Test 2: Chapter 7, 8, & 9 – Flashcards
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How many bones is the skeletal system composed of?
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206
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When is the complete skeleton formed?
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by the end of the third month of gestation
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to become calcified is the process known as:
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ossification
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What are some functions of bones?
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1. support 2. affect calcium and phosphate metabolism 3. form blood cells by hematopoiesis
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T/F: the majority of joints are the movable type
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True
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What is the major supporting element or "glue" in the connective tissue?
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collagen
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Collagen makes up about _____ of the total body protein
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1/3
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What are the three types of muscle?
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1. Skeletal 2. striated 3. cardiac
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muscle that you have conscious control over
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voluntary
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muscles that you do not have conscious control over
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involuntary
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What are some examples of voluntary muscles?
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skeletal
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What are some examples of involuntary muscles?
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cardiac and smooth
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a strong, tough strand or cord of dense connective tissue that serves as attachment for muscle to bone
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tendon
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a tendon injury that produces immediate, severe pain, inflammation, and immobility of the affected part
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severed tendon
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Injury to a tendon is a ___. its an injury that is the result of overuse, over stretching, or forcible stretching of a tendon, muscle or other tissue beyond its functional capacity
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Strain
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Tough, dense, fibrous bands of connective tissue that hold bones together
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ligaments
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Injury to a ligament is a _____
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Sprain
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a strained muscle or tendon is _____ serious than a sprained ligament, because the ligament has blood vessels and nerves bundled together with it.
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LESS
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painful debilitating syndrome that causes chronic pain in muscles and soft tissues surrounding joints
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fibromyalgia
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What is the cause of fibromyalgia?
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unknown
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What is the diagnosis for fibromyalgia?
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pain at specific tender points of the body
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T/F: specific lab test or imaging studies exist for fibromyalgia
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false
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What is a major characteristic of fibromyalgia?
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fatigue
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A lateral curvature of the spine
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scoliosis
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an exaggerated inward curvature of the lumbar spine
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lordosis
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an abnormal outward curvature of the thoracic spine
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kyphosis
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chronic, progressive, inflammatory disease of bones and joints caused by degenerative changes in the cartilage
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osteoarthritis
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What is the goal of treatment for osteoarthritis? (since there is not a cure)
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1. reduce inflammation 2. minimize pain 3. maintain functioning joints
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What nodes are more prominent than Bouchard's?
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Heberden's
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What symptoms characterize Lyme disease ?
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1. arthritis 2. malaise 3. myalgia 4. neurologic and cardiovascular signs
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What is worse (most significant) : Sprain or Strain?
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Sprain
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What causes Lyme disease?
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tick-carried bacteria
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What disease is characterized by red itchy rash with a red center like a bull's eye?
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Lymes disease
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Is Lyme disease curable?
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yes
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T/F: There is a vaccine for Lyme disease
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False
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contained sac of fluid over with a muscle moves, or cushions a joint
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bursa
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Inflammation of the bursae
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bursitis
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What can chronic inflammation lead to?
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calcification and decreased mobility
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an infection in a bone, which can lead to an access formation and sequestrum if not properly cared for
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osteomyelitis
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dead bone pieces surrounded by pus
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sequestrum
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What is infection caused by?
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bacteria (staph then strep), and rarely viruses or fungi
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How do you treat infections?
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prolonged antibiotic therapy
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inflammation of the joints cause by the excessive uric acids levels in the blood and joints
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gouty arthritis
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a disorder of uric acid metabolism
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gout
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What causes gout inflammation to occur?
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uric acid crystals that are found in the synovial fluids
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What disease is caused by excessive breakdown and formation of bone, followed by disorganized bone remodeling
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Paget's disease
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What are some effects of Paget's disease?
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bone can weaken causing pain, misshape, fracture, or arthritis development
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What can Paget's disease develop into?
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Bone cancer (osteosarcoma)
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a hereditary group of conditions of the connective tissue that causes an abnormal growth of the extremities
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Marfan's Syndrome
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What cardiovascular complications are common with Marfan's Syndrome?
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1. Mitral value prolapse 2. aortic aneurysm
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What are some physical examples of Marfan's Syndrome?
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1. abnormally long extremities and digits 2. dislocation of the eyes' lenses
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What cancer is considered to be a "secondary cancer"?
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Liver Cancer
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Cancer in the liver is more often ________ than primary
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metastatic
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What is the most common etiologic factor for primary ca?
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Hep B virus
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What causes obstruction of bile ducts, and patients to experience "binary colic, with radiating pain, and jaundice"
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Cholelithiasis
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inflammation and infection of the gall bladder
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cholecystitis
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T / F: Liver cancer is likely to be discovered early
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FALSE
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T / F: liver cancer has a poor prognosis
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TRUE
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T / F: Cholelithiasis usually has symptoms
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TRUE
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T/F: Cholelithiasis has rectal bleeding
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FALSE
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What are the causes of pancreatitis?
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1. alcoholism 2. trauma 3. infection 4. biliary tract diseases 5. structural anomalies 6. drugs
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What causes the intestinal condition Pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
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Clostridium Difficile
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What gender is cancer of the pancreas twice common in ?
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men
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What is the fourth leading cause of cancer-related death in the United States?
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Cancer of the Pancreas
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T/F: There is a genetic component to fatness and the regional distribution of fat
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TRUE
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What vitamin is considered to be highly toxic, especially in infants and children?
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Vitamin D
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toxicity from any vitamin, but especially the fat-soluble vitamins A and D
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hypervitaminosis
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What are the fat soluble vitamins?
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D, E, A, and K
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What are the water soluble vitamins that pass out in the urine?
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B and C
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A disease of the small intestine characterized by malabsorption, gluten intolerance, and damage to the lining of the intestine
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celiac spruce
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What disease requires a lifelong compliance with a strict gluten-free diet
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celiac disease
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disease linked to a psychologic disturbance in which hunger is denied by self-imposed starvation
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anorexia nervosa
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binge eating then vomiting
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bulimia
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T/F Malabsorption and volvulus are psychological processes
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False; they aren't
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What are the most serious complications of bulimia and anorexia nervosa?
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electrolyte imbalance and cardiac irregularities
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loss of equilibrium during motion
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motion sickness
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What is the organ of balance?
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inner ear
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a benign growth filled with a jellylike substance, that is formed from the tissue that lines a joint or tendon
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ganglion (cyst)
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What are risk factors for primary bone tumors?
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1. prior chemo 2. radiation therapy 3. history of Paget's disease
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What is a pathological fracture?
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when a bone tumor weakens the bone and makes it more susceptible to fracture when subjected to the slightest strain
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What is the most common type of primary bone tumor?
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osteosarcoma
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T/F: Tumors in muscles are not common
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TRUE
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What is the primary function of the pulmonary system?
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ventilation and respiration
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movement of air into the lungs
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ventilation
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transfer of oxygen into the tissue and the removal of CO2
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respiration
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What is the only adult artery carrying O2 depleted blood?
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pulmonary artery
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What is the only adult vein with rich, oxygenated blood?
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pulmonary vein
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The maintenance of the acid-base balance of the blood is linked to what?
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the function of the lungs and the kidneys
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a group of minor illnesses caused by almost 200 viruses or from mycoplasma
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common cold
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T/F: bacteria and fungi are the first agents of infection
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FALSE
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T/F: common colds respond to antibiotics
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FALSE
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What are treatment methods of sinusitis?
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1. antibiotics 2. decongestants 3. antihistamines 4. allergy testing 5. immunotherapy 6. corticosteroids 7. sinusotomy
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sinusitis is more frequently ________
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bacterial
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What improves the ventilation of the sinuses?
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Sinusotomy
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What can allergic rhinitis and allergic sinusitis can lead to?
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inflammation of the mucosa of the sinuses and resulting sinusitis
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sore throat
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pharyngitis
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What is pharyngitis most often caused by?
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viruses but in children, it is a bacterial extension from tonsils, adenoids, into sinuses
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T/F: The larynx is not part of the Upper Respiratory System
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TRUE
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inflammation and infection of the larynx
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laryngitis
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What can a crooked or deviated nasal septum or deviated septum cause?
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1. compromised air passage 2. increased tendency to sinusitis 3. cosmetic concerns
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growths that form from distended mucous membranes protruding into the nasal cavity
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nasal polyps
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surgical procedure necessary because of peripheral vascular disease and consequent gangrene
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amputation
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What are some reasons for amputation?
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trauma, malignancy, or congenital defects
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unpleasant sensation or complication that sometimes follows the removal of an appendage
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phantom limb
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loss of normal bone mass and density due to imbalance of breakdown of old bone tissue and formation of new bone
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Osteoporosis
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What is the most common bone metabolic disease?
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osteoporosis
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a silent disease until a bone breaks to cause pain
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osteoporosis
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What are some diagnostic tests for osteoporosis?
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DEXA
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bone is demineralized and becomes soft, and deformed
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osteomalacia
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what kind of vitamin deficiency can cause the abnormal metabolic bone disease osteomalacia?
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Vitamin D
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What is osteomalacia called in children?
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Rickets
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degenerative disorder of the metatarsal-phalangeal joint go the great toe
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hallux rigidus
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What is another word for a bunion?
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hallux valgus
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T/F Fracture is the same as a broken bone
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TRUE
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one side of the bone is bent and the other is broken
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greenstick fracture
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a distal fracture of the radius, and occurs when breaking a fall
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colle's fracture
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bone broken with a skin wound
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compound fracture
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when a fracture twists around the bone
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spiral fracture
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bone is fractured, and one end is wedged into the end of the adjoining or broken bone
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impacted fracture
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the bone is fractured by pressure from another bone, like vertebrae
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compression fracture
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the bone is broken without an open wound to the skin
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simple fracture
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where the bone is splintered or crushed
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comminuted fracture
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where the bone is fractured as result of disease
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pathologic fracture
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a bone that is normally in contact with a joint but becomes separated from that joint causing loss of joint function
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dislocation
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a tearing away of a tendon or ligament along with a bone fragment
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avulsion
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the onset of a stiff and painful shoulder after injury or a period of disuse is typical of what?
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adhesive capsulitis ("frozen shoulders")
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inflammatory response at the heel bone, which are a common problem in individuals active in sports (esp. runners)
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plantar fasciitis and a spur
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injury involving the semilunar cartilages in the knee
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torn meniscus
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an injury to the shoulder muscles and is usually the result of acute trauma or degenerative changes
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torn rotator cuff
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wasting away of deterioration of muscle; progressive degeneration and weakening of the skeletal muscle
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atrophy
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What part of the body is considered to be the alimentary canal, a tube that runs from the mouth to the anus, and the accompanying organs that aid digestion?
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GI tract
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What results from untreated gingivitis ?
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periodontitis
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Pain and limitation of the movement of the jaw with tinnitus as a result of inflammation of the temporomandibular joints
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TMJ
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a fungal infection that produces or patches in the mouth and throat
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oral thrush
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What is oral thrush a result of?
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prolonged antibiotic therapy
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What virus will live in the nerve and return to form the blisters of a cold sore?
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Herpes Simplex
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T/F even if there isn't an appearance of the cold sore, the virus can be transmitted to others
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TRUE
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What is the treatment of oral leukoplakia?
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finding or correcting the source of irritation
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What is the most common site of oral cancer?
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lip
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What is oral cancer often advanced?
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because pain is a late occurrence
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What does the treatment of grastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) include?
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1. light evening meal four hours before bedtime and elevation of the bed about 6 inches 2. the use of H2-receptor antagonist or a proton pump inhibitor
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What is a sever consequence of GERD?
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Barretts esophagus
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it occurs because recurrent acid reflux changes in the esophageal tissue to columnar epithelium
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barretts esophagus
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T/F Esophageal cancer has a high survival rate
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FALSE; it does not
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What are agents that may damage the gastric lining and cause gastritis?
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1. medications (NSAIDS) 2. poisons 3. alcohol 4. infectious diseases 5. mechanical injury 6. allergic reaction / irritation from foods
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the inflamed stomach lining that when chronic, can lead to an ulcer
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gastritis
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What are the diagnostic evaluations for peptic ulcers?
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1. endoscopy / biopsy of lesion 2. patient history 3. upper GI barium series 4. study of gastric contents and stool for evidence of bleeding
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What are the causal factor (s) of peptic ulcers?
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1. helicobactor pylori infection 2. NSAIDs 3. stress
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What is the most common bacteria infection in the world?
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helicobacter pylori
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The management of peptic ulcer may necessitate:
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1. rest 2. changes in diet 3. adjustments to lifestyle 4. drug therapy 5. not use a ulcerogenic drug 6. surgical resection 7. increased physical activity
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What is the most ulcer?
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duodenal ulcer
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What can cause a hiatal hernia?
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weakness that develops in diaphragm
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What can be a consequence of a hiatal hernia?
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reflux and pain
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a condition in which an organ protrudes through an opening or weakness in the abdominal wall
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abdominal hernia
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infection and inflammation of the abdominal cavity
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peritonitis
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What happens if the hernia is incarcerated?
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it can infarct and cause significant illness
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What are clinical signs of appendicitis?
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1. abdominal discomfort with max tenderness at Mcburney's point 2. nausea 3. vomiting 4. fever 5. diarrhea 6. constipation
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Why does appendicitis occur?
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the outlet of the appendix is obstructed and abscess formation occurs
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What may the primary treatment of gastric cancer include?
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gastric resection usually followed by chemoradiotherapy
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What is usually the initial symptom of gastric cancer?
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weight loss
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a fairly common chronic inflammatory disease of the alimentary canal involving all layers of the bowl, which causes chronic diarrhea
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Crohn's disease
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What is another name for Crohn's disease?
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regional enteritis
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T/F; Crohn's disease has a cause that is easily identified
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FALSE; it does not
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T/F; Crohn's disease is not medically curable
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TRUE
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begins in the rectum, continues up to involve the colon, and often presents with bloody diarrhea; it is limited to the colon, and involved superficial layers of the colon as the mucosa and submucosal layers
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ulcerative colitis
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inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestine
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gastroenteritis
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What is a common syndrome of gastroenteritis?
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traverler's diarrhea
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What usually causes traveler's diarrhea ?
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ingestion of bacteria contaminated food or water
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What are the symptoms of food poisoning due to?
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pathogens themselves or to the toxins they produce
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What can mechanical obstruction of the bowel result from?
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1. neoplasm 2. fecal impaction 3. volvulus 4. intussusception
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What makes the bowel obstruction mechanical?
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a lesion
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what makes the bowel obstruction functional?
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no bowel movement (ileus)
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almost paralyzed bowel, without activity, after surgery, severe infection, or medications
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ileus
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What are the classifications that intestinal obstruction can be?
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1. mechanical 2. functional 3. partial 4. complete
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a condition in which out-pouches of the mucosa penetrate weak points in the muscular layer of the large intestine; when the outpouchings becomes inflamed and infected
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diverticulosis
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What can a rupture of diverticulitis cause?
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peritonitis
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T/F; the earliest signs of colorectal cancer are often vague and nonspecific
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TRUE
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What is the third most common site of cancer incidence and death in men and women?
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colorectal cancer
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What would patient teaching for patients with colorectal cancer include?
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informing the patient that family members have increased risk and should undergo screening
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What illness is related to the use of broad spectrum antibiotics?
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pseudomembranous enterocolitis
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a functional bowel disorder with chronic pain or discomfort, bloating, and erratic dysfunction of bowel habits; no cure
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irritable bowel syndrome
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What is a key feature of IBS?
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a change of bowel habits with predominant diarrhea or constipation
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The inside of the abdomen; lined by membrane
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peritoneal cavity
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inflammation, infection, or irritation of the large serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and folds over the visceral organs
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peritonitis
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a varicose dilatation of a vein in the anal canal or anorectal area
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hemorrhoid
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What can cause a hemorrhoid?
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1. constipation 2. straining 3. pregnancy
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T/F; the liver does not have the ability to repair itself after repeated injury or infection
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FALSE; it does repair itself
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What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?
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alcoholism
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What is the cause of ascites?
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bile doesn't flow into the duodenum; the blood from the intestine can't flow through the liver causing abdominal swelling and back up
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When does a patient develop icteric?
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when the liver can't process bilirubin
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chronic and irreversible; comes from alcohol, viruses, and other pathogens, but is not idiopathic; symptoms are not all related to digestion
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cirrhosis of the liver
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"infectious" hepatitis because it occurs in schools & camps
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hepatitis A
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how is viral hep A usually transmitted?
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1. fecal oral route 2. contaminated food, water, or stool 3. poor hygiene
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T/F; there is NOT a vaccine for Hep A
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FALSE; there is
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What is the most common blood borne infection in the US?
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Hep C
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"Serum" hepatitis; has an insidious onset, and can cause liver destruction
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Hep B
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What type of Hep are health care workers, who are exposed to bodily fluids, at risk for?
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Hep B
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What Hep are these statements pertaining to? 1. it is considered a widespread epidemic 2. the source of infection is not known 3. complete recover of the liver on treatment can happen 4. health care workers are at risk 5. There are reports of sexual transmission 6. there is no vaccine
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Hep C
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bloody nose
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epistaxis
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What is the cause of epistaxis?
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1. direct trauma or foreign body 2. hypertension 3. other systemic disorders (hemophilia and leukemia) 4. thrombocytopenia
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What is the common symptom of a tumor of the larynx ?
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dysphonia (hoarseness)
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What is the most common site of head and neck tumors?
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larynx
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What is of primary importance in the diagnosis of hemoptysis?
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determining the source of bleeding
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what is the most common cause of hemoptysis?
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bronchitis
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an airless or collapsed state of pulmonary tissue
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atelectasis
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What causes atelectasis?
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1. obstruction in the bronchial tree 2. prolonged inactivity 3. failure to deep breathe postoperatively
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what chemical in the alveoli helps to keep pulmonary tissue open?
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surfactant
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What can increase the risk of pulmonary embolism?
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1. stasis of blood flow from immobility 2. injury to a vessel 3. predisposition to clot formation
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What is the most common symptom of COPD and emphysema?
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shortness of breath
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what is the treatment for pneumonia?
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1. organism-specific antibiotics for bacterial pneumonia 2. remove fluid in the pleural space
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an area of contained infectious material in the lung
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pulmonary abscess
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What is a complication of bacterial pneumonia, aspiration, & septic emboli?
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pulmonary abscess
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the pneumonia-like disease caused by bacteria that thrive in warm aquatic environments and are inhaled from moisture droplets in air conditioning units
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legionella infections
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lung fungal disease, with the greatest occurrence in the midwestern United States
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histoplasmosis
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a milder form of legionellosis (both not contagious)
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Pontiac fever
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What is a symptom of Pontiac fever?
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influenza
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Who are the ones at most risk for respiratory syncytial virus pneumonia (RSV)?
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infants, young children, and the elderly
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What is the most common endemic mycosis in the US?
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histoplasmosis
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What has cold-like symptoms, high temps, and muscle aches. It spreads quickly (incubation period 1-3 days) by inhalation of virus?
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influenza
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What are the target groups for influenza immunization?
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1. persons 65 and older 2. patients with chronic diseases 3. health care providers 4. & other high risk persons
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What are prophylactic use of vaccines effective against influenza?
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reducing the occurrence of the disease
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T/F; vaccines are useful after the disease is established (influenza)
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FALSE; they are useless
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How long does immunity against the flu take to occur?
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2-4 weeks
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a condition of slow, irreversible airway obstruction; it encompasses several obstructive diseases of the lung
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chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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What is the consequence of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
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patient is unable to ventilate the lungs freely and there is an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases
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inflammation of the lining of mucous membranes of the bronchi
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bronchitis
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What is the main sign of bronchitis?
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a cough that brings up sputum (its productive)
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obstructive diseases of the lungs, including chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, asthma, emphysema, and pneumoconiosis
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COPD
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What is listed as an etiological factor in bronchitis, bronchiectasis, emphysema, and lung cancer?
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history of smoking
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What can make an individual more susceptible to any respiratory condition?
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exposure to both primary and secondary smoke; because the smoke is an irritant to the respiratory tract
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Acute bronchitis is usually first caused by what type of infection? Is there a prevention for it?
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Viral; no
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permanent, irreversible dilation or distortion of the bronchi, resulting from destruction of muscular bronchial wall by bacteria
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bronchiectasis
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occupational lung disease, such as asbestosis or anthracosis
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pnuemoconiosis
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condition of air introduced into the plural space
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pneumothorax
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takes many years to develop, more often in the lower lobes of the lung, and exhibits a cough productive of purulent, nasty sputum
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bronchiectasis
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better defined in pediatric literature, but is seen in adults as spasm of the bronchial musculature, secretions and edema of bronchial lining, and sections in the bronchi itself
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asthma
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How can asthma be set off?
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1.lung infection 2. allergies 3. irritation aerosols
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a destructive disease of the alveoli and the adjacent capillary walls resealing in chronic dyspnea, cough, and the characteristic barrel chest
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emphysema
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What is the most common cause of death from respiratory disease in the US?
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emphysema
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occupational diseases that cause progressive, chronic inflammation and infection in the lungs from inhalation of inorganic dust
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pneumoconiosis
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What are some examples of occupational diseases?
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asbestosis, anthracosis, & silicosis
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What is the most common sign of pneumoconiosis?
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dry mouth
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What is the most commonly occurring type of pneumoconiosis?
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asbestosis
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a collection of air or gas in the pleural cavity, resulting in a collapse lung
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pneumothorax
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if the pleural cavity has blood in it, it is known as
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hemothorax
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if the collection air, or fluid, or blood occurs in the pleural cavity, the lung is compressed, shrinks and shows what?
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atelectasis
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a double fracture of three or more adjacent ribs resulting in instability in the chest wall
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flail chest
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What happens with TB?
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bacteria finds the upper part of the lungs and starts and inflammatory response, with necrosis of tissue, surrounded by fibrosis and calcification
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How do you diagnose TB?
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a mantoux test (or PPD) injection under the skin (if worsened at 42, and 72 hours, the test is positive)
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Have prevention and treatment measures for TB been beneficial?
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Partially, but TB is still considered a public health risk
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what is the cause of infectious mononucleosis?
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the Epstein-Barr virus
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What are some ways to contract mono?
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kissing, sneezing, and blood transfusions
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What makes the diagnosis for mono?
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increased E-B viral titers in blood, and increased lymphocytes some with atypical forms
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severe hypoxemia in a patient who has recently experiences trauma is called what?
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Shock lung or acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
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How can ARDS occur?
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illness and operations; the lung alveoli fils with fluid from leaking capillaries, and alveoli collapse after expiration
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multisystem granulomatous disorder most commonly detected in the lungs
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sarcoidosis
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Is lung cancer histologically non-small cell or small-cell?
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it can be both
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deals lung cancer that occurs almost exclusively in smokers
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small-cell
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Is the prognosis good or bad for lung cancer? why/why not?
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no, because people do not seek medical attention before metastasis occurs
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T/F; early detection programs for lung cancer have been proven to improve survival
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FALSE; they have not
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what is the most common cause of cancer death worldwide for both men and women?
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lung cancer
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poisons produced by fungi
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mycotoxins
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T/F; mold exposure does not always present a health problem
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TRUE
