Patho Quiz’s – Flashcards
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What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control?
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Movement of the eyeball
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Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens?
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Astigmatism
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Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
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Chronic (wide-angle) glaucoma
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Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
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Cataract
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What is the basic pathological change with macular degeneration?
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Degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis.
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What does the inner ear contain?
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Organ of corti and semicircular canals.
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How does otosclerosis cause hearing loss?
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Fixation of the stapes to the oval window.
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Which is the early effect of age-related macular degeneration?
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Loss of central visual acuity.
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Loss of the left visual field results from damage to the:
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Right occipital lobe.
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An infection that damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of hearing loss?
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Sensorineural
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The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the:
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Fovea centralis
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The lens and cornea are nourished by:
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aqueous humor
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Which term refers to near-sightedness?
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Myopia
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The semicircular canals of the inner ear are responsible for:
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balance and equilibrium
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Trachoma is indicated by the presense of:
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corneal abrasions by the infected eyelids.
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What must happen for the pupil of the eye to dilate?
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Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is required
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Trachoma is an eye infection caused by:
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Chlamydia bacteria
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Which of the following is a sign of a detached retina?
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No pain, development of a dark area in the visual field
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In a case of acute otitis media, what would a purulent discharge in the external canal of the ear and some pain relief likely indicate?
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Rupture of the tympanic membrane
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Why does vertigo occur with Meniere's syndrome?
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Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.
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Which is the early effect of age-related macular degeneration?
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loss of central visual acuity
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What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate increased secretion of insulin?
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Negative feedback control
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Choose one statement that applies to type 1 DM.
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onset often occurs during childhood
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Why does polyuria develop with DM?
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Osmotic pressure due to glucose
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What is the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis?
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Increased catabolisim of fats and protiens
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Immediate treatment for insulin shock may include:
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consumption of fruit juice or candy
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How do many oral hypoglycemic drugs act?
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To stimulate the pancreas to promote more insulin
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Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
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Deficit of T3 and T4
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When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?
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Secretin
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Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?
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Amylase
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In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?
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Liver
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Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?
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Vagus nerve
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Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?
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Bicarbonate ion
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What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders?
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Benign tumor
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What is the cause of ketoacidosis?
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Increased catabolism of fats and protiens
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Which of the following may cause insulin shock to develop?
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strenuous excerise
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Which of the following indicated hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
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Staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion
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Which of the following are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis in an unconscious person?
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deep rapid respirations and fruity breath odor
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Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?
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Parietal cells
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The visceral peritoneum:
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forms the outer covering of the stomach
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Small, hidden amounts of blood in stool are referred to as:
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occult blood
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What is the definition of dysphagia?
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difficulty in swallowing
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What is a common cause of hiatial hernia?
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increased intra-abdominal pressure
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What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?
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Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs
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A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely:
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vomit undigested food from previous meals
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What would be the result of chronic bleeding from the gastric carcinoma?
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occult blood in the stool and anemia
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Bilirubin is a product of:
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hemolysis of RBC's and breakdown of hemoglobin
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What is the major effect when a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct?
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severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant
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Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?
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it is transmitted by the fecal-oral route
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What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?
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HCV
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What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?
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decreased production of blood clotting factors
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Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
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damage to the intestinal villi
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What pain is typical of diverticulitis?
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lower left quadrant
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To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
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Liver
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Bile pigment gallstones are more common in individuals dealing with:
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Alcoholic cirrhosis
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Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?
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Proximal duodenum
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What does the term melena mean?
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blood in a dark-colored stool
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Which of the following occurs with hepatitis B?
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The liver is inflamed and enlarged.
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Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
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Ileum
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The presence of food in the intestine stimulates intestinal activity by inhibits gastric activity through the:
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Enterogastric reflex
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Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?
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They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins
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The early stage of vomiting causes:
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metabolic alkalosis
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Yellow or greenish stained vomitus usually indicates the presence of:
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Bile
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Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?
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It requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII
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Oral candidiasis is considered to:
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be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
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Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?
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the virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia
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What does the term peiodontitis refer to?
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Bacterial damage to the teeth and surrounding alveolar bone
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What is a common sign of acute gastritis?
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Vomiting and anorexia
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Obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones is referred to as:
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choledocholithiasis
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In patients with cirrhosis, serum ammonia may increase when:
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bleeding occurs in the digestive tract
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Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?
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long-term exposure to certain chemicals
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Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
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damage to the intestinal villi.
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What are the typical changes occuring with Chron's disease?
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Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
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How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
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Chronic blood loss in stools
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How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?
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Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall
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What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?
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Continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
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Which type of hepatitis virus requires the presence of hepatitis B virus so as to replicate?
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HDV
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Tears are considered to be part of the:
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First line of defense, nonspecific defenses
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The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to:
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any tissue injury
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The process of phagocytosis involves the:
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ingestion of foreigm material and cell debris by luekocytes.
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Which of the following statements applies to fever?
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it results from release of pyrogens into the circulation
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Replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells is termed:
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Regeneration
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Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called:
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Staphylococci
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A bacterial endospore can:
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survive high temperatures and a dry environment.
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Which statement applies to yeasts?
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They may cause opportunistic infection in the body.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of rikettsia?
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It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe
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Which of the following is normally considered sterile?
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Urine
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Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:
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sexual intercourse
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Opportunistic infection may develop when:
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an imbalance occurs in the normal resident flora
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That time in the course of infection when the infected person may experience a headache or fatigue and senses he or she is "coming down with something" is referred to as which of the following?
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Prodomal period
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The "incubation period" refers to the time period between:
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entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease
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How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?
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it interferes with cell-wall synthesis
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Neutrophils:
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are phagocytic cells
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Humoral immunity is mediated by:
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B lymphocytes (B cells)
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A secondary immune response differs from the primarry immune response in that:
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it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels.
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The role of memory cells is to:
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recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response
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Which of the following causes anaphylaxis?
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A severe, systemic allergic reaction
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Immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisims. These infections are referred to as:
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Opportunistic
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Host-versus-graft disease refers to:
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Transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system
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Which of the following statemetns regarding immunoglobulins is TRUE?
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They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids.
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The most common cause of death in patients who have AIDS is:
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Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
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Tissue transferred between two genetically identical twins is referred to as a/an:
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Isograft
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Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
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An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug.
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The best definition of the term prognosis is the:
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Predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease
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A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as:
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Atrophy
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When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:
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Necrosis
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The term homeostasis refers to:
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maintenance of a stable internal environment
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Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male adult's body
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60%
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Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through:
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Perspiration and expiration
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When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the:
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Interstitial compartment into the blood
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Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
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Rough oral mucosa
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Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid?
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Sodium
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Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone.
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Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract.
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Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH?
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7.4
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When many excess hydrogen ions accumulate in the blood, what happens to the serum pH? The pH:
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Decreases
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Which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range?
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The ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion must be 1:20
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Which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema?
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Respiratory acidosis
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Which two ions are most important for acid-base balance in the body?
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Cl- and HCO3-
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Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug?
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Serious. possibly life-threatening effects
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What is the unique, simple, and official name assigned to a specific drug for worldwide use?
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Generic name
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Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to:
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prevent gastric irritation
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At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion?
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Liver
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Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by:
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Osteopaths
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After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the:
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Kidneys
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A placebo may be described as a tablet or capsule:
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that does not contain an active drug
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A medical history should include all:
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legally prescribed drugs, vitamin or mineral supplements, any medication not requiring a prescription (OTCs), herbal treatments
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The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent:
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development of resistant microbes
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The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
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myelinated A delta fibers
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According to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked:
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At the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses.
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What is the definition of endorphins?
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Opiate-like blocking agents in the CNS
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What is a common analgesic to control a moderate level of pain?
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Codeine
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What is the role of nocieptors? They are:
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pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means.
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Which of the following statements is TRUE?
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young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure
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Cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of a coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and:
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pain associated with the treatment of the disease
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A specific defense for the body is
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Sensitized T lymphocytes
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The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to:
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any tissue injury
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Edema associated with inflammation results directly from:
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increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment
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The term leukocytosis means:
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increased white blood cells in the blood
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A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as:
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deep partial-thickness
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A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment?
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the absence of oxygen
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What method do viruses use to replicate?
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Using a host cell to produce and assemble components
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How do antiviral drugs act?
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they reduce the rate of viral replication
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The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:
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assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection
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When an infectious disease is occuring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a/an:
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Pandemic
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Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
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Active artificial
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Incompatible blood transfusions result in:
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hemolysis of erythrocytes
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Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:
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immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies
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HIV infection impairs
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both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
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CD4-positive helper T cells function by:
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facilitating all immune system activity
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Which of the following complications does not occur frequently in AIDS patients?
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Polyarthritis
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Which of the following statements regarding immunoglobulins is TRUE?
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They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids?
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Tissue transferred between two genetically identical twins is reffered to as a/an:
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Isograft
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Nerves located in the aortic arch and carotid sinus that sense changes in oxygen content, PH, or carbon dioxide levels in the blood.
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Chemoreceptors
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This is an inherited (genetic) recessive disorder of the Exocrine glands. Causes secretions of thick mucous that blocks the respiratory and GI system. This clogs up the alveoli (poor oxygenation) and GI system (blocks production of pancreatic enzymens so cannot absorb nutrients). Diagnosedd by positive sweat test. Child may have had meconium ileus (small bowel obstruciton) as newborn. May be placed on prophylactic antibiotics.
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Cystic fibrosis
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Slow but progressive infectious disease of the nervous system, caused by a virus-like particle called a prion; causes an invariably fatal deterioration of the CNS. Leads to a form of dementia.
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Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
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Is a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology occuring in older adults and involving plasma cells (mature B lymphocytes involved in production of antibodies). An increased number of malignant plasma cells replace the bone marrow and erode the bone. Blood cell production is impaired as well as production of antibodies. Multiple tumors with bone distraction occurs. Hypercalcemia develops as bone is broken down. Treatment includes chemo, analgesics for bone pain, treatment for kidney impairment, and blood transfusions in the late stages.
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Multiple Myeloma
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prolonged diarrhea can cause:
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Metabolic acidosis
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The role of memory cells is to:
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Recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response
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A systemic sign of disease:
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Fever