who needs a cane to leave a building under emergency conditions would be considered what? (72077.1) A. Independent B. Ambulatory C. Non-ambulatory D. There is no such definition

answer

C. Non-ambulatory//////

question

Per OBRA, what best defines the regulations for the Medical Director? (F-Tag 501) A. Liaison between administrator and attending physician B. Consultant to DON C. Implement Resident Care Policies and coordinate medical treatment and services D. Approve Administrative Manual

answer

C. Implement Resident Care Policies and coordinate medical treatment and services

question

Patient call lights should be answered promptly not because it is a regulation but because it is the right thing to do. (72315) A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Menu's shall include seasonal items. (72341) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

What is the requirement regarding consultants? (72517) A. Must visit monthly B. Must visit quarterly C. No specific requirements D. Must participate in staff development program

answer

D. Must participate in staff development program

question

If the licensee ever visits the building he/she must have what? (72535) A. Annual health exam B. No requirement C. The same health exam requirements as employees D. Clearance for TB and communicable diseases

answer

C. The same health exam requirements as employees

question

What are the basic requirements in order to admit a new patient? (72515) A. Bed available B. An admitting physician C. Able to provide adequate care D. Both B & C

answer

D. Both B & C

question

Who is responsible for screening and accepting patients for admission? (72513) A. Administrator or designee B. DON C. Medical Director D. Both A & B

answer

A. Administrator or designee

question

Refund policies and out on pass policies are required to be in what manual? (72521) A. No Requirement B. Business office manual C. Administrative manual D. Nursing manual

answer

C. Administrative manual

question

If a patient or the patient's representative cannot communicate with the Licensed Healthcare Practitioner because of a language or communication barrier the facility shall arrange for an interpreter? (72528) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A patient's medical record may be moved from the facility to an off site storage unit without a waiver from the Department under what circumstances? (72543) A. Patient has expired or discharged. B. Patient has been in the facility for more than 10 years. C. Per patient's request D. Both A & C

answer

A. Patient has expired or discharged.

question

Under what circumstance does a facility need a waiver/approval from the Department to move a patient's record off site? (72543) A. Patient has expired B. Current patient records C. Patient has discharged home D. There are no exceptions to needing a waiver.

answer

B. Current patient records//////

question

Which of the following is required to be on the admission record? (72545) A. Podiatrist B. Dentist C. Psychologist D. None of the above

answer

D. None of the above////

question

The route of the administration of drugs must be documented unless given how? (72547) A. Crushed B. Injection C. Orally D. G-tube

answer

C. Orally/////

question

Refund Policies, rate of charge for services, basic rate and type of services provided are all required to be in what Manual? (72521) A. Patient Care Policies & Procedures Manual B. Business office Policies & Procedures Manual C. Administrative Policies & Procedures Manual D. Personnel Policies & Procedures Manual

answer

C. Administrative Policies & Procedures Manual

question

All policies and procedures are available to the public. (72521) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A violation of a statute or regulation which causes direct relationship to the health, safety or security of the patient's is known as what? (73705) A. Direct relationship B. Class "A" violation/citation C. Class "B" violation/citation D. Both A & C

answer

D. Both A & C

question

A violation of a statute or a regulation relating to the operation or maintenance of any facility which the department determines has only minimal relationship to the health and safety of the patients would be considered what? (72701, 73709) A. Class "C" violation B Class "A" violation C. Direct relationship D. Class "B" violation

answer

A. Class "C" violation

question

A violation of a statute or regulation which presents an imminent danger to the patient's health and/or safety is best defined as what? (73702) A. Class "C" violation B. Class "A" violation C. Direct relationship D. Class "D" violation

answer

B. Class "A" violation

question

What is the required internal temperature for re-heating food to ensure safety from foodbourne illness? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 165 degrees F B. 175 degreees F C. 165 degrees F for "all parts" D. Refer to standard temperature chart

answer

C. 165 degrees F for "all parts"

question

If a licensee wants to make changes to the Standard Admissions Agreement, they may receive the Department's approval by submitting specific changes. (Section 73518) A. True B. False

answer

A. True

STUDY

Direct Patient Care Speech And Language Disorders

3D1X1 Client Systems Block 1 Unit 2 – Flashcards 40 terms

Cindy Krause

40 terms

Preview

3D1X1 Client Systems Block 1 Unit 2 – Flashcards

question

What career group identifies medical personnel?

answer

question

The 1st digit of an AFSC code represents:

answer

Career Group

question

The 2nd digit of an AFSC code represents:

answer

Career Field

question

The 3rd digit of an AFSC code represents:

answer

Career Field Subdivision

question

The 4th digit of an AFSC code represents:

answer

Skill Level

question

The 5th digit of an AFSC code represents:

answer

Specialty Code

question

What are the position titles and upgrade requirements for the (1) skill level?

answer

Helper: Graduate Basic Training

question

What are the position titles and upgrade requirements for the (3) skill level?

answer

Apprentice: Graduate Technical School

question

What are the position titles and upgrade requirements for the (5) skill level?

answer

Journeyman: -Min. 12 months OJT training (9 months for retrainee) -Complete 5 level CDC's -Complete specific AFJQ's / AFQTP's for equipment at assigned location by duty position

question

What are the position titles and upgrade requirements for the (7) skill level?

answer

Craftsman: -Min. rank of SSgt -Min. 12 months OJT (6 months for retrainee's) -Completion of AFQTP & Work Center supervisor's handbook. -Completion of CDC's, etc.

question

What are the position titles and upgrade requirements for the (9) skill level?

answer

Superintendent: - Sew on Senior Master Sergeant

question

The function of the ( Infrastructure ) work center is

answer

Configures routers and switches.

question

The function of the ( Network Ops ) work center is

answer

Performs software license administration

question

The function of the ( Transmission ) work center is

answer

Responsible for all radio frequency emission devices.

question

The function of the ( Knowledge Ops ) work center is

answer

Provides base level guidance of data.

question

The function of the ( Airfield Systems ) work center is

answer

Responsible for weather systems.

question

The function of the ( Client Service Center ) work center is

answer

Install new PC's on the network.

question

The function of the ( Special Mission Flight ) work center is

answer

Units having unique responsibilities.

question

The function of the ( Plans, Programs, Resources ) work center is

answer

Responsible for all MOA's.

question

The function of the ( Force Development & Training ) work center is

answer

Unit Training Management.

question

The function of the ( Base Support Information Assurance) work center is

answer

Manage the base COMSEC accounts.

question

When does the CFP assign a control number?

answer

(CFP control normally begins) when a customer, user or operator identifies a problem (and the CFP assigns a control number).

question

The CFP collects logistics and sustainment data from:

answer

From various sources i.e. Comm Squadron, depot, AFNetOps, DISA, etc.

question

When does the CFP function assume increased responsibility for command and control, and coordinate efforts with wing battle staff or other functions?

answer

During contingency operations.

question

List the flights typically assigned to a Communications Squadron:

answer

Operations Flight, Plans and Resources Flight, and Special Missions Flight

question

What five major job categories comprise the duties and responsibilities of the 3D1X1 career field?

answer

1) Performs client-level information technology support functions. 2) Performs client-level voice network functions. 3) Performs client-level PWCS functions. 4) Plans, organizes and directs sustainment activities. 5) Manages, supervises and performs planning and implementation activities.

question

Define: Jobs

answer

question

Define: Trouble Tickets

answer

question

Define: Restoral Priorities

answer

question

Define: Control Number

answer

question

What is a decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible course of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation?

answer

Risk Management (RM)

question

What program was the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health function fashioned after?

answer

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

question

What is the prevailing Air Force publication covering AFOSH?

answer

AFI 91-203

question

Your job as a Client System Technician (CST) will NEVER place you in dangerous environments. (T/F)

answer

False

question

What 3 factors are considered when considering human factors in safety?

answer

Physiological/Physical/Organizational factors

question

Why must managers, supervisors and workers be aware of human factors?

answer

Because human factors can lead to work error and injury.

question

What is the greatest office hazard?

answer

Falls

question

What agencies will supervisors consult to ensure proper Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is identified for the work environment?

answer

Ground Safety Office and BE

question

What determines the severity of electrical shock to a worker?

answer

Amount of current / Time of exposure / Physical condition

question

What are the two categories of radiation hazards?

answer

Non-ironizing & Ironizing

STUDY

Assessment And Evaluation Direct Patient Care End Stage Renal Disease Health Computing Linguistics Meeting The Needs Roles And Responsibilities

Leadership with Kouzes and Posner – Flashcards 11 terms

Karen Combs

11 terms

Preview

Leadership with Kouzes and Posner – Flashcards

question

clinician and manager

answer

1st level leader "hats":

question

radiology and administrative

answer

1st level leaders communicate in 2 languages:

question

a process through which influence is intentionally applied

answer

Leadership is:

question

honesty, forward-looking, competent, inspiring

answer

characteristics people most look for and admire in a leader:

question

model the way, inspire a shared vision, challenge the process, enable others to act and encourage the heart

answer

Five practices of exemplary leadership:

question

expertise, perceived trustworthiness, dynamism

answer

3 traits of source credibility

question

find your voice, set the example

answer

Model the way:

question

envision the future, enlist others

answer

Inspire a shared vision:

question

search for opportunities, experiment and take risks

answer

Challenge the process:

question

foster collaboration, strengthen others

answer

Enable others to act:

question

recognize contributions, celebrate the values and victories

answer

Encourage the heart:

STUDY

Cognitive Computer Science Direct Patient Care Educational Technology Electronic Medical Records Health Computing Implementation And Evaluation Nursing Patient Centered Care Storing And Retrieving Teamwork And Collaboration

UCC2 Advanced Information Management & The Application of Technology – Flashcards 76 terms

Matthew Carle

76 terms

Preview

UCC2 Advanced Information Management & The Application of Technology – Flashcards

question

Nursing Informatics

answer

The combination of Nursing Science, Information Science and Computer Science

question

Information

answer

Data that can be processed using knowledge.

question

Information Must Be:

answer

Accessible, Accurate, Timely, Complete, Cost Effective, Flexible, Reliable, Relevant, Simple, Verifiable and Secure

question

Disseminate

answer

Sharing knowledge with others

question

Data

answer

Raw facts that lacks meaning.

question

Knowledge Acquistion

answer

The Act of Acquiring knowledge

question

Empiricism

answer

Based on knowledge being derived from reason

question

Rationalism

answer

An ethical position that contends that knowledge is derived from deductive reasoning and not from the senses

question

Core Business Systems

answer

Enhances administrative task within healthcare.

question

Core Business Systems

answer

Support the management of healthcare within an organization. Provides framework for reimbursement, support of best practices, Quality control and resource allocation

question

4 Core Business Systems

answer

1. Admission, Discharge, Transfer 2.Financial 3. Acuity 4. Scheduling System

question

Informatics Nurse Specialist

answer

An RN with formal, graduate education in the field of informatics or a related field and is considered a specialist in the field of nursing informatics.

question

Informatics Innovator

answer

Process of making enhancements or improvements and creative, novel and inventive solutions in the informatics specialty.

question

Informatics Nurse

answer

A nurse with specialized skills, knowledge and competencies in informatics. An RN with an interest or experience working in an informatics field. A generalist in the field of informatics in nursing.

question

Nursing Informatics

answer

Conceptual framework underpinning the science and practice of nursing with the concepts of data, info, and knowledge wisdon

question

Ontological Approach

answer

Theory that considers ontology development (domain analysis) and its mapping to object models (specification of infrastructure). Based on enumerating all concepts used in a domain and in providing their formal definitions according to suitable formalism (usually logic based)

question

Archetype

answer

Broad or general, idealized model of an object or concept from which similar instances are derived, copied, patterned, or emulated. Original model after which other similar things are patterned. First form from which varieties arise or imitations are made.

question

Electronic Health Record

answer

Improves Care Control Cost Improve Delivery No need report

question

T.E.L.O.S

answer

Technological Economic Legal Operational Schedule Feasibility

question

Interoperability

answer

Ability of various systems and organizations to work together to exchange information

question

CPOE

answer

Eliminating medical errors due to writing

question

Evidence Based Nursing

answer

Nursing process in which nurses make clinical decisions using: 1. Best available research evidence 2. Clinical Expertise 3. Patient preference

question

Core Public Health Function

answer

Assessing and monitoring the community

question

Knowledge

answer

is the product of using and working with data and information

question

Benefits of EHR

answer

* Increase delivery of guideline based care * Surveillance & Monitor Disease * Decrease Medication Errors * Determine who qualifies for research

question

To be a Certified EHR, it must contain

answer

*Drug Interactions *Drug Formula * Up to date problem list *active medication list *allergy list * vital signs * BMI *smoking status *growth chart

question

Intrusion detection device

answer

Hardware and software that allow an organization to monitor who is using the network and what files that user has accessed

question

A patient's blood pressure is an example of

answer

Data

question

Learning how to apply computer science to nursing science is

answer

Information

question

Example of Nursing Imformatics

answer

"Patient's BP dropped, decrease cardiac drip" this is using the data of the bp and the knowledge that the medication is causing the patient's bp to drop to rapidly

question

3 Sciences of Nursing Informatics

answer

NIC->Nursing,Information, Computer Science

question

Examples of Knowledge Acquistion

answer

A new nurse watches a seasoned nurse do a procedure first, then the new nurse tries it. Acquisition is the learning or developing of a skill, habit or quality

question

Feed Back

answer

Is the response to knowledge to ensure that the knowledge being generated, disseminated, acquired and processed is ACCURATE

question

Knowledge Processing

answer

The ability to gain knowledge by thinking about the info that is learned and then understanding fully how to use and apply that info for good use

question

Knowledge Gereration

answer

Is the origination of knowledge that is to be shared and eventually acquired

question

5 Specific Ways Knowledge is Developed

answer

Acquisition Dissemination Generation Processing Feedback

question

Epistemology

answer

Is the study of the nature and origin of knowledge. What is means to really KNOW

question

Ubiquity

answer

Healthcare delivery, information and knowledge available everywhere and anywhere

question

Feasibility Study

answer

Examines various points of the implementation project in order to decide whether the organization can afford to implement the program and do so in a timely way.

question

Waterfall Development Model

answer

The development and implementation of info systems use various approaches. Each phase is rolled out individually.

question

Feasibility Indicators

answer

TELOS= Technologies Economic Legal Operational Schedule Feasibility

question

5 Steps of Implementing a new software program

answer

Analysis Design Implementation Evaluation Maintenance

question

Proxy Server

answer

Hardware security tool that prevents internet access

question

Patient Care Support System

answer

Provides info to RN's and MD's about *clinical documentation *prescriptions *labs *radiology reports

question

Benefits of Oder Entry Systems

answer

Decrease errors from poor penmanship Decrease errors from interpreting #'s Information is sent directly to Pharmacy or to the patient

question

Sharing information between systems

answer

PACS, Pharmacy, Meditech, different systems use different software programs. It is essential for the systems to be able to talk with each other.

question

Static Approach

answer

Educating with brochures, pamphlets, flyers, books and magazines

question

Knowledge Age

answer

People want to know Increase in information that feeds individuals Immediate results and unlimited access to services

question

Clinical information system

answer

Used for; drawing data, trends, statistics and reports used fro clinical or admin decision making, audits and process improvment

question

Human Computer Interaction

answer

User must be early & continuous during interface & design Design should be iterative, allowing for evaluation & correction

question

HIMSS

answer

Healthcare Information Management Systems Soceity

question

Healthcare Information & Management Systems Soceity

answer

Better health through information technology, globally lead endeavors optimizing health engagements & care outcomes through Information technology

question

Information Technology Revolution

answer

Information cheap More efficient & effective Good Tools Good Resources

question

Risk Assessment

answer

Identify hazard Exposure time Dose of exposure Risk Characterization;; ?Was it a high or low risk?

question

Examples of Core Public Health Function

answer

Examine: Demographics Socioeconomic Disease Prevalence Disease Incidence

question

Websites you can refer to

answer

US Department of Health & Human Services American Nurses Association *always have author and pub date

question

Interactive Approach

answer

Using Multimedia for Educating *websites*power points*games*sound clips

question

Information Technology

answer

Use of hardware, software, services & supporting infrastructure to manage & deliver information using voice, data & video or the use of technologies from computing, electronics & telecommunications to process & distribute info in digital or other. Anything related to computing technology such as networking, hardware, software, the internet or the people who work with these technologies

question

Expert System

answer

A type of decision support system that implements the knowledge of one or more human experts.

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Decision Support System

answer

Computer applications designed to facilitate human decision making processes. Usually DSS's are rule-based, using a specified knowledge base and a set of rules to analyze data and information and provide recommendations typically through the use of knowledge base and rules to make recommendations to users.

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Benefits of using Clinical Information Systems

answer

Decrease Free text Make reports from codes Aggregate data Performance Improvement Graph Vitals Helps clinical analytics Helps Guidelines or best pratices

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Clinical Information System

answer

Technology based system applied at the point of care & designed to support the acquisition & processing of information capabilities.

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Heuristic Evaluation

answer

"discount usability eval" . Used to detect problems early in the design so it is cheaper and easier to fix

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HONcode & Trust-e

answer

Sites have been reviewed & are trustworthy

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Collaboration Groups

answer

Information technology Clinical Specialty Areas Support Services Software Vendors

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Stakeholders

answer

They are very critical to success Most responsibility for completing Greatest Influence Overall design Must impact by project Collaborate overall budget & time frame

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Picture Archiving & Communication System

answer

PACS- Radiology, stand alone, diagnostic studies are stored on this system. Shared instantly.

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Systemized Nomenclature of Medicine

answer

SNOMED CT- Universal healthcare terminology & messaging structure. Enables terminology from one system to be mapped to concepts from another system.

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ANA Recognized Terminology

answer

NANDA- nursing diagnosis, definitions, classifications NIC- Nursing Interventions Classifications CCC-Clinical Care Classifications Omaha System NOC-Nursing Outcome Classifications NMMDS- Nursing Management Minimum Data Set ICNP- International classification for nursing pratice

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HITECH

answer

US. The health information technology for economic & clinical health. 01-2009 Bill was passed for electronic health records to be used.

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Clinical Care Classification

answer

Interrelated terminologies that cover: Nursing diagnosis Nursing Outcomes Nursing Interventions Nursing Actions

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Accessibility

answer

Easy to access the information & knowledge needed to deliver care or manage a health service.

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Administrator's Use Which Systems

answer

Information Systems: Analysis of the Budget Risk Management Quality Assurance HR Payroll Patient Registration Staff Scheduling Communication

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Cognitive Informatics

answer

Understanding how information is processed in the mind & in the computer

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Work Flow

answer

Sequential Steps are dependent on one another, Task, Events and interactions

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Gaming Simulation

answer

Students to learn about task. Provides the nurse to self teach. Disadvantages is that the nurse can not become one like in the virtual world.

STUDY

Direct Patient Care Foundations Of Professional Nursing Information And Technology Nursing Nursing-LPN Patient Centered Care Systematic Problem Solving

N110 Module 1 Clark College 32 terms

Ruth Blanco

32 terms

Preview

N110 Module 1 Clark College

question

Clinical judgement

answer

observing, comparing, contrasting, evaluating client's conditions to determine whether change has occured.

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Critical thinking

answer

reflective thinking process that involves collecting info, analyzing its adequacy and accuracy and considering options.

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Problem solving

answer

process by which nurses consider an issue and attempt to find a satisfactory solution to achieve the best outcomes.

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Profession

answer

defined by a group that meets certain criteria.

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Discipline

answer

defined by a profession that has a domain of knowledge that has both theoretical and practical boundaries.

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Theoretical boundaries

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questions that arise from clinical practice and investigated through research.

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Practical boundaries

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current state of knowledge and research in the field. The facts that dictate good practice.

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Socialization

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Informal education that occurs as you move into your new profession

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Standards of practice

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a competent level of nursing practice and professional performance common to all RN's.

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Health

answer

state of complete physical, mental and social well-being. Not just the absence of disease.

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Health promotion

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activities that foster the recipient's highest state of well being.

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Prevention

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focuses on avoidance of disease, infection and other comorbidities. Examples include teaching good hygiene practices and giving immunizations.

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Restoration

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activities that foster a return to health for those already ill. This requires direct care.

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Angel of Mercy

answer

Image of nurses with a strong link between nursing and religious orders.

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The handmaiden

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The male physician in the dominate role, with the female nurse waiting for the physician's orders or supporting the patient at the bedside while the physician provides care.

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The Battle Ax

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Image of nurse created as the influence of Christianity in nursing began to fade. People associated the duties performed by nurses as always causing pain.

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Naughty Nurse

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Nursing image arising from the image of nurse caring for patients in very intimate and personal setting. Patient is weak and vulnerable and may see the nurse in a position of power.

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Military Image

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Nurses were often seen in uniform on the battlefield. During the middle ages, the two biggest influences on nursing were the military and religion.

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Hospitalers

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specialized soldiers who at the end of battle returned to the outposts to care for the sick and injured.

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Licensed practical nurse

answer

a nurse who has completed a 1-year nursing program and has passed a licensing test. Able to work as a charge nurse at senior living facility. Collect data but not able to assess. Can give IM and sub-q injections, but not IV meds.

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Registered Nurse

answer

A nurse with a 2 year associate to 4 year bachelor degree or advanced degrees. Plans, organizes and provides direct patient care. Holistic care. Applies and uses research. Diagnoses and care plans.

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Educational programs for Registered nurses

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2-4 year program. BSN, MSN and doctoral degrees availble.

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ANA's five characteristics of registered nursing

answer

1. Nursing practice is individualized 2. Nurses coordinate care by establishing partnerships with persons, families, support systems. 3. Caring is central to the practice of the RN 4.RN's use the nursing process to plan and provide individualized care to hc consumers 5. A strong link exists between the professional work environment and the RN's ability to provide quality health care.

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ANA definition of nursing

answer

the protection, promotion and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response and advocacy in the care of individuals, families, communities and populations.

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NLN-AC/ACEN

answer

Nat'l League for nurses. Goal is to maintain a universal standard of education. Help set policies for nursing education.

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ICN

answer

Represents nurses on a global level. Aims to ensure quality nursing care for all, supports global health policies that advance nursing and improve worldwide health, and strives to improve working conditions for nurses throughout the world.

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NSNA

answer

This organization was founded in 1952, a nonprofit organization for students enrolled in associate, baccalaureate, diploma, and generic graduate nursing programs. It is dedicated to fostering the professional development of nursing students. Membership open to all students enrolled in state-approved programs.

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CNA

answer

Requires certification. Perform ADL's. Nurse delegation. Gathers data.

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Nurse technician

answer

nursing student who is actively enrolled in a nursing program. you are not eligible until you have passed your first level. some hospitals require first two levels. can do things that you have been checked off of, with supervision of a RN.

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Nursing as a profession

answer

requires an education, involves specific skills, has standards of practice, follows a code of ethics and is held accountable to certain standards.

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Nine expanded roles of nursing

answer

1. Communicator 2. Client/family educator 3. Client advocate 4. Counselor 5. Change agent 6. Leader 7. Manager 8. Case Manager 9. Research consumer

question

ANA

answer

American Nursing Association. Sets standards of practice. Advocates for better nursing work environments. Primary concern is for the good of the patient. Strong commitment to service. Believes in worth and dignity of patience.

STUDY

Allied Health Professionals American Medical Association Direct Patient Care Medical Sociology Nursing Primary Care Physicians

HA:3308 HEALTHCARE ORG. II – Flashcards 47 terms

Daniel Jimmerson

47 terms

Preview

HA:3308 HEALTHCARE ORG. II – Flashcards

question

Medical societies were first established for the primary purpose of:

answer

improving the quality of medical education and practice

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In 1905, the American Medical Association, with support from the Carnegie Foundation, commissioned a study of U.S. medical schools in response to decades of concern about the quality of medical education and training. The resulting Flexner Report is considered a benchmark in the history of medical education because it;

answer

stimulated licensing legislation and established new requirements pertaining to training lengths and quality standards in laboratories and other training facilities; resulted in contributions of large sums of charitable dollars from foundations and wealthy individuals

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In 1965, the federal government recognized the contributions of medical-school/teaching-hospital research and training activities in advancing the sophistication and effectiveness of medical care with the passage of:

answer

Regional Medical Program legislation

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Academic Health Centers may be best described as:

answer

complexes of medical schools and other health professional schools--such as nursing, pharmacy, dentistry, and allied health--affiliated with each other and with teaching hospitals and other research and clinical facilities

question

Specialization in medical training, while resulting in high-quality care, also caused significant problems for the medical care delivery system. Such problems include:

answer

higher costs and fragmentation of patient care continuity; the tendency of specialists to concentrate practices in urban centers, leaving large geographic areas underserved; an undersupply of generalist physicians

question

Health care reforms have begun changing the emphasis in medical practice from treating illness in individual patients to maintaining wellness in community populations. This shift poses major challenges to the medical education process because:

answer

medical eduation and training has historically focused on curing illness, not preventing it; the health care delivery system is largely operated as an "illness intervention" system; community health and preventative medicine has historically been assigned low priority in medical school curricula

question

States try to protect the public from receiving incompetent care by licensing certain health professions. Certification differs from licensing, in that certification:

answer

only recognizes special education or training

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For more than a century, nurse midwives have provided valuablwe obstetrical services in the United States. Today, the need for midwives is:

answer

growing along with the interest in "birthing centers"

question

Major influences on the evolution of the US health care financing system include:

answer

a combination of employer, consumer, purchaser and provider influences

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The health care system does not respond to the traditional market forces of supply and demand because:

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the suppliers (doctors and other providers) influence the demand

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Government's share of total heatlh care expenditures has remained stable recently, while costs have risen. The major reason for this stability is:

answer

the offsetting effect of major increases in employer-sponsored heatlh insurance premiums

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Historically, factors contributing to growth in health care spending have included:

answer

additions of advanced technology; specialization medicine; reimbursement incentives

question

The increasing numbers of uninsured or underinsured Americans contribute to the high cost of health care because they:

answer

tend to use hospital emergency services as their primary source of care

question

The fee-for-service system of reimbursement fueled high costs because it:

answer

encouraged physcians and hospitals to use the maximum number of services; placed few, if any, restrictions on patients' choice of services; placed a strong emphasis on the quality of care

question

The prospective hospital reimbursement system introduced in 1983 was an effort to:

answer

achieve cost savings by reducing excessive hospital lengths of stay; align Medicare payments with the acutal costs of care; provide incentives to hospitals for achieving economy in patient care costs, based upon diagnoses

question

In retrospect, implenmentation of the DRG system demonstrated that:

answer

hospitals could profit from instituting more efficient patient care procedures

question

The Balanced Budget Act of 1997 may be charaterized as:

answer

enacting sweeping reductions in Medicare and Medicaid spending while addressing access barriers to children's health services

question

Almost three-fourths of the 47 million individuals who lack health insurance in the US are:

answer

in housholds or families where at least one person is working full time

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The health care concept called "capitation" refers to:

answer

for a prepaid premium, providers agree to provid all medical care an individual requires for a specified time period

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An aim of managed care is to transfer some measure of financial risk to providers and to a lesser extent, to patients. Transferring financial risk to providers is accomplished by:

answer

using fee withholds

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A managed care pre-payment method that pays providers on a per-member basis whether or not services are used is called:

answer

capitation

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A feature of manage care is teh role of primary care provider as "gatekeepers." By requiring passage through the primary "gate" managed care organizations seek to:

answer

avoid unnecessary use of high-cost services

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The arrangment in which some managed care organizations pay on a fee-for-service basis but penalize providers if they exceed preset service targets is called:

answer

a withhold plan

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By focusing on insured "populations" rather than individuals, managed care organizations can project health service use by:

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demographic factors such as age, gender, and area of residence

question

A goal of managed care is to control costs by controlling service utilization. It is accomplished primarily by:

answer

reversing the financial incentives of fee-for-service reimbursement

question

The phenomenon of managed care "backlash" is best characterized by which of the following:

answer

more than 1000 bills introduced to Congress to address a wide range of consumer issues about their health plans

question

Recent cost-control initiatives undertaken by managed care organizations to improve communications with chronic-disease patients in the hope of avoiding unnecessary, costly care are known by the term:

answer

disease management

question

The United States history of institutional long-term care began with:

answer

communal care settings operated by charitable community members

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Which of the following best describes the informal long-term care system?

answer

care and assistance provided in the home by family members and friends

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What societal factors increases the need for formal long-term care services?

answer

women working outside the home, high divorce rates, smaller family sizes

question

Long-term care and nursing-home reform legislation of the 1970s occurred as a response to which of the following:

answer

widespread media reports and ensuing Congressional hearings on nursing home and residential care facility abuses and negligence AND national recognition of inadequate quality assurance and monitoring systems in the long-term care industry

question

The major distinction between skilled-nursing and residential care facilities is that skilled nursing facilities:

answer

provide care primarily for people requiring intensive nursing, rehabilitation, or related services

question

Respite care refers to:

answer

services that temporarily relieve informal caregivers through assistance in the home or through institutional placement on a temporary basis

question

The hospice movement is concerned with care for the terminally ill patient. Which of the following is/are major goal(s) of hospice care?

answer

providing an alternative to the curative/intervention approach of hospitals in the care of the terminally ill AND providing state-of-the-art pain relief interventions while supporting the patient and his/her family through the life-death transition

question

Medicare reforms in oversight and payment for home health care services resulted from:

answer

service audits documenting significant fraud and abuse of Medicare billing

question

A major reason why only a small percentage of those in need of mental health services actually receives them is:

answer

mental health treatment is known to rarely be effective

question

One factor that does not affect the accurate diagnosis and treatment of mental illness in older adults is that:

answer

physicians often fail to recognize and properly identify mental disorders

question

Respite care's duration is:

answer

short-term, intermittent

question

The first professional nursing training program was at

answer

Philadelphia Women's Hospital

question

The reasons for decline in nurses' dissatisfaction with employment conditions are:

answer

Patient ratio, acuity, overtime

question

treat diseases, injuries of lower leg and foot

answer

Podiatrist

question

Who are considered "complementary practitioners"?

answer

chiropractors

question

State licensure is required for the following disciplines

answer

chiropractic, nursing, physical therapist, occupational therapist

question

The following are therapeutic science practitioners

answer

physical therapist, physician assistants, occupational therapists, speech pathologists

question

The modern model of Hospice was developed by

answer

Cicely Saunders, 1960's

question

One of the main purposes of Hospice is

answer

Palliative Care

question

Respite Services are approved by Medicare

answer

PAY small co-pay

STUDY

Direct Patient Care Electronic Medical Records Health Computing Healthcare Reimbursement Store And Forward

Reimbursement – Final – Flashcards 212 terms

Matilda Campbell

212 terms

Preview

Reimbursement – Final – Flashcards

question

Information technology includes the use of computers, communications ___________, and computer literacy. a. data controls b. networks c. tags d. none of the above

answer

question

An electronic device that can accept data as input, process it according to a program, store it, and produce information as output is called a/an ___________. a. adding machine b. calculator c. computer d. copy machine

answer

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Step by step instructions are called a ___________. a. menu b. program c. computer d. copy machine

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A __________ is a computer continued in a touch screen. a. supercomputer b. tablet c. mainframe d. none of the above

answer

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A tiny ___________ can be put into a human being and can dispense medication among other things. a. Embedded computer b. personal digital assistant (PDA) c. supercomputer d. all of the above

answer

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__________ take data that humans understand and digitize it, that is, translate it into binary form of ones and zeroes. a. input devices b. output devices c. storage devices d. none of the above

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A/an __________ manipulates data, doing arithmetic or logical operations on it. a. input device b. output device c. processing unit d. storage device

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question

____________ identifies people by their body parts. It includes fingerprints, handprints, face recognition, and iris scans. a. biometrics b. all security systems c. both a and b d. none of the above

answer

question

In the United states, what is healthcare insurance? a. Federal program to provide medical care and services indigent US citizens b. State programs to provide medical care and services to deserving individuals c. Reduction of a person's or a group's exposure to risk for unknown healthcare costs by the assumption of that risk by an entity d. Set of negotiated guarantees that all healthcare expenses of a risk pool will be covered by employers

answer

question

The physician's office sent a request for payment to United Insurance Company. The term used in the healthcare industry for this request for payment is a: a. allowance b. charge c. claim d. contracted amount

answer

question

A patient saw a neurosurgeon for treatment of a nerve that was severed during a workplace accident. The patient works for Acme manufacturing company where the accident occurred. Acme carries workers' comp insurance. Which entity is the "third party" and will pay the neurosurgeon fees? a. acme manufacturing b. neurosurgeon c. patient d. workers comp insurance

answer

question

In which type of reimbursement methodology do healthcare insurance companies reimburse providers after the costs have been incurred? a. prospective payment b. per diem payment c. retrospective payment d. global payment

answer

question

In the healthcare industry, what is the term for receiving compensation for healthcare services? a. actuarial compensation b. accounts payable c. global payment d. reimbursement

answer

question

The financial manager of the physician group practice explained that the third party payer would be reimbursing the practice for its treatment of the exacerbation of COPD that Mrs. Jones experienced. The exacerbation, treatment, and resolution covered approximately five weeks. The payment covered all the services that Mrs. Jones incurred during the period. What method of reimbursement is being used? a. traditional b. episode of care c. per diem d. fee for service

answer

question

The health plan reimburses Dr. Smith $20 per patient per month. In January, Dr. Smith saw 200 patients, but he received $5000 from the health plan. What method is the health plan using to reimburse Dr. Smith? a. traditional retrospective b. capitated rate c. relative value d. discounted fee schedule

answer

question

To which of the following factors is health insurance status most closely linked? a. community rating b. demographics c. employment d. historical context

answer

question

In which type of reimbursement methodology does the health insurance company have the greatest degree of risk? a. capitated payment b. global payment c. block grant d. retrospective

answer

question

Which of the four models for health systems predominates in the United States? a. social insurance (Bismark) model b. national health service (beveridge) model c. national health insurance model d. private health insurance model

answer

question

In which type of healthcare payment method does the healthcare plan pay for each service that a provider renders? a. episode of care b. block grant c. fee for service reimbursement d. global payment

answer

question

In the healthcare industry, what is another term for charge? a. capitated rate b. contractual allowance c. fee d. reimbursement

answer

question

In the accounting system of the physician office, the account is categorized as "self pay". How should the insurance analyst interpret this category? a. The guarantor will pay the entire bill b. The physician, himself or herself, will pick up the balance of the bill c. The employer's self insured healthcare insurance plan will cover the account. d. The patient will pay deductibles and non-covered charges

answer

question

What is the term for a predetermined list of charges? a. fee schedule b. chart of accounts c. line item register d. claim inventory

answer

question

How could a group of physicians increase the monthly payments the group receives from a healthcare plan that uses capitation? a. renegotiate the contract b. refer patients to physicians outside the group c. increase the volume of services per patient per visit d. augment the complexity of services per visit

answer

question

In its payment notice (remittance advice), the healthcare plan lists that the payment for the individual laboratory test is $39.00. The bill that the pathologist's office submitted for the laboratory test was $45.00. What does the amount of $39.00 represent? a. cost b. allowable fee c. premium d. capitated rate

answer

question

Which healthcare payment method does Medicare use to reimburse physicians based on the cost of providing services in terms of effort, overhead, and malpractice insurance? a. global payment b. capitated rate c. CPR d. resource based relative value scale

answer

question

In the US health system, which payer has the greatest influence on payment methods? a. State of California b. Federal government c. Medicare payment advisory commission d. universal coverage

answer

question

In which type of healthcare payment method does the healthcare plan oversee both the costs of healthcare and the outcomes of care? a. traditional retrospective b. case based c. resource based relative value scale d. managed care

answer

question

In which type of healthcare payment method, does the healthcare plan recompense providers each month with a set amount of money for each individual enrolled in the healthcare plan. a. traditional retrospective b. capitated rate c. relative value d. discounted fee schedule

answer

question

Medicare's payment system for home health services consolidates all types of services, such as speech, physical, and OT into a single lump sum payment. What type of healthcare payment method does this lump sum payment represent? a. global payment b. capitated rate c. CPR d. resource based relative value scale

answer

question

In which type of healthcare payment method does the healthcare plan recompense providers with a fixed rate for each day a covered member is hospitalized? a. traditional b. episode of care c. per diem d. fee for service

answer

question

From the patient's healthcare insurance plan, the rehabilitation facility received a fixed, pre-established payment for the patient rehabilitation after a total knew replacement. What type of healthcare payment method was the patient's healthcare insurance plan using? a. traditional retrospective b. case based c. resource based relative value scale d. managed care

answer

question

The coding system that is used primarily for reporting diagnoses for hospital inpatients is known as: a. CPT b. ICD-9-CM c. ICD-10PCS d. HCPCS Level II

answer

question

Which of the following coding systems was created for reporting procedures and services performed by physicians in clinical practice? a. CPT b. IC-9-CM c. ICD-10-PCS d. HCPCS Level II

answer

question

Under MS-DRGs all of the following factors influence a facility's case mix index, except: a. the productivity standard for coders b. changes in services offered by the facility c. changes made by CMS to MS DRG relative weights d. accuracy of documentation and coding

answer

question

Which of the following is not a reason to perform case-mix analysis? a. analyze reimbursement fluctuations b. determine the correct MS DRG assignment for an encounter c. describe a population to be served d. identify differences in practice patterns or coding complexity e. none of the above

answer

question

The practice of under coding can affect a hospital's MS DRG case mix in which of the following ways? a. makes it lower than warranted by the actual service/resource intensity of the facility b. makes it higher than warranted by the actual service/resource intensity of the facility c. does not affect the hospital's MS DRG case mix d. coding has nothing to do with a hospital's MS DRG case mix

answer

question

The policies and procedures section of a coding compliance plan should include: a. physician query process b. unbundling c. assignment of discharge destination codes d. all of the above

answer

question

Recovery Audit Contractors are different from other improper payment review contractors because: a. RACs audit inpatient and outpatient claims b. RACs are charged with finding overpayment and underpayments c. RACs are reimbursed on a contingency based system d. all of the above

answer

question

All of the following entities are voluntary healthcare insurance except: a. private healthcare insurance plans b. commercial healthcare ins. plans c. health alliance plan d. workman's compensation

answer

question

Which of the following entities is also known as a "group plan"? a. a. employer based healthcare insurance plan b. health alliance plan c. private individual healthcare insurance plan d. Medicaid

answer

question

Which of the following characteristics is the greatest advantage of group healthcare insurance? a. more stringent preexisting condition restrictions b. greater benefits for lower premiums c. larger risk pool d. higher out of pocket expenses

answer

question

In regards to healthcare insurance, the percentage that the guarantor pays is called the: a. guaranteed amount b. deductible c. copayment d. coinsurance

answer

question

which of the following services has the highest likelihood of being a "covered service"? a. preexisting condition b. experimental c. medically necessary d. cosmetic

answer

question

The guarantor had paid $2000 as coinsurance on various medical bills. Per the healthcare insurance policy, the healthcare insurance plan would not pay 100 percent of remaining bills with no coinsurance being assessed to the guarantor. What type of provision does this clause in the policy represent? a. stop loss benefit b. maximum out of pocket cost c. catastrophic expense limit d. all of the above

answer

question

What is the term for the contract between the healthcare insurance company and the individual or group for whom the company is assuming the risk? a. benefit b. policy c. rider d. carve out

answer

question

All of the following are cost sharing provisions except: a. guarantor formulary c coinsurance d. deductible

answer

question

Which part of the Medicare program was created under the Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA)? a. part A b. part B c. Part C d. Part D

answer

question

The program TRICARE, which provides coverage for the dependents of active members of the armed forces, was formerly known as: a. CHAMPVA b. CHAMPUS c. health e vets d. USA pride

answer

question

Which government sponsored program replaced the Aid to Families with Dependent children (AFDC program in 1996? a. Medicare part A b. state children's health insurance program (CHIP) c. women infants and children (WIC) d. temporary assistance for needy families program (TANF

answer

question

Which of the following is not a function of the Indian Health Services (IHS)? a. assists in the development of their own health programs b. facilitates and assists in coordinating health planning c. provides only telemedicine healthcare services d. promotes using health resources available at federal, state and local levels

answer

question

The civilian health and medical program of the department of veterans affairs (CHAMPVA) is available for: a. veterans of the armed forces b. spouse or widow of a veteran meeting specific criteria c. children of a veteran meeting specific criteria d. any spouse, widower or children of a veteran e. B and C

answer

question

Which of the following is not true of CHIP? a. it is a state/local program b. It is a federal/state program c. It varies from state to state d. none of the above

answer

question

The Medicare program is divided into ______ parts. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 26

answer

question

Medicare part C is a _____ option known as Medicare advantage. a. free b. retrospective fee for service c. self insured managed care

answer

question

all of the following are true of state Medicaid programs except: a. federal funds allocated to each state are based on the average family size b. the program must cover infants born to Medicaid eligible pregnant women c. states may offer a managed care option d. services offered to beneficiary vary per state

answer

question

A common error that providers make when submitting claims is: a not spelling name correctly or using nickname b. inverted numbers in a social security number c. failure to check box for assignment of benefits d. A and B e. all of the above

answer

question

A document issued by an insurance company providing details such as patient name, name of provider, allowable charges, write offs and rejection and denial codes is referred to as an: a. EOB b. NPP c. UBO4 d. EFT

answer

question

A 26 year old healthy patient is involved in a car accident driving to work one morning. The primary insurance responsible for the costs for this episode of care will be: a. workman's comp b. patients automobile insurance c. Medicare d. PACE

answer

question

This information system uses computers to manage both laboratory tests and their results: a. pathologic b. financial c. administrative d. laboratory

answer

question

Responsible for overseeing the adoption and meaningful use of EHRs setting standards, and judging the impact: a. office of the national coordinator b. HL7 c. joint commission d. institute of medicine

answer

question

A longitudinal electronic record of patient health information that is generated by multiple licensed providers in any care delivery setting: a. EMR b. PHR c. EHR d. HCPCS

answer

question

Considered the building b locks of a national health information network: a. RHIOs b. HIEs c. ISOs d. A and B e. all of the above

answer

question

PACS i8s associated with which information system: a. pathology b. clinical c. radiology d. administrative

answer

question

The original purpose of HIPAA was to: a. make health information portable from one physician to another b. create 15 forms through the administration simplification act c. allow for health insurance portability between jobs d. all of the above

answer

question

Protected health information that is senty over the internet should be this: a. De-identified b. encrypted c. A and B d. PHI should never be sent over the internet

answer

question

Practices submit electronic claims to this business, which does a preliminary check of information prior to sending to the various insurance carriers: a. clearinghouse b. covered entity c. third party payer d. CMS

answer

question

Generated by a practice management system to show patient's outstanding balances: a. patient day sheet b. procedure day sheet c. practice analysis report d. patient aging report

answer

question

Which of the following is NOT a transaction: a. charges b. fee schedule c. payments d. adjustments

answer

question

Technology used in teleradiology is called: a. store and receive b.store and forward c.scanning d.Bluetooth

answer

question

Technology used to link electronic devices such as a pacemaker with a cell phone: a. a. teleconferencing b. fiber optic cables c. blue tooth d. none of the above

answer

question

Which of the following conditions has been found to benefit from teleneurology: a. CVAs b. epilepsy c. Parkinson disease d. all of the above

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When a physician provides a telemedicine consultation to a patient using a video camera and a telecommunications link, he is using which form of technology: a. store and forward b. teleconferencing c. VISTA d. SATELIFE

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In which type of HMO are the physicians employees? a. group model b. independent practice association (IPA) model c. staff model d. network model

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Why did Congress pass the health maintenance organization act of 1973 a. To deter the privatization of the Blue cross plans b. to increase the number of physicians in primary care c. to encourage the delivery of affordable, quality healthcare d. to standardize the costs of healthcare across the nation

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All of the following are characteristics of managed care organizations except: a. coordination of care across the continuum b. integration of financing and delivery of health c. management of costs and outcomes d. freedom of choice and autonomous decision making

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Access to mental or behavioral health or medical specialists is through referral. What is the term for the individual who makes the referral? a. gatekeeper b. primary care physician c. primary care practitioner d. all of the above e. none of the above

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All of the following are characteristics of disease management except: a. focus on single specialist for acute disease b. prevention of exacerbations of chronic disease c. promotion of healthy life choices d. monitoring of adherence to treatment plans

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All of the following are tools managed care organizations use to promote quality care in their healthcare plans except: a. discernment in selection of providers b. emphasis on health of populations c. incentive to meet fiscal targets d. maintenance of accreditation

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Which of the following services is most likely to be considered medically necessary? a. caregivers convenience or relief b. cosmetic improvement c. investigational cancer prevention d. standard of care for health condition

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What is the term that means evaluating, for a healthcare service, the appropriateness of its setting and its level of service? a. coordination of service benefits b. community rating c. outcomes assessment d. utilization review

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all of the following services are typically reviewed for medical necessity and utilization except: a. inpatient admissions b. mental health and chemical dependency care c. rehabilitative therapies d. well baby check

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Gatekeepers determine the appropriateness of all of the following components except: a. rate of capitation or reimbursement b. healthcare service itself c. level of healthcare personnel d. setting in the continuum of care

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The patient belonged to a managed care plan. Prior approval for the surgery was received. What number should the insurance analyst record? a. credit score b. drug enforcement administration c. precertification d. social security

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The patient belonged to a managed care plan. The patient had an elective surgery. Prior approval for the elective surgery had not been obtained. What should the patient expect? a. delay in scheduling the post operative visit b. reduction in future coverage of surgical services c. denial of reimbursement for the surgery d. increase in premium for the next enrollment period

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For what type of care should the physician practice manager expect to work with a case manager? a. acute appendicitis b. pre athletics exam c. well baby check d. workers compensation

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All of the following are elements of prescription management except: a. links to electronic banking b. formulary c. patient education d. alerts for interactions

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All of the following attributes characterize episode of care reimbursement except: a. capitation b. global payment c. retrospective fee for service d. aggregation of utilization of health members and chronically ill members

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The primary care physician did not meet the MCOs target for counseling cardiac patients about smoking cessation. The primary care physician could expect any of the following results except: a. bonus b. exemption from the surplus withholds c. loss of physician contingency reserve d. reduction in salary

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The patient belongs to a managed care plan. The patient wants to make an appointment with an out of network specialist. The plan has approved the appointment as out of plan. What should the patient expect? a. the front office of the out of network specialist will delay and obstruct the making of the appointment b. the patients out of pocket costs for the out of plan appointment will be equal to the out of pocket costs for in plan care because the prior notification was completed. c. The patient's out of pocket costs will be increased d. the patient can permanently transfer his or her care to the out of plan specialist because the initial appointment was approved

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What is meant by the phrase "point of service" in "point of service healthcare insurance plan"? a. charges are captured at the site and time they are incurred. b. decision making is decentralized to the primary care providers who are empowered to determine the care across the continuum during the encounter c. computer linkages allow immediate decisions during an encounter regarding approvals or denials across the entire IDS d. members choose the reimbursement model (HMO, PPO, fee for service)when they need healthcare services rather than during the open enrollment period

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What is the term for an MCO that serves Medicare beneficiaries? a. part A b. social foundation c. Medicare advantage d. exclusive provider organization

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In the 1970s, what factors affected the Medicare program? a. the increase in Medicare expenditures for inpatient hospital care jeopardized Medicare's ability to fund other health programs b. deductibles had remained stagnant, generating insufficient income c. increased incomes of US citizens and concomitantly, their increased payroll deductions paid into the Medicare program assured its financial solvency d. The clear and succinct cost based reporting requirements generated enthusiasm for the Medicare program in the provider community

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Which of the following points is a guideline for the acute hospital prospective payment system? a. incentive for cost control because hospitals retain profits or suffer losses based on differences between payment rate and actual costs b. retrospective, charge based payment c. directly tied to past or current actual charges d. partial payments with add-ons for severity of illness

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What is the average of the sum of the relative weights of all patients treated during a specified time period? a. case mix index b. mean qualifier c. outlier pool d. share

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The MS DRG payment includes reimbursement for all of the following inpatient services except: a. medications b. progress notes c. laboratory tests d. dressings and other supplies

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Select the highest level of the IPPS hierarchy: a. diagnosis related group b. major diagnostic category c. multiple significant trauma d. surgical section

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What is the general term for software that assigns inpatient diagnosis related groups? a. aligner b. encoder c. grouper d. scrubber

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What is Medicare's term for a facility with a high percentage of low income patients? a. disproportionate share hospital b. financial hardship hospital c. percentage income payment facility d. underserved facility

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What condition does CMS require be me for a facility to receive the indirect medical education adjustment? a. medical residents in an approved graduate medical education program b. medical residents and nurses in approved educational programs c. medical residents, nurses, and allied health personn3el in approved educational programs d. any type of health personnel in training including the above listed types s well as other types, such as medical social workers, pharmacists, dentists, recreational and music therapists, and child and family development specialists

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In MS DRGs what does the case mix index signify? a. consumption of resources b. difficulty of treatment c. prognosis d. risk or mortality

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In the IPPS, what is the term for each hospital's unique standardized amount based on its costs per Medicare discharge? a. base payment rate b. carrier amount c. cost outlier d. diagnosis related group

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What is the basis of the "labor related share"? a. cost of living adjustment b. facilities costs related to payrolls, benefits, and professional fees c. market basket index d. disproportionate share percentage

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Which of the following is not a provision of the IPPS? a. disproportionate share hospital adjustment b. high cost outlier c. indirect medical education d. length of stay outlier

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Under the IPF IPPS which states are included in the cost of living adjustment (COLA)? a. Alaska and Hawaii b. California and Alaska c. California and Hawaii d. Hawaii and new York

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Medicare inpatient reimbursement levels are based on: a. charges accumulated during the episode of care b. CPT codes reported during the encounter c. MS DRG calculated for the encounter d. usual and customary charges reported during the encounter

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What is the term for an index based on relative differences in the cost of a market basket of goods across bundle b. cost to charge c. CPI d. GPCI

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All of the following elements are used to calculate a Medicare payment under RBRVS except: a. work value b. malpractice expenses c. extent of the physical exam d. practice expenses

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Which one of the following statements characterized the RBRVS payment system? a.one intent of the RBRVS payment system was to decrease the number of family practitioners b. ICD-9-CM codes trigger payment in the RBRVS payment system c. RVUs can easily be rescaled as changes in technology occur d. RBRVS payment system reflects the skill and resources required for each procedure

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Which element of the RVU accounts for the costs of the medical practice, such as office rent, wages of non physician personnel, and supplies and equipment? a. extent of the physical exam b. malpractice expenses c. practice expenses d. work value

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All of the following items are packaged under the Medicare Hospital outpatient prospective payment system (OPPS) except: a. recovery room b. supplies, other than pass through c. anesthesia d. medical visits

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which of the following statements is true about APCs? a. APCs are based solely on the patient's principal diagnosis b. ICD-9-CM procedure codes are used to group patients c. severity of illness is taken into consideration when grouping APCs d. APCs are based on the CPT or HCPCS code reported

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Medicare certified ASCs must accept assignment, meaning: a. an ASC can balance bill the patient after Medicare has paid their portion of the bill b. An ASC can charge a Medicare patient more than other patients c. An ASC bills the Medicare patient for a 40 percent copayment and any deductible that is required d. An ASC must accept Medicare payment as payment in full

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This PPS has been adopted for use by many third party payers (that is, Medicaid) for reimbursement of outpatient visits. It is not the methodology used by Medicare. a. ASC (ambulatory surgery centers) groups b. APGs (ambulatory patient groups) c. DRGs (Diagnosis related groups d. APCs (ambulatory payment classifications

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Under the OPPS, outpatient services that are similar both clinically and in use of resources are assigned to separate groups called _______. a. APCs b. APR-DRGs c. APGs d. DRGs e. none of the above

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When analyzing a facilities case mix index, a low case mix can indicate what? a. inaccurate code assignments b. poor physician documentation c. more resources required for treatmebnt d. both A and B e. all of the above

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Under the ambulance fee schedule, the ________ is used to determine the level of service for ground transport. a. EMS provider skill set used during the transport b. length of the transport in miles c. patients medical condition using ICD-9-CM diagnosis code d. type of transport vehicle

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When a patient is pronounced dead prior to an ambulance being called, which of the following payment provisions is followed under the ambulance fee schedule? a. no payment is made to the ambulance supplier/provider b. A BLS base rate for ground transport will be paid c. payment rules are the same as if the patient were alive d. 50 percent of the payment rate is paid

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46Under the ASC list, multiple procedures performed during the same surgical session are reimbursed at which of the following rate? a. all procedures receive full (100%) payment b. the procedure in the highest level group receives full payment and the remaining procedures receive half (50%) payment. c. the procedure in the lowest level group receives full payment and the remaining procedures receive half (50%) payment d. the procedure in the highest level group receives full payment and the remaining procedures receive one third (33%) payment

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Under the SNF PPS wghich one of the following healthcare services is excluded from the consolidated payment? a. laboratory tests b. routine cares c. medications d. radiation therapty

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Which classification system is used to case mix adjust the SNF payment rate? a. IRVEN b. geographic cost index c. resource utilization groups d. wage index

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What is not a consequence of an outdated charge description master? a. lost reimbursement b. claim rejections c. timely claims reimbursement d. overpayment

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The therapist in the skilled nursing facility is treating multiple patients who are each performing different therapies. How does CMS classify this mode of delivery? a. concurrent b. group c. individual d. modalitic

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In the PAC payment systems, which tool does CMS use to adjust its payment rates to account for geographic variations in costs? a. national episode amount b. neutrality adjustor c. cost reports d. market basket

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In which of the PAC payment systems is the unit of payment the 60 day episode of care? a. skilled nursing facility b. long term care hospital inpatient rehavilitation facility d. home health agency

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Generally, what is the average length of stay of long term care hospitals? a. more than 15 days b. more than 25 days c. more than 30 days d. more than 60 days

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CMS analysts divide SNF admissions into upper and lower categories. Which of the following categories requires the residents admission to be justified on an individual basis? a. reduced physical function b. rehabilitation and extensive c. clinically complex d. special care

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Patients with all the following conditions are appropriate candidates for LTCHs except: a. acute myocardial infarction b. chronic tuberculosis c. sequelae of head trauma d. vehnilator dependent emphysema

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In terms of their composition, hjow tdo the groups of the MS LTC DRGs compare to the groups of the acute care MS DRGs? a. fewer groups with wider range of conditions in each b. exactly the same c. refined with greater specificity d. none of the above

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In terms of grouping and reimbursement how are the MS LTC DRGs and acute care MS DRGs similar? a. relative weights b. based on principal diagnosis c. categorization of low volume groups into quintiles d. classification of short stay outliers

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In the LTCH PPS what is the standard federal rate? a. constant that converts the MS LTC DRG wight into a payment b. relative weight based on the market basket of goods c. geographic wage index d. adjustment mandated by the benefits improvement and protection act (BIPA) of 2000

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In the IRF PPS what 85 item tool collects the data that drives reimbursement? a. PAI b. MDS c. OASIS d. IGC-UHDDS

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All of the following elements are part of the IRF PPS except: a. major diagnostic category b. impairment group code c. rehabilitation impairment category d. patient assessment instrumentf

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To meet the definition of an IRF facilities must have an inpatient population with at lease a specified percentage of patients with certain conditions. Which of the following conditions is counted in the definition? a. brain injury b. chronic myclogenous leukemia c. acute myocardial infarction d. cancer

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All of the following types of diagnoses are used in the IRF PPS except: a. principal b. admitting c. etiologic d. complication or comorbidity

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In the IRF PPS what is the tool for data collection that drives payment? a. medicare provider analysis review b. inpatient rehabilitation validation and entry c. activities of daily living d. patient assessment instrument

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What data set provides the underpinning of the HHPPS? a. UHDDS b. MHDS c. OASIS d. HAVEN

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All of the following services are consolidated into a single payment under the HHPPS except: a. home health aide visits b. routine and nonroutine medical supplies c. durable medical equipment d. nursing and therapy services

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All of the following domains are part of the HHPPS case mix except: a. clinical severity b. functional status c. service utilization d. medical malpractice

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Which of the following is the definition of revenue cycle management? a. the regularly repeating set of events that produces revenue or income b. the method by which patients are grouped together based on a set of characteristics c. the systematic comparison of the products services, and outcomes of one organization with those of a similar organization d. coordination of all administrative and clinical functions that contribute to the capture, management, and collection of patient service revenue

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_____________ are programmable mannequins on which students can practice medical procedures a. human patient simulators b. virtual human beings c. virtual mannequins d. human mannequins

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For what variations in resource consumption does the HHPPS account? a. type of health personnel, such as nurse versus therapist b. labor versus non labor c. number of therapy visits by a therapist d. all of the above

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Which of the following elements is directly adjusted by the local wage index? a. labor portion b. OASIS c. national standard episode amount d. product

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In which of the PAC payment systems, is the adjusted rate multiplied by the patient's number of medicare days to determine the reimbursement amount? a. skilled nursing facility b. long term care hospital c. inpatient rehabilitation facility d. home health agency

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What is the term used in a rehabilitation facility to mean "a patient's ability to perform activities of daily living"? a. compliance threshold b. etiologic diagnosis c. functional status d. normalization

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All of the following elements are found in a charge description master, except: a. ICD-9-CM code b. procedure/service charge c. HCPCS/CPT code d. narrative description of procedure/service

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The term "hard coding" refers to: a. CPT codes that are coded by the coders b. CPT codes that appear in the hospital's charge master c. ICD-9-CM codes that are coded by the coders d. ICD-9-CM codes that appear in the hospital's charge master

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In healthcare settings, the record of the cash the facility will receive for the services it has provided is known as which of the following terms? a.dollars billed b. aging of accounts c. accounts receivable d. cash balance

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Healthcare facilities should think of the collection process as part of the complete billing process and should educate staff to the fact that not all money billed is a. pending b. charged c. reimbursable d. collected

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Aging of accounts is the practice of counting the days, generally in _____ increments, from the time a bill has been sent to the payer to the current day. a. 7 day b. 14 day c. 30 day d. 90 day

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Most facilities begin counting days in accounts receivable at which of the following times? a. the date the patients registers b. the date the patient is discharged c. the date the bill drops d. the date the bill is received by the payer

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The amount of money owed a healthcare facility when calims are pending is called: a. dollars in accounts receivable b. bad debt c. the write off account d. delayed revenue

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The dollar amount the facility actually bills for the services it provides is known as: a. cost b. charge c. reimbursement d. contractual allowance

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The difference between what is charged and what is paid is known as: a. costs b. charges c. reimbursement d. contractual allowance

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What is the name of the notice sent after the provider files a claim that details amounts billed by the provider, amounts approved by medicare, how much medicare paid, and what the patient must pay? a. EOB b. EOMB c. MSN d. ABN

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which is not a characteristic of the "old" RCM approach? a. proactive b. linear and unidirectional c. silo mentality d. front end and back end

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which of the following is not a function area of the revenue cycle? a. volunteer services b. patient financial services c. admitting d. medical record coding

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which entity is responsible for processing part A claims and hospital based Part B claims for institutional services on hebalf of medicare? a. medicare administrative contractor b. medicare carrier c. third party paryer d. claim editor

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which of the following is not used to reconcile accounts in the patient accounting department? a. explanation of benefits b. medicare code editor c. remittance advice d. medicare summary notice

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In a typical acute care setting, admitting is located in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections

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In a typical acute care setting, aging of accounts reports are monitored in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections

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In a typical acute care setting charge entry is located in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections

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In a typical acute care setting patient education of payment policies is located in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections

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In a typical acute care setting the EOB, Medicare summary notice, and remittance advice documents (provided by the payer) are monitored in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections

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In a typical acute care setting which revenue cycle area uses an internal auditing system (scrubber) to ensure that error free claims (clean claims) are submitted to third party payers a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections

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In the United States, the __________ oversees the safety and efficacy of new medications a. federal drug administration b.. food and drug administration c. federal safety administration d. none of the above

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___________ requires drug companies to pay fees to support the drug review process a. prescription drug user fees act b. prescription drug and food act c. prescription drug understanding and food act d. none of the above

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__________ sees the human body as a collection of molecules and seeks to understand and treat disease in terms of these molecules a. bioinformatics b. medical computing c. biotechnology d. none of the above

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Developing drugs by design requires mapping the structure and creating a three dimensional graphical model of the target molecule. This is called ________ drug design. a. reasonable b. rational c. graphical d. none of the above

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__________ cells are cells that can develop into different types of body cells; theoretically, they can repair the body. a. stem b. developmental c. both A and B d. none of the above

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The ________ Project is an international project seeking to create mathematical models of human organs a. human model b. human physical c. human physiome d. none of the above

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________ (CPOE) can lower prescription errors a. computerized physician order entry system b. computer pharmacy order email system c. computer and physician email system d. none of the above

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Computer warning systems can be used to prevent _______ (ADEs). a. any deviant event b. adverse drug events c. any drug eventuality d. none of the above

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Centralized computerized pharmacies identify medications by their ___________j. a. color b. shape c. density d. barcode

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__________(RFID) tags include an antenna,, a decoder to interpret data, and the tag that includes information. The antenna sends signals. When the tag detects the signal, it sends back information. The tags can be used to keep track of anything including: a. response frequency identification b. radio pharmacy identification c. radio frequency identification d. none of the above

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_____________ involves using a computer, a network connection, and a drug dispensing unit to allow patients to obtain drugs outside of a traditional pharmacy, at for example, a doctor's office or clinic a. Telepharmacy b. phone pharmacy c. computer pharmacy d. none of the above

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Some medications can currently be delivered on an implanted _________ that is surgically implanted in a patient and releases the drug or drugs. a. barcode b. chip c. both A and B d. none of the above

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________ errors typically occur when a patient changes status - that is, is admitted to, moved within, or released from a hospital a. medication reconciliation b. surgical c. both a and b d. none of the above

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The electronic dental chart is standardized, easy to search, and easy to read. It will include _________. a. administrative applications b. the patients conditions c. treatments d. all of the above

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The fiber-optic camera is analogous to the _________ used in surgery. It is used to view an area that is normally difficult to see. a. endoscope b. knife c. robot d. none of the above

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In dentistry as in other fields, expert systems or __________ (CDSS) can help. a. clinical decision support systems b. clinical dentistry support systems c. computerized dentistry support systems d. none of the above

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Hospitals are beginning to use "electronic informed consent programs." __________ is used at the VA and at 190 US hospitals a. iconcent b emedconsent c. Imedconsent d. none of the above

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__________ among dentists is rising; for example, some dentists deal with geriatrics, others with diagnostics, and others with cosmetic dentistry a. the percent of generalists b. prevention c. specialization d.. none of the above

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__________ is currently used to diagnose cavities. An electric current is passed through a tooth and the tooth's resistance is measured. A decayed tooth has a different resistance reading than a healthy tooth a. electrical conductance b. current conductance c. electrical dentistry d. none of the above

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____________invasive dentistry emphasizes prevention and the least possible intervention a. less b. minimally c. maximally d. none of the above

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Teledentristry programs have been developed to help __________ a. fill cavities over the telephone b. dentists access specialists c. both A and B d. none of the above

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The ________ Project is a computerized library of human anatomy at the National library of medicine. a. visible human b. visible anatomy c. human anatomy d. none of the above

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A project called the _____________ is digitizing some of the 7,000 human embryos lost in miscarriages, which have been kept by the national museum of Health and medicine of the armed forces institute of pathology since the 1880s. a. visible embryo project b. virtual human c. virtual human embryo d. none of the above

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Program attached to another file which replicates itself and does damage to the host computer

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virus

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regularly repeating set of events that produces cash flow

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revenue cycle

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composit measure used to represent physician work, practice expenses, and malpractice fees

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relative value unit

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assigned weight that reflects the relative resource consumption associated with a payment classification

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relative weight

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amount of money periodically paid in return for healthcare insurance

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premium

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determination of reimbursement based on a member's insurance benefits

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adjudication

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outpatient classification system that groups patients by diagnosis and treatment for reimbursement purposes

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APC

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amount adjusted for location, inflation, case mix, and other factors; unique to each facility

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base payment rate

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fixed amount paid to provider per patient per set period/time frame

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capitation

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single value that represents the complexity of illness of the organizations patient population

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case mix index

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provides payment for outpatient drug coverage for an additional premium

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medicare part D

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process of collecting all services, procedures, and supplies provided during patient care

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charge capture

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cost sharing measure in which a set amount is paid per service

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copayment

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provides payment for inpatient hospital services

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medicare part a

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system that enables physicians to enter orders and prescriptions while comparing to external and internal databases for safety

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CPOE

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cost sharing measure of an annual amount that must be paid out of pocket before benefits kick in

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deductible

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list of preferred or approved drugs

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formulary

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person ultimately responsible for paying final remainder of bill

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guarantor

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Use of an EHR to achieve significant improvement in health services

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meaningful use

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provision of insurance policy that requires policyholders to pay for a portion of their healthcare

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cost sharing

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robot used in performing surgeries such as mitral valve repair and prostatectomies

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davinci

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use of charge description master to code repetitive services

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hard coding

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comprehensive online database of current medical research

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medline

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database used to house the price list for services provided to patients can be used to automate charge capturing

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cmd

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calculated list of charges, in an office setting generated based on third party payer contracted amounts and used to determine charges

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fee schedule

STUDY

Allied Health Professionals Direct Patient Care Health Computing Long Term Care Facilities Medicare And Medicaid Services

Sayles, HIMT – Chapter 2 – Purpose and Function of the Health Record – Flashcards 72 terms

Kate Moore

72 terms

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Sayles, HIMT – Chapter 2 – Purpose and Function of the Health Record – Flashcards

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health record

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The principal repository for data and information about the healthcare services provided to an individual patient

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Difference between data and information

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Data represents facts. Information represents meaning.

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EHR

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An electronic record of health-related information on an individual that conforms to nationally recognized interoperability standards and that can be created, managed, and consulted by authorized clinicians and staff across more than one healthcare organization

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PHR

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Personal Health Record - a health record initiated and maintained by an individual.

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NCVHS

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National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics

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ONC

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Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology

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NHIN

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National Health Information Network

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Act signed in 2009 that accelerated EHR adoption

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American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (ARRA), an economic stimulus package that provides reimbursement incentives to providers and hospitals that are "meaningful" users of certified EHR technology

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Primary purposes of health record

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Relate directly to the provision of patient care services as well as the documentation of the patient's health status: Patient care delivery Patient care management Patient care support processes Financial and other administrative processes Patient self-management

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Secondary purposes of the health record

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Relate to the environment in which patient care is provided - they are not related directly to specific patient care encounters: Education Regulation Research Public health and homeland security Policy making and support Industry

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Primary users of health records

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clinical professionals who provide direct patient care

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Secondary users of health records

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healthcare managers and administrators, government agencies and policy makers, third-party payers, researchers, educators, accreditation organizations

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We had 324 Medicare patients last month. This statement represents which of the following: A. Information B. Data C. Content of the PHR D. Patient-specific information

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B. Data

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I am a patient. My medical history including information from myself and my physicians is stored on the Internet. This is an example of which of the following: A. Health record B. EHR C. PHR D. Data

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C. PHR

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Which of the following is an example of a primary purpose of the medical record? A. Education B. Policy making C. Research D. Patient care management

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D. Patient care management

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Examples of patient care delivery usage of the medical record includes which of the following uses? A. Developing of practice guidelines B. Communication between caregivers C. Reimbursement for patient care D. Getting patients involved in their own care

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B. Communication between caregivers

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Critique this statement: The PHR and EHR are synonymous. A. This is a true statement; both are controlled by the patient. B. This is a false statement as the PHR is controlled by the care providers and the EHR is controlled by the patient. C. This is a false statement as the PHR is controlled by the patient and the EHR is controlled by health care providers. D. This is a true statement; both are controlled by the healthcare provider.

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C. This is a false statement as the PHR is controlled by the patient and the EHR is controlled by health care providers.

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True or false: The health record is the principal repository for data and information about the healthcare services provided to individual patients.

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True or false: The lab test "hemoglobin: 14.6 gm/110 ml" is considered information.

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True or false: The primary purposes of the health record are associated directly with the provision of patient care services as well as the documentation of the patient's health status.

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Submitting health record documentation to a third-party payer for the purpose of substantiating a patient bill is considered a secondary purpose of the health record.

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Use of the health record to the study the effectiveness of a given drug is considered a primary use of the health record.

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What is aggregate data?

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Data extracted from individual health records and combined to form de-identified information about groups of patients that can be compared and analyzed

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What major healthcare legislation was passed in 1996?

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Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996

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What laws were passed that allowed law enforcement more access to health records?

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USA Patriot Act (2001) and The Homeland Security Act (2002)

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CMS

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Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

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Which of the following users of the health record is an example of an institutional user? A. Third-party payer B. Patient C. Physician D. Employer

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A. Third-party payer

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Which of the following users would utilize aggregate data? A. Patient care providers B. Billing and coding staff C. Law enforcement officers D. Patient care managers and support staff

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D. Patient care managers and support staff

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I work for an organization that utilizes health record data to prove or disprove hypotheses related to disease. I must work for what type of organization? A. Healthcare delivery B. Medical review C. Research D. Education

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C. Research

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Critique the following statement: A user of health records includes only care providers who document in the health record or refer to it for patient care. A. True, as defined by the IOM B. False, as the information is used for purposes such as analysis C. Trust, as defined by AHIMA D. False, as the information contained in the health record is also used for patients to document their own health record

answer

B. False, as the information is used for purposes such as analysis

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I work for CMS. How would I use the health record? A. Make decisions on healthcare reimbursement B. Medical research C. Issuing hospital and medical staff licenses D. Accrediting healthcare organizations

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A. Make decisions on healthcare reimbursement

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True or false: A physical therapist documenting in the health record is an institutional health record user

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True or false: An auditor who is employed by Medicare is reviewing a health record for a mortality study. This auditor is an individual health record user.

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True or false: CMS uses data to accredit hospitals.

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True or false: A researcher uses data to determine the recommended treatment.

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True or false: Patients do not have the right to add missing information to the health record.

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The primary function of the health record is to

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store patient care documentation

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What are the attributes associated with the storage function of health care records?

answer

quality, accessibility, security, flexibility, connectivity and efficiency

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IOM

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Institute of Medicine

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What are the four domains of data quality management?

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- Data applications (the purposes for which data are collected) - Data collection (the processes by which data are collected) - Data warehousing (the processes and systems by which data are archived) - Data analysis (the processes by which data are translated into information that can be used for a designated application)

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What are the quality characteristics applied to the four quality management domains?

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accuracy accessibility comprehensiveness consistency currency definition granularity precision relevancy timeliness

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data accuracy

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means that the data are correct. The data should represent what was intended or defined by the original source of data.

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data accessibility

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means that the date are easily obtainable. Authorized users of the health record must be able to access information easily when and where they need it.

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data comprehensiveness

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means that all required data elements are included in the health record. In essence, comprehensiveness means that the record is complete.

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data consistency

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means that the data are reliable.

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data currency

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means that healthcare data should be up-to-date

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data timeliness

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refers to data being recorded at or near the time or the event or observation

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data definition

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means that the data and information documented in the health record are defined. Users of the data must understand what the data mean and represent.

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data granularity

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requires that the attributes and values of data be defined at the correct level of detail for the intended use of the data. (Ex: lab results recorded to the correct decimal place)

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data precision

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the term used to describe expected data values. As part of data definition, the acceptable values for each data element must be defined. (Ex: gender could be M, F, U. Or year of birth could be a 4 digit number)

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data relevancy

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means that the data in the health record are useful.

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privacy

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the right of individuals to control access to their personal health information

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confidentiality

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the expectation that the personal information shared by an individual with a healthcare provider during the course of care will be used only for its intended purposes

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security

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the protection of the privacy of individuals and the confidentiality of health records. In other words, security allows only authorized users to access health records.

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flexibility

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the ability to display and present information in different ways

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connectivity

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the capacity of health record systems to provide electronic communication linkages and allow the exchange of health record data among information systems

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interoperability

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the ability, generally by adoption of standards, of systems to work together

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Three types of formats are commonly used in paper-based record systems:

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source-oriented problem-oriented integrated

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source-oriented health record

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organizes the information according to the patient care department that provided the care. For example, all lab tests are filed together, progress notes are filed together, etc. This format is mostly used by acute care hospitals that are still using a paper record.

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problem-oriented health record

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the physician defines each clinical problem individually and all documentation related to that clinical problem is stored together. Information about the problems is organized into four components: the database, the problem list, initial plans and progress notes.

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integrated health record format

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organizes all paper forms in strict chronological order and mixes forms created by different departments.

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hybrid health record

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a combination of paper and electronic records

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EHR systems are introducing new formats and functionality.

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Results Management Order-Entry/Order Management Clinical Decision Support

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results management

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results retrieval technology that permits viewing of data by type and manipulation of several different types of data

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order-entry/order management

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systems that allow physicians to enter medication or other orders and receive clinical advice about drug dosages, contraindications, or other clinical decision support

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CPOE

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computerized provider order-entry

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clinical decision support

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the process in which individual data elements are represented in the computer by special code to be used in making comparisons, trending results and supplying clinical reminders and alerts

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A physician just received notification from an EHR system that a patient's lab test had a dangerously high value. This is an example of what kind of clinical tool? A. Clinical decision support B. Electronic records C. Results management D. Order-entry/order management

answer

A. Clinical decision support

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I just told my physician something embarrassing about myself. I told him because I expect him to use this information for my care only. This concept is called: A. Data relevancy B. Security C. Privacy D. Confidentiality

answer

D. Privacy

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Someone suggested that we collect a patient's eye color. This was not implemented. What quality characteristic would be justification for not collecting this information? A. Accuracy B. Consistency C. Granularity D. Relevancy

answer

D. Relevancy

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It was suggested that we enter the patient's age manually in all of our information systems rather than having it entered once in one system and interfaced to the other systems. What quality characteristic would be justification for not doing this manual entry into each information system? A. Accuracy B. Consistency C. Granularity D. Relevancy

answer

B. Consistency

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According to the AHIMA data quality model, what is the term that is used to describe how data is translated into information? A. Data applications B. Data collection C. Data warehousing D. Data analysis

answer

D. Data analysis

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