RT Board Questions: Clinical Applications in RT – Flashcards
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About ____ of the body's lymph nodes are located in the head and neck area. A. 1/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 2/3
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B. 1/3
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How many cartilages make up the larynx? A. 3 pair B. 6 pair C. 9 D. 12
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C. 9
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What is the function of the hyoid bone? A. Acts as an attachment for muscles associated with swallowing B. Prevents food from entering the trachea C. Protects the delicate vocal cords D. Acts as a base for the laryngeal cartilages to rest on
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A. Acts as an attachment for muscles associated with swallowing
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Which of the following is typically the largest vascular structure located in the neck? A. Common carotid artery B. Internal jugular vein C. Internal carotid artery D. External carotid artery
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B. Internal jugular vein
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The jugulodigastric node may also be referred to as the: A. Node of Rouviere B. Subdigastric C. Retropharyngeal D. Circle of Willis
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B. Subdigastric
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Postcricoid and Pyriform sinuses are located in which of the following areas? A. Oropharynx B. Hypopharynx C. Ethmoid sinuses D. Maxillary sinuses
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B. Hypopharynx
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Which of the following is not considered part of the oral cavity? A. Buccal mucosa B. Hard palate C. Floor of tongue D. Soft palate
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D. Soft palate
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In treating the oropharynx area with conformal treatment (IMRT), all of the following structures can be avoided, EXCEPT: A. TMJ B. Part of the pterygoid muscles C. Salivary glands D. Tonsils
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D. Tonsils
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Many structure and soft tissue of the aerodigestive tract within the facial/cervical regions can be directly examined by means of: 1. Palpation 2. Direct inspection 3. Biopsy A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, ; 3
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D. 1, 2, ; 3
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Which of the following lymph node areas is a very high risk for dissemination of disease, is inaccessible for surgery, and therefore must be included as the minimum target volume when treating the nasopharyngeal area? A. Waldeyer ring B. Rouviere nodes C. Circle of Willis D. Jugulodigastric
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B. Rouviere nodes
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Ear pain is termed: A. Stridor B. Dysphagia C. Odynophagia D. Otalgia E. Diplopia
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D. Otalgia
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Painful swallowing is termed: A. Stridor B. Dysphagia C. Odynophagia D. Otalgia E. Diplopia
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C. Odynophagia
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Harsh, raspy breath is termed: A. Stridor B. Dysphagia C. Odynophagia D. Otalgia E. Diplopia
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A. Stridor
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Double vision is termed: A. Stridor B. Dysphagia C. Odynophagia D. Otalgia E. Diplopia
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E. Diplopia
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The majority of head and neck cancers have a histology of: A. Adenocarcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Lymphomas D. Sarcomas
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B. Squamous cell carcinoma
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The two most common etiologic factors contributing to head and neck cancers are: 1. Smoking 2. Heredity 3. Alcohol 4. Environmental A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 2, 4
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B. 1, 3
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The main goals in treating head and neck cancers is determining the best modality of treatment for: 1. Eradication of the disease 2. Maintenance of physiologic function 3. Preservation of social cosmesis A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, ; 3
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D. 1, 2, ; 3
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Plummer-Vinson syndrome (iron deficiency anemia), often seen in females, is considered an important etiologic factor in which of the following cancers? A. Oral cavity B. Oropharynx C. Nasopharynx D. Hypopharynx
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A. Oral cavity
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In some head and neck cancers, the Supraclavicular area is often treated if there is advanced disease or lower involved nodes. The normal dosage of irradiation to this area is: A. 2500 cGy B. 3000 cGy C. 5000 cGy D. 6500 cGy
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C. 5000 cGy
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The highest rate of nodal metastasis in all head and neck cancers is with cancers of the: A. Oral cavity B. Oropharynx C. Nasopharynx D. Hypopharynx
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C. Nasopharynx
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A mouth stent or tongue blade may serve more than one purpose in use during irradiation treatments for head and neck cancers. They may also serve to separate or ____ the palate. A. Moisten B. Displace C. Keep still D. Keep patient from swallowing
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B. Displace
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Which of the following is considered at the most risk when treating the maxillary Antrum with radiation? A. Brain B. Eye C. Skin D. Pituitary
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B. Eye
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The most common site of distant metastatic disease from head and neck cancers is the: A. Brain B. Bone C. Lung D. Liver
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C. Lung
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The usual wedge-pair technique often used in the treatment of the parotid gland is: A. Superior/inferior oblique combination B. Anterior/posterior oblique combination C. Anterior/posterior combination D. Anterior/inferior oblique combination
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A. Superior/inferior oblique combination
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The most commonly involved malignancy of the sinuses would be: A. Ethmoid B. Maxillary C. Sphenoid D. Frontal
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B. Maxillary
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The histologic subtype of lung cancer most seen in patients with no history of smoking is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Large cell carcinoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Small cell carcinoma
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C. Adenocarcinoma
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Total dose for prophylactic cranial irradiation is typically: A. 2000 cGy B. 3000 cGy C. 3600 cGy D. 4500 cGy
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C. 3600 cGy
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To verify the histology of a suspected lung cancer, all of the following could be helpful EXCEPT: A. Excisional biopsy B. CT scan C. Bronchoscopy with biopsy D. Sputum cytology
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B. CT scan
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How many lobes does the right lung have? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
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B. 3
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Target volume delineation for lung tumors may involve cardiac or respiratory gating procedures. The rationale for this is that lung tumors: A. Are often metastatic B. Are difficult to image C. Move with cardiac or respiratory motion D. Change shape with cardiac or respiratory motion
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C. Move with cardiac or respiratory motion
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The histologic subtype of lung cancer most seen in patients exposed to asbestos is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Mesothelioma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Oat cell carcinoma
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B. Mesothelioma
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The natural slope of the chest may cause high dose regions in the upper mediastinum. This area of increased dose may be managed by the use of a: A. Bolus B. Bite block C. Custom compensator D. Wing board
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C. Custom compensator
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A radiation treatment field with a an upper border above both clavicles and lower border approximately 5 cm below the carina, including mediastinal Lymphatics and blocking most of the left lung would likely be for: A. An initial field treatment for an upper right lung tumor B. An off-cord field for the treatment of a middle lobe right lung tumor C. Emergency treatment field for a right superior vena cava syndrome D. Palliative treatment for Hodgkin's lymphoma
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A. An initial field treatment for an upper right lung tumor
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The junction of the transverse and descending colon takes place at the ______.
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Splenic flexure
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An outpouching or weakening of the intestinal wall most commonly seen in the large intestine is termed: A. Diverticulum B. Aneurysm C. Calculus D. Fistula
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A. Diverticulum
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The curative treatment of choice for gastric carcinoma is: A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. Surgery D. Cryotherapy
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C. Surgery
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The most common presenting symptom of Cancer of the stomach among the following is: A. Severe pain B. Hematemesis C. Vague epigastric discomfort D. Palpable mass
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C. Vague epigastric discomfort
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True or false. Surgery is used more for tumors located in the upper one third of the esophagus.
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False; surgery is for lower third of the esophagus
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True or false. Adenocarcinomas of the esophagus are more frequently located in the lower one third of the esophagus.
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True
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Common sites for metastasis for colon cancer are: 1. Liver 2. Lung 3. Peritoneum 4. Bone A. 1, 3 B. 2, 3 C. 2, 3, & 4 D. 1, 2, & 3
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D. 1, 2, & 3
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Dietary factors associated with increased risk of gastric cancers include: A. Low consumption of fruits and vegetables B. Low consumption of smoked and salted foods C. High consumption of smoked and salted foods D. A & B E. A & C
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E. A & C
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Radiation treatment fields for cancer of the ____ should include inguinal lymph nodes. A. Small bowel B. Anus C. Sigmoid colon D. Rectum
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B. Anus
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Three field technique for treatment of the rectum are weighted 2:1:1 PA:RT:LT. Total prescribed dose is 50 Gy. The posterior field contribution will be: A. 12.5 GY B. 20 GY C. 25 GY D. 40 GY
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C. 25 GY
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Intense desquamation may occur in the gluteal fold during radiation therapy to the lower pelvis. Patients should be advised to: A. Use cold packs in the folds twice daily B. Take hot baths daily C. Apply Vaseline every other day D. Gently pat the area dry after each toilet
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D. Gently pat the area dry after each toilet
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A risk factor associated with colon cancer is: A. Exposure to ultraviolet light B. Diet high in salty foods C. History of colon polyps D. Human papilloma virus
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C. History of colon polyps
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Intestinal tumors grow progressively through the layers of the intestines in the following order: A. Serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis B. Muscularis, serosa, submucosa, mucosa C. Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa D. Submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis
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C. Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa
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In an anal cancer case, an electron boost will be required for the superficial inguinal nodes determined to be approximately 5 cm deep from the anterior surface. The appropriate electron energy beam would be: A. 5 MeV B. 9 MeV C. 15 MeV D. 30 MeV
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C. 15 MeV Energy/3 to the 80% dose line: 15/3 = 5
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Which patient position helps reduce the volume of bowel in the pelvis? A. Supine B. Prone C. Lateral D. Lithotomy
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B. Prone
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To avoid exceeding the dose limits to the kidneys, the ____ technique is often employed when treating the pancreas. A. Three field B. Four field C. Posterior oblique D. Wedged pair
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A. Three field
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Which histologic type of small bowel cancer has the best prognosis? A. Adenocarcinoma B. Sarcoma C. Lymphoma D. Carcinoid
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D. Carcinoid Carcinoid tumors are slow growing and have high survival rates.
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MAC stage A for colorectal cancer correlates to the TNM system stage ____. A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
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A. 0
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The highest portion of the normal adult stomach sitting just below the left diaphragm is the: A. Pylorus B. Cardiac orefice C. Fundus D. Greater curvature
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C. Fundus
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The biliary ducts are principally concerned with the transport of bile and digestive enzymes into the: A. Colon B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Lymphatic system
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C. Small intestine
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The gallbladder is normally found by its attachment to the ventral surface of the: A. Right lobe of the liver B. Left lobe of the liver C. Spleen D. Duodenum
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A. Right lobe of the liver
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The release of the bile by the gallbladder is triggered by the presence of ____ in the stomach. 1. Carbohydrates 2. Proteins 3. Fats A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 2 & 3 E. All of the above
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C. 3 only
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The ascending and transverse colon join at an area under the right lobe of the liver called the: A. Splenic flexure B. Hepatic flexure C. Gastric flexure D. Duodenal flexure
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B. Hepatic flexure
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A severe complication associated with excessive irradiation of the liver is: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Cholelithiasis C. Acute hepatitis D. Diabetes
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C. Acute hepatitis
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A common site for metastatic spread from the liver is: 1. Stomach 2. Lung 3. Brain A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3
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C. 2, 3
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The most common type of tumors found in the pancreas are: A. Sarcomas B. Leiomyomas C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Adenocarcinoma
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D. Adenocarcinoma
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Chemoembolization is: A. Systemic administration of chemotherapy with one bolus injection B. Systemic administration of chemotherapy using the enteral route C. Local administration of chemotherapy using proximal venous axis D. Local administration of chemotherapy using the transdermal route
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C. Local administration of chemotherapy using proximal venous axis
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Hepatocellular carcinoma is increasing in incidence in the US due to the rise of: A. Epstein-Barr virus B. Hepatitis C C. Cholelithiasis D. Diabetes
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B. Hepatitis C
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A pancreaticduodenectomy is also known as: A. Whipple procedure B. Halsted technique C. Stanford technique D. Endoscopy biopsy
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A. Whipple procedure
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The best chance for cure for pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Intraoperative radiation B. Local radiation C. Surgery D. Chemoembolization
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C. Surgery
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TACE is also known as: A. Intraoperative radiation B. Local radiation C. Surgery D. Chemoembolization
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D. Chemoembolization
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Distant metastasis from Breast cancer can occur via: 1. Lymph drainage 2. Blood 3. Batson plexus A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3
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D. 1, 2, 3
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The minimum size for a palpable Breast lump is: A. 0.5 cm B. 1.0 cm C. 1.5 cm D. 2.0 cm
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B. 1.0 cm
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The Posterior Axillary Boost (PAB) field is intended to irradiate: A. Level 1 Axillary nodes B. Level 2 Axillary nodes C. Level 3 Axillary nodes D. Supraclavicular nodes
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C. Level 3 Axillary nodes
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Lymphatic drainage to the Breast is primarily to the: 1. Axillary nodes 2. Supraclavicular nodes 3. Internal Mammary nodes A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3
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D. 1, 2, 3
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For estrogen receptor positive cases, an anti estrogen may be used to maintain remission known as: A. Taxol B. Tamoxifen C. Megace D. Prednisone
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B. Tamoxifen
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The most common symptom of Breast cancer is: A. Clear nipple discharge B. Dimpling of the skin C. Painless lump D. Inverted nipple
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C. Painless lump
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The most common histologic type of Breast cancer is: A. Lobular in situ B. Paget disease C. Infiltrating ductal D. Medullary
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C. Infiltrating ductal
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The total radiation dose received by the lumpectomy bed in standard whole Breast irradiation followed by lumpectomy site boost is: A. 40-60 GY B. 50-60 Gy C. 60-70 GY D. 70-80 GY
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C. 60-70 GY
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When the supraclavicular fossa is treated along with opposing tangents, the supraclavicular field is best treated using: A. AP/PA ports B. Wedged pair C. Rotational beam D. Half field technique
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D. Half field technique
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The acceptable amount of lung tissue included in tangential Breast fields is 2.0 cm in order to decrease the chance of latent: A. Pneumonia B. Lung fibrosis C. Pleural effusion D. Atelactasis
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B. Lung fibrosis
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An en face electron boost to the lumpectomy bed is accidentally treated at 105 cm SSD instead of 100 cm SSD. The error in dose delivered is about: A. 5% over dose B. 5% under dose C. 10% over dose D. 10% under dose
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D. 10% under dose
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Ductal carcinoma in situ is classified as: A. Stage 0 B. Stage 1 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3 E. Stage 4
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A. Stage 0
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A Breast cancer classified as T3 N1 M1 with metastasis to the Supraclavicular nodes would be grouped as: A. Stage 0 B. Stage 1 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3 E. Stage 4
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E. Stage 4 *positive Superclavicular nodes upgrades diagnosis to stage 4
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A sentinel lymph node biopsy involves injection of a blue dye and radioactive: A. Iridium 192 B. Technetium 99m C. Strontium 89 D. Samarian 137
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B. Technetium 99m
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The hinge angle between two half beam tangential ports is 180 degrees. The medial tangent gantry angle is 310 degrees. What is the gantry angle for the lateral tangent? A. 230 degrees B. 140 degrees C. 130 degrees D. 50 degrees
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C. 130 degrees
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Lymphatic spread for for vulva in order from first site of spread to last is: A. Deep femoral nodes, pelvic nodes, superficial inguinal nodes B. Superficial inguinal nodes, pelvic nodes, deep femoral nodes C. Pelvic nodes, deep femoral nodes, superficial inguinal nodes D. Superficial inguinal nodes, deep femoral nodes, pelvic nides
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D. Superficial inguinal nodes, deep femoral nodes, pelvic nodes
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Lymphatic spread for for vulva in order from first site of spread to last is: A. Parametrial nodes, pelvic nodes, supraclavicular nodes, common iliac nodes, periaortic nodes B. Parametrial nodes, pelvic nodes, common iliac nodes, periaortic nodes, supraclavicular nodes C. Supraclavicular, deep femoral nodes, superficial inguinal nodes, pelvic nodes, parametrial nodes D. Common iliac nodes, pelvic nodes, supraclavicular nodes, common iliac nodes, Parametrial nodes
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B. Parametrial nodes, pelvic nodes, common iliac nodes, periaortic nodes, supraclavicular nodes
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Bladder and rectal doses are very important to the gynecologic radiation therapy planning. The point tolerance for these organs is: A. 2000 cGy B. 3500 cGy C. 5000 cGy D. 7500 cGy
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D. 7500 cGy
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A recent study has warranted the research of endometrium cancer in women who take which if the followiwing: A. Cisplatin B. Methotrexate C. Tamoxifen D. Doxorubicin
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C. Tamoxifen
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The outermost portion of the gynecologic tract: A. Vagina B. Vulva C. Cervix D. Ovary
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B. Vulva
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The connective tissue immediately lateral to the uterine cervix: A. Parametrium B. Parasagittal C. Myometrium D. Perineum
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A. Parametrium
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Which of the following cancers, even at an early stage, will often involve metastatic spread throughout the abdominal cavity? A. Endometrium B. Cervix C. Ovarian D. Vagina
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C. Ovarian
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A patient having abdominal pain and distention and/or nonspecific GI symptoms (nausea, heartburn) could be symptomatic to which Cancer? A. Endometrium B. Cervix C. Ovarian D. Vagina
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C. Ovarian
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Which of the following preoperative tests might be used in detection of ovarian cancer? A. PSA B. BRCA1 C. BRCA2 D. Ca-125
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D. Ca-125
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Cervical cancer is more prevalent than any other gynecologic Cancer among younger women, mainly stemming from: A. Intraepithelial neoplasia B. Invasive cervical C. Atrophic dysplasia D. Low estrogen
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A. Intraepithelial neoplasia
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The cervix often protrudes into the vagina, producing lateral spaces in the vaginal apex called: A. Cervical os B. Fornices C. Ovaries D. Uterus
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B. Fornices
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With vaginal and cervical cancers, there is an increased risk of clear cell adenocarcinoma and abnormalities of the stratified epithelium in women whose mothers (during pregnancy) used which of the following drugs: A. Dihydrotestosterone (DEET) B. Dysmenorrheal (DMH) C. Diethylstilbestrol (DES) D. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
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C. Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
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Diabetes, hypertension, overweight and increased use of estrogen or the estrogen-to-progesterone ratio relate to which of the following cancers: A. Cervical B. Endometrium C. Ovarian D. Vaginal
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B. Endometrium
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When treating ovarian cancer with radiation, often the abdominal cavity is involved with the disease. What is the tolerance dose to the kidneys? A. 20 GY B. 30 GY C. 40 GY D. 50 Gy
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A. 20 GY
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When treating pelvic tumors with a high dose of radiation, a major side effect is diarrhea due to the small bowed in the field. It usually occurs the second or third week of the treatment. Which of the following would be prescribed to alleviate the problem? A. Sucralfate (Carafate) B. Diphenoxylate (Lomitil) C. Ibuprofen (Motrin) D. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
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B. Diphenoxylate (Lomitil)
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Which of the following isotopes may be used in the treatment of ovarian cancer? A. Iodine 131 B. Iridium 192 C. Cobalt 60 D. Phosphorous 32
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D. Phosphorous 32
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Ovarian cancer is the most deadly of all female cancers because: 1. Few symptoms 2. Widely disseminated 3. Usually found in one ovary A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1, 2, & 3
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A. 1 & 2
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In a patient with cervix cancer has periaortic nodal involvement, there is a 35% increase for spread to the: A. Vulva area B. Supraclavicular area C. Lung D. Brain
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B. Supraclavicular area
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For carcinoma in situ and stage 1 well differentiated Cancer, the entire vagina may be treated with low dose brachytherapy using a vaginal cylinder with cesium 137 to a dose of: A. 1500 cGy B. 2500 cGy C. 4500 cGy D. 6000 cGy
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D. 6000 cGy
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Upon completion of a radiotherapy course for cervix Cancer, a patient experiences abdominal distention and hyperactive bowel sounds that could indicate: A. Gastritis B. Bowel obstruction C. Chronic cystitis D. Proctosigmoiditis
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B. Bowel obstruction
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The most radiotolerant structure of the gynecologic organs is the: A. Uterine canal B. Cervix C. Ovary D. Bladder
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A. Uterine canal
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Which of the following would be recommended for a patient that is having pelvic treatment concurrently with chemotherapy? 1. Rest 2. Reassurance 3. Antidepressants A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1, 2, & 3
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D. 1, 2, & 3
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Inguinal nodes would most likely be treated when a Cancer occurs in which area? A. Cervix B. Ovary C. Vagina D. Endometrium
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C. Vagina
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Metastasis from Prostate cancer can spread via: 1. Lymph nodes 2. Blood 3. Nerve chains A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1, 2, & 3
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D. 1, 2, & 3
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True or false. Prostate cancer are chemoresponsive.
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False
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A full bladder for Prostate helps to: 1. Increase bladder dose 2. Decrease bladder dose 3. Decrease small bowel in the AP field 4. Decrease small bowel in the lateral field A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 1, 3, & 4
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D. 2 & 4
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The etiology of testicular Cancer includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Cryptrochidism B. Klinefelter syndrome C. Bowen's disease D. Mumps orchitis
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C. Bowen's disease
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Signs and symptoms of testicular Cancer include: 1. Painless, testicular mass 2. Infertility 3. Gynecomastia 4. Back pain A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 1, 3, & 4 F. 1, 2, 3, & 4
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F. 1, 2, 3, & 4
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Spread of testicular Cancer flows in an orderly fashion. Put the following in the correct order from first to last: 1. Common iliac 2. External/Internal iliac 3. Renal hilar 4. Paracaval 5. Para-aortic A. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 B. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 C. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 D. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
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C. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 Femoral and inguinal nodes are rarely involved!
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The histology of penile Cancer includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Melanoma B. Queyrat disease C. Bowen's disease D. Mumps orchitis
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D. Mumps orchitis
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Metastatic spread of penile Cancer deposits in the _____ nodes. A. Regional nodes B. Para-aortic nodes C. Internal iliac nodes D. Inguinal nodes
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D. Inguinal nodes
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Penile Cancer uses which of the following staging system: A. Modified Astler-Coller B. FIGO C. Jackson D. Moh's
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C. Jackson
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The most common cancer if germinal origin of the testis is: A. Teratocarcinoma B. Seminoma C. Choriocarcinoma D. Embryonal
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B. Seminoma
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Testicular cancer are most frequently diagnosed in men aged: A. 60-65 B. 15-35 C. 40-50 D. 70-80
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B. 15-35
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A serum blood marker used in determining extent of testicular Cancer is: A. AFP B. CA 19-9 C. CEA D. BRCA 1
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A. AFP
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The Prostate gland lies ___ to the bladder and ____ to the rectum. A. Inferior/superior B. Superior/inferior C. Inferior/anterior D. Superior/posterior
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C. Inferior/anterior
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The seminal vesicles lie ____ to the Prostate and ____ to the rectum. A. Inferior/superior B. Superior/anterior C. Inferior/anterior D. Superior/posterior
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B. Superior/anterior
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Of the following, which would require the lowest dose to control disease? A. Prostate B. Testis C. Penis D. Breast
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B. Testis
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When irradiating Seminoma stages I, IA, IB, the following nodes should be included: 1. Para-aortic 2. Ipsilateral iliac 3. Mediastinal 4. Scalene A. 1 & 2 B. 3 & 4 C. 1, 2, & 3 D. 1, 2, 3, & 4
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A. 1 & 2
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The most common histologic type found in Prostate cancer is: A. Adenocarcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Clear cell D. Transitional cell
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A. Adenocarcinoma
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Brachytherapy in the management of Prostate cancer would be: A. HDR interstitial B. LDR interstitial C. HDR intracavitary E. HDR intraluminal
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B. LDR interstitial
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Hormonal therapy for prostate cancer may include the administration of: A. Tamoxifen B. Megace C. Taxol D. Lupron
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D. Lupron
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The patient complaining of diarrhea should be advised to: A. Eat fresh fruits and vegetables B. Eat more starch and dairy products C. Avoid high fiber foods D. Consume liquids only
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C. Avoid high fiber foods
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The appropriate treatment position for a patient treated with opposing hockey stick fields is: A. Supine with both arms above the head B. Supine with both arms on the abdomen C. Prone with both arms up around pillow D. Lateral decubitus with elbows bent
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A. Supine with both arms above the head
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A common location for distant metastasis from Seminoma is: A. Brain B. Skin C. Liver D. Lung
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D. Lung
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The inguinal nodes should be included in radiation treatment fields for: 1. Prostate 2. Testicular 3. Penile A. 1 & 3 B. 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2, & 3
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B. 3 only
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What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?
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Papillary
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The best position for treating the vertex field is: A. Chin extended as much as possible B. Chin flexed C. Chin turned to one side D. Chin extension at 12 cm
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B. Chin flexed
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When treating an extremity, the limb should be positioned: A. Perpendicular to the table B. Resting on a sponge C. Parallel to the horizontal axis of the beam D. Parallel to the torso
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C. Parallel to the horizontal axis of the beam
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The energy loss of megavoltage (MeV) electron beams in water is approximately ______ MeV/cm. A. 10 B. 5 C. 2 D. 3
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C. 2
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The field size of an X-ray or gamma ray beam is defined as the area enclosed within the boundary of the _____% depth dose line. A. 50 B. 60 C. 80 D. 100
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A. 50 The 50% isodose line defines the he field size for X-ray or gamma ray beams. Also known as the "physical field size".
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The expected total dose to point A for treatment of the cervix from both radiation and brachytherapy is approximately: A. 35 Gy B. 70 Gy C. 90 Gy D. 140 Gy
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C. 90 Gy A patient with bulky disease can receive 40-45 Gy with external beam and an additional 40-45 Gy with high or low dose brachytherapy.
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Hypogastric lymph nodes would likely be included in radiation fields for the treatment of the : A. Base of tongue B. Stomach C. Esophagus D. Rectum
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D. Rectum Hypogastric lymph nodes are part of the external iliac chain of nodes of the pelvis.
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Rotational arc therapy is selected for treatment to the pituitary gland. The arc is 240 and the calculated MU is 196. The MU/degree setting will be: A. 0.817 B. 0.667 C. 1.22 D. 1.50
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A. 0.817 196/240 = 0.817
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When performing manual contouring, it is important to: A. Contour the patient In the treatment position B. Verify the beam energy being used C. Establish the beam arrangement planned D. All of the above
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A. Contour the patient In the treatment position
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Total dose to the lumpectomy site following accelerated partial breast irradiation (APBI) utilizing high dose brachytherapy will be approximately: A. 20 Gy B. 35 Gy C. 45 Gy D. 60 Gy
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C. 45 Gy
question
The dose rate used for LDR brachytherapy procedures is typically: A. 20 Gy/min B. 10 Gy/min C. 2 Gy/min D. 0.05 Gy/min
answer
C. 2 Gy/min
question
The 50% isodose line of a 12 MeV electron beam would be at an approximate depth of: A. 3 cm B. 4 cm C. 5 cm D. 6 cm
answer
C. 5 cm Use the rules for electron beam therapy: 1. 4(E) = depth of 50% isodose line in mm 2. 4(12) = 48 mm 3. E = 2.5 X depth of 50% isodose line in cm 12/2.5 = 5
question
The volume larger than the treatment volume that receives some significant dose is the: A. Tumor volume B. Target volume C. Irradiated volume D. Clinical volume
answer
C. Irradiated volume
question
A 6 MV photon beam on the linac has an output at isocenter of 1.2 cGy/MU. What would be the inverse square factor used in the MU calculation for an extended distance treatment at 120 cm SSD? A. 0.823 B. 0.677 C. 1.21 D. 1.48
answer
B. 0.677 (SAD/SSD + dmax)² (100/121.5)² = 0.677
question
The shape of the isodose curves depends largely on: 1. Field size 2. Depth dose 3. Flattening filters 4. SSD A. 1, 4 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 4 D. 2, 3
answer
B. 1, 3 The shape of the isodose curve depends on: 1. Field size 2. Blocks 3. Wedges 4. Cones 5. MLC's
question
Which radioisotope is most commonly used for permanent interstitial implants of the prostate gland? A. Cesium 137 B. Cobalt 60 C. Gold 198 D. Iodine 131
answer
C. Gold 198 Gold 198 or Palladium 103 seeds are commonly used for permanent prostate implants.
question
Electron beams are useful in radiation therapy primarily because: A. Have a greater biological effect than X-rays B. Provide more skin sparing than gamma rays C. Have a definite range in tissue D. Have maximum LET at electronic equilibrium
answer
C. Have a definite range in tissue
question
A good surface landmark to approximate the apex of the lung is the: A. Sternal angle B. Clavicle C. Thyroid notch D. Cricoid cartilage
answer
B. Clavicle
question
Opposed tangential fields would likely be used in the treatment of the: A. Breast B. Spleen C. Femur D. Esophagus
answer
A. Breast
question
A representation of the dose in an irradiated volume as a function of spatial position along a single line is known as a/an? A. Isodose curve B. PDD line C. Dose profile D. DVH
answer
C. Dose profile
question
In order to make custom Cerrobend blocks, the following information is needed: 1. Target to film distance 2. Beam energy 3. Patient thickness A. 1, 2 B. 2, 3 C. 1, 3 D. All of the above
answer
A. 1, 2 To make Cerrobend blocks the cutter must know: 1. Target to film distance 2. Beam energy 3. Target to tray distance
question
For patients with pancreatic cancer, extra care is taken to limit dose to the radiosensitive: A. Heart, stomach, and small bowel B. Stomach, kidney, small bowel C. Stomach, rectum, and bladder D. Liver, kidney, and spinal cord
answer
D. Liver, kidney, and spinal cord
question
Indian club needles have: A. Good seed B. One hot end C. Two hot ends D. Even activity
answer
B. One hot end
question
The width of penumbra increases with increasing: A.SSD B. Source to collimator distance C. Energy D. SAD
answer
A.SSD Penumbra increases with increasing SSD and source size .
question
The attenuation of Cerrobend is less dense than lead by about: A. 5% B. 10 % C. 15% D. 25%
answer
C. 15
question
When using lateral and anterior supraclavicular fields to treat a tumor in the oropharynx, the field junction should be placed: A. Cephalad of the thyroid notch B. Caudal of the thyroid notch C. Caudal of the larynx D. Cephalad of the mandible
answer
A. Cephalad of the thyroid notch
question
Overall, most intracranial malignancies are: A. Glioblastoma multiforme B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Pituitary adenoma
answer
C. Metastatic
question
When treating the whole brain with opposing laterals, one way to minimize beam divergence into the eye opposite the entrance port would be: A. Rotate the collimator B. Center the axis near the lateral canthus C. Turn the patients head slightly away from the beam D. Rotate the couch away from the gantry
answer
B. Center the axis near the lateral canthus
