Pediatrics Exam 1 study guide – Flashcards

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Chicken Pox, MMR
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Name 2 live vaccines
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When seizure occurred after previous DTAP
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When is DTAP absolutely contraindicated
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aspirated
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Peanuts can be easily ___________
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grazers
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In terms of nutrition, toddlers are considered ___________
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quality; quantity
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In terms of nutrition the ____________ of food is more important than the _____________ of food for preschoolers.
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respiratory symptoms (think fumes)
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If lighter fluid (hyrdocarbon) is ingested what symptoms will the child present with?
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tongue edema, mouth sores, pharynx problems
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If a corrosive poison is ingested what symptoms will the child present with?
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be persistent through 10-15 minutes of food refusal
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Tip for parents with children diagnosed with Failure to thrive:
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report changes in stool patterns to doctor, do not want firm stools
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Teaching for family after child underwent high rectum malformation surgery:
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27
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The neonatal period is the first _____ days
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28 days; 1 year
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The postnatal period is days _________ through __________
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Birth weight
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What is the major determinant of neonatal death in the US?
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2500
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Low birth weight is < ______ g?
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injury
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What is the #1 cause of death in children > 1 year?
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Recognizing the family as the constant in a child's life
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What is family centered care?
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address the needs of all family members
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What does family centered care strive to do?
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families are given the opportunity to display caring
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Enabling
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giving the family the skills to care
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Empowerment
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first do no harm
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Atraumatic care goal
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prevent separation, promote sense of control, minimize bodily injury
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3 principles of atraumatic care:
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is part of primary prevention of disease
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Immunization
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flushed cheeks, white strawberry tongue, rash shows increased density on neck and groin and transverse lines on elbow, Koplik's spots
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Rubella (measles)
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Small, irregular red spots with a bluish-white center appearing on the buccal mucosa in association with measles
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Koplik's spots
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decreases morbidity and mortality in rubella (measles)
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Vitamin A
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viral; droplet; 10-20
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Rubella (measles) is a _________ disease, it is droplet/airborne/contact and has an incubation period of ____ to _____ days.
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viral; droplet or contact; 14-21
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Mumps is a _________ disease, it is droplet/airborne/contact and has an incubation period of ____ to _____ days.
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bacterial; droplet or contact; 6-20
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Whooping cough (pertussis) is a _________ disease, it is droplet/airborne/contact and has an incubation period of ____ to _____ days.
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viral; airborne; 2-3
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Chicken pox(varicella) is a _________ disease, it is droplet/airborne/contact and has an incubation period of ____ to _____ weeks.
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viral; direct; 14-21
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German measles is a _________ disease, it is droplet/airborne/contact and has an incubation period of ____ to _____ days.
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fever, headache, malaise, parotitis (may lead to orchitis & meningoencephalitis
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Mumps
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short rapid cough followed by crowing of "whoop" sound
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Whooping Cough (pertussis)
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pneumonia
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Usual cause of death with pertussis (whooping cough)?
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teratogenic effect on fetus
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Greatest danger of German measles if nurse or family member is pregnant?
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secondary bacterial infections, encephalitis, pneumonia, hemorrhage and chronic or transient thrombocytopenia
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Chicken Pox (varicella) complications
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Live vaccines (Varicella and MMR)
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What vaccines should not be given to immunocompromised patients?
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it delays treatment
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Denial of chronic illness by family member is considered maladapative only if ...
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cry and scream, cling to parent
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Protest stage of separation anxiety
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crying stops, evidence of depression
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Despair stage of separation anxiety
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denial or resignation but not contentment; may seriously affect attachment to parent after separation
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Detachment phase of separation anxiety
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anxiety
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A child's concept of illness is more important than intellectual maturity in predicting __________.
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facial expression
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The F in the FLACC pain scale for infants stands for:
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legs (normal, relaxed, tense, kicking, drawn up)
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The L in the FLACC pain scale for infants stands for:
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activity (quiet, sqirming, arched, jercking)
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The A in the FLACC pain scale for infants stands for:
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cry (none, moaning, whimpering, scream)
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The first C in the FLACC pain scale for infants stands for:
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consolability (content, easy or difficult to console)
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The second C in the FLACC pain scale for infants stands for:
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18 months
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Physiological anorexia occurs at what age?
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picky eaters with strong taste preferences, 18 months of age
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What is physiological anorexia?
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tobacco smoke
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The incidence of Vitamin C deficiency is increased with exposure to what?
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Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
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What autosomal disorder is similar to Type 2 diabetes mellitus?
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urine testing for ketones every 3 hours
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What should be tested during illness and whenever glucose is greater than or equal to 240 mg/dL without illness?
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congenital hypothyroidism
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What leads to cretinism, mental retardation and growth retardation?
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< 5th percentile in weight
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Failure to thrive
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developmental delays, apathy, withdrawn behavior, no fear of strangers, avoidance of eye contact, wide eyed gaze & continual scan of environment, stiff & inyielding or flaccid & unresponsive, minimal smiling
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Manifestations of failure to thrive
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primary core staff to feed child, quiet, unstimulating atmosphere, calm, even temperment throughout meal, give directions, be persistent (10 -15 min of meal refusal), rhythm of feeding, develop a structured routine
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Guidelines for feeding a child with failure to thrive
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4-5.9
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Normal HgbA,C
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<7
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Good control of HgbA,C
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greater than equal to 8
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Poorly controlled HgbA,C
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equal loss of fluid and electrolytes
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Isotonic dehydration
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lose more fluid than electrolytes
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Hypertonic dehydration
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lose more electrolytes than fluid
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Hypotonic dehydration
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ORS (oral rehydration solution)
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Treat mild to moderate dehydration with
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IV rehydration is necessary
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Treat severe dehydration with
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allow 100 mL/Kg for first 10 Kg of body weight allow 50 mL/Kg for next 10 Kg of body weight allow 20 mL/Kg for remaining body weight
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To determine daily maintenance fluid requirement calculate child's weight in kg and then:
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bananas, rice, applesauce, toast, tea
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BRATT diet
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diarrhea due to poor nutritional value
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BRATT diet is contraindicated for
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maternal drug use or poor maternal nutrition
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Primary etiology of cleft lip/cleft palate
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suction, tongue depressors, themometers, pacifiers, spoons, straws
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Avoid what in the mouth for patients with cleft lip/palate following a palatoplasty to maintain the integrity of the surgically repaired palate?
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congenital aganglionic megacolon, accumulation of stool with distension
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Hirschsprung Disease
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failure of esophagus to develop as a continuous passage
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Esophageal Atresia (EA)/Transesophageal Fistual (TEF)
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Esophageal Atresia (EA)/Transesophageal Fistual (TEF)
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An infant with an excessive amount of frothy saliva in the mouth or difficulty with secretions and unexplained episodes of cyanosis should be suspected of?
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3 C's: coughing, choking, cyanosis
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Clinical manifestations of Esophageal Atresia (EA)/Transesophageal Fistual (TEF)
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NPO (child may need intubated)
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If Esophageal Atresia (EA)/Transesophageal Fistual (TEF) is suspected, place child on immediate ____________.
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constriction of pyloric sphincter, palpable as an olive like mass in the upper abdomen
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Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (HPS)
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projectile vomitting
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Primary clinical manifestation of Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (HPS)
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telescoping or invagination of one portion of intestine into another
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Intussusception
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currant jelly stools
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Primary clinical manifestation of intussusception?
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abd pain, abd mass, bloody stools
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Classic triad of intussusception signs and symptoms
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29-33%
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The classic triad of intussusception signs and symptoms is only present in what percent of cases?
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screaming, irritability, lethargy, vomitting, diarrhea, constipation, fever, dehydration and shock
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A patient with intussusception may present initially with ...
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emergency
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Intussusception is an ___________.
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Inform the physician immediately, it may have resolved itself
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If child waiting for intussusception surgery passes a normal stool what should a nurse do?
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steatorrhea (fatty stools), general malnutrition, abdominal distension, vitamin deficiencies (A,D,E,K)
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Celiac disease signs and symptoms
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intolerance to gluten, BROW (barley, rye, oat, wheat)
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Celiac disease definition
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frequent spit ups or acid smelling breath, some have respiratory symptoms instead of any of these symptoms
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Identifying kids with GERD
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elevate HOB 30 degrees during feeding and for 1 hour after
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Positioning for GERD
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do NOT induce vomiting
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If poisoning is suspected ...
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severe burning pain with swelling in the mouth, throat and stomach, violent vomiting, hemoptysis
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Signs a corrosive poison has been ingested
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dilute with water or milk
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Treatment for a corrosive poison ingestion
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altered sensory, respiratory symptoms due to pulmonary involvement, primary danger is bronchitis and chemical pneumonia
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Signs a hydrocarbon poison has been ingested
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maintain airway
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Treatment for a hydrocarbon poison ingestion
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acetylcysteine (mucomyst)
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Antidote for acetaminophen
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150 mg/kg
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Toxic dose of acetaminophen is
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bleeding tendency, coma, diaphoresis, tinnitus
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Aspirin poisoning
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may turn urine red or orange, mush have working kidneys, may cause hypotension or shock if given quickly
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Iron chelation therapy
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10 mcg/dL
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Diagnostic level for lead poisoning is
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elevate the legs, restrict activity and keep warm
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If shock is imminent what should a nurse do?
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splenic sequestration, RBC's clump in the spleen and it may become engorged and rupture
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Sickle cell anemia
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spleen
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What organ needs close monitoring with sickle cell anemia?
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bacterial infections due to immunocompromise (especially after splenectomy)
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Sickle cell patients are at increase risk for what?
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Hgb electrophoresis
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What test is a definitive test for sickle cell anemia?
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increased oxygen demands, trauma, infection/fever, physical and emotional stress, dehydration or hypoxia
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Sickle cell crisis is caused by:
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golf, bowling, baseball (low oxygen requirements)
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What sports would be good for a sickle cell patient?
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severe joint, chest and leg pain, high spiking fever, tissue engorgement
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Type of sickle cell crisis: Vasa-occlusive thrombolytic crisis (VOC)
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profound anemia (pallor), hypovolemia (decreased blood pressure), shock, medical emergency
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Type of sickle cell crisis: Splenic sequestriation crisis
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profound anemia, pallor, can't be treated with antibiotics because it is viral, treatment is packed RBC's
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Type of sickle cell crisis: Aplasic crisis
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2 months to 5 years
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Prophylactic antibiotics are given for what ages in sickle cell kids as the immune system develops?
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blood transfussion
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If given early in a sickle cell crisis this may help to reduce ischemia
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reticulocyte count (bone marrow)
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What count should be monitored with sickle cell?
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hemosiderosis (iron)
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Frequent blood transfusions may increase __________.
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Iron chelation - feroxamine plus Vitamin C
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What is the treatment for hemosiderosis?
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wear gloves
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Hydroxyurea handling caution
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Sickle cell due to risk for seizures
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Demerol is contraindicated for use in what disease?
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hemarthrosis, ecchmosis
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Hemophilia signs and symptoms
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6 months of age
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Hemophilia may not occur until what age?
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ROM and joint moving to prevent contractures
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Despite the pain it may cause a patient with hemophilia needs to do what exercises?
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hemophilia
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A prolonged PTT may indicate what disease?
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drug for mile hemophilia
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DDAVP
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blood in a joint cavity
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Hemarthrosis
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elevate and immobilize the joint, ROM after bleeding stops to prevent contractures
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During episodes of hemarthrosis a nurse should ...
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ALL acute lymphoid leukemia
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Most common type of leukemia with best prognosis
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AML acute Myelogenous leukemia
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Most rare type of leukemia with poor prognosis
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liver and spleen
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What organs are most severely affected with leukemia?
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overproduction of WBC's but low leukocyte count, it leads to anemia, infection and bleeding as well as infiltration, enlargement and fibrosis of liver, spleen and lymph nodes
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What is leukemia?
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the first stage occurring for 4-6 weeks
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Induction therapy is what phase of therapy for leukemia and occurs for how many weeks?
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CNS prophylactic therapy or intrathecal chemotherapy
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What phase of therapy for leukemia is needed if there is CNS involvement?
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eradicate residual leukemic cells
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What does the 3rd phase of leukemia therapy, Intesification (consolidation) therapy do?
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During the Maintenance therapy to preserve remission
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At home PO Methotrexate is given when to a leukemia patient?
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a sibling
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Who is the most likely match for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)?
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rejection
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After HSCT, red patch rash on palms and feet means what?
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A round of induction therapy to wipe out WBC's
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What should be done prior to HSCT?
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Fresh flowers and fruit
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What is contraindicated for visitors to bring to a patient with leukemia?
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prednisone
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What is kept at a leukemia patients bedside to treat anaphylaxis?
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chemotherapeutic agents are dosed by weight, to prevent overdose
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Why should weight loss be reported for a patient with leukemia?
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Reglan, Zofran 30 minutes prior to starting, ran continuously with and then 1 more dose afterwards
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When should antiemetics be given for chemo patients?
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irratibility, pica, malnourishment, exercise, intolerance, inattentive/cognitive delays, beeturia, bluish sclera
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Anemia manifestations
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Increase
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Length of time between S1 and S2 should ____________ on inspiration?
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congenital anomaly
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If there is fixed time between S1 and S2 what could this indicate?
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Have child hold their breath when auscultating, normally there is an increase in HR during inspiration and a decrease in HR during exhalation
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Since children have arrhythmias normally how to you tell if it is a "real" arrhythmia?
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cyanosis, decreased oxygen saturation, lethargic or restless, may have murmur, abnormal or arrhythmic HR, CHF s/s, tachypnea, retractions, nasal flaring
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Congenital Heart Defect (CHD) clinical manifestations
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crackles in lungs (fluid), SOB, edema, poor tissue perfusion
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Normal signs and symptoms of CHF
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Oxygen administration, thermoregulation, cardiac medications, special feeding
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Interventions for CHD
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Atrial Septal Defect (ASD), Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD), Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)
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Name 3 Increased Pulmonary Blood Flow Defects
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an abnormal connection between 2 sides of the heart, it leads to increased blood volume on the right side of the heart and too much blood to the lungs causing right sided CHF
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What is an Increased Pulmonary Blood Flow Defect?
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Blood shunts from left to right, hypertrophy of Right Atrium
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Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)
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s/s of CHF, murmur over area of shunting, atrial arrhythmias (b/c of SA mode is in RV), poor activity tolerance, poor nutrition, poor growth, pulmonary manifestations later
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Signs and symptoms of ASD
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may wait unitl 18 months to allow hole to close on it's own before surgery is performed to repair
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Treatment for ASD
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Blood shunts left to right, hypertrophy of Right Ventricle
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Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
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s/s of CHF, murmur, high risk for endocarditis, Eisenmenger syndrome in severe cases
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Signs and symptoms of VSD
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When the left to right shunts cause pulmonary hypertension, vascular hypertrophy, and eventually shift the L=>R shunt to a R=>L shunt, and cause late cyanosis.
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Eisenmenger syndrome
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Cardiac medications such as antihypertensives, digoxin, diuretics and antibiotics
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Treatment for VSD
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decrease work load of the heart
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Antihypertensives
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increase cardiac output
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Digoxin
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decrease fluid
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Diuretics
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prophylaxis, infection occurs when fluid is in th elungs
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Antibiotics
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Keep the Patent Ductus Arteriosus open
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Prostaglandins
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block the action of aldosterone
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Ace Inhibitors
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A fall in the serum potassium level
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What enhances the effects of digoxin?
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normally closes w/in hours to days in term infant, may be delayed in premies, if not, the systemic resistances pushes blood from the aorta into the pulmonary artery (left to right shunt)
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Patent Ductus Arteriosus
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CHF, hypertrophy of the left atrium and left ventricle, pulmonary congestion, increased risk for endocarditis and pulmonary obstructive diseases
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Signs and symptoms of PDA
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wait to see if it closes, ventilator support, fluid restriction, admin of Indomethacin, admin of NSAIDS
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Management of PDA
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Prostaglandin inhibitor, may help to get the PDA closed
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Indomethacin
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Ibuprofen works to inhibit prostaglandin which may help to get the PDA closed
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NSAID
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Coarction of the Aorta (COA), Aortic Stenosis
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Name 2 Obstructive Defects
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blood can not exit the heart because of a stenosis of some type
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What is an obstructive defect?
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Narrowin gof the descending aorta, common in Turner's Syndrome.
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What is a Coarction of the Aorta (COA)?
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the PDA will act compensatory, once the PDA closes symptoms will appear
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Why do symptoms of COA start several days after birth rather than immediately?
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CHF, left ventricular hypertrophy, murmur, increased blood pressure and bounding pulses in upper extremities, decreased blood pressure and weak or absent pulses in lower extremities (feet often cyanotic & cold)
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Signs and symptoms of COA
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Mechanical ventilation, cardiac meds, prostaglandins (to keep PDA open), surgical resection, 2 anastomosis
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Treatment for COA
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