The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease who is receiving epoetin alfa. Which of the following assessment findings would be of greatest concern for the nurse?

Reports of calf pain on dorsiflexion of the foot More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/pharm-hematopoisis/

How many stages of chronic kidney disease

5 1 GFR >90 2 GFR 60-89 3 GFR 30-59 4 GFR 15-29 5 GFR

A coding profession may assume a cause-and- effect relationship between hypertension and which of the following complications A. Hypertension and heart disease B. Hypertension and chronic kidney disease C. Hypertension and heart and chronic disease D. None of the above

Hypertension and Chronic kidney disease (ICD-10 Chapter 9) More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/applied-coding-workbook/

Aluminum hydroxide is prescribed for the client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). When should the nurse instruct the client to take this medication?

with meals More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/renal-nclex-pn-6th-edition/

Which of the following conditions is known to cause chronic kidney disease?

Hypertension More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-26-renal-function/

Which lab value is likely to be decreased in a client with chronic kidney disease?

serum calcium More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chronic-kidney-disease-hesi-case-study-for-unit-2-exam/

Which over-the-counter medication decreases hyperphosphatemia in clients diagnosed with chronic kidney disease? 1. Maalox 2. Pepto-bismol 3. Kaopectate 4. Amphogel

Amphogel More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/kaplan-med-surg-i/

This 68 year-old female presents to the office with treatment for her anemia. She also has stage III chronic kidney disease. What is the correct diagnosis code(s) for this visit? a. 585.3, 285.21 b. 285.21, 585.3 c. 585.3, 285.9 d. 285.21

b. 285.21, 585.3 More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/icd-9/

What is the best description of chronic kidney disease?

it is a fatal disorder UNLESS renal replacement therapy is received More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chronic-kidney-disease-hesi-case-study-for-unit-2-exam/

What is the leading cause of chronic kidney disease for adults in the U.S.?

Diabetes More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/dialysis-technician-exam-study-guide/

Chronic Kidney Disease test questions and answers | Get Access To Chronic Kidney Disease Flashcards and exam tests

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Anatomy Blood In The Urine Chronic Kidney Disease Chronic Renal Failure Medical Terminology

Medical Terminology Ch 7 Urinary System – Flashcards 120 terms

Daniel Jimmerson

120 terms

Preview

Medical Terminology Ch 7 Urinary System – Flashcards

question

cali/o, calic/o

answer

combining form for Calyx (cup-like collecting region of the renal pelvis)

question

glomerul/o

answer

combining form for glomerulus (tiny ball of capillaries in the kidney)

question

meat/o

answer

combining form for meatus (opening or canal)

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nephr/o, ren/o

answer

combining forms for kidney (two bean-shaped organs on either side of the backbone in the lumbar region that filters waste from the bloodstream to form urine)

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pyel/o

answer

combining form for renal pelvis

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trigon/o

answer

combining form for trigone (triangular area in the urinary bladder)

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ureter/o

answer

combining form for ureter (2 tubes leading from the kidney to the urinary bladder)

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urethr/o

answer

combining form for urethra (tube from urinary bladder to outside the body)

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vesic/o, cyst/o

answer

combining forms for urinary bladder

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albumin/o

answer

combining form for albumin

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azot/o

answer

combining form for nitrogen

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bacteri/o

answer

combining form for bacteria

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dips/o

answer

combining form for thirst

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kal/o

answer

combining form for potassium

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ket/o, keton/o

answer

combining form for Ketone bodies

question

lith/o

answer

combining form for stone

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natr/o

answer

combining form for sodium

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noct/o

answer

combining form for night

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olig/o

answer

combining form for scanty (very little)

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py/o

answer

combining form for pus

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ur/o

answer

combining form for urine ((urea) - major nitrogenouse wast excreted in urine)

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urin/o

answer

combining form for urine

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-poietin

answer

suffix - substance that forms

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-tripsy

answer

suffix - crushing

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-uria

answer

suffix - urination; urine condition

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caliectasis

answer

medical term for widening/dialation fo calyx

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caliceal

answer

medical term meaning PT the calyx

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cystitis

answer

medical term meaning inflammation of the urinary bladder

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cystectomy

answer

medical term for excision of the urinary bladder

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cystostomy

answer

medical term for a new opening in the urinary bladder

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glomerular capsule

answer

medical term for the enclosing structure that surrounds each glomerulus; also known as the Bowman capsule - collects the material that is filtered from the blodd through the walls of the glomerulus.

question

meatal stenosis

answer

medical term for narrowing of the opening or canal

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paranephric

answer

medical term for PT near the kidney

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nephropathy

answer

medical term meaning kidney disease

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nephroptosis

answer

medical term for sagging, drooping of kidney

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nephrolithotomy

answer

medical term for an incision into the kidney to remove a stone

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hydronephrosis

answer

medical term for abnormal condition of water in the kidney

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nephrostomy

answer

medical term for new opening in the kidney

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pyelolithotomy

answer

medical term meaning to cut into the renal pelvis to remove a stone

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renal ischemia

answer

medical term for holding back blood from the kidney

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renal colic

answer

medical term meaning intermittent spasms of pain in the kidney

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trigonitis

answer

medical term meaning inflammation of the trigone

question

ureteroplasty

answer

medical term meaning surgical repair of the ureter

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ureteroileostomy

answer

medical term for the formation of a new bladder from a peice of ileum (also called ileal conduit)

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urethritis

answer

medical term for inflammation of the urethra

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urethroplasty

answer

medical term for surgical repair of the urethra

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urethral stricture

answer

medical term for abnormal narrowing of the urethro

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intravesical

answer

medical term for PT within the urinary bladder

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vesicoureteral reflux

answer

medical term for PT urine flowing back up into the ureters

question

albuminuria

answer

medical term for albumin in the urine

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microalbuminuria

answer

medical term for leakage of a very small amount of albumin through the glomeruli

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azotemia

answer

medical term for excessive nitrogen in te blood

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bacteriuria

answer

medical term for bacteria in the urine (usually a sign of a UTI)

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polydipsia

answer

medical term for excessive thirst (usually a sign of diabetes

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hyperkalemia

answer

medical term for excessive potassium in the blood

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ketosis

answer

medical term for elevated Ketones in the blood (often called ketoacidosis becaue acids accumulate in the blood and tissues - often patients iwth ketosis have a sweet of fruity ordor)

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ketonuria

answer

medical term for condition of ketones in the urine

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nephrolithiasis

answer

medical term for kidney stones (remal calculi)

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hyponatremia

answer

medical term for low sodium in the blood

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nocturia

answer

medical term for excessive urination at night

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oliguria

answer

medical term for scanty (very little) urine

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erythropoietin

answer

medical term for substance (hormone) that forms red blood cells (secreted by the kidney)

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pyuria

answer

medical term for puss in the urine

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lithotripsy

answer

medical term for crushing of stones

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uremia

answer

medical term for urine in the blood

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enuresis

answer

medical term for bed wetting (literally means condition of being in urine)

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diuresis

answer

medical term meaning complete urination

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antidiuretic hormone

answer

medical term for a hormone that prevents the formatin of urine (also called vasopressin)

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urinary incontinence

answer

medical term meaning not able to hold urine

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stress incontinence

answer

medical term - occurs with strain on the bladder opening during soughing or sneezing

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urgency incontinence

answer

medical term - occurs with inability to hold back urination when feeling the urge to void

question

urinary retention

answer

medical term meaning unable to urinate

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dysuria

answer

medical term meaning painful urination

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anuria

answer

medical term meaning no urine (commonly caused by urinatry tract obstruction

question

hematuria

answer

medical term meanng blood in the urine

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glycosuria

answer

medical term meaning sugar in the urine

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polyuria

answer

medical term meaning excessive urination (often a sympton of diabetes )

question

glomerulonephritis

answer

medical condition - inflammatoin of the glomeruli within the kidney

question

polycystic kidney disease

answer

medical condition - multiple fluid-filled sacs (cysts) within the kidney

question

pyelonephritis

answer

medical condition - inflammation of the lining of the renal pelvis and renal parenchyma

question

renal hypertension

answer

medical condition - high blood pressure resulting from kidney disease

question

diabetes insipidus

answer

medical condition - antidiuretic hormone is not secreted adequately, or the kidney is resistant to its effect (linked to obesity)

question

diabetes mellitus

answer

medical condition - insulin is not secreted adequately or not used properly in the body

question

blood urea nitrogen

answer

test/procedure - measurement of urea levels in the blood

question

renal angiography

answer

test/procedure - x-ray examination (with contrast) of the blood vessels of the kidney

question

cystoscopy

answer

test/procedure - direct visualization of the urethra and urinary bladder with an endoscope (cystoscope)

question

hemodialysis (HD)

answer

test/procedure - uses an artificial kidney machine that receives waste-filled blood from the patients bloodstream, filters it, and returns the dialyzed blood to the patients body

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peritoneal dialysis (PD)

answer

test/procedure - uses a peritoneal catheter to introduce fluid into the peritoneal cavity

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lithotripsy

answer

test/procedure - urinary tract stones are crushed

question

renal angioplasty

answer

test/procedure - dilatino of narrowed areas in renal arteries

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renal biopsy

answer

test/procedure - removal of kidney tissue for microscopic examiniation

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renal transplantation

answer

test/procedure - surgical transfer of a kidney from a donor to a recipient

question

urinary catheterization

answer

test/procedure - passage of a flexible, tubular instrument through the urethra into the urinary bladder

question

ADH

answer

abbreviation - antidiuretic hormone - vassopressin

question

BUN

answer

abbreviation - blood urea nitrogen

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CRF

answer

abbreviation - chronic renal failure

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cysto

answer

abbreviation - cystoscopic examination

question

answer

abbreviation - hemodialysis

question

KUB

answer

abbreviation - kidney, ureter and bladder

question

PKD

answer

abbreviation - polycystic kidney disease

question

answer

abbreviation - urinalysis

question

UTI

answer

abbreviation - urinary tract infection

question

cortex

answer

vocabuluary - outer region of an organ (cortical means PT the cortex)

question

catheter

answer

vocabulary - tube for injecting or removing fluids

question

creatinine

answer

vocabulary - nitrogenous waste excreted in the urine

question

electrolyte

answer

vocabulary - chemical element that carries and electrical charge when dissolved in water (necessary for the functioning of muscles and nerves)

question

filtration

answer

vocabulary - process whereby some but not all substances pass through a filter

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hilum

answer

vocabulary - depression in an organ where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave

question

medulla

answer

vocabulary - inner region or an organ (medullary means PT to the medulla)

question

nephron

answer

vocabulary - combination of glomerulus and renal tubule where filtration, reabsorption and secretion take place in the kidney

question

nitrogenous waste

answer

vocabulary - substance containing nitrogen ad excreted in urine

question

potassium (K+)

answer

vocabulary - electrolyte regulated by the kidney so that a proper concentration is maintained within the blood (potassium is essential for allowing muscle contraction and conduction of nervous impulses)

question

renal artery

answer

vocabulary - blood vessel that carries blood to the kidney

question

renal pelvis

answer

vocabulary - central collecting region in the kidney

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renal tubule

answer

vocabulary - microscopic tubes inthe kidney where urine if formed after filtration

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renal vein

answer

vocabulary - blood vessel that carries blood away from the kidney and toward the heart

question

renin

answer

vocabuary - hormone secreted by the kidney; raises blood pressure influencing narrowing of the blood vessels

question

sodium (Na+)

answer

vocabulary - electrolyte regulated in the blood and urine by the kidneys; needed for poper transmission of nerve impulses, heart activity and other metabolic functions

question

uric acid

answer

vocabulary - nitrogenous wast excreted in the urine

question

urinary bladder

answer

vocabulary - hollow, muscular sac that holods and stores urine

STUDY

Anatomy Chronic Kidney Disease End Stage Renal Disease Medical Terminology Urinary System

med term 9 – Flashcards 64 terms

Elizabeth Hill

64 terms

Preview

med term 9 – Flashcards

question

intravenous pyelogram

answer

a radiographic study of the kidneys and ureters with the use of an intravenous contrast medium

question

anuria

answer

The absence of urine formation by the kidneys

question

Polycystic

answer

kidney disease is a disorder in which fluid-filled cysts grow on the kidney and replace much of the mass of the kidney

question

ureterolith

answer

a stone located in the ureter

question

hypospadias

answer

a congenital abnormality in which the urethral opening is on the undersurface of the penis in males.

question

chronic

answer

The progressive loss of renal function over months or years

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nocturnal enuresis

answer

commonly known as bed-wetting.

question

prostatic hyperplasia

answer

an abnormal enlargement of the prostate gland that is not malignant

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nocturia

answer

excessive urination during the night

question

Ablation

answer

the removal of a body part or the destruction of its function by surgery or other methods

question

oliguria

answer

The medical term meaning scanty urination

question

catheterization

answer

the insertion of a tube into the bladder

question

urethrostenosis

answer

Narrowing of the urethra

question

epispadias

answer

abnormality in which the urethra opening is on the upper surface of the penis

question

nephropathy

answer

any degenerative or inflammatory condition of the kidney

question

nephrotic

answer

a condition characterized by high levels of protein in the urine and low levels of protein present in the blood

question

Hemodialysis

answer

replaces kidney function by filtering waste products directly from the patient's blood

question

pyelotomy

answer

a surgical incision into the renal pelvis

question

neurogenic

answer

The urinary problem caused by interference with the normal nerve pathways associated with urination

question

percutaneous nephrolithotomy

answer

performed to insert a nephroscope to crush and remove a kidney stone.

question

end stage

answer

The final stage of chronic kidney disease

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Suprapubic catheterization

answer

the placement of a catheter into the bladder through a small incision just above the pubic bone

question

pyeloplasty

answer

the surgical repair of the ureter and renal pelvis

question

uremia

answer

The toxic condition caused by excessive amount of urea and other waste products in the bloodstream

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Prostatism

answer

the condition of having symptoms resulting from obstruction of the urethra due to benign prostatic hyperplasia

question

Wilms

answer

a malignant tumor of the kidney that occurs in children

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urethritis

answer

an inflammation of the urethra

question

cystourethrography

answer

a diagnostic procedure to examine the flow of urine from the bladder and through the urethra

question

Interstitial cystitis

answer

a chronic inflammation within the wall of the bladder

question

polyuria

answer

excessive urination.

question

dialysis

answer

The procedure to remove waste products from the blood of patients whose kidneys no longer function

question

urethrorrhagia

answer

bleeding from the urethra

question

nephrostomy

answer

the establishment of an opening between the pelvis of the kidney and the exterior of the body

question

peritoneal dialysis

answer

the lining of the peritoneal cavity acts as the filter to remove waste from blood

question

Incontinence

answer

the inability to control excretory functions

question

urethrotomy

answer

a surgical incision into the urethra for relief of a stricture

question

nephrolithiasis

answer

The disorder characterized by the presence of stones in the kidney

question

vesicovaginal

answer

An abnormal opening between the bladder and vagina

question

glomerulonephritis

answer

he type of nephritis that involves primarily the glomeruli

question

Pyelonephritis

answer

an inflammation of both the renal pelvis and of the kidney

question

overactive bladder

answer

urge incontinence

question

renal cortex

answer

the outer region of the kidney

question

dysuria

answer

describes difficult or painful urination

question

KUB

answer

a flat-plate of the abdomen,radiographic study

question

edema

answer

refers to excessive fluid accumulation in body tissues

question

Foley catheter

answer

type of catheter is made of a flexible tube with a balloon filled with sterile water at the end to hold it in place in the bladder

question

ileal conduit

answer

an ileostomy

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ureteral orifices

answer

Urine drains from the ureters into the bladder through this

question

Urinary hesitancy

answer

difficulty in starting a urinary stream

question

urethral meatus

answer

refers to the external opening of the urethra

question

ureteroscopy

answer

refers to treatment for a nephrolith lodged in the ureter

question

neobladder

answer

a replacement for the missing bladder created by using about 20 inches of the small intestine

question

nephropexy

answer

the surgical fixation of a floating kidney,Also known as nephrorrhaphy

question

urinalysis

answer

refers to the examination of urine to determine the presence of abnormal elements

question

renal vein

answer

returns filtered blood to the bloodstream after passing through the glomerulus

question

acute renal failure

answer

condition can be caused by the kidneys not receiving enough blood to filter due to dehydration or a sudden drop in blood volume or blood pressure

question

renal colic

answer

an acute pain in the kidney area that is caused by blockage during the passage of a nephrolith

question

urinary retention

answer

also known as ischuria

question

bladder retraining

answer

refers to behavioral therapy in which the patient learns to urinate on a schedule

question

overflow incontinence

answer

incontinence usually occurs in older men with enlarged prostates

question

cystography

answer

refers to a radiographic examination of the bladder after a contrast medium is instilled via a urethral catheter

question

meatotomy

answer

a surgical incision made to enlarge the opening of the urethral meatus

question

glomerulus

answer

Each nephron contains a cluster of capillaries

question

transurethral prostatectomy

answer

the removal of excess tissue from an enlarged prostate gland with the use of a resectoscope

STUDY

Chronic Kidney Disease High Risk Behaviors Men And Women Public Health

First Aid Ch. 1&2 – Flashcards 53 terms

Jonathan Walsh

53 terms

Preview

First Aid Ch. 1&2 – Flashcards

question

One of the leading cause of death in the United States is?

answer

Heart disease

question

If someone recognizes that an emergency has happened and they fail to act, what would be some of those reason they chose not to help. a. Panic b. Assuming others will act c. Fear of catching a disease d. All of the given answers

answer

d. All of the given answers

question

What is the most important step you can take in an emergency?

answer

Activating the EMS system by calling 9-1-1 or the local emergency number

question

First aid is intended to: a. take the place of medical treatment b. provide care until the prognosis is known c. only take care of injuries for which medical care is not needed d. provide temporary assistance until competent medical care, if needed, is obtained

answer

d. provide temporary assistance until competent medical care, if needed, is obtained

question

Properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between: a. life and death b. rapid recovery and long hospitalization c. temporary disability and permanent injury d. all of the answers given

answer

d. all of the answers given

question

Consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is: a. responsive b. mentally competent c. an adult d. all answers given

answer

d. all answers given

question

If the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is known as: a. actual consent b. talked about consent c. implied consent d. legal consent

answer

c. implied consent

question

What is the purpose of Good Samaritan Laws? a. To help protect who voluntarily gives care without accepting anything in return b. To discourage people from helping other in an emergency situation c. To protect people who give care beyond their level of traing d. None of the above

answer

a. To help protect who voluntarily gives care without accepting anything in return

question

What should you do if the person does not give you consent? a. Do not give care but instead call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number b. Give care and call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number c. Give care but do not call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number d. None of the above

answer

a. Do not give care but instead call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number

question

The steps to follow in an emergency are: a. Check-Call-Care b. Call-Check-Secure c. Call-Check-Care d. Care-Call-Check

answer

a. Check-Call-Care

question

For which injury or illness should you call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number? a. The person has trouble breathing b. The person has a headache after reading in poor light c. The person has a stomachache after eating d. The person has a cough that hurts

answer

a. The person has trouble breathing

question

Which of the following is NOT a technique for moving an injuried person: a. Head drag b. Ankle drag c. Blanket drag d. Clothes drag

answer

a. Head drag

question

By following standard precautions to protect yourself and the injured or ill person, you will: a. Minimize the risk of disease transmission b. Increase the risk of disease transmission c. Reduce the number of times you need to wear gloves d. None of the above

answer

a. Minimize the risk of disease transmission

question

What should you do when checking a conscious person? a. Get consent to give care b. Do not touch or move painful, injured areas on the body c. Ask question d. All of the answers given

answer

d. All of the answers given

question

About how many seconds should you check for breathing? a. No more than 5 b. No more than 10 c. No more than 15 d. No more than 20

answer

b. No more than 10

question

You see a woman collapse in front of you while entering the lobby of your office building. You check the scene and then check the person for consciousness, but she does not respond. What should you do next? a. Call or have someone else call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number b. Have the person lie down c. Drive the person to the hospital d. Give 2 rescue breaths

answer

a. Call or have someone else call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number

question

You determine that a person may be in shock. Do each of the following expect: a. Give the person water b. Have the person lie down c. Keep the person form getting chilled or overheated d. Monitor the person's condition

answer

a. Give the person water

question

What is the usual shock position you should put a person in if they are going into shock? a. on the back with the legs elevated 8-12 inches b. sitting up c. on the side d. on the back with the leg comfortably flat

answer

d. on the back with the leg comfortably flat

question

When should an unresponsive victim be placed on the side? a. When the victim starts to vomit or when you have to leave the victim alone b. When the victim starts to talk c. When you try to give the victim something to drink d. When you are trying to reduce swelling of the brain

answer

a. When the victim starts to vomit or when you have to leave the victim alone

question

Medical identification tags can help the first aider identify: a. allergies b. medical history c. medications d. All of the answers given

answer

d. All of the answers given

question

If the unresponsive victim is breathing and you are staying with the victim to monitor him/her the best position to put them in is: a. on the back b. sitting up c. on the stomach d. on the side

answer

a. on the back

question

Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim? a. head-tilt/chin-lift b. head- tilt/ mouth-open c. head-tilt/neck-lift d. chin-lift & arms up

answer

a. head-tilt/chin-lift

question

One should call 9-1-1 immediately if they see a 12 year old child go unconscious: true false

answer

true

question

A reason that you do not give food or drink to a shock victim is because they could have to go into surgery later. true false

answer

true

question

A scream and a loud explosion is normally a sign that an emergency exits. True False

answer

True

question

If you see a person drowning always jump in the water to save them. true false

answer

false

question

Expressed consent is an unconscious person asking for help. true false

answer

false

question

To clean up a blood spill one can use a gallon of a mixture of 1 part bleach to 9 parts water and let it stand for 2 minutes. true false

answer

false

question

Why is checking the scene so important?

answer

Before administering help in an emergency situation, it is important to check the scene to ensure the safety of the injured or ill person, bystanders, and yourself. Without checking the scene, one may overlook potential danger that can create more harm. Prior to calling for help, one must know if the scene is safe by asking these questions: What has happened? How many people have been involved in the accident? What is wrong? Are there any bystanders available to help? Is immediate danger involved? If one does not evaluate the scene by asking these questions, one can not administer the appropriate steps of action needed to care for the victim.

question

Causes of cardiac arrest in a child include: a. SIDS b. Traumatic injuries or accidents c. All of the answers given d. Airway and breathing problems

answer

c. All of the answers given

question

When performing adult CPR, how many compressions should be given? a. 15 b. 10 c. 5 d. 30

answer

d. 30

question

When would you stop giving CPR? a. When the victim shows no sign of life b. When someone has called 911 c. When the individual's skin color turns blue or gray in color d. When you are completely exhausted

answer

d. When you are completely exhausted

question

When performing child CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of: a. 80 compressions per minute b. 60 compressions per minute c. about 100 compressions per minute d. 120 cmpressions per minute

answer

c. about 100 compressions per minute

question

Early CPR is important in the Cardiac Chain of Survival because: a. It helps restart the heart b. It prevents heart attacks c. It helps circulate blood to vital organs until an AED is ready to use d. It prevents the heart from seizing up

answer

c. It helps circulate blood to vital organs until an AED is ready to use

question

When giving rescue breaths to an infant, you should: a. none of the answers given b. form an airtight seal around the infant's nose c. form an airtight seal around the infant's mouth and nose d. form an airtight seal around the infant's mouth

answer

c. form an airtight seal around the infant's mouth and nose

question

If you suspect an individual is having a heart attack you should. There are multiply answers, pick all that apply. a. Talk to the individual to make sure that they are not on medications or have a heart condition. b. Give the individual a drink of water c. Loosen any tight clothing. d. Be ready to preform CPR.

answer

a. Talk to the individual to make sure that they are not on medications or have a heart condition. c. Loosen any tight clothing. d. Be ready to preform CPR.

question

Where should you place your hands when giving chest compressions during CPR on an infant? a. One hand on the forehead and two or three fingers on the center of the chest b. One hand on the forehead and one hand on the chest c. One hand on the chin and two or three fingers on the center of the chest d. One hand on the chin andn one hand on the chest

answer

a. One hand on the forehead and two or three fingers on the center of the chest

question

The cycle of compressions and breaths in CPR for infants is: a. 15 chest compressions for every 2 rescue breaths b. None of the answers given c. 30 chest compressions for every 2 rescue breaths d. 30 chest compressions for every 1 rescue breaths

answer

c. 30 chest compressions for every 2 rescue breaths

question

Which of the following situations indicates that an infant needs CPR? a. The infant is choking but is conscious b. The infant is not breathing c. The infant is coughing forcefully d. The infant is having trouble breathing but is conscious

answer

b. The infant is not breathing

question

When performing CPR, do all of the following EXCEPT: a. Stopping when one is exhausted b. Compress the chest at a 45 degree angle c. Give chest compressions that are smooth and regular d. Compress the chest straight down and fast, about 100 compressions per minute

answer

b. Compress the chest at a 45 degree angle

question

About how many cycles of CPR should you perform in 2 mintues? 7 1 5 2

answer

question

When giving CPR to an infant, about how deep should you compress the chest: a. About 1 inch b. About 2 inches c. About 1 1/2 inches d. About 1/2 inch

answer

c. About 1 1/2 inches

question

If a person is suffering from pain or discomfort in the chest that lasts more than 3-5 minutes or that goes away and comes back, this person is most likely having: a. A heart attack b. A seizure c. A heat-related illness d. A stroke

answer

a. A heart attack

question

Which of the following is NOT a link in the Cardiac Chain of Survival? a. Early defibrillation b. Proper follow up from the Emergency Room c. Early CPR d. Early recognition and early access to EMS system

answer

b. Proper follow up from the Emergency Room

question

It is important to follow the links of the Cardiac Chain of Survival because: a. It helps improve the chance of survival b. CPR prevents heart attacks c. With early CPR, most cardiac arrest victims do not need defibrillation d. If EMS is called, additional care may not be necessary

answer

a. It helps improve the chance of survival

question

Effective chest compressions: a. Are delivered fast, about 100 compressions per mintue b. All of the answers given c. Allow the chest to return to the normal position d. Are smooth, regular and given straight u down

answer

b. All of the answers given

question

When giving rescue breaths to a child, how should you breathe into the child? a. Both a and c b. Give a breath lasting about 1 second c. Give breaths as hard as you can d. Give breaths as fast as you can

answer

b. Give a breath lasting about 1 second

question

If you see a child go unresponsive, the rescuer should: a. Perform first aid for 2 minutes, then activate EMS stay with the victim until someone else arrives b. stay with the victim until someone else arrives c. Call 911, then provide assistance d. activate EMS as soon as it's determines the victim is unresponsive

answer

c. Call 911, then provide assistance

question

Coronary Artery disease and Coronary Heart disease are the same disease. True False

answer

true

question

Men and women have the exact same signs for a heart attack. false true

answer

false

question

If a person answers no to all the questions related to aspirin and they are experiencing signs of a heart attack, they should take either 2 baby aspirin or 325mg of aspirin. true false

answer

true

question

Cardiovascular disease is the primary cause of cardiac arrest in adults. True False

answer

true

question

What is Hands-Only CPR and what would be some reason why a person would chose to use this method?

answer

Hands-Only CPR is an effective life saving technique in which one performs continuous chest compressions without mouth to mouth contact on the unconscious victim. This technique is best recommended for use on teens or adults that have suddenly collapsed. The hands-only technique greatly increases the chances of survival in emergencies that take place outside of a medical setting. Someone who is not confident or afraid they can not remember the steps they have learned in their CPR training are more likely to use Hands-Only CPR when they see someone collapse suddenly. A person may not be comfortable with mouth-to-mouth breathing, and Hands-Only CPR allows them to skip this step and just press on the chest to save another person's life.

STUDY

Chronic Kidney Disease Diagnosis Fibrous Connective Tissue Incision And Drainage Information Theory

ICD 10 CM/PCS Chapter 17 & 18 – Flashcards 60 terms

Paula Corcoran

60 terms

Preview

ICD 10 CM/PCS Chapter 17 & 18 – Flashcards

question

Lysis of adhesions should always be coded if mentioned in the operative report.

answer

False

question

Alcoholism can cause both hepatitis and cirrhosis

answer

True

question

If the appendix ruptures, ___________develops.

answer

peritonitis

question

A peptic ulcer can occur in the:

answer

stomach esophagus duodenum, jejunum, ileum all of the above (correct)

question

Mechanical obstruction of the intestine may be caused by:

answer

neoplasm adhesions herniation all of the above (correct)

question

Hematemesis is defined as:

answer

vomiting of blood

question

Cholelithiasis is a condition of stones in the:

answer

gallbladder

question

If a physician documents both diverticulosis and diverticulitis:

answer

code diverticulitis only

question

A cholecystectomy can be performed by an open approach or laparoscopically.

answer

True

question

An inguinal hernia can be unilateral or bilateral.

answer

True

question

The patient has a diagnosis of upper esophageal stricture and a history of COPD. An EGD with dilatation of the stricture is performed.

answer

K22.2, J44.9, 0D718ZZ

question

The squeezing or movement of food toward the stomach and down the digestive tract is called ____.

answer

peristalsis

question

A patient is admitted for chemotherapy for pancreatic cancer and develops ulcerative mucositis of the mouth due to gemcitabine.

answer

Z51.11, C25.9, K12.31, T45.1X5, 3E03305

question

____ is the abnormal condition of stones in the gallbladder.

answer

Cholelithiasis

question

Patient with known alcoholic cirrhosis of the liver is admitted with ascites and acute bacterial peritonitis due to Staphylococcus aureus. Patient is a recovering alcoholic who has been in remission for 2 years.

answer

K65.0, K70.31, F10.21, B95.61

question

The ER physician documents that the patient is being admitted for hematemesis. The patient has an Hct of 24.3. A transfusion of PRBC is administered, and the patient is taken to the OR for an EGD. The EGD reveals that the patient has an acute perforated duodenal ulcer that is causing the bleed. The ulcer is cauterized. The patient is treated with IV antibiotics, omeprazole, and NG tube. The discharge summary lists an additional diagnosis of acute blood loss anemia.

answer

K26.2, D62, 0D598ZZ, 30233N1

question

Code ____ is coded for personal history of malignant neoplasm of the GI tract, unspecified.

answer

Z85.00

question

Which Z code is associated with family history of digestive disorders

answer

Z83.79

question

Patient presents to the ER with severe abdominal pain. The patient has a history of Crohn's disease. She had asthma as a child and currently appears dehydrated. After study it is determined that the patient has an abscess of the large intestine. Antibiotics are administered, as well as IV fluids with potassium to treat the dehydration and hypokalemia.

answer

K50.914, E87.6, E86.0

question

Patient with malignant neoplasm of the descending colon is admitted for left hemicolectomy and temporary descending colostomy.

answer

C18.6, 0DTG0ZZ, 0D1M0Z4

question

All of the following are functions of the liver EXCEPT that it ____.

answer

stores and releases bile

question

An indirect hernia occurs when the protrusion is through the inguinal ring into the inguinal canal; this is different from a direct hernia.

answer

True

question

Symptoms of gastric ulcers may include pain when eating, vomiting, and tarry bowel movements.

answer

True

question

Ostomies are surgically created openings into the body. Enterostomies and colostomies are created to discharge waste products from the body.

answer

Both statements are true.

question

____ means bright red in the stool.

answer

Hematochezia

question

A patient presents with melena, weakness, and fatigue. A colonoscopy with biopsy of the rectum and colon is performed and reveals multiple diverticula and internal hemorrhoids. The path shows possible inflammatory bowel disease. No source of bleeding is identified. Discharge Diagnosis: GI bleed; chronic blood loss; anemia.

answer

K92.1, D50.0, K57.30, K64.8, 0DBE8ZX, 0DBP8ZX

question

A patient is admitted with Crohn's disease of the large bowel. A right hemicolectomy is performed with temporary ascending colostomy. The patient is malnourished and was dehydrated on admission. Postoperatively, the patient's potassium levels are monitored, and the hypokalemia is treated with K-Dur.

answer

K50.10, E46, E86.0, E87.6, 0DTF0ZZ, 0D1K024

question

What drug could be given to treat GERD?

answer

Prilosec

question

The mouth is where digestion begins.

answer

True

question

Patient comes to the ER with severe abdominal pain and a long history of alcoholism. Physician documents that patient is currently drinking a fifth of liquor a day. Patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis secondary to alcohol use.

answer

K85.9, F10.10

question

Hives and _____________are synonymous terms.

answer

urticaria

question

Decubitus ulcers can progress to ____________if not treated.

answer

osteomyelitis

question

When cellulitis is associated with a skin ulcer, code:

answer

cellulitis and the skin ulcer

question

STSG stands for:

answer

split-thickness skin graft

question

Cellulitis associated with an open wound requires two codes with cellulitis always sequenced as principal.

answer

False

question

An autograft is a graft from:

answer

one area of the body to another in the same individual

question

Decubitus ulcers are coded the same as all other ulcers

answer

False

question

Scrubbing or washing devitalized tissue is known as:

answer

nonexcisional debridement

question

Incision and drainage is coded the same as a debridement.

answer

False

question

Cellulitis is typically treated with

answer

antibiotics

question

Patient has a pressure ulcer of the left ankle on admission, which is documented as a stage I and progresses to a stage III during the course of the stay. The patient is a paraplegic.

answer

L89.523, G82.20

question

In ICD-10-CM decubitus ulcers use a combination code for location and stage.

answer

True

question

Skin grafts can be only full-thickness skin grafts.

answer

False

question

Which layer of the skin is composed of fibrous connective tissue?

answer

Middle Layer

question

A(n) ____ is a skin graft from one person to another.

answer

allograft

question

Patient stepped on a piece of glass and injured his foot 2 days ago. He is now being admitted to the hospital for treatment of cellulitis in the left leg. He has a past history of depression with anxiety for which he takes medicine. He is currently on antibiotics for acute bronchitis.

answer

L03.116, S91.312A, F41.8, J20.9, W25.xxxA

question

Pulse lavage debridement is performed by wound care nurse on a patient with a stage 3 decubitus ulcer of the right ankle. The patient is taking medications for diabetes and for high cholesterol.

answer

L89.513, E11.9, E78.0, 0HDKXZZ

question

The code for the stage of a pressure ulcer should be used as the principal diagnosis.

answer

False

question

A nursing home patient is admitted with an enlarging stage 3 sacral decubitus ulcer for wound care. The patient had a previous CVA with right hemiplegia and aphasia and is on medications for atrial fibrillation and Alzheimer's dementia.

answer

L89.153, I69.351, I69.320, I48.91, G30.9, F02.80

question

The functions of the integumentary system include all of the following EXCEPT ____.

answer

vitamin A synthesis

question

A(n) ____ is a skin graft to an individual from another species, such as a pig.

answer

xenograft

question

Pressure ulcers require two codes.

answer

True

question

Clusters of boils are known as a ____.

answer

carbuncle

question

A patient has a chronic ulcer of the right great toe with skin breakdown only and is admitted for excisional debridement of the skin. The patient has a medical history significant for COPD, asthma, and CAD.

answer

L97.511, J44.9, I25.10, 0HBMXZZ

question

Patient was admitted because of the development of blistering and erosion of skin and mucous membranes. About 5 days ago, the patient had fever, sore throat, and headache and was thought to have influenza. The patient was diagnosed with Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

answer

L51.1, Z86.19

question

On the discharge summary, the provider documents the following discharge diagnoses: exacerbation of COPD, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a healing sacral decubitus.

answer

J44.1, I10, E78.5, L89.159

question

Another name for a pressure ulcer is a decubitus ulcer.

answer

True

question

A patient comes to the ER with a crusty, itchy rash. The diagnosis is impetigo of the legs with cellulitis. The patient is admitted to treat the cellulitis.

answer

L03.115, L03.116, L01.00

question

A patient is admitted from the nursing home with suspected aspiration pneumonia. The attending physician documents that the patient has pressure ulcers on both buttocks. The left side has a stage II ulcer and the right side has a stage I ulcer.

answer

J69.0, L89.322, L89.311

question

What are the two most common bacteria associated with skin infections? 1. Streptococcus pyogenes 2. Escherichia coli 3. Staphylococcus aureus 4. Treponema pallidum 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

answer

1 and 3

STUDY

Advanced Pathophysiology Chronic Kidney Disease Pathophysiology Urology

chp. 37 nursing care of pt’s with disorders of the urinary system – Flashcards 82 terms

Keisha White

82 terms

Preview

chp. 37 nursing care of pt’s with disorders of the urinary system – Flashcards

question

Urinary tract Infection (UTI)

answer

Invasion of urinary tract by bacteria -woman > men -aging = older men due to enlarged prostate; women due to declining estrogen

question

predisposing factors: UTI

answer

-stasis of urine -contamination in perineal/ urethral area -instrumentations -reflux of urine -previous UTI's

question

UTI: signs & symptoms

answer

-dysuria -urgency -frequency -incontinence -nocturia -hematuria -back pain -cloudy, foul-smelling urine

question

Uti symptoms in Elderly

answer

-generalized fatigue is the most common - atypical symptoms: change in cognitive functioning

question

UTI:Urethritis

answer

Inflammation of urethra -R/T chemical irritant, bacterial infection, trauma, exposure to STD -SX: urinary frequency, urgency & dysuria -TX: remove cause, antibiotic

question

UTI: Cystitis

answer

Inflammation & infection of bladder wall -R/T bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites -90% UTI's caused by Escherichia coli -SX: dysuria, frequency, urgency & cloudy urine -TX: sulfa med. combo (Bactrim/Septra) complicated case ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

question

UTI: Pyelonephritis

answer

Infection of the kidneys -R/T bacteria, ascending -SX: fatigue, urgency, frequency, dysuria, flank pain, fever, chills, cloudy urine -Usually much more ill -TX: antibiotics (IV for severe cases)

question

UTI: diagnosis

answer

-urinalysis -C&S -CBC

question

UTI: nursing data collections

answer

SX: dysuria, flank pain, fever, chills, malaise -urine examined for cloudiness, blood, foul odor -predisposing factors -urinalysis & culture results

question

UTI: nursing diagnosis

answer

-acute pain -impaired urinary elimination -risk for injury -knowledge deficit

question

UTI: nursing care

answer

-monitor symptoms -monitor intake & output -pain control ( non-narcotics) -reinforce RN instructions: medications- take all antibiotics, prevention

question

Urological Obstruction

answer

Urinary tract obstruction is an interference with the flow of urine at any location along the urinary system -obstruction of urine flow is always significant -backup of urine destroys kidney -Causes: strictures, stones, & tumors

question

urethral strictures

answer

-urethra lumen narrowing due to scar tissue TX: mechanical dilation -surgery-urethroplasty

question

renal calculi

answer

-hard, generally small stones -kidney stones ( nephrolithiasis)

question

renal calculi : pathophysiology

answer

-urinary salts settle out -calcium oxalate most common

question

causes of renal calculi

answer

-family H/O -chronic dehydration -infection -immobility -dietary factors -men > women

question

S&S renal calculi

answer

-FLANK pain -hematuria -renal colic -frequency -dysuria -urgency -costovertebral tenderness -enuresis -GI upset

question

diagnosis: renal calculi

answer

-kidney-ureter-bladder (kub) xray -intravenous pyelogram (IVP) -renal ultrasound -urinalysis

question

therapeutic interventions: renal calculi

answer

-small stones passed (5mm or smaller) -IV fluids -pain control (morphine) -thiazide diuretics (increase reabsorbtion of calcium) -Allopurinal (reduces uric acid production) -lithrotripsy (breaks into small fragments)

question

renal calculi surgery

answer

-cystoscopy -cystolitholapaxy ( crushed & washed out) -cystotomy -ureterolithotomy -nephrolithotomy ( kidney stones) ; nephrostomy

question

prevention : renal calculi

answer

foods hydration exercise

question

complications: renal calculi

answer

uti's hydronephrosis

question

nursing diagnosis: renal calculi

answer

-ACUTE PAIN -risk for infections -deficient knowledge

question

renal calculi Nursing care

answer

-monitor symptoms -strain all urine -intake and output -monitor for pain -hydration -VS

question

Hydronephrosis

answer

Abnormal dilation of kidneys caused by obstruction of urine flow -obstruction in urinary tract -kidney enlarges as urine collects Treat cause -kidney stones -tumor -enlarged prostate

question

S&S : hydronephrosis

answer

-asymtomatic initially -frequency -urgency -dysuria -flank & back pain -renal failure

question

therapeutic interventions: hydronephrosis

answer

-treat cause -urinary catheter -stents Nephrostomy Tube ( inserted directly into kidney to drain urine) -intake & output -no clamping

question

Cancer of the bladder

answer

Most common urinary tract cancer -more in men; ages 50-70 Main causes is smoking, also industrial pollution

question

painless hematuria

answer

what's the early sign of bladder cancer?

question

Late Sign & symptoms : bladder cancer

answer

-frank hematuria -bladder irritability -urine retention -pelvic pain -lower back pain -dysuria -changes in bladder habits -inability to void

question

Diagnosis: bladder cancer

answer

-urinalysis- Telomerase -urine for cytology, culture -cystoscopy & transurethral biopsy -IVP

question

Therapeutic interventions: bladder cancer

answer

-chemotherapy -BCG ( Bacille Calmette-Guerin Vaccine) -photodynamic therapy

question

Therapeutic interventions; bladder cancer

answer

Surgery -cystoscopy & pyelogram with fulguration -laser -robotic laparoscopic radical cystectomy -urinary diversion

question

Incontinent Urinary diversion

answer

Ileal conduit -must wear ostomy at all times -6-8 inch section of ileum or colon removed

question

Continent urinary diversion

answer

-Knock pouch -Indiana pouch -mainz pouch -Florida pouch

question

interventions

answer

orthotopic bladder substitution -studer pouch -hemi-kock pouch -Ileal W-neobladder *to make a neobladder (new bladder)

question

Nursing care: bladder cancer

answer

wound,ostomy, continence (WOC) nurse -monitor urine output -instruct how to care for urinary diversion -preop & postop care

question

Cancer of the Kidney

answer

-rare Risk Factors: -smoking -obesity -hypertension -long term kidney dialysis -radiation exposure -asbestos -industrial pollution

question

kidney cancer S&S

answer

early S&S are rare Later s&s -hematuria -dull pain in flank area -mass -weight loss -fever -weakness

question

therapeutic interventions: kidney interventions

answer

-radical nephrectomy ( entire kidney removed) -nephron-sparing surgery (only tumor) -radiation therapy -immunotherapy -chemotherapy

question

nursing post-op care: kidney cancer

answer

-monitor urine output -changes in amount or color -bleeding -signs of infection -check for SOB & diminished breath sounds on affected side -pneumothorax

question

Renal Trauma

answer

-R/T MVA, sports injuries, falls, gunshot wounds, stabbing -SX: flank pain, hematuria -DX: IVP, UA, US, CT, MRI -TX: treat injury, bedrest to surgery

question

nursing care for renal trauma

answer

-measure I & O -monitor VS -Add IV fluids -monitor for pain

question

Polycystic kidney disease

answer

Multiple cysts in the kidney -progressive -No treatment to stop the progression -kidney transplant -hereditary disease -results in CKD

question

S&S polycystic kidney disease

answer

-dull heaviness in flank/back -hematuria -hypertension -UTI

question

Diabetic Nephropathy

answer

Disease of the kidneys, inflammatory, degenerative & sclerotic lesions

question

diabetic nephropathy:

answer

-long term complication of diabetes -Most common cause of CKD -atherosclerotic changes decrease blood to kidney -smaller doses of insulin as progresses -chronic renal failure develops

question

interventions: diabetic nephropathy

answer

Early -control blood glucose & blood pressure -restricted-protein diet Later -dialysis -kidney or kidney pancreas transplant

question

Nephrotic Syndrome

answer

The end result of a variety of diseases that damage capillaries of the glomerulus -large amounts of protein lost in urine -increased glomerular membrane permeability

question

Nephrosclerosis

answer

Hardening or sclerosis of renal blood vessels -HTN damages kidneys by sclerotic changes Therapeutic Interventions: antihypertensives, low Na diet Nursing diagnosis: ineffective health maintenance

question

Glomerulonephritis

answer

Inflammatory disease of the glomerulus of the kidney -glomerulus more porous -results in proteins, WBCs, RBC, leak into urine (slow process)

question

Causes: glomerulonephritis

answer

-acute post-streptococcal (strep throat) -goodpasture's syndrome -chronic glomerulonephritis

question

S&S of Glomerulonephritis

answer

-oliguria (diminished urine, less than 400mL) -hypertension -electrolyte imbalance -edema -flank pain -Cola color from old RBC & foamy due to protein

question

Diagnosis: Glomerulonephritis

answer

urinalysis ultrasound xray biopsy

question

Nursing care: glomerulonephritis

answer

-vital signs -symptom support -rest -fluid, sodium, protein restrictions -CKD care -reinforce instructions given by RN about prevention of recurrence

question

Acute Kidney Injury

answer

-sudden loss of kidney function -Azotemia= when waste products accumulate (tested by BUN & Cr) -Oliguric -May recover

question

Causes: acute kidney injury

answer

-Prerenal failure -intrarenal failure -postrenal failure

question

Prerenal failure

answer

-decreased blood supply to kidneys -causes of this: dehydration, blood loss, shock, trauma, blockage in artery (before the kidney) (55-60% of cases)

question

Intrarenal failure

answer

-damage to nephrons -caused by ischemia, reduced blood flow, toxins (inside the kidney)

question

Postrenal failure

answer

-obstruction -caused by stone, tumor, enlarged prostate

question

nephrotoxins

answer

Nephrotoxins -diagnotic contrast media (dyes) -medications -chemicals

question

Prevention: acute kidney injury

answer

-check serum BUN & creatinine prior to dyes or meds -hydrate before and after contrast media monitor peak/trough levels of nephrotoxic drugs per institutional policy

question

Phases of acute kidney injury

answer

-Oliguric = less than 400mL urine in 24 hrs -Diuretic = 1-3 L urine day -Recovery = GFR rises, BUN & Cr decrease

question

Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)

answer

-removes fluid continuously -remove fluid/solutes in controlled, continuous manner in unstable patients -blood flows through hemofilter, excess fluids/ solutes move into collection bag -less dramatic fluid shifting; alternative of hemodialysis

question

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)

answer

A progressive, irreversible, deterioration in renal function -gradual decrease in k idney function -Irreversible -Progressive -Large proportions of nephrons damaged

question

Etiology: CKD

answer

-diabetic nephropathy -nephrosclerosis -glomerulonephritis -autoimmune diseaes HTN & DM 70% of cases

question

Stages of CKD

answer

-early or silent stage: usually no SX. up to 50% of nephrons left -renal insufficiency stage: 75% of nephrons lost -End stage renal disease (ESRD) 90% of nephrons lost

question

CKD: Uremia

answer

Urea in blood -affects all body systems

question

Symptoms of kidney disease

answer

-fluid accumulations -electrolytes -waste products retained -acid-base imbalances -anemia -urine output

question

Kidney disease Therapeutic interventions

answer

Diet: -high calorie (maintain weight & energy) -low protein (unless on dialysis) -low sodium, potassium, phosphorus -increased calcium -vitamins Fluid restriction to prevent overload

question

Therapeutic interventions: kidney disease

answer

Medications -diuretics -antihypertensives -phosphate binders -calcium/vitamin D supplements -Kayexalate prn

question

Nursing interventions: kidney disease

answer

-Monitor weight qd same time -report wt gain > 2 lbs -measure I&O -maintain fluid restriction

question

Dialysis

answer

These are some reasons of why a person might need what?? -symptoms of fluid overload -high potassium -neurological signs -uremia

question

Hemodialysis

answer

Artificial kidney removes waste products & excess water from blood -lasts 3-4 hours, done 3-4 times a week

question

Vascular access

answer

-LifeSite hemodialysis access system -A-V Graft = tube of synthetic material attach to artery & vein -A-V Fistula = sewing a vein & artery together under skin

question

Vascular access Care

answer

-Thrill (tremor) , bruit (swishing sound)- RN -protect -Postop -Neurovascular checks, pain -elevate extremity

question

Peritoneal dialysis

answer

-continuous dialysis done by patient -peritoneal membrane is semipermeable membrane, across which excess wastes/fluids move from blood -peritoneal catheter -MAJOR COMPLICATION - Peritonitis

question

kidney transplant

answer

-living related donor or cadaver donor -anti-rejection drugs

question

CKD nursing diagnoses

answer

-excess fluid volume -impaired skin integrity -activity intolerance -risk for injury -risk for infection -imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

question

CKD: nursing care

answer

excess fluid volume -monitor weight same time qd -report wt gain > 2lbs -intake & output -fluid restriction -monitor for fluid retention

question

CKD: Nursing care

answer

electrolyte imbalance -monitor levels -dietary restrictions -monitor dysrhythmias

question

CKD: nursing care

answer

Waste products -oral care,skin care -lotion -protect from injury Impaired hematological function -protect form injury/infection

STUDY

Chronic Kidney Disease Information Theory Internal Mammary Artery Optical Character Recognition Relative Value Scale

CCA EXAM 1 – Flashcards 100 terms

Sam Arent

100 terms

Preview

CCA EXAM 1 – Flashcards

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code for a patient with a subsequent encounter for routine healing of a closed traumatic capital epiphyseal fracture of the left femur

answer

S79.012D

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code(s) for neonatal tooth eruption

answer

K00.6

question

Identify CPT code(s) for the following patient. A 35-year old female undergoes an excision of a 3.0 cm tumor in her forehead. an incision is made through the skin and subcutaneous tissue. The tumor is dissected free of surrounding structures. The wound is closed with interrupted sutures.

answer

21012

question

Identify CPT code(s) for the following Medicare patient. A 67-year old female undergoes an excision of a breast lesion identified by pre-operative placement of radiological marker

answer

19125

question

Identify the information classified in the fourth digit for the code G30.0

answer

Alzheimer's disease with early onset.

question

Identify the ICD-10-PCS code(s) for insertion of dual chamber cardiac pacemaker battery via an incision in the subcutaneous tissue of the chest wall, and percutaneous transvenous insertion of right atrial and right ventricular leads.

answer

0JH606Z, 02H63JZ, 02HK3JZ

question

Identify the correct ICD-10-PCS code(s) for replacement of an old dual pacemaker battery with a new dual pacemaker battery in the subcutaneous tissue f the chest wall via incisional approach.

answer

0JPT0PZ, 0JH606Z

question

Identify the appropriate ICD-10-CM code(s) for Mobitz type I and II heart block

answer

I44.1

question

Identify the appropriate ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS code(s) for cardiac pacemaker pulse generator check

answer

Z45.010, 4B02XSZ

question

This condition has an imprecise diagnosis with various characteristics. the condition may be diagnosed when a patient presents with sinus arrest, sinoatrial exit block, or persistent sinus bradycardia. It is often the result of drug therapy, such as digitalis, calcium channel blockers, beta-blockers, sympatholytic agents, or antiarrhythmics. Another presentation includes recurrent supraventricular tachycardias associated with Brady arrhythmias . Prolonged ambulatory monitoring may be indicated to establish a diagnosis of this condition. Treatment includes insertion of a permanent cardiac pacemaker

answer

Sick sinus syndrome (SSS) (I49.5)

question

Identify the appropriate ICD-10-PCS code(s) for a coronary artery bypass of two sites, one using the left internal mammary artery to the left proximal anterior descending artery, and one using the right internal mammary artery to the distal left anterior descending artery, both done via thoracotomy.

answer

02100Z8, 02100Z9

question

Coronary arteriography serves as a diagnostic tool in detecting obstruction within the coronary arteries. Identify the technique using two catheters inserted percutaneously through the femoral artery

answer

Judkins

question

Identify the correct ICD-10-CM code(s) for a patient who arrives at the hospital for outpatient laboratory services ordered by the physician to monitor the patient's Coumadin levels. A prothrombin time (PT) is performed to check the patient's long-term use of his anticoagulant treatment.

answer

Z51.81, Z79.01

question

Identify the CPT code(s) for the following patient: A 2-year-old-boy presented to the emergency room in the middle of the night to have his nasogastric feeding tube repositioned through the duodenum under fluoroscopic guidance

answer

43761, 76000

question

Identify the CPT code(s) for the following patient: A 2-year-old boy presented to the hospital to have his gastrostomy tube changed under fluoroscopic guidance

answer

49450

question

Identify the term ICD-10-CM uses for the following definition: "the expulsion of some, but not all, of the products of conception from the uterus."

answer

Incomplete abortion

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code(s) for the following: threatened abortion with hemorrhage at 15 weeks; home undelivered

answer

O20.0, Z3A.15

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS code(s) for the following: 40 week gestation, term pregnancy with poor cervical dilation; lower uterine segment cesarean delivery, open approach with single liveborn female.

answer

O62.0, Z3A.40, Z37.0, 10D00Z1

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code for diaper rash in elderly patient

answer

I.22

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code(s) for infected ingrown toenail with paronychia of the first toe of the right foot.

answer

L60.0, L03.031

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code(s) for primary localized osteoarthritis of bilateral hips.

answer

M16.0

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code for chrondromalacia of the left patella

answer

M22.42

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code(s) for acute osteomyelitis of the right index finger due to Staphylococcus aureus

answer

M86.141, B95.61

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code(s) for acute osteomyelitis of tarsus bones of the right ankle due to Staphylococcus.

answer

M86.171, B95.8

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code(s) for other specified aplastic anemia secondary to adverse effect of chemotherapy, initial encounter

answer

D61.1, T45.1X5A

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code(s) for the following: A 6-month-old child is scheduled for a clinic visit for a routine well-child examination. The physician documents, "well child, born premature."

answer

Z00.129, P07.30

question

Identify the ICD-10-CM code for ventricular diastolic dysfunction

answer

I51.9

question

Identify the chapter in which certain signs and symptoms of breast disease, such as mastodynia, induration of breast, and nipple discharge, are included

answer

Chapter 14 Diseases of the genitourinary system

question

which of the following is the correct ICD-10-PCS code for a Mayo operation known as a bunionectomy? An incision was made in the right foot and a portion of the first metatarsal head was removed.

answer

0QBN0ZZ

question

Which of the following is not considered an endoscopy?

answer

Fluoroscopy

question

Which of the following is (are) the correct ICD-10-PCS code(s) for laparoscopic cholecystectomy? The entire gallbladder was removed.

answer

0FT44ZZ

question

Which of the following is (are) the correct ICD-10-PCS code(s) for cystoscopy with diagnostic biopsy of the bladder?

answer

0TBB8ZX

question

Which of the following software applications would be used to aid in the coding function in a physician's office?

answer

Encoder

question

Which payment system was introduced in 1992 and replaced Medicare's customary, prevailing, and reasonable (CPR) payment system?

answer

Resource-based relative value scale system

question

The patient had a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. The coder assigned the following codes: 58150 Total abdominal hysterectomy, with/without removal of tubes and ovaries 58700 Salpingectomy, complete or partial, unilateral/bilateral (separate procedure) What error has the coder made by using these codes?

answer

Unbundling

question

What is the best reference tool to determine how CPT codes should be assigned?

answer

American Medical Association's CPT Assistant news

question

An electrolyte panel (80051) in the laboratory section of CPT consists of tests for carbon dioxide (82374), chloride (82435), potassium (84132), and sodium (84295). If each of the component codes are reported and billed individually on a claim form, this would be a form of:

answer

Unbundling

question

In the laboratory section of CPT, if a group of tests overlaps two or more panels, report the panel that incorporates the greatest number of tests to fulfill the code definition. What would a coder do with the remaining test codes that are not part of a panel?

answer

report the remaining tests using individual test codes, according to CPT.

question

The Office of Inspector General (OIG) has identified risk areas for physician practices. One type of risk is "clustering," Identify its definition

answer

Coding or charging one or two middle levels of service codes exclusively

question

What did the Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services develop to promote national correct coding methodologies and to control improper coding leading to inappropriate payment for Part B claims?

answer

National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI)

question

What is the best reference tool for ICD-10-CM/PCS coding advice?

answer

AHA's Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS

question

CMS developed medically unlikely edits (MUEs) to prevent providers from billing units of services greater than the norm would indicate. These MUEs were implemented on January 1, 2007 and are applied to which code set?

answer

HCPCS/CPT codes

question

Several key principles require appropriate physician documentation to secure payment from the insurer. which answer (listed here) fails to impact payment based on physician responsibility?

answer

Documenting the charges and services on the itemized bill.

question

The documentation of each patient encounter should include the following to secure payment from the insurer except:

answer

The identity of the patient's nearest relative and emergency contact number.

question

Two patients were hospitalized with bacterial pneumonia. One patient was hospitalized for three days, and the other patient was hospitalized for 30 days. Both cases result in the same DRG with different lengths of stay. Which answer most closely describes how the hospital will be reimbursed?

answer

the hospital will receive the same reimbursement for the same DRG regardless of the length of stay.

question

Which of the following statements are true?

answer

The higher the relative weight, the higher the payment rates.

question

Which classification system is in place to reimburse home health agencies?

answer

HHRGs

question

What reimbursement system uses the Medicare fee schedule?

answer

RBRVS

question

MS diagnostic-related groups are organized into:

answer

Major diagnostic categories

question

Which of the following hospitals are excluded from the Medicare acuter-care prospective payment system?

answer

Children's

question

CMS identified conditions that are not present on admission and could be "reasonably preventable." Hospitals are not allowed to receive additional payment for these conditions when the condition is present on admission. What are these conditions called?

answer

Hospital-acquired conditions

question

Which of the following fails to meet the CMS classification of a hospital-acquired condition?

answer

Gram-negative pneumonia

question

Which of the following fails to meet the CMS classification of a hospital acquired condition?

answer

Stage I pressure ulcers

question

The electronic claim format (8371) replaces which paper billing form?

answer

CMS-1450 (UB-04)

question

This is a statement sent by third-party payers to the patient to explain services provided, amounts billed, and payments made by the health plan.

answer

Explanation of benefits (EOB)

question

An outpatient clinic is reviewing the functionality of a computer system it is considering purchasing. which of the following datasets should the clinic consult to ensure all the federally required data elements for Medicare and Medicaid outpatient clinical encounters are collected by the system?

answer

UACDS

question

Standardizing medical terminology to avoid differences in naming various medical conditions and procedures (such as the synonyms bunionectomy, McBride procedure, and repair of hallus vagus) is one purpose of:

answer

Vocabulary standards

question

A family practitioner requests the opinion of a physician specialist endocrinology who reviews the patient's health record and examines the patient. The physician specialist records findings, impressions, and recommendations in which type of report?

answer

Consultation

question

Which of the following is not a function of the discharge summary?

answer

Providing information about the patient's insurance coverage.

question

documentation of monitoring to ensure the patient sufficiently recovers from anesthesia, including a post-anesthesia note, vital signs, and intravenous fluids, is a function of the :

answer

Recovery room report

question

A 65-year-old white male was admitted to the hospital on 1/15 complaining of abdominal pain. The attending physician requested an upper GI series and laboratory evaluation of CBC and UA. The x-ray revealed possible cholelithiasis, and the UA showed an increased white blood cell count. The patient was taken to surgery for an exploratory laparoscopy, and a ruptured appendix was discovered. The chief complaint was:

answer

Abdominal pain

question

All documentation entered in the medical record relating to the patient's diagnosis and treatment is considered as this type of data:

answer

Clinical

question

What type of data is exemplified by the insured party's member identification number?

answer

Financial data

question

Which part of the problem-oriented medical record is used by many facilities that have not adopted the whole problem-oriented formula?

answer

SOAP form of progress notes

question

Whereas the focus of inpatient data collection is on the principal diagnosis, the focus of outpatient data collection is on :

answer

Reason for encounter

question

Mildred Smith was admitted from an acute-care hospital to a nursing facility with the following information: "patient is being admitted for organic brain syndrome." Underneath the diagnosis, her medical information along with her rehabilitation potential was also listed. On which form is this information documented?

answer

Transfer or referral

question

According to the Joint Commission Accreditation Standards, which documentation must be placed in the patient's record before a surgical procedure may be performed?

answer

Report of history and physical examination

question

Bob Smith was admitted to Mercy Hospital on June 21. The physical examination was completed on June 23. According to Medicare Conditions of Participation, which statement applies top this situation?

answer

The record is not in compliance because the physical examination must be completed within 24 hours of admission

question

A health record with deficiencies that is not complete within the timeframe specified in the medical staff rules and regulations is called a(n):

answer

Delinquent record

question

The _______________ may contain information about diseases among relatives in which heredity may play a role.

answer

History

question

To comply with Joint Commission standards, the HIM director wants to ensure that history and physical examinations are documented in the patient's health record no later than 24 hours after admission. Which of the following would be the best way to ensure the completeness of health records?

answer

Review each patient's medical record concurrently to make sure history and physicals are present and meet the accreditation standards

question

Medical record completion compliance is a problem at Community Hospital. the number of incomplete charts often exceeds the standard set by the Joint commission, risking a type I violation. Previous HIM committee chairperson tried multiple methods to improve compliance, including suspension of privileges and deactivating the parking garage keycard of any physician in poor standing. to improve compliance, which of the following would be the next step to overcome noncompliance?

answer

contact other hospitals to see what methods they use to ensure compliance

question

How do accreditation organizations such as the Joint Commission use the health record?

answer

To determine whether standards of care are being met

question

Valley High, a skilled nursing facility, wants to become certified to take part in federal government reimbursement programs such as Medicare. What standards must the facility meet in order to become certified for these programs?

answer

Conditions of Participation

question

What is the best source of documentation to determine the size of a removed malignant lesion?

answer

Operative report

question

This document includes a microscopic description of tissue excised during surgery:

answer

Pathology report

question

When the physician does not specify the method used to remove a lesion during an endoscopy, what is the appropriate procedure?

answer

Query the physician as to the method used. and

question

The Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA) launched a Medicare payment and recovery demonstration project that would later develop into recovery audit contractors (RACs) serving as a means to ensure correct payments under Medicare. During the demonstration program, the contractors were able to identify _____________ of dollars in improper payments.

answer

Billions

question

Corporate compliance programs were released by the OIG for hospitals to develop and implement their own compliance programs. All of the following except__________ are basic elements of a corporate compliance program.

answer

Medical staff appointee for documentation compliance

question

Which of the following programs has been in place in hospitals for years and has been required by the Medicare and Medicaid programs and accreditation standards?

answer

Quality improvement

question

Each year the OIG develops a work plan that details area of compliance it will be investigating for that year. what is the expectation of the hospital in relation to the OIG work plan?

answer

Hospitals should plan their compliance and auditing projects around the OIG work plan to ensure they are in compliance with the target areas in the plan.

question

HIM coding professionals and the organizations that employ them have the responsibility to not tolerate behavior that adversely affects data quality. which of the following is an example of behavior that should not be tolerated?

answer

Omit codes that reflect negatively on quality and patient safety measurement.

question

The OIG believes that compliance programs have benefits in addition to submitting accurate claims. this includes al of the following except:

answer

Increased potential for criminal and unethical conduct

question

An individual stole and used another person's insurance information to obtain medical care. This action would be considered:

answer

Medical identity theft

question

A hospital HIM department wants to purchase an electronic system that records the location of health records removed from the filing system and documents the date of their return to the HIM department. Which of the following electronic systems would fulfill this purpose?

answer

Chart tracking system

question

What does an audit trail check for?

answer

Unauthorized access to a system

question

An individual designated as an inpatient coder may have access to an electronic medical record to code the record. Under what access security mechanism is the coder allowed access to the system?

answer

Role-based

question

What software will prompt the user through a variety of questions and choices based on the clinical terminology entered to assist the coder in selecting the most appropriate code?

answer

Logic-based encoder

question

The technology commonly used for automated claims processing (sending bills directly to third-party payers) is :

answer

Electronic data interchange

question

What refers to the capacity of health record systems to provide electronic communication linkages and allow exchange of health record data among information systems?

answer

Connectivity

question

a system that provides alerts and reminders to clinicians is a(n):

answer

Clinical decision support system

question

In what form of health information exchange are data centrally located but physically separated?

answer

Consolidated federated

question

A hospital receives a valid request from a patient for copies of his or her medical records. The HIM clerk who is preparing the records removes copies of the patient's records from another hospital where the patient was previously treated. According to HIPPA regulations, was this action correct?

answer

No; the records from the previous hospital are considered part of the designated record set and should be given to the patient.

question

A patient request copies of her personal health information on CD. when the patient goes home, she finds that she cannot read the CD on her computer. the patient then requests the hospital to provide the medical records in paper format. How should the hospital respond?

answer

Provide the medical records in paper format.

question

Which of the following definitions best describes the concept of confidentiality?>

answer

the expectation that personal information shared by an individual with a healthcare provider during the course of care will be used only for its intended purpose

question

the release of information function requires the HIM professional to have knowledge of:

answer

Federal and State confidentiality laws

question

The Medical Record Committee is reviewing the privacy policies for a large outpatient clinic. One of the members of the committee remarks that he feels the clinic's practice of calling out a patient's full name in the waiting rom is not in compliance with HIPAA regulations and that only the patient's first name should be used. Other committee members disagree with this assessment. What should the HIM director advise the committee?

answer

There is no HIPAA violation for announcing a patient's name, but the committee may want to consider implementing practices that might reduce this practice

question

The right of an individual to keep information about himself or herself from being disclosed to anyone is a definition of :

answer

Privacy

question

The HIM manager is concerned about whether the data transmitted across the hospital network is altered during the transmission. the concept that concerns the HIM manager is

answer

Data integrity

question

The CIA of security includes confidentiality, data integrity, and data ____________

answer

Availability

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Chapter 11: Caffeine – Flashcards 24 terms

Mary Moore

24 terms

Preview

Chapter 11: Caffeine – Flashcards

question

What goat story describes coffee's legendary discovery?

answer

coffee was originally discovered by an Ethiopian goat herder, Kaldi who noticed abnormal activity after the goats consumed the berries off the coffee pant

question

The early history of coffee included a 1674 pamphlet from England; what was it called?

answer

The Women's Petition Against Coffee

question

According to statistics Canada (2009), which province in Canada consumed the highest amount of coffee per person?

answer

Quebec at 70% adults

question

In the early 18th century, what were English coffee houses referred to as?

answer

Penny Univercities; a penny per cup people listened an learned from literary and political people of the era

question

Coffee houses first began appearing in which two countries?

answer

England (1650) and France (1671)

question

In which region of the world does the first documented existence of tea exist?

answer

Chinese manuscript in China

question

In 2008, what was the approximate per capita consumption of tea in Canada?

answer

79.4 L because of the antioxidants in some of the teas

question

Which country is the world's largest producer?

answer

Brazil, in 2009 produced 2.5 times as much as Vietnam

question

After coffee and tea were introduced to Europe, approximately how long would it take chocolate to arrive?

answer

a century before coffee and tea, use spread slowly

question

Who kept the process of preparing chocolate from the coca bean a secret until the 17th century?

answer

the Spanish

question

Which culture originated the process of preparing chocolate by drinking the pods in the sun, roasting them,removing the husks and then grinding the coca kernels?

answer

the Aztecs

question

Green, black and oolong tea are all prepared from the leaves from what?

answer

a bush or 5-10 m tree in the mountains of China, Siri Lanka, India or Indonesia

question

Theobroma, the genus name for the cocoa tree, is Latin for what?

answer

food of the gods

question

Most regular brewed teas have about how much caffeine per cup?

answer

40-60 mg of caffeine/cup

question

What is the unique xanthine found in chocolate?

answer

theobromine

question

What modern day cola drink began as a nerve tonic?

answer

coca cola

question

Why did the FDA in 1909 seize some coca cola syrup and file charges against the coca cola company?

answer

the syrup was misbranded and contained no coca, it contained caffeine (added poisonous ingredient)

question

What has been used to desensitize the user to symptoms of alcohol intoxication, increasing the potential for alcohol abuse and alcohol-related harm?

answer

high caffeine energy drinks

question

What are the current FDA rules on Cola drinks caffeine quantities for 12 oz?

answer

cola doesn't have to have caffeine, if need be it can't have more than 0.02% (0.2 mg/mL)

question

What is the most consistent withdrawal symptom after chronic caffeine use?

answer

a head ache occurs 18-19 hours after a recent caffeine intake; fatigue and head ache/dysphoric mood/flu-like somatic symptoms

question

How does caffeine work in the brain?

answer

blocks the brains receptors; caffeine stops the adeosene from attaching and activating the receptor

question

What has caffeine been shown to be an effective treatment for?

answer

regular coffee consumption reduces the risk for Parkinson's disease

question

Several studies support the idea that caffeine does what to intoxicated individuals?

answer

caffeine makes you more alert, but co-ordination and concentration is still impaired

question

Consuming more then how many milligrams of caffeine per day is believed to reduce a women's chance of becoming pregnant?

answer

more than 300 mg of caffeine

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