What words in the story Star City help create a tone that supports the story’s theme? Copy and paste some examples below.

Words in the story that help the story create a tone are hard-luck, tiredness, slump shoulders, slug bottoms, confused, exhausted, restless, shuffling, sweating, strutting, twangy accents, divorce, trouble, gambling, drank too much, stuck, and NO education. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/language-arts-master-quiz-uni-art-of-persuasion/

Copy And Paste test questions and answers | Get Access To Copy And Paste Flashcards and exam tests

Home Page Science Computer Science Computer Skills Powerpoint Copy And Paste

We've found 15 Copy And Paste tests

Baseball Common Knowledge Copy And Paste Course(s) In English English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade) Lose Your Job Old Man And The Sea

English Chapter 1 – Flashcards 198 terms

Marlon Riddle

198 terms

Preview

English Chapter 1 – Flashcards

question

What is meant by "citing a source?"

answer

naming the source of the information

question

It is necessary to cite a source because:

answer

it is academically correct, it is proper to give the author credit, the idea, work, or material is someone else's

question

Ideas, works, and words that are someone else's must be documented because:

answer

they are someone's hard work, ideas, or words, they do not belong to the student, they are not original with the student

question

True or False? Citing a source is correct academic documentation of other people's ideas, words, or works.

answer

True

question

True or False? Plagiarism damages reputations and relationships.

answer

False

question

True or False? To be charged with plagiarism is a minor offense.

answer

False

question

True or False? Plagiarism is an issue of a person's honesty and character.

answer

True

question

True or False? There is no difference between paraphrasing and summarizing.

answer

False

question

True or False? A paraphrase, when used in an essay, must be cited because, although it is in your own words, it is still another's ideas or work.

answer

True

question

True or False? A good, clear, complete paraphrase must be cited.

answer

True

question

True or False? A summary of a paragraph is much shorter than a paraphrase.

answer

True

question

True or False? A summary does not need to be cited as to its source because a summary is your own words.

answer

False

question

is made during research to tell the facts about the source one is using.

answer

Documentation

question

Which information goes on a note card?

answer

author's name and page number for information found

question

A word that modifies or describes a noun or pronoun is called a(n)

answer

adjective

question

What is the name of a person, place, thing, or idea?

answer

noun

question

Words are classified as parts of speech according to their

answer

use in a sentence.

question

A particular person, place, or thing within a general class is named by a

answer

proper noun.

question

A common noun that refers to a quality, state, idea, or action rather than a physical object

answer

abstract noun

question

A noun naming a physical object that can be perceived by the senses.

answer

concrete noun

question

A noun that combines two or more words as a single noun.

answer

compound noun

question

A noun that names a group of more than one person, place, or thing.

answer

collective noun

question

An example of an abstract noun is:

answer

love (emotion)

question

Cupful is an example of a(n)

answer

compound noun

question

Nouns that name things that you cannot perceive by the senses are

answer

abstract nouns

question

A noun that combines two or more words as a single noun is a(n)

answer

compound noun

question

A compound noun may be written as:

answer

one word, two or more words, or as a hyphenated word

question

The plural form of syllable

answer

syllables

question

The plural form of brush

answer

brushes

question

The plural form of report

answer

reports

question

The plural form of dress

answer

dresses

question

The plural form of tax

answer

taxes

question

The plural form of buzz

answer

buzzes

question

The plural form of peach

answer

peaches

question

The plural form of rodeo

answer

rodeos

question

The plural form of studio

answer

studios

question

The plural form of trio

answer

trios

question

The plural form of hero

answer

heroes

question

The plural form of tomato

answer

tomatoes

question

With some exceptions, the plural of nouns ending in o preceded by a consonant is formed by adding

answer

-es.

question

The plural of a noun ending in o preceded by a vowel is formed by adding

answer

-s.

question

The plurals of nouns ending in s, x, z, ch, and sh are formed by adding

answer

-es.

question

Form the plural of a noun ending in y preceded by a vowel by

answer

adding -s

question

Form the plural of a noun ending in y preceded by a consonant by

answer

changing the y to i and adding -es

question

To form the irregular plural of some nouns ending in f or fe,

answer

add -s.

question

To form the plural of many nouns ending in f or fe,

answer

change the f or fe to v and add -es

question

The plural form of monkey

answer

monkeys

question

The plural form of toy

answer

toys

question

The plural form of valley

answer

valleys

question

The plural form of ally

answer

allies

question

The plural form of life

answer

lives

question

The plural form of belief

answer

beliefs

question

The plural form of child

answer

children

question

The plural form of man

answer

men

question

The plural form of father-in-law

answer

fathers-in-law

question

The plural form of post office

answer

post offices

question

The plural form of cupful

answer

cupfuls

question

The plural form of chalkboard

answer

chalkboards

question

The plural form of railway

answer

railways

question

Form the plural of compound nouns with more than one word or in hyphenated form by adding the appropriate plural inflection, -s or -es, to the

answer

main part of the compound.

question

True or False? Form the plural of some nouns by changing the spelling of the singular form of the word.

answer

True

question

True or False? Form the plural of compound nouns written as one word by adding the appropriate plural sign -s or -es to the first part of the word.

answer

False

question

alumna: Singular or Plural? She is an alumna of Iowa State University.

answer

Singular

question

alumna: Singular or Plural? The alumnae are having a fund-raising dinner

answer

Plural

question

basis: Singular or Plural? The basis of their friendship was a common interest in travel.

answer

Singular

question

basis: Singular or Plural? The bases for salvation rest upon Jesus' offering of forgiveness and a person's acceptance of his offer.

answer

Plural

question

nucleus: Singular or Plural? Nuclei of cells are located in different positions in different kind of cells

answer

Plural

question

nucleus: Singular or Plural? A cell needs a nucleus in order to grow and divide into other cells.

answer

Singular

question

analysis: Singular or Plural? An analysis of the situation will help solve the problem.

answer

Singular

question

analysis: Singular or Plural? The experts prepared written analyses of the traffic problem.

answer

Plural

question

means: Singular or Plural? What are the means by which you are going to solve the problems?

answer

Plural

question

means: Singular or Plural? Quick thinking is the means by which trouble is often avoided.

answer

Singular

question

series: Singular or Plural? A series of rainy days spoiled the camping trip.

answer

Singular

question

scissors: Singular or Plural? He sharpened all the scissors in the schoolroom.

answer

Plural

question

civics: Singular or Plural? A study of civics is helpful in preparing a student for life as an adult.

answer

singular

question

riches: Singular or Plural? All the riches in the world cannot buy happiness.

answer

plural

question

athletics: Singular or Plural? Athletics is recommended for high school students.

answer

Singular

question

The possessive form of horse

answer

horse's

question

The possessive form of friend

answer

friend's

question

The possessive form of teacher

answer

teacher's

question

The possessive form of dogs

answer

dog's

question

The possessive form of girls

answer

girls'

question

The possessive form of guests

answer

guests'

question

The possessive form of businessmen

answer

businessmen's

question

The possessive form of sisters-in-law

answer

sisters-in-law's

question

The possessive form of Secretaries of State

answer

Secretaries of State's

question

The possessive form of oxen

answer

oxen's

question

The possessive form of "The fathers of Theresa and Marilyn."

answer

Theresa's and Marilyn's fathers.

question

The possessive form of "The mother of Millie and Mike."

answer

Millie and Mike's mother

question

Added to or following another as an explanation or identification.

answer

appositive position

question

Located among the words that express something about the subject.

answer

predicate position

question

Two or more words, joined by a hyphen, used as a single adjective to modify a noun

answer

compound adjective

question

Standing next to (in front of) another.

answer

attributive position

question

What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "Snoopy is my favorite *comic-strip* character."

answer

compound

question

What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "A *warm, humid* breeze is blowing."

answer

coordinate

question

What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "The *beautiful* girl is smiling."

answer

attributive

question

What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "The tree, *green and slender*, bent in the summer breeze."

answer

appositive

question

What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "The woman at the desk is *competent*."

answer

predicate

question

True or False? Superlative means of the highest (or lowest) kind.

answer

True

question

Make the word an adjective. "hero"

answer

heroic

question

Make the word an adjective. "self"

answer

selfish

question

Make the word an adjective. "boy"

answer

boyish

question

Make the word an adjective. "act"

answer

active

question

Make the word an adjective. "pass"

answer

passive

question

Make the word an adjective. "help"

answer

helpful

question

Make the word an adjective. "fame"

answer

famous

question

Make the word an adjective. "nerve"

answer

nervous

question

Make the word an adjective. "velvet"

answer

velvety

question

Make the word an adjective. "enjoy"

answer

enjoyable

question

Make the word an adjective. "nature"

answer

natural

question

Make the word an adjective. "Asia"

answer

Asian

question

Which adjectives are more likely to use more or most in forming comparatives and superlatives?

answer

three-syllable adjectives

question

Which adjective is not superlative? least, more, clearest,

answer

question

True or False? A proper noun names a particular person, place, or thing within a general class

answer

True

question

True or False? The word cupful is an example of an abstract noun.

answer

False

question

True or False? To form the plural of a noun ending in y preceded by a vowel, simply add s.

answer

True

question

True or False? To form the plural of a noun ending in y preceded by a consonant, simply add s.

answer

False

question

True or False? All nouns that have plural forms are plural in meaning.

answer

False

question

True or False? The plural form of some nouns is the same as the singular form

answer

True

question

True or False? There are nouns that appear only in the plural form.

answer

True

question

Form the possessive of most singular nouns by adding:

answer

question

Form the possessive of plural nouns that end in s by adding:

answer

question

Form the possessive of plural nouns that do not end in s by adding:

answer

question

When two or more words are used as a single adjective to modify a noun, that adjective becomes a ___ adjective.

answer

compound

question

An adjective that precedes the noun it modifies is in the ___ position.

answer

attributive

question

An adjective that follows the verb and modifies the subject is in the ___ position.

answer

predicate

question

An adjective that expresses the highest or lowest degree of comparison among three or more nouns is in the ___ degree.

answer

superlative

question

Names referring to Deity, the Bible, and divisions of the Bible are_____________nouns and ____________be capitalized.

answer

proper and should

question

select the abstract nouns. "iron, vanity, faith, Bible, perseverance, lamb, grace, tooth"

answer

vanity, perseverance, faith, grace

question

The word assembly is an example of a(n)

answer

collective noun

question

The word newspaper is an example of a(n)

answer

compound noun

question

The plural of church is

answer

churches

question

The plural of sky is

answer

skies

question

The plural of monkey is

answer

monkeys

question

The plural of wharf is

answer

wharves

question

A compound noun may be written:

answer

as one word, as a hyphenated word, or as two words

question

A word used to modify verbs, adjectives, or adverbs.

answer

adverb

question

Indicates the time of the action or being.

answer

tense

question

A word used to express action or being.

answer

verb

question

A verb that either has no receiver of the action named or expresses no action.

answer

intransitive verb

question

Indicates whether the subject names the actor or the receiver of the action expressed by the verb.

answer

voice

question

Indicates whether an act is presented as a fact, contrary to fact, a wish, or a command.

answer

mood

question

A verb that has a receiver of the action named. It transfers the action from the actor to a direct object

answer

transitive verb

question

Present:_______ Past________ Past Participle: (have) ridden

answer

ride and rode

question

Present: obey Past:__________ Past Participle:___________

answer

obeyed and (have) obeyed

question

Present: bring Past:__________ Past Participle:__________

answer

brought and (have brought)

question

Present:____________ Past:___________ Past Participle: have got (gotten)

answer

get and got

question

Present: swing Past:_________ Past Participle__________

answer

swung and (have) swung

question

Present: bear Past: bore Past Participle:___________

answer

(have) borne

question

Present: beat Past:_________ Past Participle: (have) beaten

answer

beat

question

Present: choose Past:__________ Past Participle: (have) chosen

answer

Chose

question

Present: swear Past: swore Past Participle: _________

answer

(have) sworn

question

Present:_______ Past: tore Past Participle: (have) torn

answer

tear

question

Present: ___________ Past: began Past Participle:___________

answer

begin and (have) begun

question

Present: swim Past:_________ Past Participle:_________

answer

swam and (have) swum

question

Present: come Past:__________ Past Participle:_________

answer

came and (have) come

question

Present:______ Past: ate Past Participle:____________

answer

eat and (have) eaten

question

expresses time

answer

tense

question

reveals whether subject is actor or receiver of action

answer

voice

question

the manner in which action is presented

answer

mood

question

What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? Your sister *had gone* when we arrived.

answer

past perfect

question

What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? He moved that the committee *be appointed* by the president.

answer

subjunctive

question

What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? *Submit* your reports on Wednesday.

answer

imperative

question

What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? Before he enters the race, he *will have been examine* by his doctor.

answer

future perfect passive

question

What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? We *shall attend* church on Good Friday

answer

future

question

What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? If Sandy *were* here, this never would have happened.

answer

subjunctive

question

What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? Please *go* to the store for me.

answer

imperative

question

What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? When he finds out, he *will be surprised* that we knew all along.

answer

future passive

question

What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? *Stop!*

answer

imperative

question

The ___________ of a verb is the arrangement of its forms according to tense, voice, person, and number.

answer

conjugation

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" Third person singular, active voice, present perfect.

answer

Pronoun;it Verb: has seen

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" First person singular, past perfect.

answer

Pronoun: I Verb: had been

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to have" First person plural, future perfect

answer

Pronoun: we Verb:shall have had

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to have" Second person singular or plural, past perfect

answer

Pronoun: you Verb: had had

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" First person singular, future

answer

Pronoun: I Verb: Shall Be

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" Third person plural, future perfect

answer

Pronoun: they Verb: will have been

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to have" Third person singular, present

answer

Pronoun: It Verb: has

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" Third person plural, future perfect, active voice

answer

Pronoun: they Verb: will have seen

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" First person plural, present perfect, passive voice

answer

Pronoun: we Verb: have been seen

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" First person singular, future perfect, passive voice

answer

Pronoun: it Verb: will have been seen

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" Third person plural, future, passive voice

answer

Pronoun: they Verb: will be seen

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" First person singular, past

answer

Pronoun: I Verb: was

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" First person plural, future

answer

Pronoun: we Verb: will be

question

What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" Second person plural, future perfect

answer

Pronoun:you Verb: will have been

question

no receiver is named

answer

intransitive complete

question

subject is the doer

answer

transitive active

question

no action is expressed

answer

intransitive linking

question

subject is the receiver

answer

transitive passive

question

systematic arrangement of the forms of a verb according to tense, voice, mood, person, and number

answer

conjugation

question

Read the following sentence. Decide if the verb is used as transitive or intransitive. The sun *set.*

answer

intransitive

question

Read the following sentence. Decide if the verb is used as transitive or intransitive. Sammy *watched* television all night.

answer

transitive

question

Read the following sentence. Decide if the verb is used as transitive or intransitive. The old man *watched* as the children snuck across his field.

answer

intransitive

question

Read the following sentence. Decide if the verb is used as transitive or intransitive. I *slept over* at Martin's last night.

answer

intransitive

question

(lie / lay) If you feel ill,___________ down for a while.

answer

lie

question

(lie / lay) The student (past tense)_________ his books on the desk

answer

layed

question

(sit / set) Please don't _____________on the steps

answer

sit

question

(sit / set) Have you (past tense) ____________on the steps before?

answer

sat

question

(rise / raise) The level of the river (past tense)_____________last week.

answer

rose

STUDY

AP Psychology Appearance And Behavior Copy And Paste Observe And Record Prejudice Psychology

PSY CHPT 9 – Flashcards 10 terms

Joel Boykin

10 terms

Preview

PSY CHPT 9 – Flashcards

question

Brainstorming sessions that encourage people to spontaneously suggest new and unusual solutions to a problem are designed to avoid

answer

fixations

question

Our intuitions are feelings and thoughts that are best described as

answer

automatic

question

U.S. employees who formerly wanted to defer part of their compensation to a 401(k) retirement plan typically had to lower their take-home pay as they "opted in" to the plan. Now companies are being encouraged to enroll their employees in the 401(k) plan automatically while allowing them to choose to raise their take-home pay by "opting-out" of the 401(k) plan. Under the "opting out" rather than "opt-in" system, enrollments in 401(k) plans soared. This best illustrates the impact of

answer

framing

question

An effort to "consider the opposite" would be most likely to inhibit

answer

belief perseverance

question

When someone mentions hamburgers, Trisha immediately thinks of McDonald's. In this instance, McDonald's is a

answer

prototype

question

Noam Chomsky argues that children's readiness to learn language is a

answer

biological predisposition

question

he part of the left temporal lobe that is involved in understanding language is known as

answer

Wernicke's area

question

After learning that her two best friends had lost their jobs, Mariah began to grossly overestimate the national unemployment rate. Mariah's reaction best illustrates the consequences of

answer

the availability heuristic

question

In trying to solve a potentially complicated problem quickly, we are most likely to rely on

answer

heuristics

question

Those who learn sign language as teens never become as fluent as children exposed to sign language from birth. This best illustrates the importance of ________ for mastering language.

answer

a critical period

STUDY

1970s And 1980s Books Copy And Paste Five Forces Model Short Attention Span Social Networking Sites World War

TCM 131 3 – Flashcard 19 terms

Marguerite Castillo

19 terms

Preview

TCM 131 3 – Flashcard

question

Online booksellers such as Amazon control more than ___ percent of the US book business across all formats

answer

50%

question

Most of the books carried to the New World by the American colonists were:

answer

Religious in nature

question

After its development by Gutenberg, the printing press spread rather slowly throughout Europe

answer

False

question

Within the e-publishing Industry, only new or untested authors are making their works available online

answer

False

question

The book you bought (or should have bought) for this class is an example of which sales category of books

answer

Higher education

question

As opposed to other mass media, conglomeration has yet to strike the book publishing industry

answer

False

question

About ____ New and reprinted book titlesare issued each year in the United States

answer

3 million

question

In the last 10 years, which platforms have seen the largest increase in the number of minutes 8 to 18 year olds spend per day reading

answer

Books, online magazines and newspapers

question

The American novel flowered in the 1880s because of all but which of the following

answer

Increased leisure time

question

The publishing of books initially or exclusively online is Known as

answer

E publishing

question

Fahrenheit 451 was written by

answer

Ray Bradbury

question

More than half of the US book business is controlled by

answer

Amazon.com

question

The sale of paperback books accounts for a relatively small portion of bookstore sales

answer

False

question

One of the reasons books are seen as powerful cultural agents is because they are agents of social change

answer

True

question

US publisher Robert de graff copied the success of ___ ,who introduced the first paperbacks in London in the midst of the great depression

answer

Allen lane

question

In other words, publishing had been largely a___industry

answer

Cottage

question

Aliteracy is a form of self censorship

answer

True

question

Books that are produced for elementary and high schools are called

answer

El-hi

question

Uncle Tom's cabin was originally written as

answer

A magazine serial

STUDY

Benefits And Drawbacks Come Into Conflict Copy And Paste History of Europe Schools And Universities The Fall Of Rome Theology Western Roman Empire World History World History And Geography

Unit 8: Medieval Christian Europe Part I – Flashcards 25 terms

Larry Charles

25 terms

Preview

Unit 8: Medieval Christian Europe Part I – Flashcards

question

Justinian

answer

This emperor instituted legal changes that guided society, and those ideas spread to other parts of Europe.

question

Dark Ages

answer

The Middle Ages are often referred to as this because of the political disorder that resulted from waves of invasions in Europe.

question

Growth of the Byzantine Empire

answer

This resulted from Constantinople controlling key trade routes that linked Asia with Europe.

question

West Coast

answer

People living in this part of Europe had to be prepared for raids from ferocious invaders from Scandinavia.

question

Formation of feudal kingdoms

answer

This was a result of the fall of the western Roman empire.

question

Feudalism

answer

Contributed to the social changes found with in the Manor System.

question

Manorialism

answer

This system provided a way for feudal lords to efficiently manage large estates.

question

Self-sufficient

answer

The manor was a ? community that could grow its own food and attend to its religious needs.

question

Women

answer

The roles for this group of people were often determined by birth and social order. Examples of roles they could play were household managers, spinners and weavers.

question

Military service

answer

By providing ?, knights demonstrated characteristics of the social hierarchy of feudalism.

question

Children

answer

If you were a peasant in this group during medieval times, you worked with your family in the fields. If you were a noble in this group during medieval times, you were sent away from home to learn from relatives or friends.

question

Traveling Friars

answer

One way that Christianity spread across Europe was because of ? that lived and preached among the common people.

question

Church Power

answer

A chapter in a textbook that contains information about interdict and papal supremacy would be about ?

question

Eastern Orthodox

answer

Prior to the Great Schism, the ? church allowed priests to marry and the emperor had authority over the pope.

question

Crusades

answer

The ? led to an increase in the number of wars between religions and cultural diffusion between different regions.

question

Concordat of Worms

answer

As a result of the ? the Church was given the power to elect and invest bishops but the emperor could invest them with fiefs.

question

Magna Carta

answer

This document provided protection for English citizens but did not provide equal protection.

question

Increased power of French monarchy

answer

Granting charters to new towns, introducing a national tax and expanding land holdings led to the

question

Central Rule

answer

Hugh Capet, Phillip Augustus, and William the Conqueror were all feudal monarchs who took measures to strengthen ?. They did this by setting up government bureaucracies, using a money driven economy and instituting uniform laws and justice systems.

question

Power

answer

Secular and religious leaders struggled over ? during the Middle Ages.

question

Rural serfs

answer

Medieval Europe was characterized by a large population of ?

question

Icons & Papal Supremacy

answer

The Roman Catholic Church and the Greek Orthodox Church disagreed over these two items...

question

Money-based system of exchange

answer

The economic impact of the Crusades was the development of a

question

Reconquista

answer

This movement led to the expulsion of non-Christians from Spain.

question

Law Investiture

answer

Pope Gregory VII sought to limit the power of the Holy Roman emperor on this matter.

STUDY

AP Human Geography Copy And Paste High Middle Ages History And Culture History of Europe Joan Of Arc Social Studies Towns And Cities Urban Geography

Medieval Europe: Chapters 4 and 5 – Flashcards 41 terms

August Dunbar

41 terms

Preview

Medieval Europe: Chapters 4 and 5 – Flashcards

question

Where were towns in medieval Europe often located and why?

answer

Most towns were located on the country side because it was very busy in the center of town.

question

What contributed to the growth of towns in medieval Europe?

answer

Trade contributed to the growth of towns.

question

How was the town able to become independent of a feudal lord?

answer

They became independent byurchasing a royal charter.

question

What were guilds? Why were they established?

answer

Guilds were people that oversaw trade and productions of goods they provided health and protection for the people doing a certain kind of work. They were established so that that group of guild would be able to get more money.

question

How did guilds help their members and families of their members?

answer

Their taxes took care of members who they were sick and unable to work.

question

How did trade change from the beggining of the Middle Ages to the High Middle Ages?

answer

At the Middle Ages, most trade was in luxury goods, so only the rich people could afford it. In the high Middle Ages, more local people were able to buy and sell more kinds of products.

question

How did merchants become the most wealthy and powerful citizens of towns?

answer

They became so wealthy because they ran sizable businesses and looked for trading opportunities far from home.

question

How were Jews often mistreated in medieval Europe? What opportunity was open to them?

answer

They were mistreated because laws supported people coul, they couldn't own land, and lords took their property. Jews could become bankers and moneylenders.

question

Describe the typical home in a medieval town.?

answer

Houses were very small, crowded, built of wood, and very narrow so could be up to 4 stories high.

question

What was difficult about growing up in a medieval town?

answer

In poorer neighborhoods, families lived in one roomed houses and they worked where they lived. For the wealthy, their houses where very cold and a fireplace was the only source of light. Most children died before adulthood due to all the diseases going around, and the dirty/poopy water everyone had to drink and bathe in.

question

How were the lives of medieval girls different form those of modern girls?

answer

They had to marry young(15) and raise the children up on her own.

question

List at least three different conditions in medieval town that led to the spread of disease.

answer

Garbage was tossed into streams and canals, rats and fleas were commen and often carried diseases, and they emptied their bathrooms into streams.

question

What were some commen diseases in medieval Europe?

answer

Measles, Cholera, Small Pox, and Scarlet Fox

question

Describe two methods for deciding the guilt or innocence of accused criminals in the Early Middle Ages.?

answer

They had to pass dangerous tests like being thrown into a well. If they drowned, they were not guilty and if they floated they were guilty.

question

What are some ways in which criminals were punished?

answer

For lesser crimes, people were fined or put to the stocks. For larger crimes they could be hanged or burned at the stakes in a public crowd.

question

What changes to the court system helped protect individual rights in the early 1100s of England?

answer

They decided to use commen law which is a body of rulings made by judges or very old traditional laws that become part of a nations legal system.

question

What changes did Henery II make to the English legal system and how did these changes affect feudalism?

answer

Henery allowed people to have more power, which weakened the feudal system.

question

What is habeas corpus?

answer

Bring the body to the court, right to a speedy trial.

question

What is the Magna Carta?

answer

A document giving more power to the people, not King. It leads to the revolution of democratic thought.

question

What is the Model Parliment?

answer

Expands the rights of the Magna Carta to the commeners.

question

How is the English Government like the U.S government?

answer

Parliment Congress House of Lords Senate House of commens House of Reps

question

Why is Joan of Arc a heretic according to England?

answer

Because she saw a vision that helped the French. They also think that she is a which.

question

What is a heretic?

answer

A person who believes who holds belief that are contrary to a set of religious teachings.

question

How is the Bubonic Plague karma?

answer

In the Crusades, England kills many people in the Middle East. The plague comes from the Middle East and killed millions of Europeans.

question

What changes did the Magna Carta bring in the English government?

answer

The Magna Carta gave the noble people more power and less power to the king. Now whenever the king wanted to set a new law, he had to check with the nobles first.

question

What was the model Parliment and why was it created?

answer

It was created by King Edward I and was/is a governing body. It was created because the feudal system was corrupting and the Magna Carta could no longer support everyone.

question

What was the effect of creating the Magna Carta and creating democratic institutions?

answer

The Magna Carta strengthened the nobels in their power, but declined feudalism.

question

What was the effect of the Bubonic plague speading through most of Europe?

answer

It weakened feudalism and wiped out a lot of the population.

question

What was the effect England taking over part of French land that each nation thinks is their own?

answer

The Hundreds Year War begins with the two major battles of Orlèans and Crecy.

question

Guilds are just like _____.

answer

Unions. Can help fellow craftsman that do the same craft to make ore money, have a better reputation, and protect each other if somebody else attacks their nation. Like the teacher Union. If someone attacks the teacher, they protect their own.

question

Guilds are from what class?

answer

The middle class, a new class just invented.

question

Battle of Orlèans?

answer

A win over the English with Joan of Arc where she didn't fight just rally the French. She was dressed in armor. Is a French saint.

question

Why do the British want to kill Joan of Arc?

answer

She sees a vision form God, so it a witch. And she rallied the French to kill Their people.

question

How did the Bubonic Plague Spread?

answer

Originates in Central Asia then travels through trade routes to China, India, Middle East, and Europe, then carried on a ship to Central Asia, the Black Sea, and Italy, then spreads north and west to Europe and England.

question

What was the plague called the Black Death? What were some of the common symptoms?

answer

It was called the Black Deathrobably because of the black and blue swellings that appears on the skin of victims called bobous. Symptoms included fever, vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and swelling/bumps.

question

How was the plague spread?

answer

They were spread by fleas that got passes to rats and when all the rats dies, the fleas bit the humans.

question

How did the outbreak of the bubonic plague in Europe contribute to the decline of fuedalism and the rise of democratic thought?

answer

It killed off a lot of the population so the system could no longer work.

question

How did the Hundred Years' War start?

answer

It sated what the Enfoish Monarchs claimed loan in Farnce and the French Kings became angry and wanted to take it back.

question

Why were the English able to defeat the French in early battles, such as the one at Crécy?

answer

Because the French had a feudal army that relied on horse mounted Knights. The English were lightly armored knights with long bows.

question

Who was Joan of Arc? What did she do for the French during the Hundred Years' War?

answer

Joan was a French teenage girl who saw a vision of God and became the French's "rallier". During the battle of Orlèans, she led them to victory though she did not fight but was dresses in armor. She was killed by the British charged with witchcraft and just being with the French that killed so many people.

question

In the Hundred Year's war, who did it contribute to the decline of feudalism and the rise of democratic thought?

answer

Because it split apart nations and money/taxes had to go to their country.

STUDY

AP Psychology Cognitive Psychology Copy And Paste Fame And Fortune Negative Self Image Psychology

Psych 7A Chapter 9 – Flashcards 38 terms

Mary Browning

38 terms

Preview

Psych 7A Chapter 9 – Flashcards

question

Cognitive psychologists are most directly concerned with the study of

answer

thinking

question

A mental grouping of similar objects, events, or people is a(n)

answer

concept

question

To promote cognitive efficiency, concepts are often organized into

answer

category hierarchies

question

A best example of a category of objects, events, or people if called a(n)

answer

prototype

question

Most people take less time to identify a cow as a mammal than a mouse as a mammal because a cow more closely resembles their mammal

answer

prototype

question

In testing thousands of different materials for use as a lightbulb filaments, Thomas Edison best illustrated a problem-solving approach known as

answer

trial and error

question

Logical, methodical step-by-step procedures for solving problems are called

answer

algorithms

question

Heuristics are

answer

simple thinking strategies for solving problems quickly and efficiently

question

In trying to solve a potentially complicated problem quickly, we are most likely to rely on

answer

heuristics

question

A sudden realization of the solution to a problem is called

answer

insight

question

The tendency to search of information that supports our preconceptions is called

answer

confirmation bias

question

Jahmal cites his cousin Luana's many car accidents as evidence that women are worse drivers than men. He overlooks the fact that his wife and three daughters have had far fewer car accidents than he and his two sons. Jahmal's prejudicial conclusion about women's driving skills best illstrates the effects of

answer

confirmation bias

question

A mental set is a

answer

tendency to approach a problem in a way that has been successful in the past

question

When given a candle, tacks, and a box of matches and asked to mount the candle on a wall, people often fail to think of using the matchbox as a candleholder. This best illustrates

answer

functional fixedness

question

The availability heuristic refers to our tendency to

answer

judge the likelihood of an event in terms of how readily instances of its occurrence are remembered

question

Many people overestimate how long they actually remain awake during restless nights because their moments of wakefulness are easier to recall than their moments of sleep. This best illustrates the impact of

answer

the availability heuristic

question

Emotion-laden images of unusual but vivid cases of abducted children may lead many parents to experience exaggerated fears of letting their children walk to school. The exaggerated fears best illustrate the impact of

answer

the availability heuristic

question

Steve was sure he answered at least 70 questions correctly on his biology test. In fact, he was right on only 55 items. Steve's misjudgment of his test performance illustrates

answer

overconfidence

question

People are often positively impressed by research that supports their own point of view. Asking them whether they would have been equally impressed by the same research if it had provided results that disputed their point of view is likely to inhibit

answer

belief perseverance

question

Without awareness, we often use highly adaptive heuristics. This best illustrates the value of

answer

intuition

question

Experienced chicken sexers can tell you a chick's sex at a glance, yet cannot tell you how they do it. Their acquired expertise is such an automatic habit that it feelslike

answer

intuition

question

People told that a chemical in the air is projected to kill 10 out of every 10,000 people feel more frightened than if told the fatality risk is one-tenth of a 1 percent. This best illustrates the importance of

answer

framing

question

Ojinska sold many more raffle tickets when she told potential buyers they had a 10 percent chance of winning a prize than whens he told them they had a 90 percent chance of not winning. This best illustrates

answer

the framing effect

question

Spoken, written, or signed words and the ways they are combined to communicate meaning constitute

answer

language

question

Phonemes are

answer

the smallest distinctive sound units of a language

question

The smallest speech units that carry meaning are called

answer

morphemes

question

In English, adjectives precede nouns. This is a rule of syntax, which is the

answer

orderly arrangement of words into grammatically sensible sentences

question

A European visitor to the United States asked a taxi driver, "Can you please a ride to the airport me give?" This visiter has apparently not yet mastered the ______ of the English language.

answer

syntax

question

The spontaneous utterance of a variety of sounds by infants is called

answer

babbling

question

During the earliest stage of speech development, infants

answer

make some speech sounds that do not occur in their parents' native language

question

Two-year-old Dirk's sentences--"Dad come," "Mom laugh," and "Truck gone"--are examples of

answer

telegraphic speech

question

The principles of learning emphasized by B.F. Skinner are most helpful in explaining why children

answer

add new words to their vocabulary

question

According to Chomsky, the fact that young children generate all sorts of sentences they have never heard before suggests that

answer

language skills are not developed simply through the processes of imitation and reinforcement

question

Chomsky's theory of language development suggests that children have an inborn

answer

language acquisition device

question

Research suggests that humans can most easily master the grammar of a second language during

answer

childhood

question

Which of the following was cited by Whorf as evidence in support of the linguistic determinism hypothesis?

answer

The Hopi cannot readily think about the past because their language has no past tense for verbs

question

Perceived differences between various shades of color are greater if people assign a different name to each hue. This best illustrates the influence of

answer

universal grammar of language acquisition

question

Great apes, dolphins, and elephants have demonstrated self-awareness by

answer

recognizing themselves in a mirror

STUDY

1970s And 1980s Copy And Paste Linguistics Public Speaking

Fundamentals of Public Speaking – Flashcards 225 terms

Steven Colyer

225 terms

Preview

Fundamentals of Public Speaking – Flashcards

question

Mass media is the most interactive sphere of communication today.

answer

FALSE. (page 15) This is the least interactive sphere of communication. Nonetheless, mainstream media still occupy an enormous amount of our time as we search for information and entertainment.

question

Most Americans never use the skills learned in a public speaking class outside of a classroom setting.

answer

FALSE. (page 9) A public speaking course gives you a chance to develop communication skills that you can use inside and outside the classroom.

question

The "five arts of public speaking" identified by Cicero are not relevant to public speaking in a digital age.

answer

FALSE. (page 8) The Roman statesman Cicero (104 - 43 BCE) categorized the elements of public communication into five "arts of public speaking," or canons of rhetoric, that still apply today.

question

Even good speakers may experience speech anxiety.

answer

TRUE. (page 10) Nearly everyone gets nervous when speaking in public.

question

Public speaking is a unique form of communication unlike everyday speaking contexts such as those in the classroom or workplace.

answer

FALSE. (page 3) You often may be required to give presentations in other classes, and this course helps prepare you for that. Effective speaking skills give you tremendous advantage at work, too. Overall, public speaking ability helps you become a more active member of your community, allows you to participate more fully in organizations you belong to, and boosts your self-confidence in both your personal and professional life.

question

Most audience members will continue to listen to a speech even if it does not seem relevant to them.

answer

FALSE. (page 4) Audiences demand that what they hear is relevant to them or they will tune the speaker out.

question

Story-telling is an important component of public communication because stories are central to human experience.

answer

TRUE. (page 9) Because storytelling is so basic to human communication and sheer survival, today's audiences welcome narratives in speeches as much as their ancestors did long ago.

question

A public speaking course can help you sharpen your listening skills.

answer

TRUE. (page 10) A public speaking course sharpens your listening skills.

question

Ethical issues for public speakers and audiences have become less complicated due to the accessibility of information available.

answer

FALSE. (page 18) Computers and digital technology have intensified and expanded the range of ethical issues that speakers and audiences face.

question

The demands made on speakers have decreased in the last decade due to the development of presentational media that can captivate audience's attention.

answer

FALSE. (page 19) Over-reliance on presentation software, especially digital slides, often detracts from your message.

question

In what ways has public speaking changed as a result of the digital age?

answer

Answer: Speakers have a wider array of information sources to choose from. (Page 3 - The information-driven, knowledge-based world we live in offers many opportunities for public speaking and provides you with an array of options for preparing and delivering speeches.)

question

Transferable skills learned in public speaking include all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

learning how to convince audiences with little advance preparation.

question

Which ancient Greek philosopher has had the greatest influence on the teaching of public speaking?

answer

Aristotle (page 7). Aristotle's ideas about oratory were so influential that he became a key figure in the development of communication as an academic discipline many centuries later.

question

Imagine that in order to encourage audiences to donate money to a local animal shelter, one of your classmates shows several photographs of puppies that were abandoned by their owners. By encouraging audiences to feel sorry for these dogs, which type of rhetorical proof did your classmate use?

answer

Pathos (page 7) Refers to a speaker's appeals to our emotions.

question

In order to grad the audience's interest during a presentation about a local farmer's market, a classmate describes the strawberries sold there as "sweet and scrumptious." Which of Cicero's "arts of public speaking" did your classmate attend to in choosing these words?

answer

Style. (page 8) Involves the imagery you use to bring a speech's content to life.

question

In preparing your speech, you decide to use a cliffhanger story as an attention getter, then share the ending in you conclusion. Which of Cicero's "arts of public speaking" did you attend to?

answer

Arrangement. (page 8)

question

Being audience-centered means which of the following is true?

answer

All of these: * Speakers must create their speech with listeners in mind. * Speakers must learn about their audience members. * Speakers must remember that audience members have access to information and can fact-check the speech. * Speakers should use stories and visual materials when appropriate to keep the audience's attention.

question

Jose is giving a speech about safer sex at a middle school, a high school, and a college, all in the same day. Although his facts and sources remain consistent, he modifies the contents and delivery of his speech for each group. Which element of public speaking is Jose considering here?

answer

Audience (page 17)

question

If someone decides to show a video clip during a presentation to illustrate a main point in a speech, what element of the current model of communication does the video clip represent?

answer

Channel (page 17)

question

Public speaking was called ____________when studied by Aristotle.

answer

Rhetoric (page 7)

question

To listen ________________, listeners must give speakers their full attention so that others do the same for them in return.

answer

Reciprocally (page 10)

question

The process of ____________________involves familiarizing yourself with a fearful situation so that you may become comfortable with it.

answer

Habituation (page 10)

question

A speaker's __________________refers to how much an audience views the speaker as friendly, competent, and trustworthy.

answer

Credibility (page 10)

question

The importance of adapting speeches to the specific situation and audience is known as ___________ communication.

answer

Audience-centered

question

Spheres of communication-mass media, face-to-face, expressive technology, and mediated personal communication-are distinct in form and function, but people act within multiple spheres at the same time. This overlap is called __________________.

answer

Convergence (page 16)

question

Taking a public speaking class can help people feel less anxious about speaking in public.

answer

TRUE

question

Memorizing your entire speech is a good strategy for reducing public speaking anxiety.

answer

FALSE

question

Students who procrastinate usually experience more speech anxiety than those who prepare their speeches in advance.

answer

TRUE

question

Memorizing your introduction and conclusion is a good strategy for reducing public speaking anxiety.

answer

TRUE

question

On the day of your speech, it is a good idea to avoid using your voice before your presentation.

answer

FALSE

question

If others speak before you on the day of your speech, it is a good idea to review your notes while others are presenting.

answer

FALSE

question

When you feel butterflies in your stomach before speaking, you can reduce your anxiety by labeling it "excitement" instead of "fear."

answer

TRUE

question

To use visualization to decrease speech anxiety, you should imagine the worst possible scenario that you think could occur so that you can handle it.

answer

FALSE

question

The more you care about your topic, the more likely you are to be nervous.

answer

FALSE

question

It is natural, normal, and beneficial to feel somewhat nervous when speaking in public.

answer

TRUE

question

Which of the following is most likely to help you relax before a speech?

answer

Taking deep breaths

question

If you are nervous about the opinion the audience will form of you, what question should you ask yourself?

answer

What impression will I make?

question

What method for feeling more positive about public speaking is illustrated if you imagine yourself walking up to the podium, speaking to an audience, and receiving a round of applause after your conclusion.

answer

Visualization

question

Imagine that your friend tells you that she knows she is going to "bomb" her presentation; you tell her that you believe she will "wow" the crowd. Which form of speech anxiety management did you use to help your friend feel more positive about her speech?

answer

Relabeling

question

If you do breathing exercises that enable individuals to identify and relax particular muscle areas one at a time, you are employing which of the following forms of speech anxiety management?

answer

Relaxation

question

Which breathing technique is a useful method for reducing public speaking anxiety?

answer

Meditation breathing Diaphragmatic breathing Tension-release breathing

question

If you begin to feel nervous in the middle of a speech, which of the following strategies might help you reduce your nervousness?

answer

Relabeling your feelings as a positive source of energy

question

After a presentation you realize that you were most comfortable when you observed audience members in the front row nodding their heads in reaction to your speech. Which strategy for managing anxiety after a presentation did you use?

answer

Identifying useful strategies for managing speech anxiety

question

Imagine that during a presentation, you begin to feel nervous. As you feel nervous, you start to ask yourself whether you might have done something wrong to cause your anxiety. What strategy for managing speech anxiety have you forgotten at this point?

answer

Don't over-analyze your anxiety.

question

The _____________effect lends a speaker to think people observe them more carefully than they actually do.

answer

Spotlight

question

The _____________occurs when we believe that speech anxiety is more noticeable to the audience than it really is.

answer

Illusion of transparency

question

The method of managing speech anxiety known as __________ involves giving positive meaning to feelings associated with public speaking.

answer

Relabeling

question

________________ involves thinking through the sequence of events and imagining how the event will unfold positively.

answer

Visualization

question

_____________ breathing involves breathing with your diaphragm and paying attention to the entire process of breathing.

answer

Meditative

question

The ______________theory states that when people face unfamiliar situations their level of anxiety increases.

answer

Uncertainty reduction

question

Digital technology has increased the ethical responsibilities of both public speakers and audiences.

answer

TRUE

question

Sexism, racism, and hate speech are examples of plagiarism.

answer

FALSE

question

The more someone is ethnocentric, the more likely they are to distrust someone from a different ethnic background.

answer

TRUE

question

Correct paraphrasing involves changing 2 - 4 words per sentence of the original source.

answer

FALSE

question

Research shows that about 50% of the U.S. college students admit they have plagiarized.

answer

TRUE

question

Plagiarism can be intentional or unintentional.

answer

TRUE

question

If you are paraphrasing, you don't need to provide an oral citation.

answer

FALSE

question

The interpretive element of listening is influenced by your culture and society rather than the individual.

answer

TRUE

question

It is illegal to use a clip from a movie without crediting the movie's title.

answer

TRUE

question

Which of the following kinds of speech is NOT protected by the First Amendment to the United States Constitution?

answer

All of these kinds of speech are protected by the First Amendment. * Speech that is critical of the United States government * Speech that advocates abolishing religion * Speech that advocates that women are superior to men * Speech that advocates the superiority of one race over another

question

Which of these is an example of appreciative listening?

answer

Listening to a stand-up comedian.

question

Which of the following requires an oral citation during a speech?

answer

* The use of a pie graph downloaded from the US Housing website. * A quote from a local real estate agent about buying a house that you quote directly. * A statistic about the number of homeowners in the United States that you paraphrase.

question

You show respect for a speaker's ideas by:

answer

Listening respectfully before responding.

question

It is a week before you are going to deliver a speech in class and you learn that one of your classmates strongly disagrees with a point you are about to make. Which of the following choices represents an ethical response to this classmate?

answer

Encouraging the diverse opinions during your questions and answer session

question

Which is NOT a reason for citing your sources when you deliver a speech?

answer

It means you no longer have to worry about plagiarism.

question

Imagine that during a speech the speaker states that women who wear veils as part of their Islamic heritage are not as intelligent as women in the United States that do not wear veils. What kind of unethical communication is this an example of?

answer

Ethnocentrism

question

Imagine that a speaker tells an audience, "If you are traveling to a foreign country, you should ask your physician whether or not he thinks you need to get any vaccinations before you leave the United States." What kind of unethical communication is this an example of?

answer

Sexist language

question

One of your classmates decides to check her cell phone for text messages in the middle of another classmate's presentation. Which strategy for good listening is this violating?

answer

Blocking out distractions

question

________________ occurs when a person thinks her or his perspective is better than anyone else's.

answer

Ethnocentrism

question

_______________ is an intellectual property law that protects an author's original work from being used by others.

answer

question

The psychological and emotional tone that develops as people interact with others is called communication __________.

answer

Climate

question

______________ refers to words that are hurtful and degrading to racial, ethnic, and sexual minority groups.

answer

Hate speech

question

________________refers to presenting someone else's material as if it was your own.

answer

Plagiarism

question

Brief references to sources that public speakers may use during their speeches are called ________________.

answer

Oral citations

question

Respect, open-mindedness, and active listening form the basis of ___________ ethics.

answer

Dialogic

question

When you brainstorm for topic development you list ideas into two categories: major points and minor points.

answer

FALSE

question

A photograph or other image may be a useful resource for generating ideas for a speech topic.

answer

TRUE

question

Research shows that brainstorming works best when it is done in several sessions.

answer

TRUE

question

It is usually a bad idea to choose a topic that you know little about, even if the topic interests you.

answer

FALSE

question

Persuasive speeches aim to change audience members' thinking and to possibly even get audience members to take specific action.

answer

TRUE

question

Some topics have too few available resources to create a speech.

answer

TRUE

question

A presentation outline helps to keep you focused during the initial planning stages of developing your speech.

answer

FALSE

question

It is useful to include as many of the ideas about your topic as you can in your working outline.

answer

FALSE

question

Every speech has one overall general purpose: to inform, to persuade, or to educate.

answer

FALSE

question

Once you have identified your thesis, you should NOT change it as you research your topic.

answer

FALSE

question

Which of these is an example of a specific purpose statement?

answer

To inform my audience about the three main causes of retail shrink

question

Imagine that a classmate has chosen to speak about a rare art form that she knows little about. Little has been written about the topic and the rest of the class is eager to learn about it. What consideration might influence your classmate to choose a different topic?

answer

Resource availability

question

After you brainstorm and research ideas for main points of your speech, what should you do next?

answer

Group the ideas by theme

question

Which of the following topics is the least appropriate for an after-dinner speech?

answer

Cancer rates among children in the United States

question

Which of the following represents a specific purpose statement?

answer

To persuade my audience to eat more vegetables

question

A speech with the following specific purpose statement, "To inspire my audience with true animal rescue stories," is an example of which type of general purpose?

answer

To entertain

question

Which of the following represents a possible thesis for a speech about household pets?

answer

Poodles are good pets because they are loyal, dependable, and energetic.

question

Which type of outline limits main points to short phrases and may be revised during the research process?

answer

Working

question

After choosing a topic, which of the following is the strongest reason to consider changing that topic?

answer

You have too few available resources to research the topic

question

What kind of outline assists you in practicing and delivering your speech after you research and initial planning are finished?

answer

Complete-sentence

question

A _________________sums up the core of the speech in a single sentence.

answer

Thesis

question

____________ refers to a free-form way of generating ideas for a speech.

answer

Brainstorming

question

A _______________ outline puts all of the key parts of the speech together and guides you through making the presentation notes.

answer

Complete-sentence

question

A ___________________ statement is a concise statement articulating what the speaker hopes to achieve by giving the speech.

answer

Specific purpose

question

If a speech has _______________, that means the ideas that make up any main heading or subheading have a logical relationship to one another.

answer

Internal consistency

question

Accomplished speakers use audience analysis in the early stages of speech preparation so that they do not need to analyze the audience during the actual presentation.

answer

FALSE

question

To establish credibility and impress your audience, you will want to use jargon and specialized language to emphasize your expertise.

answer

FALSE

question

When your audience includes two distinct groups, it is most effective to direct the first part of your speech to one segment and the last part of your speech to the other.

answer

FALSE

question

Observing the audience you will be speaking to is one way to gather demographic information about them.

answer

TRUE

question

An attitude reflects what someone thinks is right, good, worthy, and important.

answer

FALSE

question

A voluntary audience is more motivated to listen.

answer

TRUE

question

It is impossible to identify your audience's attitudes, beliefs, or values through observation of their behaviors.

answer

FALSE

question

It is appropriate to request information about an audience's composition from an organization that has invited you to speak.

answer

TRUE

question

An audience-research questionnaire should be at least 3 pages long to develop extensive data about your audience.

answer

FALSE

question

The best time to distribute and collect an audience questionnaire is well in advance of your speech so that you may use the information to guide your speech preparation process.

answer

TRUE

question

Which kind of audience represents the particular group of subgroup a message sender is trying to reach?

answer

Target audience

question

Karin introduced her speech by stating, "As college students we don't need to worry about how the current immigration policy affects our lives." Karin didn't realize that several of the students in class had relatives who were affected by the policy. What techniques for speaking to diverse audiences did Karin overlook?

answer

Being sensitive to all audience members throughout the speech

question

To appeal to those in a media saturated environment, you can do all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

Develop your speech as a series of fast-moving sound bites.

question

Renee is presenting her senior thesis project to a group of professors, other students in her major, and other students with different majors. Because her project used terminology that might be advanced even for a senior in her major, she defined the terms early on and reminded listeners of their definitions occasionally but did not eliminate the terms from her speech. Which technique for speaking to diverse audiences did Renee attend to have here?

answer

Using language that appeals to all audience members

question

Which of these is most easily changed by exposure to new evidence or a new argument?

answer

A belief

question

Which of these can influence a person's standpoint?

answer

All of these: * A value * An attitude * A belief

question

Why might a person ask an open-ended question instead of a closed-ended question?

answer

To elicit in-depth information

question

Which of the following is a closed-ended question?

answer

Do you currently volunteer for the American Red Cross?

question

Which of the following is an open-ended question?

answer

What happens to you when you die?

question

To introduce her speech about skills for maintaining a romantic relationship, Rhonda noted that Valentine's Day was only a week away, and that people may be particularly concerned about the status of their love lives. What aspect of the setting did Rhonda consider in her introduction?

answer

The occasion

question

____________ are key characteristics of populations often used to divide a population into subgroups.

answer

Demographics

question

A(n) ___________________refers to how a person feels about something.

answer

Attitude

question

_______________________refer to psychological concepts such as standpoints, values, beliefs, and attitudes that intersect to shape how we act as individuals.

answer

Psychographic facts

question

A(n) ____________________refers to the location or place from which an individual views, interprets, and evaluates the world.

answer

Standpoint

question

A ___________ audience listens to a speech because it is required.

answer

Captive

question

A metasearch engine has indexed the entire web, whereas a regular search engine has not.

answer

FALSE

question

Dictionaries provide a wide array of information including visual images that may be useful for speeches.

answer

TRUE

question

Books are the best starting point for nearly any speech topic.

answer

FALSE

question

The research process consists of three phases: 1) preparing for the search, 2) gathering information, and 3) evaluating the information found.

answer

TRUE

question

The two main tasks in beginning an interview are to establish your expertise and to provide orientation to the person you are interviewing.

answer

FALSE

question

"Don't you think the president is doing a great job?" is an example of a leading question.

answer

TRUE

question

The use of most website images and video excerpts in classroom speeches violates copyright laws until you get written permission from the authors.

answer

FALSE

question

If you are interviewing an expert on your speech topic whom you have never met before, you should limit small talk and get to the point of the interview quickly.

answer

TRUE

question

One of the benefits of researching sources from diverse perspectives is that it helps ensure that you will speak ethically.

answer

TRUE

question

When examining a source, you should consider what, if any, information has been omitted from the author's argument or reasoning.

answer

TRUE

question

For extremely current and up to the minute information, you will want to consult with

answer

The real-time web.

question

Which of the following resources provides the most current print information available?

answer

Newspapers

question

If you wanted to know more about the activities and concerns of a professional or academic organization, which Internet resource might be most useful?

answer

Discussion lists or boards

question

Imagine that you are researching the role of women in high school athletics. First you conduct an Internet search using the words "high school" and "female athletes" in your search. Then you replace the words "high school" with "secondary education." Which Internet search strategy have you just used?

answer

A variety of keywords

question

Which of the following is the first major step in the interview process?

answer

Determine the purpose of the interview

question

Imagine that you are interviewing a local police officer, and you ask her about the prevalence of crime in your neighborhood. When the officer states that crime has decreased in the area in recent months, you ask, "Why do you think crime has decreased?" What kind of question have you just asked?

answer

A secondary question

question

When should you use an open-ended question in an interview?

answer

When the interviewee is knowledgeable and feels free to discuss the topic

question

Which of the following is a strategy for conducting a research interview effectively?

answer

Record the interviewee electronically with the interviewee's permission.

question

Which of these is a credible source for information on NASCAR racing?

answer

An interview with a man who used to race cars professionally

question

You are researching fast-food-eating habits of college students, and you interview several people on campus. One student says, "No one eats at the Super Salad Station because it's gross!" When you ask if she has ever eaten there or knows anyone who has, she says no. Shen then remarks, "But look! Every other restaurant in the Student Commons has a long line except Super Salad Station! Definitely gross." Which criteria of good evidence is this information missing?

answer

Validity

question

___________ sources express an author's own ideas from original research, and secondary sources represent others' interpretations of the sources based on original research.

answer

Primary

question

When conducting a web search, __________________ refers to how closely a webpage's content is related to the keywords used during a speech.

answer

Relevance

question

_________ are terms associated with a topic that are used for information related to the topic.

answer

Keywords

question

A _____________ is one that develops from the answer to an initial question.

answer

Secondary question

question

A _________________is one that is impartial and unbiased.

answer

Neutral question

question

The weakness of using a narrative for public speaking is that the story can distract from the focus of the speech.

answer

TRUE

question

Narratives can be true or fictional stories, bu to work they must have a ring of truth.

answer

FALSE

question

When an example runs counter to what statistical evidence shows, audience members find the examples more believable.

answer

TRUE

question

Mythos are appeals to cultural beliefs and values.

answer

TRUE

question

The negative side of using statistics is that they can have a hidden agenda.

answer

TRUE

question

A strength of using an example is that it helps clarify a complex or abstract concept.

answer

TRUE

question

Literal and figurative analogies both appeal to a sense of logic.

answer

FALSE. Literal and figurative analogies work by making connections between unrelated things.

question

The more facts you use the more persuasive your speech will be.

answer

FALSE. Too many facts or statistics can be overwhelming and the audience will lose interest.

question

Celebrity testimony is only effective if the celebrity is also an expert on the topic.

answer

FALSE. Celebrity testimony is persuasive, even if the celebrity is not an expert on the topic.

question

Interviewing students about the costs of books and other supplies for school is an example of using expert testimony.

answer

FALSE. This is an example of lay testimony.

question

What kind of stories tell us what an organization values and how people should act in the organization?

answer

Institutional stories

question

In order to engage and audience, a speaker in a college public speaking class tells a story about the origins of the school's mascot. The speaker explains that according to school legend, an eagle flew into the football stadium and moments later, the school's team got the winning touchdown. What type of evidence did this speaker use?

answer

Narrative

question

What kind of example would be most effective in a speech about the silent film era that focused on relatively unknown or unpopular films?

answer

Specific examples

question

Which of these kinds of evidence is best for demonstrating the scope of a problem?

answer

Facts and statistics

question

Imagine that during a speech about going on a job interview, the speaker tells the audience, "A job interview is like a first date; it is important that you make a good first impression." What kind of definition did this speaker use?

answer

Figurative analogy

question

To describe an exotic fruit, the persimmon, to students in a cooking class, the cooking instructor states, "The persimmon looks like a peach, but has the consistency of an apple." What kind of definition did the instructor use?

answer

Liberal analogy

question

When charitable organizations use famous television personalities or musicians to act as spokespersons for their causes, what kind of testimony does the organization rely on to generate support?

answer

Celebrity

question

Cigarette boxes frequently include the warning, "The Surgeon General reports that cigarette smoking may be hazardous to your health." What kind of testimony does this message use to support their point that cigarette smoking may be physically harmful?

answer

Expert

question

Which popular media source is used by over half of Americans for in-depth coverage of political issues?

answer

Newspapers

question

Which of these was the first electronic mass medium?

answer

Radio

question

___________ is a type of evidence that provides a specific voice on a topic.

answer

Testimony

question

_______ are illustrations or cases that make ideas concrete.

answer

Examples

question

Speakers use _______________ to clarify for audience members how they should interpret a term.

answer

Definitions

question

A _______________relies upon an unspoken comparison between two things to appeal to audience members' emotions.

answer

Metaphor

question

________________ meanings are the definitions you find in dictionaries.

answer

Denotative

question

When you put together a speech, you typically develop the body and transitions first, then the introduction and the conclusion.

answer

TRUE

question

When organizing a speech, you should spend the greatest amount of time on your first main point because the first main point should be the most important.

answer

FALSE. When organizing a speech you should devote an approximately equal amount of time to each main point.

question

If your main points are not approximately equal in size and importance, you should consider revising your speech's structure.

answer

TRUE

question

It is especially important to use internal summaries if you are giving a long speech because audiences are more likely to forget main points in lengthy speeches.

answer

TRUE. Internal summaries are especially important in long speeches.

question

For speeches that are 10 minutes or less, conclusions should be no more than one minute long.

answer

TRUE

question

Problem-solving organization is most useful when you are trying to convince your audience of a causal relationship between two things.

answer

FALSE. Cause-and-effect organization is most useful when you are trying to convince your audience of a causal relationship between two things.

question

A complete-sentence outline reflects every word you'll say when you give your presentation.

answer

FALSE. A complete-sentence outline reflects the content of your speech in full-sentence form but may not be the exact words used in the speech.

question

Main points should be equally important in relation to your topic and subpoints should be equally important in relation to your main points.

answer

TRUE.

question

Monroe's Motivated Sequence is an organizational pattern that seeks to move audience members toward an action.

answer

TRUE

question

Monroe's Motivated Sequence pattern should only be used for persuasive, not informative speeches.

answer

FALSE. Monroe's Motivated Sequence pattern can be used for persuasive and informative speeches.

question

Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech about events leading to the passage of the 19th Amendment, which gave women the right to vote?

answer

Chronological

question

Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech orienting first-year college students to significant places on campus?

answer

Spatial

question

Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech about recent innovations in communication technology?

answer

Topical

question

Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech about the relationship between different civil rights leaders who spoke at the March on Washington in 1963?

answer

Narrative

question

Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech about the harmful consequences of drinking caffeinated beverages?

answer

Cause-and-effect

question

Which of the following organization patterns is most appropriate for a speech about how a stoplight would decrease the number of accidents at a dangerous intersection near a local high school?

answer

Problem-solution

question

What are the five steps of Monroe's Motivated Sequence?

answer

Attention, need, satisfaction, visualization, action

question

In a speech about the most effective strategies to train a puppy, a dog trainer tells the audience, "Although you should never hit your dog, you should speak to your dog using a firm voice." What type of transition did the trainer just use?

answer

Contrasting

question

In a lecture about how to bake a perfect chocolate cake, a chef tells his students, "After you have beaten your wet ingredients together, you should fold them into your dry ingredients." What type of transition did the chef just use?

answer

Chronology/time

question

Which of these speech topics would be best organized by a cause-and-effect organization?

answer

How landfills impact air, water, and soil quality

question

Transitions play an important role in creating ______________by directing an obvious and plausible connection among your ideas.

answer

Coherence

question

A __________________is a type of organization based on the physical relationship between directions or objects.

answer

Spatial pattern

question

______________ are longer transitions that help listeners move to the next main point.

answer

Internal summaries

question

___________ is the type of speech organization encourages audience participation and involvement in the speech.

answer

Narrative pattern

question

______________ is a type of organization that seeks to engage the audience and give them a reason to listen and take a specific action.

answer

Monroe's Motivated Sequence

question

Audiences tend to recall what the speaker says at the start of the speech because this is when they're most attentive.

answer

TRUE

question

Telling a joke can be an effective attention getter.

answer

TRUE

question

Speakers should downplay the controversial nature of their topics to prevent their audiences from feeling uncomfortable.

answer

FALSE. Speaker should be clear and honest about their topics, even if they are controversial.

question

Your introduction should clearly convey the specific purpose of your speech.

answer

TRUE

question

Previewing your main points should be the first part of the introduction.

answer

FALSE. Previewing your main points should occur in the introduction, but an attention getter is the best way to start.

question

The recency effect means the audience will recall what the speaker says in the conclusion more than what is said in the body of the speech.

answer

TRUE

question

The most effective attention getters are 15 seconds or less.

answer

FALSE. The length of time your attention getter will take depends upon what kind of attention getter you choose and your topic.

question

When you deliver your speech, you do not need to state your purpose in the exact terms you used in your outline to get your purpose and thesis across to the audience.

answer

TRUE

question

One effective way to end a speech is to refer to something you said in your introduction.

answer

TRUE

question

Presentation media are too complicated to use in an introduction.

answer

FALSE. Presentation media can be used in an introduction for some speeches.

question

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the speech introduction?

answer

To distinguish the topic from the audience's interests

question

Which of the following is a proven strategy for gaining your audience's attention in the speech introduction.

answer

Tell an emotionally arousing but brief human interest story

question

What kind of speech does not need a preview of main points?

answer

All of these: * A persuasive speech * An informative speech * An entertaining speech * A how-to speech

question

Quickly referencing some of your research accomplishes which objective of a speech introduction?

answer

To establish your credibility

question

Which of the following is NOT a central element of an introduction to a speech?

answer

Add length and depth to a short speech

question

Imagine that to introduce a 5 minute speech about the importance of pet adoption, a speaker tells a 1 minute story about how his mother recently adopted a puppy who enjoys playing with cats. Everyone in the class laughed with amusement. What aspect of getting the audience's attention did this speaker fail to consider?

answer

Consider the time

question

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the conclusion to a speech?

answer

To summarize main points and subpoints in great detail

question

What concept suggests that audience members are more likely to remember what the speaker says at the end than what she or he says in the body of the speech?

answer

The recency effect

question

Imagine that to conclude a speech about tuition increases over the past 5 years on the college campus, the speaker tells the audience that the Board of Regents at the university is meeting next month to discuss tuition rates for the upcoming school year. What strategy for providing closure does this example most clearly represent?

answer

Refer to subsequent events.

question

Imagine that to conclude a speech about domestic violence, a speaker tells the audience, "Domestic violence is the number one cause of injury to women in Western nations." What strategy for providing closure does this example most clearly represent?

answer

Make a dramatic statement.

question

An ________________is the first element of an introduction, used to generate interest in your speech.

answer

Attention getter

question

The conclusion reinforces the purpose, reviews main points, and provides__________________.

answer

Closure

question

The ______________________suggests that audience members are more likely to remember what the speaker says at the end of the speech than what he/she says in the body of the speech.

answer

The recency effect

question

The ________________ suggests that audience members are more likely to remember what the speaker says right at the start of the speech.

answer

Primacy effect

question

A brief, clear, strong, and striking statement that reinforces your specific purpose in the conclusion of a speech is referred to as a __________________.

answer

Memorable message

STUDY

Civil Law Click And Drag Copy And Paste Drop Down Menu Powerpoint Real Estate

Death Constant Beyond Love- Marquez – Flashcards 12 terms

William Hopper

12 terms

Preview

Death Constant Beyond Love- Marquez – Flashcards

question

The title shows ________.

answer

dissonance

question

Who are the characters?

answer

Senator Sanchez, Nelson and Laura Farina

question

Sanchez is:

answer

-campaigning -married and has 5 children...very unhappy -faced with 6 months to live...keeps it a secret

question

Nelson is:

answer

-wanted for killing his wife -wants a fake ID from Sanchez so that he can start over as a business man...worried about appearance -offers Laura in exchange...dehumanization

question

How old is Laura?

answer

18 almost 19

question

When Laura goes to see Sanchez, he __________.

answer

Falls in love

question

What is Laura wearing when she goes to see Sanchez?

answer

A chastity belt. She "forgot" the key because she isn't interested in Sanchez.

question

While talking to Laura, what is the "bad luck" Sanchez thinks of?

answer

One of them will feel guilty if they have sex; he is also worried he will die before she turns 19 (when she will have sex with him)

question

When Laura stays the night with Sanchez, how does he describe her?

answer

realistically; she is sweaty and smells...but he loves the intimacy with her.

question

What does Sanchez mean when he says "No one will ever love us"?

answer

-he realizes they can be alone together (his epiphany) -no ones cares about her or him

question

When Sanchez died 6 months later, why is he enraged?

answer

-he will never feel their intimacy again -he is alone again

question

This story is a depiction of what?

answer

real life

STUDY

Copy And Paste Cut And Paste

MMBio Chap 12 – Flashcards 48 terms

Ruth Blanco

48 terms

Preview

MMBio Chap 12 – Flashcards

question

Alu element

answer

is a short stretch of DNA originally characterized by the action of the Alu restriction endonuclease. These are the most abundant mobile elements in the human genome. Is a retrotransposon

question

conservative site specific recombination

answer

is a type of genetic recombination in which DNA strand exchange takes place between segments possessing only a limited degree of sequence homology.

question

cut and paste transposition

answer

Theses transpositions are catalyzed by various types of transposase enzymes. The enzyme makes a staggered cut, producing sticky ends, cuts out the transposon, and ligates it into the target site. DNA poly. fills in the resulting gaps, DNA ligase seals the nick

question

excisionase (Xis)

answer

manages excision and insertion of phage genome into the hosts genome.

question

insertion sequence

answer

is a short DNA sequence that acts as a simple transposable element. They have two characteristics- they are small (700-2500 bp) and only code for proteins implicated in the transposition activity (means they are different from transposons which have accessory genes)

question

inverted repeat

answer

is a sequence of nucleotides that is the reversed complement of another sequence further downstream.

question

mobile genetic element

answer

are a type of DNA that can move around within the genome- they include
-transposons
-retrotransposons
-Plasmids
-bacteriophage elements (Mu)
-Group II introns

question

replicative transposition

answer

is a mechanism of transposition in molecular biology in which the transposable element is duplicated during the reaction so that the transposing entity is a copy of the original element

question

resolvase

answer

any group of enzymes that repress transposases

question

transposable element

answer

the things that can move inside a cell

question

transpoase

answer

is an enzyme that binds to the ends of a transposon and catalyzes the movement of the transposon to another part of the genome by a cut and paste mechanism or a replicative transposition mechanism.

question

tranposition

answer

the process of transposons moving themselves to new positions within the genome.

question

transposon

answer

are sequences of DNA that can move or transpose themselves to new positions within the genome of a single cell.

question

What are the two ways transposons can move?

answer

Cut and past transposition (in which the element is directly moved to a new location.) or by replicative transposition (copy and paste- a copy of the transposon is left at the donor site.)

question

How are transposons used in molecular genetics?

answer

They allow the position of the insertion to be determined genetically or by PCR. They can also be engineered in a number of ways to make them a powerful tool for mutagenesis and for studying gene regulation.

question

What are the simplest transposons?

answer

Insertion sequences

question

Insertion sequences contain what (simplest transposons)?

answer

A transposase gene and inverted repeat sequences that include transposase binding sites and cleavage sites

question

Transposons have ___ _______ ______elements flanking intervening DNA that contains additional genes.

answer

two insertion sequences

question

In _____ and _____ transposition, the element is directly moved to a new location and a copy is left at the original location.

answer

cut and paste

question

In ______ transposition, a copy of the element is left at the donor site.

answer

replicative

question

________ elements tend to target certain sequences and may target certain biological processes.

answer

Transposable elements

question

_____ can be used for mutagenesis and offer the advantage that the insertions can be easily mapped genetically or by PCR.

answer

Transposons

question

Transpsons have been engineered to enhance their utility as a genetic tool by incorporating ____ genes and reporter genes

answer

drug resistant

question

What are transposons

answer

Elements of DNA which can move within the genome.

question

Many transposons code for ____, an enzyme which allow them to cut and paste themselves.

answer

Transposase

question

______ worked in the area of chromosome biology using maize and suggested segments of the chromosome could jump to another location.

answer

Barbara McClintock

question

How can cut and past transposons create multiple copies of themselves?

answer

During DNA replication, the transposon removes itself from a chromosome that has already been replicated and inserts into a chromosome that has not yet been replicated

question

What is one way in which transposons may be harmful to an organism.

answer

transposons can insert themselves in the middle of genes and disable them

question

The simplest mobile elements in bacteria are called

answer

insertion sequences

question

Why might transposons be beneficial to the host organisms?

answer

They may pass on phenotypic characteristics that are preferred in natural selection, such as antibiotic resistance in bacteria.

question

Transposons and other mobile elements are valuable to genetic researchers because

answer

They maybe be used to insert genes into a n organism and thus can serve as tools for gene therapy

question

In conservative site-specific recombination,

answer

two DNA segments n homologous chromosomes exchange places at a specific recognition site.

question

Transposition is a process in which a discrete DNA entity can move between DNA sites that lack homology using a self encoded protein called a

answer

Transposase

question

True or False. coordinated breakage and joining events occur during transposition.

answer

true

question

T or F- Transposons are found at various levels of complexity in bacteria

answer

True

question

Transposases that use extensive DNA replication to leave one copy of the element behind in a process called

answer

replicative transposition

question

True or False- Transposons in eukaryotes are mechanistically different from bacterial transposons

answer

False

question

T or F- when transposons move to reproduce and to distribute to new hosts, the process of transposition inevitably jeopardizes the host organism

answer

Can be both but probably false

question

T or F- transposons are known as selfish DNA because their only apparent purpose is to replicate themselves.

answer

True

question

T or F- Transposons always require an RNA intermdiate

answer

False

question

T or F- Ligase is required to seal the nicks caused by transposition

answer

true

question

What DNA sequence feature is diagnostic for the presence of transposons and how is this feature produced?

answer

Short repeats on both ends of the strand

question

The presence of mobile genetic elements can not easily be detected by

answer

gel filtration chromatography

question

The general term for sequences that can change location within the genome is

answer

mobile genetic elements

question

Bacterial elements that have inverted terminal repeats and do not contain coding sequences are called

answer

insertion sequences

question

SINEs are

answer

(Short interspersed elements)-short DNA sequences that represent reverse transcribed RNA molecules originally transcribed by RNA polymerase III- rely on other mobile elements for transposition

question

What are retrotransposons?

answer

are genetic elements that can amplify themselves in a genome and are ubiquitous components of the DNA of many eukaryotic organisms.

question

What is the general process of retrotransposons?

answer

They copy themselves in two stages. First from DNA to RNA by transcription, then from RNA back to DNA by reverse transcription. The DNA copy is then inserted into the genome in a new position.

STUDY

Copy And Paste Powerpoint Spelling And Grammar Spelling And Grammar Errors

PowerPoint Tutorial 2 53 terms

Stephanie Landry

53 terms

Preview

PowerPoint Tutorial 2

question

active

answer

The state of a textbox in which it is selected and you can add or delete text or otherwise modify the text inside it. (PPT 14)

question

animation

answer

A special effect applied to an object, such as a graphic or a bulleted list, that makes the object move. (PPT 32)

question

AutoFit

answer

A PowerPoint feature that changes the line spacing and the font size of the text if you add more text than will fit in the placeholder. (PPT 11)

question

bulleted item

answer

One paragraph in a bulleted list. (PPT 9)

question

bulleted list

answer

A list of "paragraphs" (words, phrases, sentences, or paragraphs) with a special symbol (dot, dash, circle, box, star, or other character) to the left of each paragraph. (PPT 9)

question

Clipboard

answer

A temporary storage area on which text or other objects are stored when you cut or copy them. (PPT 18)

question

content placeholder

answer

Contains the slide content, which can be text, a table, a chart, a graph, a picture, clip art, or a movie. (PPT 7)

question

contextual spell-checking

answer

The feature in PowerPoint that flags words that are spelled correctly but are used incorrectly. (PPT 45)

question

copy

answer

To select text or an object, and use the Copy command to place a copy of it on the Clipboard so that you can paste it somewhere else. (PPT 18)

question

cut

answer

To remove selected text or a selected object from its original location and place it on the Clipboard using the Cut command. (PPT 18)

question

demote

answer

To move an item lower in the outline, for example, by changing a slide title into a bulleted item on the previous slide or changing a first-level bullet into a second-level bullet. (PPT 22)

question

Emphasis

answer

A type of animation effect in which the appearance of text and objects already visible on the slide changes or the text or objects move. (PPT 35)

question

Entrance

answer

A type animation effect in which text and objects animate as they appear on the slide; one of the most commonly used animation types. (PPT 35)

question

Exit

answer

A type of animation effect in which text and objects leave the screen before the slide show advances to the next slide. (PPT 35)

question

first-level bullet

answer

A main paragraph in a bulleted list. (PPT 9)

question

font size

answer

The size of the characters you type, measured in points. (PPT 9)

question

font style

answer

The formatting attributes applied to text, such as bold and italic. (PPT 14)

question

font

answer

The design of a set of characters. (PPT 9)

question

footer

answer

Text that appears on every slide, but depending on the theme applied, it might not always appear at the bottom of a slide. (PPT 42)

question

Full Page Slides

answer

A print option that prints each slide full size on a separate piece of paper; speaker notes are not printed. (PPT 52)

question

graphic

answer

A picture, shape, design, graph, chart, or diagram. (PPT 12)

question

Handouts

answer

A print option that prints the presentation with one, two, three, four, six, or nine slides on each piece of paper. (PPT 52)

question

layout

answer

A predetermined way of organizing the objects on a slide, including title text and other content (bulleted lists, photographs, charts, and so forth). All layouts, except the Blank layout, include placeholders to help you create your presentation. (PPT 7)

question

Motion Paths

answer

A type of animation effect in which text and objects follow a path on a slide. (PPT 35)

question

Normal view

answer

Displays slides one at a time in the Slide pane, allowing you to see how the text and graphics look on each individual slide, and displays thumbnails of all the slides in the Slides tab or all the text of the presentation in the Outline tab. (PPT 4)

question

Notes Page view

answer

A view in PowerPoint in which each slide appears in the top half of the presentation window and the speaker notes for that slide display in the bottom half. (PPT 44)

question

Notes Pages

answer

A print option that prints each slide as a notes page, with the slide at the top of the page and speaker notes below the slide, similar to how a slide appears in Notes Page view. (PPT 52)

question

Notes pane

answer

Area of the PowerPoint window that contains notes (also called speaker notes) for the presenter to refer to when delivering the presentation. (PPT 2)

question

Outline

answer

A print option that prints the text of the presentation as an outline. (PPT 52)

question

Outline tab

answer

Area of the PowerPoint window that shows an outline of the titles and text of each slide in the presentation. (PPT 2)

question

placeholder

answer

A region of a slide reserved for inserting text or graphics. (PPT 5)

question

point

answer

The unit of measurement for measuring font size. One point equals 1/72 of an inch. Text in a book is typically printed in 10- or 12-point type. (PPT 9)

question

progressive disclosure

answer

An animation process in which bulleted items appear on a slide one at a time. (PPT 35)

question

promote

answer

To move an item higher in the outline, for example, by changing a second-level bullet into a first-level bullet or changing a first-level bulleted item into a slide title the item. (PPT 22)

question

Reading view

answer

Displays each slide so that it almost fills the entire screen, but it also displays the title bar and status bar, and provides navigation buttons on the status bar for moving from slide to slide as you review the presentation. (PPT 30)

question

second-level bullet

answer

A bullet below and indented from a first-level bullet. Also called subbullet. (PPT 9)

question

sizing handles

answer

The small circles and squares that appear at each corner and on the sides of an active text box which you can drag to make the text box larger or smaller. (PPT 14)

question

Slide pane

answer

The area of the PowerPoint window that displays the currently selected slide as it will appear during your slide show. (PPT 3)

question

Slide Show view

answer

Displays each slide so that it fills the entire screen with no toolbars or other Windows elements visible on the screen, one after the other, and displays special effects applied to the slides and to the text and graphics on the slides. (PPT 28)

question

Slide Sorter view

answer

Displays all the slides in the presentation as thumbnails. (PPT 25)

question

Slides tab

answer

Area of the PowerPoint window that shows a column of numbered slide thumbnails so you can see a visual representation of several slides at once. (PPT 2)

question

speaker notes

answer

Information that appears in the Notes pane that the presenter can refer to when delivering the presentation to help him remember what to say when a particular slide appears during the presentation. Also called notes. (PPT 2)

question

spell-checking

answer

Using the PowerPoint spell checking tools to correct any spelling errors in the text of your presentation. (PPT 45)

question

subtitle text placeholder

answer

The smaller text placeholder below the title text placeholder, designed to contain a subtitle for the presentation. (PPT 5)

question

template

answer

A PowerPoint file that contains a theme, sample text, and graphics on the slides or slide background to guide you as you develop your content. (PPT 34)

question

text box

answer

A container that holds text. (PPT 6)

question

text placeholder

answer

A placeholder designed to contain text. (PPT 5)

question

theme

answer

A coordinated set of colors, fonts, and other design elements that are applied to the components of a presentation. (PPT 2)

question

theme colors

answer

The colors used for the background, title text, body text, accents, background colors and objects, and graphics in a presentation. (PPT 12)

question

theme fonts

answer

Two fonts or font styles, one for the titles (or headings) and one for text in content placeholders. (PPT 12)

question

thumbnails

answer

Miniature images of each slide. (PPT 2)

question

title text placeholder

answer

The larger text placeholder on the title slide, designed to hold the presentation title. (PPT 5)

question

transition

answer

A special effect you can apply to change the way slides appear during a slide show. (PPT 33)

STUDY

Acute Care Hospitals Copy And Paste Electronic Health Record Health Computing Natural Language Processing

Health Data-Quiz 2,3,4 73 terms

Marie Florence

73 terms

Preview

Health Data-Quiz 2,3,4

question

Which of the following best describes the most important function of the health record?

answer

Storing patient care documentation

question

Who are the primary users of the health record?

answer

Clinical professionals who provide direct patient care.

question

Which of the following elements is not a component of most patient records?

answer

Financial information.

question

Healthcare information systems need to exchange information. This linkage between systems is referred to as:

answer

Connectivity.

question

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of high-quality healthcare data?

answer

Data accountability

question

Which of the following represents and example of data granularity?

answer

A numerical measurement carried out to the appropriate decimal place.

question

What is the defining characteristic of an integrated health record format?

answer

Integrated health record components are arranged in strict chronological order.

question

Critique this statement: Electronic health record systems have the same access control requirements as paper based record systems.

answer

This is a true statement.

question

Critique this statement: Paper based record systems are not flexible enough to meet all of the needs of every health record user.

answer

This is a true statement.

question

Which of the following best describes data accuracy?

answer

Data are correct.

question

Which of the following best describes data completeness?

answer

Data include all required elements.

question

Which of the following best describes data accessibility?

answer

Data are easy to obtain.

question

Data definition refers to the:

answer

Meaning of data.

question

Dr. Jones entered a progress note in a patient's health record 24 hours after he visited the patient. Which quality element is missing from the progress note?

answer

Data currency.

question

The admitting form of Mrs. Smith's health record indicated that her birth date was March 21, 1948. On the discharge summary, Mrs. Smith's birth date was recorded as July 1, 1948. Which quality element is missing from Mrs. Smith's health record?

answer

Data consistency.

question

I need an information system that will provide assistance to physicians in diagnosing and treating patients. The system that I need is:

answer

Clinical decision support.

question

I have been asked to list institutional users of the health record. Which one of the following would I include in my list?

answer

Blue Cross and Blue Shield of Arkansas.

question

In the context of the healthcare record, security can be defined as:

answer

The protection of the privacy of individuals and the confidentiality of health records.

question

What is one of the improvements found by using a computerized provider order entry (COPE) SYSTEM?

answer

Eliminate issues with illegible handwriting.

question

Arkansas's health information exchange is known as:

answer

question

A nurse is responsible for which of the following types of acute care documentation?

answer

Medication record

question

When correcting erroneous information in a paper health record, which of the following is not appropriate?

answer

Use black pen to obliterate the entry.

question

Which accrediting organization has instituted unannounced surveys and requires submission of annual performance reviews?

answer

Joint Commission

question

Documentation of aides who assist a patient with activities of daily living, bathing, laundry, and cleaning would be found in which type of specialty record?

answer

Home health

question

Which of the following groups is the primary accreditation organization for facilities that treat individuals who have functional disabilities?

answer

Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities

question

Which type of health record is designed to measure clinical outcomes, collect data at the point of care, and provide medical alerts?

answer

Electronic record

question

Which of the following is an advantage of paper-based records?

answer

Standardized familiar format

question

\"The patient indicates that she is dizzy, nauseous, and feels her throat tightening.\" This entry would be recorded in which section of a SOAP note?

answer

Subjective

question

Which of the following organizations drafted more than 130 functional standards for electronic health records?

answer

Health Level Seven (HL7)

question

Which type of patient care record includes documentation of a family bereavement period?

answer

Hospice record

question

Documentation of genetic information, immunizations, hospitalizations, surgeries, medications, and personal, family, occupational and environmental histories are maintained over a lifetime in what type of record?

answer

Personal health record

question

In which setting may treatment records travel with the patient between treatment centers?

answer

Correctional facility care

question

An RAI/MDS and care plan are found in records of patients in:

answer

Long-term care

question

Which of the following is not an example of a long-term care setting?

answer

Community mental health centers

question

Which of the following represents the attending physician's assessment of the patient's current health status?

answer

Physical examination

question

Patient history questionnaires are most often used in:

answer

Ambulatory care

question

In a medical history, which of the following is a detailed chronological description of the development of the patient's illness?

answer

Present illness

question

Which of the following is an example of an advance directive?

answer

Living will

question

What is the function of physician's orders?

answer

Documents opinions about the patient's condition from the perspective of a physician not previously involved in the patient's care

question

Which of the following contains the physician's findings based on an examination of the patient?

answer

Physical exam

question

Which of the following represents documentation of the patient's current and past health status?

answer

Medical history

question

Which of the following is true of computer-based records?

answer

Can be accessed by multiple end users simultaneously

question

Documentation standards and guidelines are published by a variety of private and public organizations, including the:

answer

All of the above

question

Which type of specialized record includes care provided prior to arrival at a healthcare setting and times and means of arrival?

answer

Emergency care record

question

The number of ligatures, sutures, packs, drains, and sponges used and specimens removed would be found in the:

answer

Operative report

question

Which of the following is an example of clinical data?

answer

Admitting diagnosis

question

The attending physician is responsible for which of the following types of acute- care documentation?

answer

Discharge summary

question

Which of the following is not usually a component of acute care patient records?

answer

Problem list

question

The key data element for linking data about an individual who is seen in a variety of settings is the:

answer

Unique patient identifier

question

Information standarda that provide clear descriptors of data elements to br includes in computer-based patient record systems are called___standards:

answer

Structure and content

question

In designing an electronic health rexord, one of the best resources to use in helping to define the content of the record as well as to standarized data definitions is the E1384 standard promulgated by the:

answer

American Society for Testing and Measurment

question

Of the following resourses, the best reaource to use in dedining the structure of the EHR is the:

answer

HL7 Functional Model

question

The___mandated the development of standards for medical records.

answer

Health Indurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

question

Messaging standards for electronic data interchange in healthcare have been developed by:

answer

HL7

question

AHIMA strongly opposes the use of which the following as a patient identifier in an electronic enviroment.

answer

Social Security number

question

An example of clinical data representation is a(n):

answer

ICD-9-CM code

question

A recent breakthrough in the development of the universal language to aid storage and transmission of web-based data is:

answer

XML

question

The primary purpose of the Continuity of Care Record(CCR) is to:

answer

Allow healthcare providers to readily acess information about a patient's healthcare at any point in time.

question

The exchange of igitized images such as X-rays, CT scans, and MRIs is supported by:

answer

DICOM

question

A statewide cancer surveillance system is an example of which of the NHII dimensions?

answer

Community

question

Each of the three dimensions (personal, provider, community) of information defined by the National Health Infrastructure (NHII) contains specific recommendations for:

answer

Core data elements

question

HEDIS is designed to collect:

answer

Administrative, claims, and health record review data.

question

A consumer interested in comparing the performance of health plans should review data from:

answer

Hispanic, non-Hispanic, unknown

question

A critical early step in designing an EHR is to develop a ___in which the characteristics of each data element are defined.

answer

Data dictionary

question

Most healthcare informative standards have been implemented by:

answer

Consensus

question

The federal law that directed the Secretary of Health and Human Services to develop healthcare standards governing electronic data interchange and data security is the:

answer

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996. (HIPPA)

question

Standardizing medical terminology to avoid differences in naming various medical conditions and procedures (such as the synonyms bunionectomy, McBride procedure, and repair of hallus valgus) is one purpose of:

answer

Vocabulary standards.

question

Critique this statement: The continuity care record contains only current clinical information.

answer

This is False statement as the CCR contains both future and past clinical information.

question

Both HEDIS and the Joint Commission's ORYX program are designed to collect data to be used for:

answer

Performance improvement programs

question

The inpatient data set that has been incorporated into federal law and is required for Medicare reporting is the:

answer

Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set.

question

Data that are collected from individual records and then combined are referred to as:

answer

Aggregate data.

question

The name of the government agency that has led the development of basic data sets for health records and computer databases is the:

answer

National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics.

question

Minimum data st in healthcare are developed to:

answer

Recommend common data elements to be collected in health records.

STUDY

Copy And Paste Electronic Health Record Health Computing Real Time Information Research And Development Costs Transaction Processing Systems

Integrated Electronic Health Records Chapters 1 & 2 62 terms

Bernice Cooper

62 terms

Preview

Integrated Electronic Health Records Chapters 1 & 2

question

Selecting software that communicates with other software prevents

answer

duplication of entries and also cuts down on errors, since the data is only entered one time.

question

Of the following, which is not an application of an EHR system? A. capture of past social history B. capture of medication allergies C. capture of insurance policy number D. ability to send a prescription electronically

answer

capture of insurance policy number

question

Dr. Evans' office has computerized the following functions: appointment scheduling, charge capture, collections, and reporting. These are all found in which type of software

answer

practice management

question

Christine Simmons arrived for her appointment with Dr. Shumaker 20 minutes ago. The healthcare professional has just left the room after taking Christine's vital signs and medical history. What will be the next step in Christine's flow through the overall process?

answer

care provider

question

Jesse Lopez is a healthcare professional at Green Springs Internal Medicine. He has just finished submitting claims to Blue Shield for patients seen yesterday. Jesse was performing what type of function?

answer

administrative

question

You are a registrar in the admitting office of a hospital; a patient presents to register for an outpatient laboratory test. What will you first access to determine if that patient has ever been seen at that hospital before, or whether you must register him for the first time?

answer

master patient (person) index

question

Physicians' practices sometimes use a service to check for errors on claim forms prior to submitting a claim to the insurance company. The service that processes insurance claims is a

answer

clearinghouse

question

Roberta is a healthcare professional at Dr. Ingram's office. She has a patient on the phone who wants to make an appointment with Dr. Ingram. What will Roberta take into consideration when looking for an open appointment time?

answer

the reason for the patient's visit

question

Pieces of data which identify a patient and include such items as name, address, and date of birth are considered what types of data?

answer

demographic

question

\"Which of the following is not a type of medical insurance? A. Medicare B. Tricare C. Self-pay from patient D. Workers' Compensation

answer

Self-pay from patient

question

The documentation of a patient's office visit is often referred to as a/an:

answer

Progress note

question

Though the costs of implementation will be high, which record-keeping costs will be less as a result of implementing an electronic health record?

answer

cost of folders and clips to file each record

question

Of the following, which contributes to the high cost of electronic health records for the software service provider?

answer

research and development costs

question

Which of the following statements accurately describes duplicate patient registration entries in an electronic health record system?

answer

duplicate patient registrations can occur if the patient's name was misspelled or the patient was previously registered under a different name

question

Which of the following EHR applications may be more beneficial and efficient for the patient?

answer

ePrescribing

question

What must a care provider do before he/she will see the benefits of an EHR in relation to time spent documenting each patient's visit?

answer

devote time to learning the new system

question

Research has shown what, in relation to the use of an EHR?

answer

there has been decrease in medical errors through use of EHR software

question

Which of the following is not clinical information?

answer

age

question

A care provider is dictating a progress note into speech recognition while the patient is being seen. This dictation is occurring:

answer

at the point of care

question

During the history of present illness, the healthcare professional asks Ron Albertson for his preferred pharmacy. The healthcare professional then enters the information into PrimeSUITE. After the care provider has examined and diagnosed Mr. Albertson, he prescribes Amoxicillin and electronically sends the prescription to Mr. Albertson's chosen pharmacy without having to enter any additional information into the ePrescribe module. This is an example of:

answer

interoperability

question

The first step of the information chain in an electronic system is:

answer

Patient makes the appointment

question

Posting patient charges occurs during which step(s) of the process in an office setting?

answer

check-out desk

question

You are a healthcare professional at Greensburg Medical Center and you have just shown a patient, Mrs. Clark, to the check-out desk, where the billing coordinator had just taken the encounter form (superbill) for the visit. Dr. Daniels came to the window and stated that Mrs. Clark left the exam room before receiving her flu shot. What will occur in this case?

answer

Mrs. Clark will be taken back to the exam room, will be given the shot by the healthcare professional, who will document it in Mrs. Clark's record, and will update the encounter form to reflect the charges for the flu shot, at which point Mrs. Clark will return to the check-out desk

question

Of the following, which does not need to be sent to an insurance company on the CMS-1500 claim form?

answer

History of present illness

question

The steps listed below are carried out by which staff during an office visit? Patient Arrives for visit > Update Patient Information > Check In and Collect Co-pay > Start Patient Tracking

answer

Registration/Front-desk

question

Joyce Burke is a healthcare professional working at Greenway Medical. She is responsible for compiling insurance claims and checking them for completion. Which area of the office does Joyce work in?

answer

Business Office

question

Memorial Hospital is in the process of researching a new facility-wide electronic health record system. The ___________________ would be responsible for assessing the budgeting process, funding, and for monitoring the monetary aspects of the project.

answer

chief financial officer

question

Roberta has an associate degree and holds RMA certification. She mainly performs administrative duties such as appointment scheduling, registering patients, and maintenance of health records in a large physician's practice. She occasionally performs clinical duties as well, as needed. Roberta is a/an:

answer

medical assistant

question

In a hospital setting, the management and much of the staff of the department responsible for entering, maintaining, and retrieving data from health records, are often certified through and members of which professional organization?

answer

American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA)

question

Which of the following requires completion of a competency exam, but does not result in certification?

answer

Practice Workflow & Information Management Redesign Specialist

question

The health information manager and the ___________________ work closely to ensure a fully operational, secure electronic health record that meets the needs of all users within the facility?

answer

Information Technology Manager/Officer

question

Robert Fitzsimmons is an administrator with the local hospital. His responsibilities include the maintenance and security of all of the automated systems that affect individual departments as well as the electronic health record. Mr. Fitzsimmons is a/an:

answer

health systems administrator

question

The staff of the ___________________ will need to enter, maintain, and retrieve data from electronic health records within a hospital setting.

answer

health information department

question

Until recent years, Registered Health Information Technicians, Registered Health Information Administrators, and Certified Health Data Analysts typically worked in which type of facility?

answer

hospitals

question

Which of the following is not a professional organization related to the fields of health information, medical assisting, or allied health?

answer

American Hospital Association

question

Philip is a medical assistant who has been working for a medical practice with two physicians and one physician's assistant for three years. He recently applied for a supervisory position within the office, but was overlooked for the position. He is anxious to take his knowledge and experience to the next level, but never took a certifying exam, and to this point has not taken advantage of continuing education opportunities. What is the best strategy for Philip to strengthen his chances of promotion in the future?

answer

begin studying for one of the medical assisting certifying exam and schedule a date to take it

question

A ______________________ professional would most likely hold one of the following positions: cancer registrar, privacy officer, software analyst, compliance officer.

answer

Registered Health Information Administrator (RHIA)

question

In a physician's practice, ________________ may be the title of the person who is responsible for the overall administrative management of the practice.

answer

Office Administrator

question

An x-ray of the ankle was performed on Daniel Way on December 16. Dr. Eberly interpreted the x-ray and dictated his impression, which then became part of the hospital's electronic health record. This impression is ________________________ data.

answer

unstructured

question

Dr. Henderson wrote a progress note in the emergency room note of Lisa Ford. This is an example of _________________ data.

answer

unstructured

question

The progress note of Amy Shaw states that she is a 51-year-old female who has a history of lower back pain following a fall off a ladder in 2007. She has been taking ibuprofen on a daily basis with no relief. The pain is so bad that on occasion she needs to miss work. Based on her history and the results of the physician's physical exam, his treatment plan is naproxen sodium daily and an order for physical therapy to include TENS treatments with follow-up visit scheduled in four weeks. This is an example of a patient's health _______________________.

answer

information

question

The date of birth on a patient's record is ___________________ data.

answer

structured

question

A zip code would be an example of _______________ data.

answer

structured

question

A record that contains a person's health history, allergies, current complaints, past medical and surgical history, and a listing of current medications, but is not considered a legal health record is a/an:

answer

personal health record

question

Typically, paper health records are maintained how?

answer

filed in folders in numeric or alphabetic order

question

From which medium is the image above taken?

answer

electronic health record

question

Entering data into a computer system is also known as ________________ data.

answer

capturing

question

When collecting data on a computer or retrieving data from a computer, the screen becomes the replacement for ______________.

answer

paper

question

The capturing of data about a patient begins at what point?

answer

when the patient calls for an appointment or arrives at the hospital for care

question

The ____________ allows for the exchange of information among caregivers, insurance companies, employers, and others, when there is a need for information.

answer

Electronic Health Record (EHR)

question

Of the following, which is not a core function of the EHR as defined by the Institute of Medicine?

answer

filing of insurance claims

question

Information that identifies the patient in any way is known as _________________.

answer

protected health information

question

The ________________________ is published by the federal government and includes all actions taken by any government entity on a given date.

answer

Federal Register

question

The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act is part of the _______________________.

answer

American Recovery and Reinvestment Act

question

\"A set of standards, services, and policies that enable the secure exchange of health information over the Internet\" is known as:

answer

National Health Information Network

question

In order to send and accept diagnosis codes using ICD-10-CM, which version of the HIPAA Code Set rule was effective as of January 1, 2012?

answer

version 5010

question

This entity was founded in 2004 to certify electronic health records.

answer

Certification Commission for Health Information Technology

question

A unique identifier that is required on claim forms and identifies the care provider or group practice submitting the claim is the:

answer

National Provider Identifier number

question

In a physician's office, the equivalent of a hospital's master patient index is a/an:

answer

patient list

question

In a hospital setting, when the patient presents for care he/she is:

answer

registered

question

The hospital equivalent to practice management software used in the physician's practice is known as:

answer

Registration, Admission, Discharge, Transfer System

question

John Smith was admitted to Memorial Hospital on June 6 and died while in the hospital, on June 10. The action taken on June 10 was a/an:

answer

discharge

STUDY

Copy And Paste Cover Letter Description Future Tense Simple Present Tense Spelling And Grammar Errors

College resume building 9 terms

Sonia Kelly

9 terms

Preview

College resume building

question

a one page snapshot of your accomplishments on paper up to that point in your life.

answer

resume

question

what is the goal you want to achieve with this resume

answer

objective

question

what work or volunteer experience do you have. FOR EXAMPLE, BABYSITTING, YOUTH GROUP LEADER, COMMUNITY SERVICE ACTIVITIES YOU PARTICIPATED IN

answer

experience

question

school you have attended

answer

education

question

special awards you have received. FOR EXAMPLE, STUDENT OF THE MONTH, HIGH HONOR ROLL, MOST VALUABLE PLAYER, MOST IMPROVED PLAYER,

answer

honors

question

any teams, groups, associations you take part in. For example, AVID, 7/8 GRADE BASKETBALL, CHOIR, GEMS, CHURCH YOUTH GROUP, BOYS/GIRLS CLUB

answer

activities

question

Any special skills you may have. For example, organized, strong leader, dependable, mature, singing,

answer

special skills

question

choose words in your resume that sound positive and would make someone look favorably at your skills and talents

answer

word choice

question

your resume should be easy to read without any mistakes, and consistent. It should take one full page.

answer

format

STUDY

Copy And Paste Hard Disk Drive Operating Systems Usb Flash Drive

1.0 Windows Installation – Flashcards 37 terms

Patrick Turner

37 terms

Preview

1.0 Windows Installation – Flashcards

question

You have a stand-alone computer running Windows 7 Professional. You notice that the Aero features are not displayed. The computer has a 19 inch CRT screen that supports refresh rates up to 65 Hertz and a video card with 64 MB RAM. You need to use the Aero features. What should you do?

answer

Replace the video adapter card with one that has at least 128 MB RAM.

question

You have a computer on your workbench without an operating system. You would like to install Windows 7 Enterprise 32-bit edition on the computer. The computer has the following hardware specifications: Hard drive with 12 GB of free space. 1 GB of RAM, one additional socket available. One Pentium 2.8 GHz processor, one additional socket available. Video card with 128 MB of memory. You need to change the hardware so that you can install Windows 7 Enterprise. What should you do?

answer

Free up some space on the hard drive.

question

You have several computers running Windows 7 Ultimate. The computers are members of a domain. For all the computer, you want to remove access to administrative tools from the Start menu and hide notifications from the System Tray. What should you do?

answer

Use Group Policy

question

You manage a laptop that runs Windows 7. The laptop is shared by members of the Sales team. Sales team members use standard user accounts to log on to the computer. You want to allow users to change the system time and the time zone. You need to grant them this ability while limiting their ability to perform unrelated tasks. What should you do?

answer

Configure user rights for the Sales group in the local security policy.

question

You have a computer that runs Windows XP Professional. You want to upgrade your computer to Windows 7 Professional. You want to maintain as much of the application, user profile, and user data as possible. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do?

answer

Run Scanstate in Windows XP, Perform a custom installation of Windows 7 to the existing hard drive. Boot into windows 7 and re-install all applications. Run Loadstate.

question

You are planning to install Windows 7 Home Premium edition on a new 64-bit computer. The computer has the following hardware specifications: 500 GB hard drive. 1 GB of RAM, one additional socket available. One Pentium 2.8 GHz processor, one additional socket available. Video card with 256 MB of memory. You need to ensure that the hardware will support Windows 7 Home Premium. What should you do?

answer

Add more memory.

question

You are planning to install Windows 7 on a new 64-bit computer. The computer will be joined to a domain and you plan to configure the computer to boot from a .VHD image. Which Windows 7 editon should you use?

answer

Ultimate (64-bit)

question

You have several computers in a network. Some of the computers do not have an optical drive. Your boss has asked you to install Windows 7 on each of the computers. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)

answer

Use the bootsect command to make the USB flash drive bootable. Copy the product DVD to a USB flask drive and boot from the drive.

question

You have several computers in a domain network. Your company develops software that runs on bot Windows XP and Windows 7. Programmers need to have computers that will dual boot between Windows XP and Windows 7. You need to configure each system to meet the programmer's requirements. What should you do?

answer

Install Windows XP first, and then install Windows 7 on another partition.

question

You need to install Windows 7 Enterprise edition on multiple computers. Each computer has a single SATA hard drive, a PXE-compliant network card, a DVD drive, and several open USB ports. You have decided to use Windows Deployment Services (WDS) to simplify installation. You configure the WDS server with everything necessary to perform the installation. When you start each computer, you would like the computer to boot, connect to the WDS server, and start the installation process automatically without any intervention. You want to minimize the actions that you must perform on each computer. What should you do next?

answer

On each computer, edit the BIOS to boot from the network first.

question

You are installing Windows 7 on a new computer. Using the RAID controller on the motherboard, you configure three hard disks in a RAID5 array. A fourth hard disk is connected to the IDE channel. You edit the BIOS boot order to boot from the optical drive. You insert the installation DVD, boot to the disc, and start the installation. When you are prompted to select the disk where you want to install Windows, the RAID array you created does not show as a possible destination disk. Only the disk on the IDE channel is visible. Select the option you would choose to make the RAID array visible for the installation.

answer

Load Driver

question

You have a stand-alone computer running both Vista and Windows 7. The computer currently boots to Windows 7 by default. You need the computer to boot to Windows Vista as the default operating system instead. What should you do?

answer

Run bcdedit.exe.

question

You are preparing to install Windows 7 to a new computer. You copy the installation files from a DVD to a USB flash drive, then use bootsect to make the USB drive bootable. Using the RAID controller on the motherboard, you configure three hard disks in a RAID5 array. Using disk tools, you create a single partition that takes up the entire array. You insert the USB drive and boot the computer. The computer boots and shows you the following message: Error loading operating system Reboot and select proper boot device. What should you do?

answer

In the BIOS, modify the boot order to boot from the USB device first.

question

You are installing Windows 7 on a new computer. Using the RAID controller on the motherboard, you configure three hard disks in a RAID5 array. You leave the array unpartitioned and unformatted. You edit the BIOS boot order to boot from the optical drive. You insert the installation DVD, boot to the disc, and start the installation. When you are prompted to select the disk where you want to install Windows, the RAID array you created does not show as a possible destination disk. What should you do?

answer

On the screen where you select the disk to install Windows, click Load Driver.

question

You are performing a network installation of Windows 7 on a new computer. You boot the computer using Windows PE. You need to install a device driver for the network adapter. What should you do?

answer

Run drvload.exe

question

You have a computer that runs Windows Vista. You need to perform a clean installation of Windows 7 onto the computer. You would also like to retain the system and user files from the Windows Vista installation. What should you do?

answer

While running setup.exe on the Windows 7 installation media, select the Custom (advanced) option.

question

You need to install Windows 7 Enterprise edition on multiple computers. You have an ISO image of the Windows 7 Enterprise edition installation disc that you will use for the installation. You want to boot the computer to a command prompt, connect to a network share, and then run setup from the shared folder. You create a shared folder named WinInstall on a server. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)

answer

Extract the ISO image and copy all files in the image to the shared folder. Create a bootable disc with WinPE and the necessary network drivers. Edit the BIOS to boot from the optical drive first.

question

You have a workstation running the 32-bit version of Windows Vista Business that you would like to upgrade to the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort and cost. What should you do first?

answer

Perform and Upgrade using the Windows 7 installation disc.

question

You have a workstation running the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional that you would like to upgrade to the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Ultimate. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort and cost while maintaining as much user data as possible. What should you do first?

answer

Run Anytime Upgrade

question

You have a Windows XP Professional system that you would like to upgrade to Windows 7 Ultimate. What should you do first?

answer

Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.

question

You have a computer that runs Windows XP Professional that you would like to upgrade to Windows 7 Professional. You run the setup program and install Windows 7 on the same computer and hard drive. What should you do next?

answer

Re-install all applications.

question

You have a Windows Vista system that you would like to upgrade to Windows 7. You want to make sure that everything in your current system is compatible with windows 7. What should you do?

answer

Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.

question

You have a 32-bit computer that runs Windows XP Professional. You would like to upgrade the computer to Windows 7 Ultimate. Your computer has the following specifications: Service pack 2 1 GHz processor 512 MB RAM 256 MB video card 40 GB free disk space DVD drive You would like to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do first?

answer

Add more memory

question

You have a 32-bit computer that runs Windows Vista Business RTM that you would like to upgrade to Windows 7 Ultimate. Your computer has the following specifications: 1 GHz processor 1 GB RAM 128 MB video card 16 GB free disk space DVD drive You would like to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do first?

answer

Install the latest service pack

question

You have a workstation running the 32-bit version of Windows Vista Business that you would like to upgrade to the 64-bit version.

answer

Custom (advanced)

question

You have a workstation running the 64-bit version of Windows 7 Ultimate that you would like to change to the 64-bit version of Windows 7 Professional. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort and cost. What should you do first?

answer

Perform a Custom (advanced) installation using the Windows 7 installation disc.

question

You have two computers: ComputerA is running Windows Vista Business and ComputerB is running Windows 7 Professional. You are using USMT to migrate only the user profiles and user data from ComputerA to ComputerB. You need to specify the fules used for the migration to include all .jpg files. What should you do?

answer

Edit the MigUser.xml file.

question

You have two computers: ComputerA is running Windows XP Professional and ComputerB is running Windows 7 Professional. You need to transfer user profiles and data files from ComputerA to ComputerB. What should you do? (Select two. Each answer is a complete solution.)

answer

Run Windows Easy Transfer Run USMT

question

You have a single computer running Windows XP. You perform a Custom (advanced) installation of Windows 7 to the existing disk partition on the computer. You need to migrate user profiles and user data from the Windows XP installation to the Windows 7 installation. What should you do?

answer

Run scanstate with the /offlineWinOld: option

question

You have two computers: ComputerA is running Windows Vista and ComputerB is running Windows 7. You need to migrate all user profiles and data files from ComputerA to ComputerB. You need to ensure the user accounts on the destination computer are created and enabled during the migration. What should you do?

answer

On ComputerB, run loadstate with the /lae and /lac options.

question

You have a single computer running Windows Vista. You are about to complete a clean installation of Windows 7 on the computer, and you need to migrate user profiles and user data from the previous installation of Windows Vista. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)

answer

Use a wipe-and-load migration. Run WET and use External hard disk or USB flash drive as the transfer method.

question

You have two computers: ComputerA is running Windows Vista and ComputerB is running Windows 7. You need to migrate specific application settings from ComputerA to ComputerB by using USMT. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)

answer

Run scanstate with the /i option. Edit the migapp.xml file.

question

You have a computer that runs Windows XP Professional. You want to upgrade your computer to Windows 7 Professional. You want your user profile settings to be applied to Windows 7, with all user files available following the upgrade. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do?

answer

Perform a custom (advanced) installation of Windows 7 to the existing hard drive. After the installation, boot into Windows 7 and run Scanstate and then Loadstate.

question

You have a computer running Windows 7. The computer is part of a domain. You need to transfer user profiles and data files to the computer from a network share using USMT; however, you do not have USMT. What should you do?

answer

Download the Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK) from Microsoft.

question

Command line options for the Loadstate command are listed on the left. Drag each command line option and drop it onto the correct description of the function it performs on the right.

answer

/ui > Specify user(s) to be migrated /hardlink > Restore from a linked migration store. /lae > Enable user accounts /ue > Specify user(s) to omit from migration /lac > Create user accounts

question

Command line options for the Scanstate command are listed on the left. Drag each command line option and drop it onto the correct description of the function it performs on the right.

answer

/o > Allow overwriting existing data. /ue > Specify user(s) to omit from migration /ui Specify user(s) to be migrated. /offlineWinOld > Path to the offline Windows.old folder. /p /nocompress > Generate a space estimate.

question

You have a computer that runs Windows XP Professional. You want to upgrade your computer to Windows 7 Professional. You want to customize the migration of application, user profile, and user data. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)

answer

Edit the MigApp.xml and MigDocs.xml files Run Scanstate.

STUDY

Copy And Paste Cut And Paste Intrusion Detection Systems Make Sure You Know Management Information Systems Open Source Software Operating Systems

CCNA3 ch 1 – Flashcards 65 terms

Elizabeth Bates

65 terms

Preview

CCNA3 ch 1 – Flashcards

question

A large business environment with many users, locations, and systems is referred to as an

answer

enterprise

question

All enterprise networks must:

answer

Support critical applications Support converged network traffic Support diverse business needs Provide centralized administrative control

question

Enterprise-class equipment is designed for reliability, with features such as

answer

redundant power supplies and failover capabilities

question

Failover capability is?

answer

the ability of a device to switch from a nonfunctioning module, service, or device to a functioning one with little or no break in service.

question

the 3 layer hierarchical design model has three layers what are they?

answer

• Access layer • Distribution layer • Core layer

question

what does the access layer do?

answer

provides connectivity for the users.

question

The distribution layer does what?

answer

The distribution layer is used to forward traffic from one local network to another.

question

what is the core layer?

answer

The core layer represents a high-speed backbone layer between dispersed networks.

question

which layers form the two-tier hierarchical design?

answer

the core and distribution layers are collapsed into one layer, reducing cost and complexity

question

what is the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

answer

it divides the network into functional components while still maintaining the core, distribution, and access layers. The primary Cisco Enterprise Architecture modules include • Enterprise Campus • Enterprise Edge • Service Provider Edge • Remote

question

what is Enterprise Campus?

answer

The Enterprise Campus consists of the entire campus infrastructure, to include the access, distribution, and core layers. The access layer module contains Layer 2 or Layer 3 switches to provide the required port density. Implementation of VLANs and trunk links to the building distribution layer occurs here. Redundancy to the building distribution switches is important. The distribution layer module aggregates building access using Layer 3 devices. Routing, access control, and QoS are performed at this distribution layer module. The core layer module provides high-speed interconnectivity between the distribution layer modules, data center server farms, and the enterprise edge. Redundancy, fast convergence, and fault tolerance are the focus of the design in this module.

question

what are the submodules of enterprise campus?

answer

Server Farm and Data Center Module Services Module

question

what is the server farm and data center module?

answer

This area provides high-speed connectivity and protection for servers. It is critical to provide security, redundancy, and fault tolerance. The network management systems monitor performance by monitoring device and network availability

question

what is the services module?

answer

This area provides access to all services, such as IP Telephony services, wireless controller services, and unified services.

question

explain enterprise edge

answer

The Enterprise Edge consists of the Internet, VPN, and WAN modules connecting the enterprise with the service provider's network. This module extends the enterprise services to remote sites and enables the enterprise to use Internet and partner resources. It provides QoS, policy reinforcement, service levels, and security.

question

explain service provider edge

answer

The Service Provider Edge provides Internet, Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN), and WAN services. All data that enters or exits the Enterprise Composite Network Model (ECNM) passes through an edge device. This is the point where all packets can be examined and a decision made whether the packet should be allowed on the enterprise net- work. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) and intrusion prevention systems (IPS) can also be configured at the enterprise edge to protect against malicious activity.

question

what is a failure domain?

answer

A failure domain is the area of a network that is impacted when a critical device or network service experiences problems.

question

what is used to minimize the chance of disruption in a network?

answer

redundant links and reliable enterprise-class equipment

question

In the hierarchical design model, it is easiest and usually least expensive to control the size of a failure domain in the _________ layer because network errors can be contained to a smaller area, thus affecting fewer users

answer

distribution layer

question

what is switch block/department block/building block

answer

when Routers, or multilayer switches, are deployed in pairs, with access layer switches evenly divided between them

question

Each _______ acts independently of the others. As a result, the failure of a single device does not cause the network to go down. Even the failure of an entire switch block does not affect a significant number of end users.

answer

switch block

question

Included in a basic network design strategy are the following recommendations:

answer

- Use expandable, modular equipment or clustered devices - include modules that can be added, upgraded, and modified, as necessary, without affecting the design of the other functional areas of the network - Create an IPv4 or IPv6 address strategy that is hierarchical - filter trafic

question

Advanced network design requirements include:

answer

- Implementing redundant links in the network between critical devices and between access layer and core layer devices. - Implementing multiple links between equipment, with either link aggregation (EtherChannel) or equal-cost load balancing - Implementing wireless connectivity to allow for mobility and expansion - Using a scalable routing protocol

question

what is a downside to redundant paths?

answer

logical Layer 2 loops

question

what can prevent logical Layer 2 loops

answer

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

question

what is Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

answer

STP allows for the redundancy required for reliability but eliminates the switching loops. It does this by providing a mechanism for disabling redundant paths in a switched network until the path is necessary, such as when failures occur. STP is an open standard protocol, used in a switched environment to create a loop-free logical topology.

question

what is link aggreation

answer

Link aggregation allows an administrator to increase the amount of bandwidth between devices by creating one logical link made up of several physical links. EtherChannel is a form of link aggregation used in switched networks

question

what are some advantages of etherchannel?

answer

- saves money - Most configuration tasks are done on the EtherChannel interface, instead of on each individual port - uses load balancing

question

OSPF Routers reach a FULL state of adjacency when?

answer

they have synchronized views on their link-state database

question

when are OSPF link-state updates sent?

answer

when network changes occur

question

All non-backbone areas must directly connect to _____

answer

area 0

question

Campus LAN Switches:

answer

To scale network performance in an enterprise LAN, there are core, distribution, access, and compact switches.

question

Cloud-Managed Switches:

answer

The Cisco Meraki cloud-managed access switches enable virtual stacking of switches. They monitor and configure thousands of switch ports over the web, without the intervention of onsite IT staff.

question

Data Center Switches:

answer

A data center should be built based on switches that promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility. The data center switch platforms include the Cisco Nexus Series switches and the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switches.

question

Service Provider Switches:

answer

Service provider switches fall under two categories: aggregation switches and Ethernet access switches. Aggregation switches are carrier-grade Ethernet switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of a network. Service provider Ethernet access switches feature application intelligence, unified services, virtualization, integrated security, and simplified management.

question

Virtual Networking switches:

answer

Networks are becoming increasingly virtualized. Cisco Nexus virtual networking switch platforms provide secure multitenant services by adding virtualization intelligence technology to the data center network.

question

what are some common business considerations when selecting switch equipment

answer

- cost - port density (no. of ports available) - power - reliability - port speed - frame buffers - scalability

question

what are Frame Buffers

answer

The ability of the switch to store frames is important in a net- work where there might be congested ports to servers or other areas of the network.

question

what are forwarding rates?

answer

Forwarding rates define the processing capabilities of a switch by rating how much data the switch can process per second. Entry-level switches have lower forwarding rates than enterprise-level switches

question

what is wire speed?

answer

Wire speed is the data rate that each Ethernet port on the switch is capable of attaining.

question

FACT:

answer

Access layer switches typically do not need to operate at full wire speed, because they are physically limited by their uplinks to the distribution layer. This means that less expensive, lower-performing switches can be used at the access layer, and more expensive, higher-performing switches can be used at the distribution and core layers, where the forwarding rate has a greater impact on network performance.

question

what is power over ethernet?

answer

Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows the switch to deliver power to a device over the existing Ethernet cabling. This feature can be used by IP phones and some wireless access points

question

what allows virtual stacking of switches?

answer

Cisco Meraki cloud-managed access switches

question

where are multi layer switches typically deployed?

answer

the core and distribution layers

question

what are multi layer switches?

answer

Multilayer switches are characterized by their ability to build a routing table, support a few routing protocols, and forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2 forwarding

question

Multilayer switches often support specialized hardware, such as application-specific integrated circuits (ASIC). what are ASIC's?

answer

ASICs can streamline the forwarding of IP packets independent of the CPU.

question

what do routers use to route packets to their destination?

answer

the network portion of the destination ip address

question

what are some beneficial functions of routers?

answer

- Provide broadcast containment - Connect remote locations - Group users logically by application or department - Provide enhanced security

question

what is a branch router?

answer

Branch routers optimize branch services on a single platform while delivering an optimal application experience across branch and WAN infrastructures. Maximizing service availability at the branch requires networks designed for 24x7x365 uptime. Highly available branch networks must ensure fast recovery from typical faults, while minimizing or eliminating the impact on service, and provide simple network configuration and management.

question

what is a network edge router?

answer

Network edge routers enable the network edge to deliver high-performance, highly secure, and reliable services that unite campus, data center, and branch networks. Customers also want to access content anytime and anyplace they choose, over any device, whether at home, at work, or on the go. Network edge routers must deliver enhanced quality of service and nonstop video and mobile capabilities

question

what is a Service Provider Routers?

answer

- end-to-end scalable solutions and subscriber-aware services. - optimise operations, reduce expenses, and improve scalability and flexibility to deliver next-generation Internet experiences across all devices and locations. These systems are designed to simplify and enhance the operation and deployment of service-delivery networks.

question

what is Out-of-band management?

answer

is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.

question

what does out of band management require?

answer

- Direct connection to console or AUX port - Terminal emulation client

question

what is In-band management?

answer

In-band management is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a net- work device over a network connection. Configuration using in-band management requires:

question

what does In-band management require?

answer

- At least one network interface on the device to be connected and operational - Telnet, SSH, or HTTP to access a Cisco device

question

A _______ should have a connection to two different access layer switches. It should have redundant modules when possible and a power backup source. It might be appropriate to provide multiple connections to one or more ISPs.

answer

mission-critical server

question

What are the expected features of modern enterprise networks?

answer

Support for converged network Support for critical applications

question

Which methods help to prevent the disruption of network services?

answer

Using redundant connections to provide alternate physical paths Installing duplicate equipment to provide failover services

question

Which feature could be used in a network design to increase the band width by combining multiple physical links into a single logical link?

answer

EtherChannel

question

Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?

answer

Implementing wireless connectivity

question

How much traffic is a 48-port gigabit switch capable of generating when operating at full wire speed?

answer

48 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port

question

Which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work?

answer

Network edge routers

question

What is a characteristic of out-of-band device management?

answer

It requires a terminal emulation client.

question

The number of ports available on a single switch is referred to as _______

answer

port density

question

Among the beneficial functions of a router are enhanced network security and containment of ______ traffic.

answer

broadcast

STUDY

Copy And Paste Flashcards, test questions and answers

We've found 15 Copy And Paste tests

Haven't found what you were looking for?

Search for samples, answers to your questions and flashcards