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Baseball
Common Knowledge
Copy And Paste
Course(s) In English
English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade)
Lose Your Job
Old Man And The Sea
English Chapter 1 – Flashcards 198 terms

Marlon Riddle
198 terms
Preview
English Chapter 1 – Flashcards
question
What is meant by "citing a source?"
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naming the source of the information
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It is necessary to cite a source because:
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it is academically correct, it is proper to give the author credit, the idea, work, or material is someone else's
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Ideas, works, and words that are someone else's must be documented because:
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they are someone's hard work, ideas, or words, they do not belong to the student, they are not original with the student
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True or False? Citing a source is correct academic documentation of other people's ideas, words, or works.
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True
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True or False? Plagiarism damages reputations and relationships.
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False
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True or False? To be charged with plagiarism is a minor offense.
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False
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True or False? Plagiarism is an issue of a person's honesty and character.
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True
question
True or False? There is no difference between paraphrasing and summarizing.
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False
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True or False? A paraphrase, when used in an essay, must be cited because, although it is in your own words, it is still another's ideas or work.
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True
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True or False? A good, clear, complete paraphrase must be cited.
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True
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True or False? A summary of a paragraph is much shorter than a paraphrase.
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True
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True or False? A summary does not need to be cited as to its source because a summary is your own words.
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False
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is made during research to tell the facts about the source one is using.
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Documentation
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Which information goes on a note card?
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author's name and page number for information found
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A word that modifies or describes a noun or pronoun is called a(n)
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adjective
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What is the name of a person, place, thing, or idea?
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noun
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Words are classified as parts of speech according to their
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use in a sentence.
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A particular person, place, or thing within a general class is named by a
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proper noun.
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A common noun that refers to a quality, state, idea, or action rather than a physical object
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abstract noun
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A noun naming a physical object that can be perceived by the senses.
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concrete noun
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A noun that combines two or more words as a single noun.
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compound noun
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A noun that names a group of more than one person, place, or thing.
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collective noun
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An example of an abstract noun is:
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love (emotion)
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Cupful is an example of a(n)
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compound noun
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Nouns that name things that you cannot perceive by the senses are
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abstract nouns
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A noun that combines two or more words as a single noun is a(n)
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compound noun
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A compound noun may be written as:
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one word, two or more words, or as a hyphenated word
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The plural form of syllable
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syllables
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The plural form of brush
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brushes
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The plural form of report
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reports
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The plural form of dress
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dresses
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The plural form of tax
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taxes
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The plural form of buzz
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buzzes
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The plural form of peach
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peaches
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The plural form of rodeo
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rodeos
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The plural form of studio
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studios
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The plural form of trio
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trios
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The plural form of hero
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heroes
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The plural form of tomato
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tomatoes
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With some exceptions, the plural of nouns ending in o preceded by a consonant is formed by adding
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-es.
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The plural of a noun ending in o preceded by a vowel is formed by adding
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-s.
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The plurals of nouns ending in s, x, z, ch, and sh are formed by adding
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-es.
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Form the plural of a noun ending in y preceded by a vowel by
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adding -s
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Form the plural of a noun ending in y preceded by a consonant by
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changing the y to i and adding -es
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To form the irregular plural of some nouns ending in f or fe,
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add -s.
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To form the plural of many nouns ending in f or fe,
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change the f or fe to v and add -es
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The plural form of monkey
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monkeys
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The plural form of toy
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toys
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The plural form of valley
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valleys
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The plural form of ally
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allies
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The plural form of life
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lives
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The plural form of belief
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beliefs
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The plural form of child
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children
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The plural form of man
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men
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The plural form of father-in-law
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fathers-in-law
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The plural form of post office
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post offices
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The plural form of cupful
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cupfuls
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The plural form of chalkboard
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chalkboards
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The plural form of railway
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railways
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Form the plural of compound nouns with more than one word or in hyphenated form by adding the appropriate plural inflection, -s or -es, to the
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main part of the compound.
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True or False? Form the plural of some nouns by changing the spelling of the singular form of the word.
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True
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True or False? Form the plural of compound nouns written as one word by adding the appropriate plural sign -s or -es to the first part of the word.
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False
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alumna: Singular or Plural? She is an alumna of Iowa State University.
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Singular
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alumna: Singular or Plural? The alumnae are having a fund-raising dinner
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Plural
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basis: Singular or Plural? The basis of their friendship was a common interest in travel.
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Singular
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basis: Singular or Plural? The bases for salvation rest upon Jesus' offering of forgiveness and a person's acceptance of his offer.
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Plural
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nucleus: Singular or Plural? Nuclei of cells are located in different positions in different kind of cells
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Plural
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nucleus: Singular or Plural? A cell needs a nucleus in order to grow and divide into other cells.
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Singular
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analysis: Singular or Plural? An analysis of the situation will help solve the problem.
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Singular
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analysis: Singular or Plural? The experts prepared written analyses of the traffic problem.
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Plural
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means: Singular or Plural? What are the means by which you are going to solve the problems?
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Plural
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means: Singular or Plural? Quick thinking is the means by which trouble is often avoided.
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Singular
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series: Singular or Plural? A series of rainy days spoiled the camping trip.
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Singular
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scissors: Singular or Plural? He sharpened all the scissors in the schoolroom.
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Plural
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civics: Singular or Plural? A study of civics is helpful in preparing a student for life as an adult.
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singular
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riches: Singular or Plural? All the riches in the world cannot buy happiness.
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plural
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athletics: Singular or Plural? Athletics is recommended for high school students.
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Singular
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The possessive form of horse
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horse's
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The possessive form of friend
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friend's
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The possessive form of teacher
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teacher's
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The possessive form of dogs
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dog's
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The possessive form of girls
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girls'
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The possessive form of guests
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guests'
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The possessive form of businessmen
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businessmen's
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The possessive form of sisters-in-law
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sisters-in-law's
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The possessive form of Secretaries of State
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Secretaries of State's
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The possessive form of oxen
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oxen's
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The possessive form of "The fathers of Theresa and Marilyn."
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Theresa's and Marilyn's fathers.
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The possessive form of "The mother of Millie and Mike."
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Millie and Mike's mother
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Added to or following another as an explanation or identification.
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appositive position
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Located among the words that express something about the subject.
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predicate position
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Two or more words, joined by a hyphen, used as a single adjective to modify a noun
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compound adjective
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Standing next to (in front of) another.
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attributive position
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What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "Snoopy is my favorite *comic-strip* character."
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compound
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What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "A *warm, humid* breeze is blowing."
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coordinate
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What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "The *beautiful* girl is smiling."
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attributive
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What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "The tree, *green and slender*, bent in the summer breeze."
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appositive
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What adjective form or position is the *stared* word or phrase? "The woman at the desk is *competent*."
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predicate
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True or False? Superlative means of the highest (or lowest) kind.
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True
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Make the word an adjective. "hero"
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heroic
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Make the word an adjective. "self"
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selfish
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Make the word an adjective. "boy"
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boyish
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Make the word an adjective. "act"
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active
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Make the word an adjective. "pass"
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passive
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Make the word an adjective. "help"
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helpful
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Make the word an adjective. "fame"
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famous
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Make the word an adjective. "nerve"
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nervous
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Make the word an adjective. "velvet"
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velvety
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Make the word an adjective. "enjoy"
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enjoyable
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Make the word an adjective. "nature"
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natural
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Make the word an adjective. "Asia"
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Asian
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Which adjectives are more likely to use more or most in forming comparatives and superlatives?
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three-syllable adjectives
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Which adjective is not superlative? least, more, clearest,
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more
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True or False? A proper noun names a particular person, place, or thing within a general class
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True
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True or False? The word cupful is an example of an abstract noun.
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False
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True or False? To form the plural of a noun ending in y preceded by a vowel, simply add s.
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True
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True or False? To form the plural of a noun ending in y preceded by a consonant, simply add s.
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False
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True or False? All nouns that have plural forms are plural in meaning.
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False
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True or False? The plural form of some nouns is the same as the singular form
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True
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True or False? There are nouns that appear only in the plural form.
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True
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Form the possessive of most singular nouns by adding:
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's
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Form the possessive of plural nouns that end in s by adding:
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'
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Form the possessive of plural nouns that do not end in s by adding:
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's
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When two or more words are used as a single adjective to modify a noun, that adjective becomes a ___ adjective.
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compound
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An adjective that precedes the noun it modifies is in the ___ position.
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attributive
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An adjective that follows the verb and modifies the subject is in the ___ position.
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predicate
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An adjective that expresses the highest or lowest degree of comparison among three or more nouns is in the ___ degree.
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superlative
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Names referring to Deity, the Bible, and divisions of the Bible are_____________nouns and ____________be capitalized.
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proper and should
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select the abstract nouns. "iron, vanity, faith, Bible, perseverance, lamb, grace, tooth"
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vanity, perseverance, faith, grace
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The word assembly is an example of a(n)
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collective noun
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The word newspaper is an example of a(n)
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compound noun
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The plural of church is
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churches
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The plural of sky is
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skies
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The plural of monkey is
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monkeys
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The plural of wharf is
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wharves
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A compound noun may be written:
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as one word, as a hyphenated word, or as two words
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A word used to modify verbs, adjectives, or adverbs.
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adverb
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Indicates the time of the action or being.
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tense
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A word used to express action or being.
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verb
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A verb that either has no receiver of the action named or expresses no action.
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intransitive verb
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Indicates whether the subject names the actor or the receiver of the action expressed by the verb.
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voice
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Indicates whether an act is presented as a fact, contrary to fact, a wish, or a command.
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mood
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A verb that has a receiver of the action named. It transfers the action from the actor to a direct object
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transitive verb
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Present:_______ Past________ Past Participle: (have) ridden
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ride and rode
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Present: obey Past:__________ Past Participle:___________
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obeyed and (have) obeyed
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Present: bring Past:__________ Past Participle:__________
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brought and (have brought)
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Present:____________ Past:___________ Past Participle: have got (gotten)
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get and got
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Present: swing Past:_________ Past Participle__________
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swung and (have) swung
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Present: bear Past: bore Past Participle:___________
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(have) borne
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Present: beat Past:_________ Past Participle: (have) beaten
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beat
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Present: choose Past:__________ Past Participle: (have) chosen
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Chose
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Present: swear Past: swore Past Participle: _________
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(have) sworn
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Present:_______ Past: tore Past Participle: (have) torn
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tear
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Present: ___________ Past: began Past Participle:___________
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begin and (have) begun
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Present: swim Past:_________ Past Participle:_________
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swam and (have) swum
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Present: come Past:__________ Past Participle:_________
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came and (have) come
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Present:______ Past: ate Past Participle:____________
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eat and (have) eaten
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expresses time
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tense
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reveals whether subject is actor or receiver of action
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voice
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the manner in which action is presented
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mood
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What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? Your sister *had gone* when we arrived.
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past perfect
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What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? He moved that the committee *be appointed* by the president.
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subjunctive
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What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? *Submit* your reports on Wednesday.
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imperative
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What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? Before he enters the race, he *will have been examine* by his doctor.
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future perfect passive
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What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? We *shall attend* church on Good Friday
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future
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What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? If Sandy *were* here, this never would have happened.
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subjunctive
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What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? Please *go* to the store for me.
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imperative
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What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? When he finds out, he *will be surprised* that we knew all along.
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future passive
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What is the tense of the *stared* verb in the following sentence? *Stop!*
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imperative
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The ___________ of a verb is the arrangement of its forms according to tense, voice, person, and number.
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conjugation
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" Third person singular, active voice, present perfect.
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Pronoun;it Verb: has seen
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" First person singular, past perfect.
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Pronoun: I Verb: had been
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to have" First person plural, future perfect
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Pronoun: we Verb:shall have had
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to have" Second person singular or plural, past perfect
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Pronoun: you Verb: had had
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" First person singular, future
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Pronoun: I Verb: Shall Be
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" Third person plural, future perfect
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Pronoun: they Verb: will have been
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to have" Third person singular, present
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Pronoun: It Verb: has
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" Third person plural, future perfect, active voice
answer
Pronoun: they Verb: will have seen
question
What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" First person plural, present perfect, passive voice
answer
Pronoun: we Verb: have been seen
question
What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" First person singular, future perfect, passive voice
answer
Pronoun: it Verb: will have been seen
question
What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to see" Third person plural, future, passive voice
answer
Pronoun: they Verb: will be seen
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" First person singular, past
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Pronoun: I Verb: was
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" First person plural, future
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Pronoun: we Verb: will be
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What is the indicated conjugation of the following verb? "to be" Second person plural, future perfect
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Pronoun:you Verb: will have been
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no receiver is named
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intransitive complete
question
subject is the doer
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transitive active
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no action is expressed
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intransitive linking
question
subject is the receiver
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transitive passive
question
systematic arrangement of the forms of a verb according to tense, voice, mood, person, and number
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conjugation
question
Read the following sentence. Decide if the verb is used as transitive or intransitive. The sun *set.*
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intransitive
question
Read the following sentence. Decide if the verb is used as transitive or intransitive. Sammy *watched* television all night.
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transitive
question
Read the following sentence. Decide if the verb is used as transitive or intransitive. The old man *watched* as the children snuck across his field.
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intransitive
question
Read the following sentence. Decide if the verb is used as transitive or intransitive. I *slept over* at Martin's last night.
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intransitive
question
(lie / lay) If you feel ill,___________ down for a while.
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lie
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(lie / lay) The student (past tense)_________ his books on the desk
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layed
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(sit / set) Please don't _____________on the steps
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sit
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(sit / set) Have you (past tense) ____________on the steps before?
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sat
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(rise / raise) The level of the river (past tense)_____________last week.
answer
rose
AP Psychology
Appearance And Behavior
Copy And Paste
Observe And Record
Prejudice
Psychology
PSY CHPT 9 – Flashcards 10 terms

Joel Boykin
10 terms
Preview
PSY CHPT 9 – Flashcards
question
Brainstorming sessions that encourage people to spontaneously suggest new and unusual solutions to a problem are designed to avoid
answer
fixations
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Our intuitions are feelings and thoughts that are best described as
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automatic
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U.S. employees who formerly wanted to defer part of their compensation to a 401(k) retirement plan typically had to lower their take-home pay as they "opted in" to the plan. Now companies are being encouraged to enroll their employees in the 401(k) plan automatically while allowing them to choose to raise their take-home pay by "opting-out" of the 401(k) plan. Under the "opting out" rather than "opt-in" system, enrollments in 401(k) plans soared. This best illustrates the impact of
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framing
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An effort to "consider the opposite" would be most likely to inhibit
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belief perseverance
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When someone mentions hamburgers, Trisha immediately thinks of McDonald's. In this instance, McDonald's is a
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prototype
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Noam Chomsky argues that children's readiness to learn language is a
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biological predisposition
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he part of the left temporal lobe that is involved in understanding language is known as
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Wernicke's area
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After learning that her two best friends had lost their jobs, Mariah began to grossly overestimate the national unemployment rate. Mariah's reaction best illustrates the consequences of
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the availability heuristic
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In trying to solve a potentially complicated problem quickly, we are most likely to rely on
answer
heuristics
question
Those who learn sign language as teens never become as fluent as children exposed to sign language from birth. This best illustrates the importance of ________ for mastering language.
answer
a critical period
1970s And 1980s
Books
Copy And Paste
Five Forces Model
Short Attention Span
Social Networking Sites
World War
TCM 131 3 – Flashcard 19 terms

Marguerite Castillo
19 terms
Preview
TCM 131 3 – Flashcard
question
Online booksellers such as Amazon control more than ___ percent of the US book business across all formats
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50%
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Most of the books carried to the New World by the American colonists were:
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Religious in nature
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After its development by Gutenberg, the printing press spread rather slowly throughout Europe
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False
question
Within the e-publishing Industry, only new or untested authors are making their works available online
answer
False
question
The book you bought (or should have bought) for this class is an example of which sales category of books
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Higher education
question
As opposed to other mass media, conglomeration has yet to strike the book publishing industry
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False
question
About ____ New and reprinted book titlesare issued each year in the United States
answer
3 million
question
In the last 10 years, which platforms have seen the largest increase in the number of minutes 8 to 18 year olds spend per day reading
answer
Books, online magazines and newspapers
question
The American novel flowered in the 1880s because of all but which of the following
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Increased leisure time
question
The publishing of books initially or exclusively online is Known as
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E publishing
question
Fahrenheit 451 was written by
answer
Ray Bradbury
question
More than half of the US book business is controlled by
answer
Amazon.com
question
The sale of paperback books accounts for a relatively small portion of bookstore sales
answer
False
question
One of the reasons books are seen as powerful cultural agents is because they are agents of social change
answer
True
question
US publisher Robert de graff copied the success of ___ ,who introduced the first paperbacks in London in the midst of the great depression
answer
Allen lane
question
In other words, publishing had been largely a___industry
answer
Cottage
question
Aliteracy is a form of self censorship
answer
True
question
Books that are produced for elementary and high schools are called
answer
El-hi
question
Uncle Tom's cabin was originally written as
answer
A magazine serial
Benefits And Drawbacks
Come Into Conflict
Copy And Paste
History of Europe
Schools And Universities
The Fall Of Rome
Theology
Western Roman Empire
World History
World History And Geography
Unit 8: Medieval Christian Europe Part I – Flashcards 25 terms

Larry Charles
25 terms
Preview
Unit 8: Medieval Christian Europe Part I – Flashcards
question
Justinian
answer
This emperor instituted legal changes that guided society, and those ideas spread to other parts of Europe.
question
Dark Ages
answer
The Middle Ages are often referred to as this because of the political disorder that resulted from waves of invasions in Europe.
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Growth of the Byzantine Empire
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This resulted from Constantinople controlling key trade routes that linked Asia with Europe.
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West Coast
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People living in this part of Europe had to be prepared for raids from ferocious invaders from Scandinavia.
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Formation of feudal kingdoms
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This was a result of the fall of the western Roman empire.
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Feudalism
answer
Contributed to the social changes found with in the Manor System.
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Manorialism
answer
This system provided a way for feudal lords to efficiently manage large estates.
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Self-sufficient
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The manor was a ? community that could grow its own food and attend to its religious needs.
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Women
answer
The roles for this group of people were often determined by birth and social order. Examples of roles they could play were household managers, spinners and weavers.
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Military service
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By providing ?, knights demonstrated characteristics of the social hierarchy of feudalism.
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Children
answer
If you were a peasant in this group during medieval times, you worked with your family in the fields. If you were a noble in this group during medieval times, you were sent away from home to learn from relatives or friends.
question
Traveling Friars
answer
One way that Christianity spread across Europe was because of ? that lived and preached among the common people.
question
Church Power
answer
A chapter in a textbook that contains information about interdict and papal supremacy would be about ?
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Eastern Orthodox
answer
Prior to the Great Schism, the ? church allowed priests to marry and the emperor had authority over the pope.
question
Crusades
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The ? led to an increase in the number of wars between religions and cultural diffusion between different regions.
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Concordat of Worms
answer
As a result of the ? the Church was given the power to elect and invest bishops but the emperor could invest them with fiefs.
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Magna Carta
answer
This document provided protection for English citizens but did not provide equal protection.
question
Increased power of French monarchy
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Granting charters to new towns, introducing a national tax and expanding land holdings led to the
question
Central Rule
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Hugh Capet, Phillip Augustus, and William the Conqueror were all feudal monarchs who took measures to strengthen ?. They did this by setting up government bureaucracies, using a money driven economy and instituting uniform laws and justice systems.
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Power
answer
Secular and religious leaders struggled over ? during the Middle Ages.
question
Rural serfs
answer
Medieval Europe was characterized by a large population of ?
question
Icons & Papal Supremacy
answer
The Roman Catholic Church and the Greek Orthodox Church disagreed over these two items...
question
Money-based system of exchange
answer
The economic impact of the Crusades was the development of a
question
Reconquista
answer
This movement led to the expulsion of non-Christians from Spain.
question
Law Investiture
answer
Pope Gregory VII sought to limit the power of the Holy Roman emperor on this matter.
AP Human Geography
Copy And Paste
High Middle Ages
History And Culture
History of Europe
Joan Of Arc
Social Studies
Towns And Cities
Urban Geography
Medieval Europe: Chapters 4 and 5 – Flashcards 41 terms

August Dunbar
41 terms
Preview
Medieval Europe: Chapters 4 and 5 – Flashcards
question
Where were towns in medieval Europe often located and why?
answer
Most towns were located on the country side because it was very busy in the center of town.
question
What contributed to the growth of towns in medieval Europe?
answer
Trade contributed to the growth of towns.
question
How was the town able to become independent of a feudal lord?
answer
They became independent byurchasing a royal charter.
question
What were guilds? Why were they established?
answer
Guilds were people that oversaw trade and productions of goods they provided health and protection for the people doing a certain kind of work. They were established so that that group of guild would be able to get more money.
question
How did guilds help their members and families of their members?
answer
Their taxes took care of members who they were sick and unable to work.
question
How did trade change from the beggining of the Middle Ages to the High Middle Ages?
answer
At the Middle Ages, most trade was in luxury goods, so only the rich people could afford it. In the high Middle Ages, more local people were able to buy and sell more kinds of products.
question
How did merchants become the most wealthy and powerful citizens of towns?
answer
They became so wealthy because they ran sizable businesses and looked for trading opportunities far from home.
question
How were Jews often mistreated in medieval Europe? What opportunity was open to them?
answer
They were mistreated because laws supported people coul, they couldn't own land, and lords took their property. Jews could become bankers and moneylenders.
question
Describe the typical home in a medieval town.?
answer
Houses were very small, crowded, built of wood, and very narrow so could be up to 4 stories high.
question
What was difficult about growing up in a medieval town?
answer
In poorer neighborhoods, families lived in one roomed houses and they worked where they lived. For the wealthy, their houses where very cold and a fireplace was the only source of light. Most children died before adulthood due to all the diseases going around, and the dirty/poopy water everyone had to drink and bathe in.
question
How were the lives of medieval girls different form those of modern girls?
answer
They had to marry young(15) and raise the children up on her own.
question
List at least three different conditions in medieval town that led to the spread of disease.
answer
Garbage was tossed into streams and canals, rats and fleas were commen and often carried diseases, and they emptied their bathrooms into streams.
question
What were some commen diseases in medieval Europe?
answer
Measles, Cholera, Small Pox, and Scarlet Fox
question
Describe two methods for deciding the guilt or innocence of accused criminals in the Early Middle Ages.?
answer
They had to pass dangerous tests like being thrown into a well. If they drowned, they were not guilty and if they floated they were guilty.
question
What are some ways in which criminals were punished?
answer
For lesser crimes, people were fined or put to the stocks. For larger crimes they could be hanged or burned at the stakes in a public crowd.
question
What changes to the court system helped protect individual rights in the early 1100s of England?
answer
They decided to use commen law which is a body of rulings made by judges or very old traditional laws that become part of a nations legal system.
question
What changes did Henery II make to the English legal system and how did these changes affect feudalism?
answer
Henery allowed people to have more power, which weakened the feudal system.
question
What is habeas corpus?
answer
Bring the body to the court, right to a speedy trial.
question
What is the Magna Carta?
answer
A document giving more power to the people, not King. It leads to the revolution of democratic thought.
question
What is the Model Parliment?
answer
Expands the rights of the Magna Carta to the commeners.
question
How is the English Government like the U.S government?
answer
Parliment Congress House of Lords Senate House of commens House of Reps
question
Why is Joan of Arc a heretic according to England?
answer
Because she saw a vision that helped the French. They also think that she is a which.
question
What is a heretic?
answer
A person who believes who holds belief that are contrary to a set of religious teachings.
question
How is the Bubonic Plague karma?
answer
In the Crusades, England kills many people in the Middle East. The plague comes from the Middle East and killed millions of Europeans.
question
What changes did the Magna Carta bring in the English government?
answer
The Magna Carta gave the noble people more power and less power to the king. Now whenever the king wanted to set a new law, he had to check with the nobles first.
question
What was the model Parliment and why was it created?
answer
It was created by King Edward I and was/is a governing body. It was created because the feudal system was corrupting and the Magna Carta could no longer support everyone.
question
What was the effect of creating the Magna Carta and creating democratic institutions?
answer
The Magna Carta strengthened the nobels in their power, but declined feudalism.
question
What was the effect of the Bubonic plague speading through most of Europe?
answer
It weakened feudalism and wiped out a lot of the population.
question
What was the effect England taking over part of French land that each nation thinks is their own?
answer
The Hundreds Year War begins with the two major battles of Orlèans and Crecy.
question
Guilds are just like _____.
answer
Unions. Can help fellow craftsman that do the same craft to make ore money, have a better reputation, and protect each other if somebody else attacks their nation. Like the teacher Union. If someone attacks the teacher, they protect their own.
question
Guilds are from what class?
answer
The middle class, a new class just invented.
question
Battle of Orlèans?
answer
A win over the English with Joan of Arc where she didn't fight just rally the French. She was dressed in armor. Is a French saint.
question
Why do the British want to kill Joan of Arc?
answer
She sees a vision form God, so it a witch. And she rallied the French to kill Their people.
question
How did the Bubonic Plague Spread?
answer
Originates in Central Asia then travels through trade routes to China, India, Middle East, and Europe, then carried on a ship to Central Asia, the Black Sea, and Italy, then spreads north and west to Europe and England.
question
What was the plague called the Black Death? What were some of the common symptoms?
answer
It was called the Black Deathrobably because of the black and blue swellings that appears on the skin of victims called bobous. Symptoms included fever, vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and swelling/bumps.
question
How was the plague spread?
answer
They were spread by fleas that got passes to rats and when all the rats dies, the fleas bit the humans.
question
How did the outbreak of the bubonic plague in Europe contribute to the decline of fuedalism and the rise of democratic thought?
answer
It killed off a lot of the population so the system could no longer work.
question
How did the Hundred Years' War start?
answer
It sated what the Enfoish Monarchs claimed loan in Farnce and the French Kings became angry and wanted to take it back.
question
Why were the English able to defeat the French in early battles, such as the one at Crécy?
answer
Because the French had a feudal army that relied on horse mounted Knights. The English were lightly armored knights with long bows.
question
Who was Joan of Arc? What did she do for the French during the Hundred Years' War?
answer
Joan was a French teenage girl who saw a vision of God and became the French's "rallier". During the battle of Orlèans, she led them to victory though she did not fight but was dresses in armor. She was killed by the British charged with witchcraft and just being with the French that killed so many people.
question
In the Hundred Year's war, who did it contribute to the decline of feudalism and the rise of democratic thought?
answer
Because it split apart nations and money/taxes had to go to their country.
AP Psychology
Cognitive Psychology
Copy And Paste
Fame And Fortune
Negative Self Image
Psychology
Psych 7A Chapter 9 – Flashcards 38 terms

Mary Browning
38 terms
Preview
Psych 7A Chapter 9 – Flashcards
question
Cognitive psychologists are most directly concerned with the study of
answer
thinking
question
A mental grouping of similar objects, events, or people is a(n)
answer
concept
question
To promote cognitive efficiency, concepts are often organized into
answer
category hierarchies
question
A best example of a category of objects, events, or people if called a(n)
answer
prototype
question
Most people take less time to identify a cow as a mammal than a mouse as a mammal because a cow more closely resembles their mammal
answer
prototype
question
In testing thousands of different materials for use as a lightbulb filaments, Thomas Edison best illustrated a problem-solving approach known as
answer
trial and error
question
Logical, methodical step-by-step procedures for solving problems are called
answer
algorithms
question
Heuristics are
answer
simple thinking strategies for solving problems quickly and efficiently
question
In trying to solve a potentially complicated problem quickly, we are most likely to rely on
answer
heuristics
question
A sudden realization of the solution to a problem is called
answer
insight
question
The tendency to search of information that supports our preconceptions is called
answer
confirmation bias
question
Jahmal cites his cousin Luana's many car accidents as evidence that women are worse drivers than men. He overlooks the fact that his wife and three daughters have had far fewer car accidents than he and his two sons. Jahmal's prejudicial conclusion about women's driving skills best illstrates the effects of
answer
confirmation bias
question
A mental set is a
answer
tendency to approach a problem in a way that has been successful in the past
question
When given a candle, tacks, and a box of matches and asked to mount the candle on a wall, people often fail to think of using the matchbox as a candleholder. This best illustrates
answer
functional fixedness
question
The availability heuristic refers to our tendency to
answer
judge the likelihood of an event in terms of how readily instances of its occurrence are remembered
question
Many people overestimate how long they actually remain awake during restless nights because their moments of wakefulness are easier to recall than their moments of sleep. This best illustrates the impact of
answer
the availability heuristic
question
Emotion-laden images of unusual but vivid cases of abducted children may lead many parents to experience exaggerated fears of letting their children walk to school. The exaggerated fears best illustrate the impact of
answer
the availability heuristic
question
Steve was sure he answered at least 70 questions correctly on his biology test. In fact, he was right on only 55 items. Steve's misjudgment of his test performance illustrates
answer
overconfidence
question
People are often positively impressed by research that supports their own point of view. Asking them whether they would have been equally impressed by the same research if it had provided results that disputed their point of view is likely to inhibit
answer
belief perseverance
question
Without awareness, we often use highly adaptive heuristics. This best illustrates the value of
answer
intuition
question
Experienced chicken sexers can tell you a chick's sex at a glance, yet cannot tell you how they do it. Their acquired expertise is such an automatic habit that it feelslike
answer
intuition
question
People told that a chemical in the air is projected to kill 10 out of every 10,000 people feel more frightened than if told the fatality risk is one-tenth of a 1 percent. This best illustrates the importance of
answer
framing
question
Ojinska sold many more raffle tickets when she told potential buyers they had a 10 percent chance of winning a prize than whens he told them they had a 90 percent chance of not winning. This best illustrates
answer
the framing effect
question
Spoken, written, or signed words and the ways they are combined to communicate meaning constitute
answer
language
question
Phonemes are
answer
the smallest distinctive sound units of a language
question
The smallest speech units that carry meaning are called
answer
morphemes
question
In English, adjectives precede nouns. This is a rule of syntax, which is the
answer
orderly arrangement of words into grammatically sensible sentences
question
A European visitor to the United States asked a taxi driver, "Can you please a ride to the airport me give?" This visiter has apparently not yet mastered the ______ of the English language.
answer
syntax
question
The spontaneous utterance of a variety of sounds by infants is called
answer
babbling
question
During the earliest stage of speech development, infants
answer
make some speech sounds that do not occur in their parents' native language
question
Two-year-old Dirk's sentences--"Dad come," "Mom laugh," and "Truck gone"--are examples of
answer
telegraphic speech
question
The principles of learning emphasized by B.F. Skinner are most helpful in explaining why children
answer
add new words to their vocabulary
question
According to Chomsky, the fact that young children generate all sorts of sentences they have never heard before suggests that
answer
language skills are not developed simply through the processes of imitation and reinforcement
question
Chomsky's theory of language development suggests that children have an inborn
answer
language acquisition device
question
Research suggests that humans can most easily master the grammar of a second language during
answer
childhood
question
Which of the following was cited by Whorf as evidence in support of the linguistic determinism hypothesis?
answer
The Hopi cannot readily think about the past because their language has no past tense for verbs
question
Perceived differences between various shades of color are greater if people assign a different name to each hue. This best illustrates the influence of
answer
universal grammar of language acquisition
question
Great apes, dolphins, and elephants have demonstrated self-awareness by
answer
recognizing themselves in a mirror
1970s And 1980s
Copy And Paste
Linguistics
Public Speaking
Fundamentals of Public Speaking – Flashcards 225 terms

Steven Colyer
225 terms
Preview
Fundamentals of Public Speaking – Flashcards
question
Mass media is the most interactive sphere of communication today.
answer
FALSE. (page 15) This is the least interactive sphere of communication. Nonetheless, mainstream media still occupy an enormous amount of our time as we search for information and entertainment.
question
Most Americans never use the skills learned in a public speaking class outside of a classroom setting.
answer
FALSE. (page 9) A public speaking course gives you a chance to develop communication skills that you can use inside and outside the classroom.
question
The "five arts of public speaking" identified by Cicero are not relevant to public speaking in a digital age.
answer
FALSE. (page 8) The Roman statesman Cicero (104 - 43 BCE) categorized the elements of public communication into five "arts of public speaking," or canons of rhetoric, that still apply today.
question
Even good speakers may experience speech anxiety.
answer
TRUE. (page 10) Nearly everyone gets nervous when speaking in public.
question
Public speaking is a unique form of communication unlike everyday speaking contexts such as those in the classroom or workplace.
answer
FALSE. (page 3) You often may be required to give presentations in other classes, and this course helps prepare you for that. Effective speaking skills give you tremendous advantage at work, too. Overall, public speaking ability helps you become a more active member of your community, allows you to participate more fully in organizations you belong to, and boosts your self-confidence in both your personal and professional life.
question
Most audience members will continue to listen to a speech even if it does not seem relevant to them.
answer
FALSE. (page 4) Audiences demand that what they hear is relevant to them or they will tune the speaker out.
question
Story-telling is an important component of public communication because stories are central to human experience.
answer
TRUE. (page 9) Because storytelling is so basic to human communication and sheer survival, today's audiences welcome narratives in speeches as much as their ancestors did long ago.
question
A public speaking course can help you sharpen your listening skills.
answer
TRUE. (page 10) A public speaking course sharpens your listening skills.
question
Ethical issues for public speakers and audiences have become less complicated due to the accessibility of information available.
answer
FALSE. (page 18) Computers and digital technology have intensified and expanded the range of ethical issues that speakers and audiences face.
question
The demands made on speakers have decreased in the last decade due to the development of presentational media that can captivate audience's attention.
answer
FALSE. (page 19) Over-reliance on presentation software, especially digital slides, often detracts from your message.
question
In what ways has public speaking changed as a result of the digital age?
answer
Answer: Speakers have a wider array of information sources to choose from. (Page 3 - The information-driven, knowledge-based world we live in offers many opportunities for public speaking and provides you with an array of options for preparing and delivering speeches.)
question
Transferable skills learned in public speaking include all of the following EXCEPT:
answer
learning how to convince audiences with little advance preparation.
question
Which ancient Greek philosopher has had the greatest influence on the teaching of public speaking?
answer
Aristotle (page 7). Aristotle's ideas about oratory were so influential that he became a key figure in the development of communication as an academic discipline many centuries later.
question
Imagine that in order to encourage audiences to donate money to a local animal shelter, one of your classmates shows several photographs of puppies that were abandoned by their owners. By encouraging audiences to feel sorry for these dogs, which type of rhetorical proof did your classmate use?
answer
Pathos (page 7) Refers to a speaker's appeals to our emotions.
question
In order to grad the audience's interest during a presentation about a local farmer's market, a classmate describes the strawberries sold there as "sweet and scrumptious." Which of Cicero's "arts of public speaking" did your classmate attend to in choosing these words?
answer
Style. (page 8) Involves the imagery you use to bring a speech's content to life.
question
In preparing your speech, you decide to use a cliffhanger story as an attention getter, then share the ending in you conclusion. Which of Cicero's "arts of public speaking" did you attend to?
answer
Arrangement. (page 8)
question
Being audience-centered means which of the following is true?
answer
All of these: * Speakers must create their speech with listeners in mind. * Speakers must learn about their audience members. * Speakers must remember that audience members have access to information and can fact-check the speech. * Speakers should use stories and visual materials when appropriate to keep the audience's attention.
question
Jose is giving a speech about safer sex at a middle school, a high school, and a college, all in the same day. Although his facts and sources remain consistent, he modifies the contents and delivery of his speech for each group. Which element of public speaking is Jose considering here?
answer
Audience (page 17)
question
If someone decides to show a video clip during a presentation to illustrate a main point in a speech, what element of the current model of communication does the video clip represent?
answer
Channel (page 17)
question
Public speaking was called ____________when studied by Aristotle.
answer
Rhetoric (page 7)
question
To listen ________________, listeners must give speakers their full attention so that others do the same for them in return.
answer
Reciprocally (page 10)
question
The process of ____________________involves familiarizing yourself with a fearful situation so that you may become comfortable with it.
answer
Habituation (page 10)
question
A speaker's __________________refers to how much an audience views the speaker as friendly, competent, and trustworthy.
answer
Credibility (page 10)
question
The importance of adapting speeches to the specific situation and audience is known as ___________ communication.
answer
Audience-centered
question
Spheres of communication-mass media, face-to-face, expressive technology, and mediated personal communication-are distinct in form and function, but people act within multiple spheres at the same time. This overlap is called __________________.
answer
Convergence (page 16)
question
Taking a public speaking class can help people feel less anxious about speaking in public.
answer
TRUE
question
Memorizing your entire speech is a good strategy for reducing public speaking anxiety.
answer
FALSE
question
Students who procrastinate usually experience more speech anxiety than those who prepare their speeches in advance.
answer
TRUE
question
Memorizing your introduction and conclusion is a good strategy for reducing public speaking anxiety.
answer
TRUE
question
On the day of your speech, it is a good idea to avoid using your voice before your presentation.
answer
FALSE
question
If others speak before you on the day of your speech, it is a good idea to review your notes while others are presenting.
answer
FALSE
question
When you feel butterflies in your stomach before speaking, you can reduce your anxiety by labeling it "excitement" instead of "fear."
answer
TRUE
question
To use visualization to decrease speech anxiety, you should imagine the worst possible scenario that you think could occur so that you can handle it.
answer
FALSE
question
The more you care about your topic, the more likely you are to be nervous.
answer
FALSE
question
It is natural, normal, and beneficial to feel somewhat nervous when speaking in public.
answer
TRUE
question
Which of the following is most likely to help you relax before a speech?
answer
Taking deep breaths
question
If you are nervous about the opinion the audience will form of you, what question should you ask yourself?
answer
What impression will I make?
question
What method for feeling more positive about public speaking is illustrated if you imagine yourself walking up to the podium, speaking to an audience, and receiving a round of applause after your conclusion.
answer
Visualization
question
Imagine that your friend tells you that she knows she is going to "bomb" her presentation; you tell her that you believe she will "wow" the crowd. Which form of speech anxiety management did you use to help your friend feel more positive about her speech?
answer
Relabeling
question
If you do breathing exercises that enable individuals to identify and relax particular muscle areas one at a time, you are employing which of the following forms of speech anxiety management?
answer
Relaxation
question
Which breathing technique is a useful method for reducing public speaking anxiety?
answer
Meditation breathing Diaphragmatic breathing Tension-release breathing
question
If you begin to feel nervous in the middle of a speech, which of the following strategies might help you reduce your nervousness?
answer
Relabeling your feelings as a positive source of energy
question
After a presentation you realize that you were most comfortable when you observed audience members in the front row nodding their heads in reaction to your speech. Which strategy for managing anxiety after a presentation did you use?
answer
Identifying useful strategies for managing speech anxiety
question
Imagine that during a presentation, you begin to feel nervous. As you feel nervous, you start to ask yourself whether you might have done something wrong to cause your anxiety. What strategy for managing speech anxiety have you forgotten at this point?
answer
Don't over-analyze your anxiety.
question
The _____________effect lends a speaker to think people observe them more carefully than they actually do.
answer
Spotlight
question
The _____________occurs when we believe that speech anxiety is more noticeable to the audience than it really is.
answer
Illusion of transparency
question
The method of managing speech anxiety known as __________ involves giving positive meaning to feelings associated with public speaking.
answer
Relabeling
question
________________ involves thinking through the sequence of events and imagining how the event will unfold positively.
answer
Visualization
question
_____________ breathing involves breathing with your diaphragm and paying attention to the entire process of breathing.
answer
Meditative
question
The ______________theory states that when people face unfamiliar situations their level of anxiety increases.
answer
Uncertainty reduction
question
Digital technology has increased the ethical responsibilities of both public speakers and audiences.
answer
TRUE
question
Sexism, racism, and hate speech are examples of plagiarism.
answer
FALSE
question
The more someone is ethnocentric, the more likely they are to distrust someone from a different ethnic background.
answer
TRUE
question
Correct paraphrasing involves changing 2 - 4 words per sentence of the original source.
answer
FALSE
question
Research shows that about 50% of the U.S. college students admit they have plagiarized.
answer
TRUE
question
Plagiarism can be intentional or unintentional.
answer
TRUE
question
If you are paraphrasing, you don't need to provide an oral citation.
answer
FALSE
question
The interpretive element of listening is influenced by your culture and society rather than the individual.
answer
TRUE
question
It is illegal to use a clip from a movie without crediting the movie's title.
answer
TRUE
question
Which of the following kinds of speech is NOT protected by the First Amendment to the United States Constitution?
answer
All of these kinds of speech are protected by the First Amendment. * Speech that is critical of the United States government * Speech that advocates abolishing religion * Speech that advocates that women are superior to men * Speech that advocates the superiority of one race over another
question
Which of these is an example of appreciative listening?
answer
Listening to a stand-up comedian.
question
Which of the following requires an oral citation during a speech?
answer
* The use of a pie graph downloaded from the US Housing website. * A quote from a local real estate agent about buying a house that you quote directly. * A statistic about the number of homeowners in the United States that you paraphrase.
question
You show respect for a speaker's ideas by:
answer
Listening respectfully before responding.
question
It is a week before you are going to deliver a speech in class and you learn that one of your classmates strongly disagrees with a point you are about to make. Which of the following choices represents an ethical response to this classmate?
answer
Encouraging the diverse opinions during your questions and answer session
question
Which is NOT a reason for citing your sources when you deliver a speech?
answer
It means you no longer have to worry about plagiarism.
question
Imagine that during a speech the speaker states that women who wear veils as part of their Islamic heritage are not as intelligent as women in the United States that do not wear veils. What kind of unethical communication is this an example of?
answer
Ethnocentrism
question
Imagine that a speaker tells an audience, "If you are traveling to a foreign country, you should ask your physician whether or not he thinks you need to get any vaccinations before you leave the United States." What kind of unethical communication is this an example of?
answer
Sexist language
question
One of your classmates decides to check her cell phone for text messages in the middle of another classmate's presentation. Which strategy for good listening is this violating?
answer
Blocking out distractions
question
________________ occurs when a person thinks her or his perspective is better than anyone else's.
answer
Ethnocentrism
question
_______________ is an intellectual property law that protects an author's original work from being used by others.
answer
Copyright
question
The psychological and emotional tone that develops as people interact with others is called communication __________.
answer
Climate
question
______________ refers to words that are hurtful and degrading to racial, ethnic, and sexual minority groups.
answer
Hate speech
question
________________refers to presenting someone else's material as if it was your own.
answer
Plagiarism
question
Brief references to sources that public speakers may use during their speeches are called ________________.
answer
Oral citations
question
Respect, open-mindedness, and active listening form the basis of ___________ ethics.
answer
Dialogic
question
When you brainstorm for topic development you list ideas into two categories: major points and minor points.
answer
FALSE
question
A photograph or other image may be a useful resource for generating ideas for a speech topic.
answer
TRUE
question
Research shows that brainstorming works best when it is done in several sessions.
answer
TRUE
question
It is usually a bad idea to choose a topic that you know little about, even if the topic interests you.
answer
FALSE
question
Persuasive speeches aim to change audience members' thinking and to possibly even get audience members to take specific action.
answer
TRUE
question
Some topics have too few available resources to create a speech.
answer
TRUE
question
A presentation outline helps to keep you focused during the initial planning stages of developing your speech.
answer
FALSE
question
It is useful to include as many of the ideas about your topic as you can in your working outline.
answer
FALSE
question
Every speech has one overall general purpose: to inform, to persuade, or to educate.
answer
FALSE
question
Once you have identified your thesis, you should NOT change it as you research your topic.
answer
FALSE
question
Which of these is an example of a specific purpose statement?
answer
To inform my audience about the three main causes of retail shrink
question
Imagine that a classmate has chosen to speak about a rare art form that she knows little about. Little has been written about the topic and the rest of the class is eager to learn about it. What consideration might influence your classmate to choose a different topic?
answer
Resource availability
question
After you brainstorm and research ideas for main points of your speech, what should you do next?
answer
Group the ideas by theme
question
Which of the following topics is the least appropriate for an after-dinner speech?
answer
Cancer rates among children in the United States
question
Which of the following represents a specific purpose statement?
answer
To persuade my audience to eat more vegetables
question
A speech with the following specific purpose statement, "To inspire my audience with true animal rescue stories," is an example of which type of general purpose?
answer
To entertain
question
Which of the following represents a possible thesis for a speech about household pets?
answer
Poodles are good pets because they are loyal, dependable, and energetic.
question
Which type of outline limits main points to short phrases and may be revised during the research process?
answer
Working
question
After choosing a topic, which of the following is the strongest reason to consider changing that topic?
answer
You have too few available resources to research the topic
question
What kind of outline assists you in practicing and delivering your speech after you research and initial planning are finished?
answer
Complete-sentence
question
A _________________sums up the core of the speech in a single sentence.
answer
Thesis
question
____________ refers to a free-form way of generating ideas for a speech.
answer
Brainstorming
question
A _______________ outline puts all of the key parts of the speech together and guides you through making the presentation notes.
answer
Complete-sentence
question
A ___________________ statement is a concise statement articulating what the speaker hopes to achieve by giving the speech.
answer
Specific purpose
question
If a speech has _______________, that means the ideas that make up any main heading or subheading have a logical relationship to one another.
answer
Internal consistency
question
Accomplished speakers use audience analysis in the early stages of speech preparation so that they do not need to analyze the audience during the actual presentation.
answer
FALSE
question
To establish credibility and impress your audience, you will want to use jargon and specialized language to emphasize your expertise.
answer
FALSE
question
When your audience includes two distinct groups, it is most effective to direct the first part of your speech to one segment and the last part of your speech to the other.
answer
FALSE
question
Observing the audience you will be speaking to is one way to gather demographic information about them.
answer
TRUE
question
An attitude reflects what someone thinks is right, good, worthy, and important.
answer
FALSE
question
A voluntary audience is more motivated to listen.
answer
TRUE
question
It is impossible to identify your audience's attitudes, beliefs, or values through observation of their behaviors.
answer
FALSE
question
It is appropriate to request information about an audience's composition from an organization that has invited you to speak.
answer
TRUE
question
An audience-research questionnaire should be at least 3 pages long to develop extensive data about your audience.
answer
FALSE
question
The best time to distribute and collect an audience questionnaire is well in advance of your speech so that you may use the information to guide your speech preparation process.
answer
TRUE
question
Which kind of audience represents the particular group of subgroup a message sender is trying to reach?
answer
Target audience
question
Karin introduced her speech by stating, "As college students we don't need to worry about how the current immigration policy affects our lives." Karin didn't realize that several of the students in class had relatives who were affected by the policy. What techniques for speaking to diverse audiences did Karin overlook?
answer
Being sensitive to all audience members throughout the speech
question
To appeal to those in a media saturated environment, you can do all of the following EXCEPT:
answer
Develop your speech as a series of fast-moving sound bites.
question
Renee is presenting her senior thesis project to a group of professors, other students in her major, and other students with different majors. Because her project used terminology that might be advanced even for a senior in her major, she defined the terms early on and reminded listeners of their definitions occasionally but did not eliminate the terms from her speech. Which technique for speaking to diverse audiences did Renee attend to have here?
answer
Using language that appeals to all audience members
question
Which of these is most easily changed by exposure to new evidence or a new argument?
answer
A belief
question
Which of these can influence a person's standpoint?
answer
All of these: * A value * An attitude * A belief
question
Why might a person ask an open-ended question instead of a closed-ended question?
answer
To elicit in-depth information
question
Which of the following is a closed-ended question?
answer
Do you currently volunteer for the American Red Cross?
question
Which of the following is an open-ended question?
answer
What happens to you when you die?
question
To introduce her speech about skills for maintaining a romantic relationship, Rhonda noted that Valentine's Day was only a week away, and that people may be particularly concerned about the status of their love lives. What aspect of the setting did Rhonda consider in her introduction?
answer
The occasion
question
____________ are key characteristics of populations often used to divide a population into subgroups.
answer
Demographics
question
A(n) ___________________refers to how a person feels about something.
answer
Attitude
question
_______________________refer to psychological concepts such as standpoints, values, beliefs, and attitudes that intersect to shape how we act as individuals.
answer
Psychographic facts
question
A(n) ____________________refers to the location or place from which an individual views, interprets, and evaluates the world.
answer
Standpoint
question
A ___________ audience listens to a speech because it is required.
answer
Captive
question
A metasearch engine has indexed the entire web, whereas a regular search engine has not.
answer
FALSE
question
Dictionaries provide a wide array of information including visual images that may be useful for speeches.
answer
TRUE
question
Books are the best starting point for nearly any speech topic.
answer
FALSE
question
The research process consists of three phases: 1) preparing for the search, 2) gathering information, and 3) evaluating the information found.
answer
TRUE
question
The two main tasks in beginning an interview are to establish your expertise and to provide orientation to the person you are interviewing.
answer
FALSE
question
"Don't you think the president is doing a great job?" is an example of a leading question.
answer
TRUE
question
The use of most website images and video excerpts in classroom speeches violates copyright laws until you get written permission from the authors.
answer
FALSE
question
If you are interviewing an expert on your speech topic whom you have never met before, you should limit small talk and get to the point of the interview quickly.
answer
TRUE
question
One of the benefits of researching sources from diverse perspectives is that it helps ensure that you will speak ethically.
answer
TRUE
question
When examining a source, you should consider what, if any, information has been omitted from the author's argument or reasoning.
answer
TRUE
question
For extremely current and up to the minute information, you will want to consult with
answer
The real-time web.
question
Which of the following resources provides the most current print information available?
answer
Newspapers
question
If you wanted to know more about the activities and concerns of a professional or academic organization, which Internet resource might be most useful?
answer
Discussion lists or boards
question
Imagine that you are researching the role of women in high school athletics. First you conduct an Internet search using the words "high school" and "female athletes" in your search. Then you replace the words "high school" with "secondary education." Which Internet search strategy have you just used?
answer
A variety of keywords
question
Which of the following is the first major step in the interview process?
answer
Determine the purpose of the interview
question
Imagine that you are interviewing a local police officer, and you ask her about the prevalence of crime in your neighborhood. When the officer states that crime has decreased in the area in recent months, you ask, "Why do you think crime has decreased?" What kind of question have you just asked?
answer
A secondary question
question
When should you use an open-ended question in an interview?
answer
When the interviewee is knowledgeable and feels free to discuss the topic
question
Which of the following is a strategy for conducting a research interview effectively?
answer
Record the interviewee electronically with the interviewee's permission.
question
Which of these is a credible source for information on NASCAR racing?
answer
An interview with a man who used to race cars professionally
question
You are researching fast-food-eating habits of college students, and you interview several people on campus. One student says, "No one eats at the Super Salad Station because it's gross!" When you ask if she has ever eaten there or knows anyone who has, she says no. Shen then remarks, "But look! Every other restaurant in the Student Commons has a long line except Super Salad Station! Definitely gross." Which criteria of good evidence is this information missing?
answer
Validity
question
___________ sources express an author's own ideas from original research, and secondary sources represent others' interpretations of the sources based on original research.
answer
Primary
question
When conducting a web search, __________________ refers to how closely a webpage's content is related to the keywords used during a speech.
answer
Relevance
question
_________ are terms associated with a topic that are used for information related to the topic.
answer
Keywords
question
A _____________ is one that develops from the answer to an initial question.
answer
Secondary question
question
A _________________is one that is impartial and unbiased.
answer
Neutral question
question
The weakness of using a narrative for public speaking is that the story can distract from the focus of the speech.
answer
TRUE
question
Narratives can be true or fictional stories, bu to work they must have a ring of truth.
answer
FALSE
question
When an example runs counter to what statistical evidence shows, audience members find the examples more believable.
answer
TRUE
question
Mythos are appeals to cultural beliefs and values.
answer
TRUE
question
The negative side of using statistics is that they can have a hidden agenda.
answer
TRUE
question
A strength of using an example is that it helps clarify a complex or abstract concept.
answer
TRUE
question
Literal and figurative analogies both appeal to a sense of logic.
answer
FALSE. Literal and figurative analogies work by making connections between unrelated things.
question
The more facts you use the more persuasive your speech will be.
answer
FALSE. Too many facts or statistics can be overwhelming and the audience will lose interest.
question
Celebrity testimony is only effective if the celebrity is also an expert on the topic.
answer
FALSE. Celebrity testimony is persuasive, even if the celebrity is not an expert on the topic.
question
Interviewing students about the costs of books and other supplies for school is an example of using expert testimony.
answer
FALSE. This is an example of lay testimony.
question
What kind of stories tell us what an organization values and how people should act in the organization?
answer
Institutional stories
question
In order to engage and audience, a speaker in a college public speaking class tells a story about the origins of the school's mascot. The speaker explains that according to school legend, an eagle flew into the football stadium and moments later, the school's team got the winning touchdown. What type of evidence did this speaker use?
answer
Narrative
question
What kind of example would be most effective in a speech about the silent film era that focused on relatively unknown or unpopular films?
answer
Specific examples
question
Which of these kinds of evidence is best for demonstrating the scope of a problem?
answer
Facts and statistics
question
Imagine that during a speech about going on a job interview, the speaker tells the audience, "A job interview is like a first date; it is important that you make a good first impression." What kind of definition did this speaker use?
answer
Figurative analogy
question
To describe an exotic fruit, the persimmon, to students in a cooking class, the cooking instructor states, "The persimmon looks like a peach, but has the consistency of an apple." What kind of definition did the instructor use?
answer
Liberal analogy
question
When charitable organizations use famous television personalities or musicians to act as spokespersons for their causes, what kind of testimony does the organization rely on to generate support?
answer
Celebrity
question
Cigarette boxes frequently include the warning, "The Surgeon General reports that cigarette smoking may be hazardous to your health." What kind of testimony does this message use to support their point that cigarette smoking may be physically harmful?
answer
Expert
question
Which popular media source is used by over half of Americans for in-depth coverage of political issues?
answer
Newspapers
question
Which of these was the first electronic mass medium?
answer
Radio
question
___________ is a type of evidence that provides a specific voice on a topic.
answer
Testimony
question
_______ are illustrations or cases that make ideas concrete.
answer
Examples
question
Speakers use _______________ to clarify for audience members how they should interpret a term.
answer
Definitions
question
A _______________relies upon an unspoken comparison between two things to appeal to audience members' emotions.
answer
Metaphor
question
________________ meanings are the definitions you find in dictionaries.
answer
Denotative
question
When you put together a speech, you typically develop the body and transitions first, then the introduction and the conclusion.
answer
TRUE
question
When organizing a speech, you should spend the greatest amount of time on your first main point because the first main point should be the most important.
answer
FALSE. When organizing a speech you should devote an approximately equal amount of time to each main point.
question
If your main points are not approximately equal in size and importance, you should consider revising your speech's structure.
answer
TRUE
question
It is especially important to use internal summaries if you are giving a long speech because audiences are more likely to forget main points in lengthy speeches.
answer
TRUE. Internal summaries are especially important in long speeches.
question
For speeches that are 10 minutes or less, conclusions should be no more than one minute long.
answer
TRUE
question
Problem-solving organization is most useful when you are trying to convince your audience of a causal relationship between two things.
answer
FALSE. Cause-and-effect organization is most useful when you are trying to convince your audience of a causal relationship between two things.
question
A complete-sentence outline reflects every word you'll say when you give your presentation.
answer
FALSE. A complete-sentence outline reflects the content of your speech in full-sentence form but may not be the exact words used in the speech.
question
Main points should be equally important in relation to your topic and subpoints should be equally important in relation to your main points.
answer
TRUE.
question
Monroe's Motivated Sequence is an organizational pattern that seeks to move audience members toward an action.
answer
TRUE
question
Monroe's Motivated Sequence pattern should only be used for persuasive, not informative speeches.
answer
FALSE. Monroe's Motivated Sequence pattern can be used for persuasive and informative speeches.
question
Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech about events leading to the passage of the 19th Amendment, which gave women the right to vote?
answer
Chronological
question
Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech orienting first-year college students to significant places on campus?
answer
Spatial
question
Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech about recent innovations in communication technology?
answer
Topical
question
Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech about the relationship between different civil rights leaders who spoke at the March on Washington in 1963?
answer
Narrative
question
Which of the following organizational patterns is most appropriate for a speech about the harmful consequences of drinking caffeinated beverages?
answer
Cause-and-effect
question
Which of the following organization patterns is most appropriate for a speech about how a stoplight would decrease the number of accidents at a dangerous intersection near a local high school?
answer
Problem-solution
question
What are the five steps of Monroe's Motivated Sequence?
answer
Attention, need, satisfaction, visualization, action
question
In a speech about the most effective strategies to train a puppy, a dog trainer tells the audience, "Although you should never hit your dog, you should speak to your dog using a firm voice." What type of transition did the trainer just use?
answer
Contrasting
question
In a lecture about how to bake a perfect chocolate cake, a chef tells his students, "After you have beaten your wet ingredients together, you should fold them into your dry ingredients." What type of transition did the chef just use?
answer
Chronology/time
question
Which of these speech topics would be best organized by a cause-and-effect organization?
answer
How landfills impact air, water, and soil quality
question
Transitions play an important role in creating ______________by directing an obvious and plausible connection among your ideas.
answer
Coherence
question
A __________________is a type of organization based on the physical relationship between directions or objects.
answer
Spatial pattern
question
______________ are longer transitions that help listeners move to the next main point.
answer
Internal summaries
question
___________ is the type of speech organization encourages audience participation and involvement in the speech.
answer
Narrative pattern
question
______________ is a type of organization that seeks to engage the audience and give them a reason to listen and take a specific action.
answer
Monroe's Motivated Sequence
question
Audiences tend to recall what the speaker says at the start of the speech because this is when they're most attentive.
answer
TRUE
question
Telling a joke can be an effective attention getter.
answer
TRUE
question
Speakers should downplay the controversial nature of their topics to prevent their audiences from feeling uncomfortable.
answer
FALSE. Speaker should be clear and honest about their topics, even if they are controversial.
question
Your introduction should clearly convey the specific purpose of your speech.
answer
TRUE
question
Previewing your main points should be the first part of the introduction.
answer
FALSE. Previewing your main points should occur in the introduction, but an attention getter is the best way to start.
question
The recency effect means the audience will recall what the speaker says in the conclusion more than what is said in the body of the speech.
answer
TRUE
question
The most effective attention getters are 15 seconds or less.
answer
FALSE. The length of time your attention getter will take depends upon what kind of attention getter you choose and your topic.
question
When you deliver your speech, you do not need to state your purpose in the exact terms you used in your outline to get your purpose and thesis across to the audience.
answer
TRUE
question
One effective way to end a speech is to refer to something you said in your introduction.
answer
TRUE
question
Presentation media are too complicated to use in an introduction.
answer
FALSE. Presentation media can be used in an introduction for some speeches.
question
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the speech introduction?
answer
To distinguish the topic from the audience's interests
question
Which of the following is a proven strategy for gaining your audience's attention in the speech introduction.
answer
Tell an emotionally arousing but brief human interest story
question
What kind of speech does not need a preview of main points?
answer
All of these: * A persuasive speech * An informative speech * An entertaining speech * A how-to speech
question
Quickly referencing some of your research accomplishes which objective of a speech introduction?
answer
To establish your credibility
question
Which of the following is NOT a central element of an introduction to a speech?
answer
Add length and depth to a short speech
question
Imagine that to introduce a 5 minute speech about the importance of pet adoption, a speaker tells a 1 minute story about how his mother recently adopted a puppy who enjoys playing with cats. Everyone in the class laughed with amusement. What aspect of getting the audience's attention did this speaker fail to consider?
answer
Consider the time
question
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the conclusion to a speech?
answer
To summarize main points and subpoints in great detail
question
What concept suggests that audience members are more likely to remember what the speaker says at the end than what she or he says in the body of the speech?
answer
The recency effect
question
Imagine that to conclude a speech about tuition increases over the past 5 years on the college campus, the speaker tells the audience that the Board of Regents at the university is meeting next month to discuss tuition rates for the upcoming school year. What strategy for providing closure does this example most clearly represent?
answer
Refer to subsequent events.
question
Imagine that to conclude a speech about domestic violence, a speaker tells the audience, "Domestic violence is the number one cause of injury to women in Western nations." What strategy for providing closure does this example most clearly represent?
answer
Make a dramatic statement.
question
An ________________is the first element of an introduction, used to generate interest in your speech.
answer
Attention getter
question
The conclusion reinforces the purpose, reviews main points, and provides__________________.
answer
Closure
question
The ______________________suggests that audience members are more likely to remember what the speaker says at the end of the speech than what he/she says in the body of the speech.
answer
The recency effect
question
The ________________ suggests that audience members are more likely to remember what the speaker says right at the start of the speech.
answer
Primacy effect
question
A brief, clear, strong, and striking statement that reinforces your specific purpose in the conclusion of a speech is referred to as a __________________.
answer
Memorable message
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Death Constant Beyond Love- Marquez – Flashcards 12 terms

William Hopper
12 terms
Preview
Death Constant Beyond Love- Marquez – Flashcards
question
The title shows ________.
answer
dissonance
question
Who are the characters?
answer
Senator Sanchez, Nelson and Laura Farina
question
Sanchez is:
answer
-campaigning -married and has 5 children...very unhappy -faced with 6 months to live...keeps it a secret
question
Nelson is:
answer
-wanted for killing his wife -wants a fake ID from Sanchez so that he can start over as a business man...worried about appearance -offers Laura in exchange...dehumanization
question
How old is Laura?
answer
18 almost 19
question
When Laura goes to see Sanchez, he __________.
answer
Falls in love
question
What is Laura wearing when she goes to see Sanchez?
answer
A chastity belt. She "forgot" the key because she isn't interested in Sanchez.
question
While talking to Laura, what is the "bad luck" Sanchez thinks of?
answer
One of them will feel guilty if they have sex; he is also worried he will die before she turns 19 (when she will have sex with him)
question
When Laura stays the night with Sanchez, how does he describe her?
answer
realistically; she is sweaty and smells...but he loves the intimacy with her.
question
What does Sanchez mean when he says "No one will ever love us"?
answer
-he realizes they can be alone together (his epiphany) -no ones cares about her or him
question
When Sanchez died 6 months later, why is he enraged?
answer
-he will never feel their intimacy again -he is alone again
question
This story is a depiction of what?
answer
real life
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MMBio Chap 12 – Flashcards 48 terms

Ruth Blanco
48 terms
Preview
MMBio Chap 12 – Flashcards
question
Alu element |
answer
is a short stretch of DNA originally characterized by the action of the Alu restriction endonuclease. These are the most abundant mobile elements in the human genome. Is a retrotransposon |
question
conservative site specific recombination |
answer
is a type of genetic recombination in which DNA strand exchange takes place between segments possessing only a limited degree of sequence homology. |
question
cut and paste transposition |
answer
Theses transpositions are catalyzed by various types of transposase enzymes. The enzyme makes a staggered cut, producing sticky ends, cuts out the transposon, and ligates it into the target site. DNA poly. fills in the resulting gaps, DNA ligase seals the nick |
question
excisionase (Xis) |
answer
manages excision and insertion of phage genome into the hosts genome. |
question
insertion sequence |
answer
is a short DNA sequence that acts as a simple transposable element. They have two characteristics- they are small (700-2500 bp) and only code for proteins implicated in the transposition activity (means they are different from transposons which have accessory genes) |
question
inverted repeat |
answer
is a sequence of nucleotides that is the reversed complement of another sequence further downstream. |
question
mobile genetic element |
answer
are a type of DNA that can move around within the genome- they include -transposons -retrotransposons -Plasmids -bacteriophage elements (Mu) -Group II introns |
question
replicative transposition |
answer
is a mechanism of transposition in molecular biology in which the transposable element is duplicated during the reaction so that the transposing entity is a copy of the original element |
question
resolvase |
answer
any group of enzymes that repress transposases |
question
transposable element |
answer
the things that can move inside a cell |
question
transpoase |
answer
is an enzyme that binds to the ends of a transposon and catalyzes the movement of the transposon to another part of the genome by a cut and paste mechanism or a replicative transposition mechanism. |
question
tranposition |
answer
the process of transposons moving themselves to new positions within the genome. |
question
transposon |
answer
are sequences of DNA that can move or transpose themselves to new positions within the genome of a single cell. |
question
What are the two ways transposons can move? |
answer
Cut and past transposition (in which the element is directly moved to a new location.) or by replicative transposition (copy and paste- a copy of the transposon is left at the donor site.) |
question
How are transposons used in molecular genetics? |
answer
They allow the position of the insertion to be determined genetically or by PCR. They can also be engineered in a number of ways to make them a powerful tool for mutagenesis and for studying gene regulation. |
question
What are the simplest transposons? |
answer
Insertion sequences |
question
Insertion sequences contain what (simplest transposons)? |
answer
A transposase gene and inverted repeat sequences that include transposase binding sites and cleavage sites |
question
Transposons have ___ _______ ______elements flanking intervening DNA that contains additional genes. |
answer
two insertion sequences |
question
In _____ and _____ transposition, the element is directly moved to a new location and a copy is left at the original location. |
answer
cut and paste |
question
In ______ transposition, a copy of the element is left at the donor site. |
answer
replicative |
question
________ elements tend to target certain sequences and may target certain biological processes. |
answer
Transposable elements |
question
_____ can be used for mutagenesis and offer the advantage that the insertions can be easily mapped genetically or by PCR. |
answer
Transposons |
question
Transpsons have been engineered to enhance their utility as a genetic tool by incorporating ____ genes and reporter genes |
answer
drug resistant |
question
What are transposons |
answer
Elements of DNA which can move within the genome. |
question
Many transposons code for ____, an enzyme which allow them to cut and paste themselves. |
answer
Transposase |
question
______ worked in the area of chromosome biology using maize and suggested segments of the chromosome could jump to another location. |
answer
Barbara McClintock |
question
How can cut and past transposons create multiple copies of themselves? |
answer
During DNA replication, the transposon removes itself from a chromosome that has already been replicated and inserts into a chromosome that has not yet been replicated |
question
What is one way in which transposons may be harmful to an organism. |
answer
transposons can insert themselves in the middle of genes and disable them |
question
The simplest mobile elements in bacteria are called |
answer
insertion sequences |
question
Why might transposons be beneficial to the host organisms? |
answer
They may pass on phenotypic characteristics that are preferred in natural selection, such as antibiotic resistance in bacteria. |
question
Transposons and other mobile elements are valuable to genetic researchers because |
answer
They maybe be used to insert genes into a n organism and thus can serve as tools for gene therapy |
question
In conservative site-specific recombination, |
answer
two DNA segments n homologous chromosomes exchange places at a specific recognition site. |
question
Transposition is a process in which a discrete DNA entity can move between DNA sites that lack homology using a self encoded protein called a |
answer
Transposase |
question
True or False. coordinated breakage and joining events occur during transposition. |
answer
true |
question
T or F- Transposons are found at various levels of complexity in bacteria |
answer
True |
question
Transposases that use extensive DNA replication to leave one copy of the element behind in a process called |
answer
replicative transposition |
question
True or False- Transposons in eukaryotes are mechanistically different from bacterial transposons |
answer
False |
question
T or F- when transposons move to reproduce and to distribute to new hosts, the process of transposition inevitably jeopardizes the host organism |
answer
Can be both but probably false |
question
T or F- transposons are known as selfish DNA because their only apparent purpose is to replicate themselves. |
answer
True |
question
T or F- Transposons always require an RNA intermdiate |
answer
False |
question
T or F- Ligase is required to seal the nicks caused by transposition |
answer
true |
question
What DNA sequence feature is diagnostic for the presence of transposons and how is this feature produced? |
answer
Short repeats on both ends of the strand |
question
The presence of mobile genetic elements can not easily be detected by |
answer
gel filtration chromatography |
question
The general term for sequences that can change location within the genome is |
answer
mobile genetic elements |
question
Bacterial elements that have inverted terminal repeats and do not contain coding sequences are called |
answer
insertion sequences |
question
SINEs are |
answer
(Short interspersed elements)-short DNA sequences that represent reverse transcribed RNA molecules originally transcribed by RNA polymerase III- rely on other mobile elements for transposition |
question
What are retrotransposons? |
answer
are genetic elements that can amplify themselves in a genome and are ubiquitous components of the DNA of many eukaryotic organisms. |
question
What is the general process of retrotransposons? |
answer
They copy themselves in two stages. First from DNA to RNA by transcription, then from RNA back to DNA by reverse transcription. The DNA copy is then inserted into the genome in a new position. |
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PowerPoint Tutorial 2 53 terms

Stephanie Landry
53 terms
Preview
PowerPoint Tutorial 2
question
active
answer
The state of a textbox in which it is selected and you can add or delete text or otherwise modify the text inside it. (PPT 14)
question
animation
answer
A special effect applied to an object, such as a graphic or a bulleted list, that makes the object move. (PPT 32)
question
AutoFit
answer
A PowerPoint feature that changes the line spacing and the font size of the text if you add more text than will fit in the placeholder. (PPT 11)
question
bulleted item
answer
One paragraph in a bulleted list. (PPT 9)
question
bulleted list
answer
A list of "paragraphs" (words, phrases, sentences, or paragraphs) with a special symbol (dot, dash, circle, box, star, or other character) to the left of each paragraph. (PPT 9)
question
Clipboard
answer
A temporary storage area on which text or other objects are stored when you cut or copy them. (PPT 18)
question
content placeholder
answer
Contains the slide content, which can be text, a table, a chart, a graph, a picture, clip art, or a movie. (PPT 7)
question
contextual spell-checking
answer
The feature in PowerPoint that flags words that are spelled correctly but are used incorrectly. (PPT 45)
question
copy
answer
To select text or an object, and use the Copy command to place a copy of it on the Clipboard so that you can paste it somewhere else. (PPT 18)
question
cut
answer
To remove selected text or a selected object from its original location and place it on the Clipboard using the Cut command. (PPT 18)
question
demote
answer
To move an item lower in the outline, for example, by changing a slide title into a bulleted item on the previous slide or changing a first-level bullet into a second-level bullet. (PPT 22)
question
Emphasis
answer
A type of animation effect in which the appearance of text and objects already visible on the slide changes or the text or objects move. (PPT 35)
question
Entrance
answer
A type animation effect in which text and objects animate as they appear on the slide; one of the most commonly used animation types. (PPT 35)
question
Exit
answer
A type of animation effect in which text and objects leave the screen before the slide show advances to the next slide. (PPT 35)
question
first-level bullet
answer
A main paragraph in a bulleted list. (PPT 9)
question
font size
answer
The size of the characters you type, measured in points. (PPT 9)
question
font style
answer
The formatting attributes applied to text, such as bold and italic. (PPT 14)
question
font
answer
The design of a set of characters. (PPT 9)
question
footer
answer
Text that appears on every slide, but depending on the theme applied, it might not always appear at the bottom of a slide. (PPT 42)
question
Full Page Slides
answer
A print option that prints each slide full size on a separate piece of paper; speaker notes are not printed. (PPT 52)
question
graphic
answer
A picture, shape, design, graph, chart, or diagram. (PPT 12)
question
Handouts
answer
A print option that prints the presentation with one, two, three, four, six, or nine slides on each piece of paper. (PPT 52)
question
layout
answer
A predetermined way of organizing the objects on a slide, including title text and other content (bulleted lists, photographs, charts, and so forth). All layouts, except the Blank layout, include placeholders to help you create your presentation. (PPT 7)
question
Motion Paths
answer
A type of animation effect in which text and objects follow a path on a slide. (PPT 35)
question
Normal view
answer
Displays slides one at a time in the Slide pane, allowing you to see how the text and graphics look on each individual slide, and displays thumbnails of all the slides in the Slides tab or all the text of the presentation in the Outline tab. (PPT 4)
question
Notes Page view
answer
A view in PowerPoint in which each slide appears in the top half of the presentation window and the speaker notes for that slide display in the bottom half. (PPT 44)
question
Notes Pages
answer
A print option that prints each slide as a notes page, with the slide at the top of the page and speaker notes below the slide, similar to how a slide appears in Notes Page view. (PPT 52)
question
Notes pane
answer
Area of the PowerPoint window that contains notes (also called speaker notes) for the presenter to refer to when delivering the presentation. (PPT 2)
question
Outline
answer
A print option that prints the text of the presentation as an outline. (PPT 52)
question
Outline tab
answer
Area of the PowerPoint window that shows an outline of the titles and text of each slide in the presentation. (PPT 2)
question
placeholder
answer
A region of a slide reserved for inserting text or graphics. (PPT 5)
question
point
answer
The unit of measurement for measuring font size. One point equals 1/72 of an inch. Text in a book is typically printed in 10- or 12-point type. (PPT 9)
question
progressive disclosure
answer
An animation process in which bulleted items appear on a slide one at a time. (PPT 35)
question
promote
answer
To move an item higher in the outline, for example, by changing a second-level bullet into a first-level bullet or changing a first-level bulleted item into a slide title the item. (PPT 22)
question
Reading view
answer
Displays each slide so that it almost fills the entire screen, but it also displays the title bar and status bar, and provides navigation buttons on the status bar for moving from slide to slide as you review the presentation. (PPT 30)
question
second-level bullet
answer
A bullet below and indented from a first-level bullet. Also called subbullet. (PPT 9)
question
sizing handles
answer
The small circles and squares that appear at each corner and on the sides of an active text box which you can drag to make the text box larger or smaller. (PPT 14)
question
Slide pane
answer
The area of the PowerPoint window that displays the currently selected slide as it will appear during your slide show. (PPT 3)
question
Slide Show view
answer
Displays each slide so that it fills the entire screen with no toolbars or other Windows elements visible on the screen, one after the other, and displays special effects applied to the slides and to the text and graphics on the slides. (PPT 28)
question
Slide Sorter view
answer
Displays all the slides in the presentation as thumbnails. (PPT 25)
question
Slides tab
answer
Area of the PowerPoint window that shows a column of numbered slide thumbnails so you can see a visual representation of several slides at once. (PPT 2)
question
speaker notes
answer
Information that appears in the Notes pane that the presenter can refer to when delivering the presentation to help him remember what to say when a particular slide appears during the presentation. Also called notes. (PPT 2)
question
spell-checking
answer
Using the PowerPoint spell checking tools to correct any spelling errors in the text of your presentation. (PPT 45)
question
subtitle text placeholder
answer
The smaller text placeholder below the title text placeholder, designed to contain a subtitle for the presentation. (PPT 5)
question
template
answer
A PowerPoint file that contains a theme, sample text, and graphics on the slides or slide background to guide you as you develop your content. (PPT 34)
question
text box
answer
A container that holds text. (PPT 6)
question
text placeholder
answer
A placeholder designed to contain text. (PPT 5)
question
theme
answer
A coordinated set of colors, fonts, and other design elements that are applied to the components of a presentation. (PPT 2)
question
theme colors
answer
The colors used for the background, title text, body text, accents, background colors and objects, and graphics in a presentation. (PPT 12)
question
theme fonts
answer
Two fonts or font styles, one for the titles (or headings) and one for text in content placeholders. (PPT 12)
question
thumbnails
answer
Miniature images of each slide. (PPT 2)
question
title text placeholder
answer
The larger text placeholder on the title slide, designed to hold the presentation title. (PPT 5)
question
transition
answer
A special effect you can apply to change the way slides appear during a slide show. (PPT 33)
Acute Care Hospitals
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Natural Language Processing
Health Data-Quiz 2,3,4 73 terms

Marie Florence
73 terms
Preview
Health Data-Quiz 2,3,4
question
Which of the following best describes the most important function of the health record?
answer
Storing patient care documentation
question
Who are the primary users of the health record?
answer
Clinical professionals who provide direct patient care.
question
Which of the following elements is not a component of most patient records?
answer
Financial information.
question
Healthcare information systems need to exchange information. This linkage between systems is referred to as:
answer
Connectivity.
question
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of high-quality healthcare data?
answer
Data accountability
question
Which of the following represents and example of data granularity?
answer
A numerical measurement carried out to the appropriate decimal place.
question
What is the defining characteristic of an integrated health record format?
answer
Integrated health record components are arranged in strict chronological order.
question
Critique this statement: Electronic health record systems have the same access control requirements as paper based record systems.
answer
This is a true statement.
question
Critique this statement: Paper based record systems are not flexible enough to meet all of the needs of every health record user.
answer
This is a true statement.
question
Which of the following best describes data accuracy?
answer
Data are correct.
question
Which of the following best describes data completeness?
answer
Data include all required elements.
question
Which of the following best describes data accessibility?
answer
Data are easy to obtain.
question
Data definition refers to the:
answer
Meaning of data.
question
Dr. Jones entered a progress note in a patient's health record 24 hours after he visited the patient. Which quality element is missing from the progress note?
answer
Data currency.
question
The admitting form of Mrs. Smith's health record indicated that her birth date was March 21, 1948. On the discharge summary, Mrs. Smith's birth date was recorded as July 1, 1948. Which quality element is missing from Mrs. Smith's health record?
answer
Data consistency.
question
I need an information system that will provide assistance to physicians in diagnosing and treating patients. The system that I need is:
answer
Clinical decision support.
question
I have been asked to list institutional users of the health record. Which one of the following would I include in my list?
answer
Blue Cross and Blue Shield of Arkansas.
question
In the context of the healthcare record, security can be defined as:
answer
The protection of the privacy of individuals and the confidentiality of health records.
question
What is one of the improvements found by using a computerized provider order entry (COPE) SYSTEM?
answer
Eliminate issues with illegible handwriting.
question
Arkansas's health information exchange is known as:
answer
SHARE
question
A nurse is responsible for which of the following types of acute care documentation?
answer
Medication record
question
When correcting erroneous information in a paper health record, which of the following is not appropriate?
answer
Use black pen to obliterate the entry.
question
Which accrediting organization has instituted unannounced surveys and requires submission of annual performance reviews?
answer
Joint Commission
question
Documentation of aides who assist a patient with activities of daily living, bathing, laundry, and cleaning would be found in which type of specialty record?
answer
Home health
question
Which of the following groups is the primary accreditation organization for facilities that treat individuals who have functional disabilities?
answer
Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities
question
Which type of health record is designed to measure clinical outcomes, collect data at the point of care, and provide medical alerts?
answer
Electronic record
question
Which of the following is an advantage of paper-based records?
answer
Standardized familiar format
question
\"The patient indicates that she is dizzy, nauseous, and feels her throat tightening.\" This entry would be recorded in which section of a SOAP note?
answer
Subjective
question
Which of the following organizations drafted more than 130 functional standards for electronic health records?
answer
Health Level Seven (HL7)
question
Which type of patient care record includes documentation of a family bereavement period?
answer
Hospice record
question
Documentation of genetic information, immunizations, hospitalizations, surgeries, medications, and personal, family, occupational and environmental histories are maintained over a lifetime in what type of record?
answer
Personal health record
question
In which setting may treatment records travel with the patient between treatment centers?
answer
Correctional facility care
question
An RAI/MDS and care plan are found in records of patients in:
answer
Long-term care
question
Which of the following is not an example of a long-term care setting?
answer
Community mental health centers
question
Which of the following represents the attending physician's assessment of the patient's current health status?
answer
Physical examination
question
Patient history questionnaires are most often used in:
answer
Ambulatory care
question
In a medical history, which of the following is a detailed chronological description of the development of the patient's illness?
answer
Present illness
question
Which of the following is an example of an advance directive?
answer
Living will
question
What is the function of physician's orders?
answer
Documents opinions about the patient's condition from the perspective of a physician not previously involved in the patient's care
question
Which of the following contains the physician's findings based on an examination of the patient?
answer
Physical exam
question
Which of the following represents documentation of the patient's current and past health status?
answer
Medical history
question
Which of the following is true of computer-based records?
answer
Can be accessed by multiple end users simultaneously
question
Documentation standards and guidelines are published by a variety of private and public organizations, including the:
answer
All of the above
question
Which type of specialized record includes care provided prior to arrival at a healthcare setting and times and means of arrival?
answer
Emergency care record
question
The number of ligatures, sutures, packs, drains, and sponges used and specimens removed would be found in the:
answer
Operative report
question
Which of the following is an example of clinical data?
answer
Admitting diagnosis
question
The attending physician is responsible for which of the following types of acute- care documentation?
answer
Discharge summary
question
Which of the following is not usually a component of acute care patient records?
answer
Problem list
question
The key data element for linking data about an individual who is seen in a variety of settings is the:
answer
Unique patient identifier
question
Information standarda that provide clear descriptors of data elements to br includes in computer-based patient record systems are called___standards:
answer
Structure and content
question
In designing an electronic health rexord, one of the best resources to use in helping to define the content of the record as well as to standarized data definitions is the E1384 standard promulgated by the:
answer
American Society for Testing and Measurment
question
Of the following resourses, the best reaource to use in dedining the structure of the EHR is the:
answer
HL7 Functional Model
question
The___mandated the development of standards for medical records.
answer
Health Indurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
question
Messaging standards for electronic data interchange in healthcare have been developed by:
answer
HL7
question
AHIMA strongly opposes the use of which the following as a patient identifier in an electronic enviroment.
answer
Social Security number
question
An example of clinical data representation is a(n):
answer
ICD-9-CM code
question
A recent breakthrough in the development of the universal language to aid storage and transmission of web-based data is:
answer
XML
question
The primary purpose of the Continuity of Care Record(CCR) is to:
answer
Allow healthcare providers to readily acess information about a patient's healthcare at any point in time.
question
The exchange of igitized images such as X-rays, CT scans, and MRIs is supported by:
answer
DICOM
question
A statewide cancer surveillance system is an example of which of the NHII dimensions?
answer
Community
question
Each of the three dimensions (personal, provider, community) of information defined by the National Health Infrastructure (NHII) contains specific recommendations for:
answer
Core data elements
question
HEDIS is designed to collect:
answer
Administrative, claims, and health record review data.
question
A consumer interested in comparing the performance of health plans should review data from:
answer
Hispanic, non-Hispanic, unknown
question
A critical early step in designing an EHR is to develop a ___in which the characteristics of each data element are defined.
answer
Data dictionary
question
Most healthcare informative standards have been implemented by:
answer
Consensus
question
The federal law that directed the Secretary of Health and Human Services to develop healthcare standards governing electronic data interchange and data security is the:
answer
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996. (HIPPA)
question
Standardizing medical terminology to avoid differences in naming various medical conditions and procedures (such as the synonyms bunionectomy, McBride procedure, and repair of hallus valgus) is one purpose of:
answer
Vocabulary standards.
question
Critique this statement: The continuity care record contains only current clinical information.
answer
This is False statement as the CCR contains both future and past clinical information.
question
Both HEDIS and the Joint Commission's ORYX program are designed to collect data to be used for:
answer
Performance improvement programs
question
The inpatient data set that has been incorporated into federal law and is required for Medicare reporting is the:
answer
Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set.
question
Data that are collected from individual records and then combined are referred to as:
answer
Aggregate data.
question
The name of the government agency that has led the development of basic data sets for health records and computer databases is the:
answer
National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics.
question
Minimum data st in healthcare are developed to:
answer
Recommend common data elements to be collected in health records.
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Real Time Information
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Transaction Processing Systems
Integrated Electronic Health Records Chapters 1 & 2 62 terms

Bernice Cooper
62 terms
Preview
Integrated Electronic Health Records Chapters 1 & 2
question
Selecting software that communicates with other software prevents
answer
duplication of entries and also cuts down on errors, since the data is only entered one time.
question
Of the following, which is not an application of an EHR system? A. capture of past social history B. capture of medication allergies C. capture of insurance policy number D. ability to send a prescription electronically
answer
capture of insurance policy number
question
Dr. Evans' office has computerized the following functions: appointment scheduling, charge capture, collections, and reporting. These are all found in which type of software
answer
practice management
question
Christine Simmons arrived for her appointment with Dr. Shumaker 20 minutes ago. The healthcare professional has just left the room after taking Christine's vital signs and medical history. What will be the next step in Christine's flow through the overall process?
answer
care provider
question
Jesse Lopez is a healthcare professional at Green Springs Internal Medicine. He has just finished submitting claims to Blue Shield for patients seen yesterday. Jesse was performing what type of function?
answer
administrative
question
You are a registrar in the admitting office of a hospital; a patient presents to register for an outpatient laboratory test. What will you first access to determine if that patient has ever been seen at that hospital before, or whether you must register him for the first time?
answer
master patient (person) index
question
Physicians' practices sometimes use a service to check for errors on claim forms prior to submitting a claim to the insurance company. The service that processes insurance claims is a
answer
clearinghouse
question
Roberta is a healthcare professional at Dr. Ingram's office. She has a patient on the phone who wants to make an appointment with Dr. Ingram. What will Roberta take into consideration when looking for an open appointment time?
answer
the reason for the patient's visit
question
Pieces of data which identify a patient and include such items as name, address, and date of birth are considered what types of data?
answer
demographic
question
\"Which of the following is not a type of medical insurance? A. Medicare B. Tricare C. Self-pay from patient D. Workers' Compensation
answer
Self-pay from patient
question
The documentation of a patient's office visit is often referred to as a/an:
answer
Progress note
question
Though the costs of implementation will be high, which record-keeping costs will be less as a result of implementing an electronic health record?
answer
cost of folders and clips to file each record
question
Of the following, which contributes to the high cost of electronic health records for the software service provider?
answer
research and development costs
question
Which of the following statements accurately describes duplicate patient registration entries in an electronic health record system?
answer
duplicate patient registrations can occur if the patient's name was misspelled or the patient was previously registered under a different name
question
Which of the following EHR applications may be more beneficial and efficient for the patient?
answer
ePrescribing
question
What must a care provider do before he/she will see the benefits of an EHR in relation to time spent documenting each patient's visit?
answer
devote time to learning the new system
question
Research has shown what, in relation to the use of an EHR?
answer
there has been decrease in medical errors through use of EHR software
question
Which of the following is not clinical information?
answer
age
question
A care provider is dictating a progress note into speech recognition while the patient is being seen. This dictation is occurring:
answer
at the point of care
question
During the history of present illness, the healthcare professional asks Ron Albertson for his preferred pharmacy. The healthcare professional then enters the information into PrimeSUITE. After the care provider has examined and diagnosed Mr. Albertson, he prescribes Amoxicillin and electronically sends the prescription to Mr. Albertson's chosen pharmacy without having to enter any additional information into the ePrescribe module. This is an example of:
answer
interoperability
question
The first step of the information chain in an electronic system is:
answer
Patient makes the appointment
question
Posting patient charges occurs during which step(s) of the process in an office setting?
answer
check-out desk
question
You are a healthcare professional at Greensburg Medical Center and you have just shown a patient, Mrs. Clark, to the check-out desk, where the billing coordinator had just taken the encounter form (superbill) for the visit. Dr. Daniels came to the window and stated that Mrs. Clark left the exam room before receiving her flu shot. What will occur in this case?
answer
Mrs. Clark will be taken back to the exam room, will be given the shot by the healthcare professional, who will document it in Mrs. Clark's record, and will update the encounter form to reflect the charges for the flu shot, at which point Mrs. Clark will return to the check-out desk
question
Of the following, which does not need to be sent to an insurance company on the CMS-1500 claim form?
answer
History of present illness
question
The steps listed below are carried out by which staff during an office visit? Patient Arrives for visit > Update Patient Information > Check In and Collect Co-pay > Start Patient Tracking
answer
Registration/Front-desk
question
Joyce Burke is a healthcare professional working at Greenway Medical. She is responsible for compiling insurance claims and checking them for completion. Which area of the office does Joyce work in?
answer
Business Office
question
Memorial Hospital is in the process of researching a new facility-wide electronic health record system. The ___________________ would be responsible for assessing the budgeting process, funding, and for monitoring the monetary aspects of the project.
answer
chief financial officer
question
Roberta has an associate degree and holds RMA certification. She mainly performs administrative duties such as appointment scheduling, registering patients, and maintenance of health records in a large physician's practice. She occasionally performs clinical duties as well, as needed. Roberta is a/an:
answer
medical assistant
question
In a hospital setting, the management and much of the staff of the department responsible for entering, maintaining, and retrieving data from health records, are often certified through and members of which professional organization?
answer
American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA)
question
Which of the following requires completion of a competency exam, but does not result in certification?
answer
Practice Workflow & Information Management Redesign Specialist
question
The health information manager and the ___________________ work closely to ensure a fully operational, secure electronic health record that meets the needs of all users within the facility?
answer
Information Technology Manager/Officer
question
Robert Fitzsimmons is an administrator with the local hospital. His responsibilities include the maintenance and security of all of the automated systems that affect individual departments as well as the electronic health record. Mr. Fitzsimmons is a/an:
answer
health systems administrator
question
The staff of the ___________________ will need to enter, maintain, and retrieve data from electronic health records within a hospital setting.
answer
health information department
question
Until recent years, Registered Health Information Technicians, Registered Health Information Administrators, and Certified Health Data Analysts typically worked in which type of facility?
answer
hospitals
question
Which of the following is not a professional organization related to the fields of health information, medical assisting, or allied health?
answer
American Hospital Association
question
Philip is a medical assistant who has been working for a medical practice with two physicians and one physician's assistant for three years. He recently applied for a supervisory position within the office, but was overlooked for the position. He is anxious to take his knowledge and experience to the next level, but never took a certifying exam, and to this point has not taken advantage of continuing education opportunities. What is the best strategy for Philip to strengthen his chances of promotion in the future?
answer
begin studying for one of the medical assisting certifying exam and schedule a date to take it
question
A ______________________ professional would most likely hold one of the following positions: cancer registrar, privacy officer, software analyst, compliance officer.
answer
Registered Health Information Administrator (RHIA)
question
In a physician's practice, ________________ may be the title of the person who is responsible for the overall administrative management of the practice.
answer
Office Administrator
question
An x-ray of the ankle was performed on Daniel Way on December 16. Dr. Eberly interpreted the x-ray and dictated his impression, which then became part of the hospital's electronic health record. This impression is ________________________ data.
answer
unstructured
question
Dr. Henderson wrote a progress note in the emergency room note of Lisa Ford. This is an example of _________________ data.
answer
unstructured
question
The progress note of Amy Shaw states that she is a 51-year-old female who has a history of lower back pain following a fall off a ladder in 2007. She has been taking ibuprofen on a daily basis with no relief. The pain is so bad that on occasion she needs to miss work. Based on her history and the results of the physician's physical exam, his treatment plan is naproxen sodium daily and an order for physical therapy to include TENS treatments with follow-up visit scheduled in four weeks. This is an example of a patient's health _______________________.
answer
information
question
The date of birth on a patient's record is ___________________ data.
answer
structured
question
A zip code would be an example of _______________ data.
answer
structured
question
A record that contains a person's health history, allergies, current complaints, past medical and surgical history, and a listing of current medications, but is not considered a legal health record is a/an:
answer
personal health record
question
Typically, paper health records are maintained how?
answer
filed in folders in numeric or alphabetic order
question
From which medium is the image above taken?
answer
electronic health record
question
Entering data into a computer system is also known as ________________ data.
answer
capturing
question
When collecting data on a computer or retrieving data from a computer, the screen becomes the replacement for ______________.
answer
paper
question
The capturing of data about a patient begins at what point?
answer
when the patient calls for an appointment or arrives at the hospital for care
question
The ____________ allows for the exchange of information among caregivers, insurance companies, employers, and others, when there is a need for information.
answer
Electronic Health Record (EHR)
question
Of the following, which is not a core function of the EHR as defined by the Institute of Medicine?
answer
filing of insurance claims
question
Information that identifies the patient in any way is known as _________________.
answer
protected health information
question
The ________________________ is published by the federal government and includes all actions taken by any government entity on a given date.
answer
Federal Register
question
The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act is part of the _______________________.
answer
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act
question
\"A set of standards, services, and policies that enable the secure exchange of health information over the Internet\" is known as:
answer
National Health Information Network
question
In order to send and accept diagnosis codes using ICD-10-CM, which version of the HIPAA Code Set rule was effective as of January 1, 2012?
answer
version 5010
question
This entity was founded in 2004 to certify electronic health records.
answer
Certification Commission for Health Information Technology
question
A unique identifier that is required on claim forms and identifies the care provider or group practice submitting the claim is the:
answer
National Provider Identifier number
question
In a physician's office, the equivalent of a hospital's master patient index is a/an:
answer
patient list
question
In a hospital setting, when the patient presents for care he/she is:
answer
registered
question
The hospital equivalent to practice management software used in the physician's practice is known as:
answer
Registration, Admission, Discharge, Transfer System
question
John Smith was admitted to Memorial Hospital on June 6 and died while in the hospital, on June 10. The action taken on June 10 was a/an:
answer
discharge
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Spelling And Grammar Errors
College resume building 9 terms

Sonia Kelly
9 terms
Preview
College resume building
question
a one page snapshot of your accomplishments on paper up to that point in your life.
answer
resume
question
what is the goal you want to achieve with this resume
answer
objective
question
what work or volunteer experience do you have. FOR EXAMPLE, BABYSITTING, YOUTH GROUP LEADER, COMMUNITY SERVICE ACTIVITIES YOU PARTICIPATED IN
answer
experience
question
school you have attended
answer
education
question
special awards you have received. FOR EXAMPLE, STUDENT OF THE MONTH, HIGH HONOR ROLL, MOST VALUABLE PLAYER, MOST IMPROVED PLAYER,
answer
honors
question
any teams, groups, associations you take part in. For example, AVID, 7/8 GRADE BASKETBALL, CHOIR, GEMS, CHURCH YOUTH GROUP, BOYS/GIRLS CLUB
answer
activities
question
Any special skills you may have. For example, organized, strong leader, dependable, mature, singing,
answer
special skills
question
choose words in your resume that sound positive and would make someone look favorably at your skills and talents
answer
word choice
question
your resume should be easy to read without any mistakes, and consistent. It should take one full page.
answer
format
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Operating Systems
Usb Flash Drive
1.0 Windows Installation – Flashcards 37 terms

Patrick Turner
37 terms
Preview
1.0 Windows Installation – Flashcards
question
You have a stand-alone computer running Windows 7 Professional. You notice that the Aero features are not displayed. The computer has a 19 inch CRT screen that supports refresh rates up to 65 Hertz and a video card with 64 MB RAM. You need to use the Aero features. What should you do?
answer
Replace the video adapter card with one that has at least 128 MB RAM.
question
You have a computer on your workbench without an operating system. You would like to install Windows 7 Enterprise 32-bit edition on the computer. The computer has the following hardware specifications: Hard drive with 12 GB of free space. 1 GB of RAM, one additional socket available. One Pentium 2.8 GHz processor, one additional socket available. Video card with 128 MB of memory. You need to change the hardware so that you can install Windows 7 Enterprise. What should you do?
answer
Free up some space on the hard drive.
question
You have several computers running Windows 7 Ultimate. The computers are members of a domain. For all the computer, you want to remove access to administrative tools from the Start menu and hide notifications from the System Tray. What should you do?
answer
Use Group Policy
question
You manage a laptop that runs Windows 7. The laptop is shared by members of the Sales team. Sales team members use standard user accounts to log on to the computer. You want to allow users to change the system time and the time zone. You need to grant them this ability while limiting their ability to perform unrelated tasks. What should you do?
answer
Configure user rights for the Sales group in the local security policy.
question
You have a computer that runs Windows XP Professional. You want to upgrade your computer to Windows 7 Professional. You want to maintain as much of the application, user profile, and user data as possible. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do?
answer
Run Scanstate in Windows XP, Perform a custom installation of Windows 7 to the existing hard drive. Boot into windows 7 and re-install all applications. Run Loadstate.
question
You are planning to install Windows 7 Home Premium edition on a new 64-bit computer. The computer has the following hardware specifications: 500 GB hard drive. 1 GB of RAM, one additional socket available. One Pentium 2.8 GHz processor, one additional socket available. Video card with 256 MB of memory. You need to ensure that the hardware will support Windows 7 Home Premium. What should you do?
answer
Add more memory.
question
You are planning to install Windows 7 on a new 64-bit computer. The computer will be joined to a domain and you plan to configure the computer to boot from a .VHD image. Which Windows 7 editon should you use?
answer
Ultimate (64-bit)
question
You have several computers in a network. Some of the computers do not have an optical drive. Your boss has asked you to install Windows 7 on each of the computers. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)
answer
Use the bootsect command to make the USB flash drive bootable. Copy the product DVD to a USB flask drive and boot from the drive.
question
You have several computers in a domain network. Your company develops software that runs on bot Windows XP and Windows 7. Programmers need to have computers that will dual boot between Windows XP and Windows 7. You need to configure each system to meet the programmer's requirements. What should you do?
answer
Install Windows XP first, and then install Windows 7 on another partition.
question
You need to install Windows 7 Enterprise edition on multiple computers. Each computer has a single SATA hard drive, a PXE-compliant network card, a DVD drive, and several open USB ports. You have decided to use Windows Deployment Services (WDS) to simplify installation. You configure the WDS server with everything necessary to perform the installation. When you start each computer, you would like the computer to boot, connect to the WDS server, and start the installation process automatically without any intervention. You want to minimize the actions that you must perform on each computer. What should you do next?
answer
On each computer, edit the BIOS to boot from the network first.
question
You are installing Windows 7 on a new computer. Using the RAID controller on the motherboard, you configure three hard disks in a RAID5 array. A fourth hard disk is connected to the IDE channel. You edit the BIOS boot order to boot from the optical drive. You insert the installation DVD, boot to the disc, and start the installation. When you are prompted to select the disk where you want to install Windows, the RAID array you created does not show as a possible destination disk. Only the disk on the IDE channel is visible. Select the option you would choose to make the RAID array visible for the installation.
answer
Load Driver
question
You have a stand-alone computer running both Vista and Windows 7. The computer currently boots to Windows 7 by default. You need the computer to boot to Windows Vista as the default operating system instead. What should you do?
answer
Run bcdedit.exe.
question
You are preparing to install Windows 7 to a new computer. You copy the installation files from a DVD to a USB flash drive, then use bootsect to make the USB drive bootable. Using the RAID controller on the motherboard, you configure three hard disks in a RAID5 array. Using disk tools, you create a single partition that takes up the entire array. You insert the USB drive and boot the computer. The computer boots and shows you the following message: Error loading operating system Reboot and select proper boot device. What should you do?
answer
In the BIOS, modify the boot order to boot from the USB device first.
question
You are installing Windows 7 on a new computer. Using the RAID controller on the motherboard, you configure three hard disks in a RAID5 array. You leave the array unpartitioned and unformatted. You edit the BIOS boot order to boot from the optical drive. You insert the installation DVD, boot to the disc, and start the installation. When you are prompted to select the disk where you want to install Windows, the RAID array you created does not show as a possible destination disk. What should you do?
answer
On the screen where you select the disk to install Windows, click Load Driver.
question
You are performing a network installation of Windows 7 on a new computer. You boot the computer using Windows PE. You need to install a device driver for the network adapter. What should you do?
answer
Run drvload.exe
question
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista. You need to perform a clean installation of Windows 7 onto the computer. You would also like to retain the system and user files from the Windows Vista installation. What should you do?
answer
While running setup.exe on the Windows 7 installation media, select the Custom (advanced) option.
question
You need to install Windows 7 Enterprise edition on multiple computers. You have an ISO image of the Windows 7 Enterprise edition installation disc that you will use for the installation. You want to boot the computer to a command prompt, connect to a network share, and then run setup from the shared folder. You create a shared folder named WinInstall on a server. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)
answer
Extract the ISO image and copy all files in the image to the shared folder. Create a bootable disc with WinPE and the necessary network drivers. Edit the BIOS to boot from the optical drive first.
question
You have a workstation running the 32-bit version of Windows Vista Business that you would like to upgrade to the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort and cost. What should you do first?
answer
Perform and Upgrade using the Windows 7 installation disc.
question
You have a workstation running the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional that you would like to upgrade to the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Ultimate. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort and cost while maintaining as much user data as possible. What should you do first?
answer
Run Anytime Upgrade
question
You have a Windows XP Professional system that you would like to upgrade to Windows 7 Ultimate. What should you do first?
answer
Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.
question
You have a computer that runs Windows XP Professional that you would like to upgrade to Windows 7 Professional. You run the setup program and install Windows 7 on the same computer and hard drive. What should you do next?
answer
Re-install all applications.
question
You have a Windows Vista system that you would like to upgrade to Windows 7. You want to make sure that everything in your current system is compatible with windows 7. What should you do?
answer
Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.
question
You have a 32-bit computer that runs Windows XP Professional. You would like to upgrade the computer to Windows 7 Ultimate. Your computer has the following specifications: Service pack 2 1 GHz processor 512 MB RAM 256 MB video card 40 GB free disk space DVD drive You would like to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do first?
answer
Add more memory
question
You have a 32-bit computer that runs Windows Vista Business RTM that you would like to upgrade to Windows 7 Ultimate. Your computer has the following specifications: 1 GHz processor 1 GB RAM 128 MB video card 16 GB free disk space DVD drive You would like to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do first?
answer
Install the latest service pack
question
You have a workstation running the 32-bit version of Windows Vista Business that you would like to upgrade to the 64-bit version.
answer
Custom (advanced)
question
You have a workstation running the 64-bit version of Windows 7 Ultimate that you would like to change to the 64-bit version of Windows 7 Professional. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort and cost. What should you do first?
answer
Perform a Custom (advanced) installation using the Windows 7 installation disc.
question
You have two computers: ComputerA is running Windows Vista Business and ComputerB is running Windows 7 Professional. You are using USMT to migrate only the user profiles and user data from ComputerA to ComputerB. You need to specify the fules used for the migration to include all .jpg files. What should you do?
answer
Edit the MigUser.xml file.
question
You have two computers: ComputerA is running Windows XP Professional and ComputerB is running Windows 7 Professional. You need to transfer user profiles and data files from ComputerA to ComputerB. What should you do? (Select two. Each answer is a complete solution.)
answer
Run Windows Easy Transfer Run USMT
question
You have a single computer running Windows XP. You perform a Custom (advanced) installation of Windows 7 to the existing disk partition on the computer. You need to migrate user profiles and user data from the Windows XP installation to the Windows 7 installation. What should you do?
answer
Run scanstate with the /offlineWinOld: option
question
You have two computers: ComputerA is running Windows Vista and ComputerB is running Windows 7. You need to migrate all user profiles and data files from ComputerA to ComputerB. You need to ensure the user accounts on the destination computer are created and enabled during the migration. What should you do?
answer
On ComputerB, run loadstate with the /lae and /lac options.
question
You have a single computer running Windows Vista. You are about to complete a clean installation of Windows 7 on the computer, and you need to migrate user profiles and user data from the previous installation of Windows Vista. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)
answer
Use a wipe-and-load migration. Run WET and use External hard disk or USB flash drive as the transfer method.
question
You have two computers: ComputerA is running Windows Vista and ComputerB is running Windows 7. You need to migrate specific application settings from ComputerA to ComputerB by using USMT. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)
answer
Run scanstate with the /i option. Edit the migapp.xml file.
question
You have a computer that runs Windows XP Professional. You want to upgrade your computer to Windows 7 Professional. You want your user profile settings to be applied to Windows 7, with all user files available following the upgrade. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do?
answer
Perform a custom (advanced) installation of Windows 7 to the existing hard drive. After the installation, boot into Windows 7 and run Scanstate and then Loadstate.
question
You have a computer running Windows 7. The computer is part of a domain. You need to transfer user profiles and data files to the computer from a network share using USMT; however, you do not have USMT. What should you do?
answer
Download the Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK) from Microsoft.
question
Command line options for the Loadstate command are listed on the left. Drag each command line option and drop it onto the correct description of the function it performs on the right.
answer
/ui > Specify user(s) to be migrated /hardlink > Restore from a linked migration store. /lae > Enable user accounts /ue > Specify user(s) to omit from migration /lac > Create user accounts
question
Command line options for the Scanstate command are listed on the left. Drag each command line option and drop it onto the correct description of the function it performs on the right.
answer
/o > Allow overwriting existing data. /ue > Specify user(s) to omit from migration /ui Specify user(s) to be migrated. /offlineWinOld > Path to the offline Windows.old folder. /p /nocompress > Generate a space estimate.
question
You have a computer that runs Windows XP Professional. You want to upgrade your computer to Windows 7 Professional. You want to customize the migration of application, user profile, and user data. What should you do? (Select two. Each choice is a required part of the solution.)
answer
Edit the MigApp.xml and MigDocs.xml files Run Scanstate.
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CCNA3 ch 1 – Flashcards 65 terms

Elizabeth Bates
65 terms
Preview
CCNA3 ch 1 – Flashcards
question
A large business environment with many users, locations, and systems is referred to as an
answer
enterprise
question
All enterprise networks must:
answer
Support critical applications Support converged network traffic Support diverse business needs Provide centralized administrative control
question
Enterprise-class equipment is designed for reliability, with features such as
answer
redundant power supplies and failover capabilities
question
Failover capability is?
answer
the ability of a device to switch from a nonfunctioning module, service, or device to a functioning one with little or no break in service.
question
the 3 layer hierarchical design model has three layers what are they?
answer
• Access layer • Distribution layer • Core layer
question
what does the access layer do?
answer
provides connectivity for the users.
question
The distribution layer does what?
answer
The distribution layer is used to forward traffic from one local network to another.
question
what is the core layer?
answer
The core layer represents a high-speed backbone layer between dispersed networks.
question
which layers form the two-tier hierarchical design?
answer
the core and distribution layers are collapsed into one layer, reducing cost and complexity
question
what is the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
answer
it divides the network into functional components while still maintaining the core, distribution, and access layers. The primary Cisco Enterprise Architecture modules include • Enterprise Campus • Enterprise Edge • Service Provider Edge • Remote
question
what is Enterprise Campus?
answer
The Enterprise Campus consists of the entire campus infrastructure, to include the access, distribution, and core layers. The access layer module contains Layer 2 or Layer 3 switches to provide the required port density. Implementation of VLANs and trunk links to the building distribution layer occurs here. Redundancy to the building distribution switches is important. The distribution layer module aggregates building access using Layer 3 devices. Routing, access control, and QoS are performed at this distribution layer module. The core layer module provides high-speed interconnectivity between the distribution layer modules, data center server farms, and the enterprise edge. Redundancy, fast convergence, and fault tolerance are the focus of the design in this module.
question
what are the submodules of enterprise campus?
answer
Server Farm and Data Center Module Services Module
question
what is the server farm and data center module?
answer
This area provides high-speed connectivity and protection for servers. It is critical to provide security, redundancy, and fault tolerance. The network management systems monitor performance by monitoring device and network availability
question
what is the services module?
answer
This area provides access to all services, such as IP Telephony services, wireless controller services, and unified services.
question
explain enterprise edge
answer
The Enterprise Edge consists of the Internet, VPN, and WAN modules connecting the enterprise with the service provider's network. This module extends the enterprise services to remote sites and enables the enterprise to use Internet and partner resources. It provides QoS, policy reinforcement, service levels, and security.
question
explain service provider edge
answer
The Service Provider Edge provides Internet, Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN), and WAN services. All data that enters or exits the Enterprise Composite Network Model (ECNM) passes through an edge device. This is the point where all packets can be examined and a decision made whether the packet should be allowed on the enterprise net- work. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) and intrusion prevention systems (IPS) can also be configured at the enterprise edge to protect against malicious activity.
question
what is a failure domain?
answer
A failure domain is the area of a network that is impacted when a critical device or network service experiences problems.
question
what is used to minimize the chance of disruption in a network?
answer
redundant links and reliable enterprise-class equipment
question
In the hierarchical design model, it is easiest and usually least expensive to control the size of a failure domain in the _________ layer because network errors can be contained to a smaller area, thus affecting fewer users
answer
distribution layer
question
what is switch block/department block/building block
answer
when Routers, or multilayer switches, are deployed in pairs, with access layer switches evenly divided between them
question
Each _______ acts independently of the others. As a result, the failure of a single device does not cause the network to go down. Even the failure of an entire switch block does not affect a significant number of end users.
answer
switch block
question
Included in a basic network design strategy are the following recommendations:
answer
- Use expandable, modular equipment or clustered devices - include modules that can be added, upgraded, and modified, as necessary, without affecting the design of the other functional areas of the network - Create an IPv4 or IPv6 address strategy that is hierarchical - filter trafic
question
Advanced network design requirements include:
answer
- Implementing redundant links in the network between critical devices and between access layer and core layer devices. - Implementing multiple links between equipment, with either link aggregation (EtherChannel) or equal-cost load balancing - Implementing wireless connectivity to allow for mobility and expansion - Using a scalable routing protocol
question
what is a downside to redundant paths?
answer
logical Layer 2 loops
question
what can prevent logical Layer 2 loops
answer
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
question
what is Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
answer
STP allows for the redundancy required for reliability but eliminates the switching loops. It does this by providing a mechanism for disabling redundant paths in a switched network until the path is necessary, such as when failures occur. STP is an open standard protocol, used in a switched environment to create a loop-free logical topology.
question
what is link aggreation
answer
Link aggregation allows an administrator to increase the amount of bandwidth between devices by creating one logical link made up of several physical links. EtherChannel is a form of link aggregation used in switched networks
question
what are some advantages of etherchannel?
answer
- saves money - Most configuration tasks are done on the EtherChannel interface, instead of on each individual port - uses load balancing
question
OSPF Routers reach a FULL state of adjacency when?
answer
they have synchronized views on their link-state database
question
when are OSPF link-state updates sent?
answer
when network changes occur
question
All non-backbone areas must directly connect to _____
answer
area 0
question
Campus LAN Switches:
answer
To scale network performance in an enterprise LAN, there are core, distribution, access, and compact switches.
question
Cloud-Managed Switches:
answer
The Cisco Meraki cloud-managed access switches enable virtual stacking of switches. They monitor and configure thousands of switch ports over the web, without the intervention of onsite IT staff.
question
Data Center Switches:
answer
A data center should be built based on switches that promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility. The data center switch platforms include the Cisco Nexus Series switches and the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switches.
question
Service Provider Switches:
answer
Service provider switches fall under two categories: aggregation switches and Ethernet access switches. Aggregation switches are carrier-grade Ethernet switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of a network. Service provider Ethernet access switches feature application intelligence, unified services, virtualization, integrated security, and simplified management.
question
Virtual Networking switches:
answer
Networks are becoming increasingly virtualized. Cisco Nexus virtual networking switch platforms provide secure multitenant services by adding virtualization intelligence technology to the data center network.
question
what are some common business considerations when selecting switch equipment
answer
- cost - port density (no. of ports available) - power - reliability - port speed - frame buffers - scalability
question
what are Frame Buffers
answer
The ability of the switch to store frames is important in a net- work where there might be congested ports to servers or other areas of the network.
question
what are forwarding rates?
answer
Forwarding rates define the processing capabilities of a switch by rating how much data the switch can process per second. Entry-level switches have lower forwarding rates than enterprise-level switches
question
what is wire speed?
answer
Wire speed is the data rate that each Ethernet port on the switch is capable of attaining.
question
FACT:
answer
Access layer switches typically do not need to operate at full wire speed, because they are physically limited by their uplinks to the distribution layer. This means that less expensive, lower-performing switches can be used at the access layer, and more expensive, higher-performing switches can be used at the distribution and core layers, where the forwarding rate has a greater impact on network performance.
question
what is power over ethernet?
answer
Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows the switch to deliver power to a device over the existing Ethernet cabling. This feature can be used by IP phones and some wireless access points
question
what allows virtual stacking of switches?
answer
Cisco Meraki cloud-managed access switches
question
where are multi layer switches typically deployed?
answer
the core and distribution layers
question
what are multi layer switches?
answer
Multilayer switches are characterized by their ability to build a routing table, support a few routing protocols, and forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2 forwarding
question
Multilayer switches often support specialized hardware, such as application-specific integrated circuits (ASIC). what are ASIC's?
answer
ASICs can streamline the forwarding of IP packets independent of the CPU.
question
what do routers use to route packets to their destination?
answer
the network portion of the destination ip address
question
what are some beneficial functions of routers?
answer
- Provide broadcast containment - Connect remote locations - Group users logically by application or department - Provide enhanced security
question
what is a branch router?
answer
Branch routers optimize branch services on a single platform while delivering an optimal application experience across branch and WAN infrastructures. Maximizing service availability at the branch requires networks designed for 24x7x365 uptime. Highly available branch networks must ensure fast recovery from typical faults, while minimizing or eliminating the impact on service, and provide simple network configuration and management.
question
what is a network edge router?
answer
Network edge routers enable the network edge to deliver high-performance, highly secure, and reliable services that unite campus, data center, and branch networks. Customers also want to access content anytime and anyplace they choose, over any device, whether at home, at work, or on the go. Network edge routers must deliver enhanced quality of service and nonstop video and mobile capabilities
question
what is a Service Provider Routers?
answer
- end-to-end scalable solutions and subscriber-aware services. - optimise operations, reduce expenses, and improve scalability and flexibility to deliver next-generation Internet experiences across all devices and locations. These systems are designed to simplify and enhance the operation and deployment of service-delivery networks.
question
what is Out-of-band management?
answer
is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
question
what does out of band management require?
answer
- Direct connection to console or AUX port - Terminal emulation client
question
what is In-band management?
answer
In-band management is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a net- work device over a network connection. Configuration using in-band management requires:
question
what does In-band management require?
answer
- At least one network interface on the device to be connected and operational - Telnet, SSH, or HTTP to access a Cisco device
question
A _______ should have a connection to two different access layer switches. It should have redundant modules when possible and a power backup source. It might be appropriate to provide multiple connections to one or more ISPs.
answer
mission-critical server
question
What are the expected features of modern enterprise networks?
answer
Support for converged network Support for critical applications
question
Which methods help to prevent the disruption of network services?
answer
Using redundant connections to provide alternate physical paths Installing duplicate equipment to provide failover services
question
Which feature could be used in a network design to increase the band width by combining multiple physical links into a single logical link?
answer
EtherChannel
question
Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?
answer
Implementing wireless connectivity
question
How much traffic is a 48-port gigabit switch capable of generating when operating at full wire speed?
answer
48 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
question
Which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work?
answer
Network edge routers
question
What is a characteristic of out-of-band device management?
answer
It requires a terminal emulation client.
question
The number of ports available on a single switch is referred to as _______
answer
port density
question
Among the beneficial functions of a router are enhanced network security and containment of ______ traffic.
answer
broadcast