Patho Online Quiz 1 + all patho questions from slides – Flashcards
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Which genetic change causes alterations in only one or a few nucleotide bases? (A) Insertions (B) Deletions (C) Point Mutations (D) Amplification mutations
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(C) Point Mutations
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When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will experience hypertrophy which is an: (A) increase in size (B) decrease in length (C) increase in excitability (D) decrease in number
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(A) increase in size
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A 70- year-old male nursing home resident developed a dermal pressure ulcer. This condition is most often caused by (select all that apply): (A) shearing forces (B) friction (C) moisture (D) unrelieved pressure (E) High-carbohydrate diet
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(A) shearing forces (B) friction (C) moisture (D) unrelieved pressure
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During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as what type of atrophy: (A) Physiologic (B) Pathologic (C) Disuse (D) Neurogenic
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(A) Physiologic
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Which of the following mutations have the most significant effect on protein synthesis? (A) Frameshif mutations (B) Base pair substitutions (C) Silent mutations (D) Intron mutations
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(A) Frameshift mutations
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Which of the following indicates a nurse understands a proto-oncogene? A proto-oncogene is best defined as a(n) _____ gene. (A) normal (B) altered (C) inactive (D) tumor-suppressor
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(A) normal
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A 40-year-old is diagnosed with skin cancer. It is explained that the most important risk factor for skin cancer is: (A) amount of direct sun exposure at a young age (B) amount of sun exposure over age 50 (C) lifetime amount of sun exposure (D) living in equatorial regions where the sun is most intense
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(A) Amount of direct sun exposure at a young age
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A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. Which of the following terms best describes this growth? (A) malignant tumor (B) lipoma (C) meningioma (D) hypertrophy
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(A) malignant tumor
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A 40-year-old female's Pap smear indicates abnormal changes in the shape and organization of cervical cells. Which term would be used to identify this type of change? (A) hyptertrophy (B) metaplasia (C) atrophy (D) dysplasia
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(D) dysplasia
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A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer? (A) Herpes virus (B) Rubella virus (C) Human papillomavirus (HPV) (D) Hepatitis B virus
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(C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
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Cystic fibrosis is caused by what gene abnormality? (A) X-linked dominant (B) X-linked recessive (C) autosomal dominant (D) autosomal recessive
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(D) autosomal recessive
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To express a polygenic trait: (A) genes must interact with the environment (B) several genes must act together (C) multiple mutations must occur in the same family (D) penetrance must occur
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(B) several genes must act together
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A 50-year-old male sustained a closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident. CT scan revealed a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain. Which type of injury will the nurse be caring for? (A) subdural hematoma (B) Epidural hematoma (C) Contusion (D) abrasion
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(A) subdural hematoma
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Research has provided support for the theory that epigenetic modifications can result from deficient in utero nutrition causing which chronic disease? (select all that apply) (A) Obesity (B) Asthma (C) Cardiovascular disease (D) Diabetes (E) Crohn's disease
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(A) Obesity (C) Cardiovascular disease (D) Diabetes
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Housekeeping genes are vital to the function and maintenance of all the body's cells. What characteristic is associated with these genes? (A) They lack coding histones (B) They are transcriptionally active (C) Ribosomal RNA genes are absent (D) Epigenetic silencing has occurred
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(B) They are transcriptionally active
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An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation. Which of the following is the oncologist describing? (A) Autonomy (B) Anaplasia (C) Pleomorphic (D) Metastasis
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(B) Anaplasia
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Which of the following burns is most painful? (A) First degree (B) Second degree (C) Charring (D) Third degree
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(B) Second degree
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A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker. Which of the following could be a possible marker? (A) Red blood cells (B) Apoptotic cells (C) Enzymes (D) Neurotransmitters
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(C) Enzymes
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A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaptation is called: (A) Anaplasia (B) hyperplasia (C) metaplasia (D) dysplasia
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(C) metaplasia
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What is the effect of telomere caps on cancer cells? (A) Repeated divisions (B) Clonal distinction (C) limited mitosis (D) mutation abilities
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(A) Repeated divisions
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A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and is taking immunosuppressive drugs. He now has painful vesicular eruptions on the face and trunk. He reports that he had chickenpox as a child. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on his chicken pox history? (A) Erysipelas (B) Poliomyelitis (C) Warts (D) Herpes zoster
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(D) Herpes zoster
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A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumor will be documented on the chart? (A) Carcinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Sarcoma (D) Lymphoma
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(B) Adenocarcinoma
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Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate: (A) release of growth factors (B) tumor regression (C) apoptosis (D) new blood vessel growth
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(D) new blood vessel growth
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A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing? (A) Tumor in differentiation (B) dysplastic (C) cancer in situ (D) cancer beyond (meta) situ
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(C) cancer in situ
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What characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome is not a characteristic of Angelman syndrome? (A) It is inherited from the father (B) Mental retardation is observable (C) imprinting of an abnormal chromosome 15 (D) Seizure disorder is present
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(A) It is inherited from the father
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If a patient has carbuncles, the infection will be located in the: (A) hair follicles (B) papillary layer of the dermis (C) reticular layer of the dermis (D) subcutaneous tissue
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(A) hair follicles
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A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition? (a) Biploidy (b) Triploidy (c) Tetraploidy (d) Aneuploidy
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(c) Tetraploidy
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The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell is called: (a) reciprocal translocation. (b) partial trisomy. (c) inversion. (d) Down syndrome.
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(b) partial trisomy. reciperation translocation is the rearrangement of nonhomologous chromosomes
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After a geneticist talks to a patient about being a chromosomal mosaic, the patient asks the nurse what that means. How should the nurse respond? You may _____ genetic disease(s). (a) only be a carrier of the (b) have a mild form of the (c) have two (d) be sterile as a result of the
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(b) have a mild form of the
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What is the most common cause of Down syndrome? (a) Paternal nondisjunction (b) Maternal translocations (c) Maternal nondisjunction (d) Paternal translocations
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(c) Maternal nondisjunction --Paternal nondisjuntion example is Turner syndrome
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When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers? (a) Family genetics (b) Lifestyle choices (c) Environmental stressors (d) Emotional coping skills
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(c) Environmental stressors
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What is the role of inactive MLH1 in the development of some forms of inherited colon cancer? (a) Deletion of a nucleotide repeat in the DUX4 gene. (b) DNA damage is left unrepaired. (c) Expansion in the number of cytosine-guanine (CG) dinucleotide. (d) Abnormalities of chromosome 11p15.5 that lead to downregulation of IGF2.
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(b) DNA damage is left unrepaired.
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Mutations in the encoding of histone-modifying proteins have been shown to influence the development of what congenial condition? (a) Cleft palate (b) Acephalous (c) Heart disease (d) Webbed digits
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(c) Heart disease
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5-Azacytidine has demonstrated promise in the treatment of which form of cancer? (a) Liver (b) Colon (c) Gallbladder (d) Pancreatic
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(d) Pancreatic
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What comorbid condition does an individual diagnosed with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome have an increased risk of developing? (a) Cancer (b) Diabetes (c) Depression (d) Food allergies
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(a) Cancer Russel Silver is diabetes and underexpression of growth
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A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process? (a) Adaptation (b) Calcification (c) Apoptosis (d) Necrosis
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(d) Necrosis Coagulative necrosis: kidneys, heart, adrenal glands & interacts with proteins and denaturation. Liquative necrosis: neurons, brain, hydrolytic enzymes Caseaous necrosis: combination of liquative and coagulative can cause TB fat necrosis: breast, pancreas, and other abdominal and involved in action of lipases Gangrene necrosis: hypoxic injury causing death tissues: gas gangrene is called clostridium
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Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of: (a) decreased ATP production. (b) karyorrhexis. (c) ribosome detachment. (d) dehydration.
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(a) decreased ATP production.
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A 30-year-old female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a(n): (a) exit. (b) intermediate range entrance. (c) contact range entrance. (d) indeterminate range entrance.
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(c) contact range entrance.
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Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain because: (a) debris is not digested by hydrolases. (b) of protein denaturation. (c) it is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids. (d) ischemia results in chemical injury.
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(c) it is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids.
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A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. What is the nurse's best response? (a) Fetal exposure to mutagens in the uterus. (b) Increased paternal age. (c) Family history of Down syndrome. (d) Pregnancy in women over age 35.
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(d) Pregnancy in women over age 35.
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A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? (a) Down syndrome (b) Cri du chat syndrome (c) Turner syndrome (d) Fragile X syndrome
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(c) Turner syndrome
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What genetic disorder is the result if an individual possesses an XXY chromosome configuration? (a) Turner (b) Klinefelter (c) Down (d) Fragile X
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(b) Klinefelter
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A patient demonstrates severe mental retardation caused by a deletion of part of chromosome 5. What genetic disorder will the nurse see documented in the chart? (a) Prader-Willi syndrome (b) Down syndrome (c) Cri du chat syndrome (d) Trisomy X
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(c) Cri du chat syndrome
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A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell: (a) number. (b) size. (c) vacuoles. (d) lipofuscin.
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(b) size.
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During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as what type of atrophy? (a) Physiologic (b) Pathologic (c) Disuse (d) Neurogenic
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(a) Physiologic
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When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will experience hypertrophy which is an: (a) increase in size. (b) decrease in length. (c) increase in excitability. (d) decrease in number.
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(a) increase in size.
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During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities? (a) Infancy (b) Puberty (c) In utero (d) Middle age
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(c) In utero
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A 2-year-old swallowed watch batteries. Following ingestion, kidney function was impaired, and the heart began to fail. Which of the following was the most likely cause? (a) Karyorrhexis (b) Coagulative necrosis (c) Ammonia accumulation (d) Caseous necrosis
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(b) Coagulative necrosis
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To promote efficient wound healing, which dressing should be applied to a superficial ulcer? (a) Thick and dry (b) Flat and moist (c) Bulky and dry (d) None
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(b) Flat and moist
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Individuals of which descent are more prone to developing keloids? (a) Black (b) Northern European (c) Asian (d) Native American
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(a) Black: Keloids spreads hypertrophic is local
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A wound scar that is sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, and progressively enlarging is a result of excessive amounts of _____ accumulated during connective tissue repair. (a) elastin (b) collagen (c) keratin (d) calcification
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(b) collagen
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An increase in _____ is associated with pruritus. (a) substance P (b) norepinephrine (c) dopamine (d) acetylcholine
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(c) acetylcholine
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Which cells are involved in initiating immune responses in the skin? Langerhans cells Merkel cells Keratinocytes Melanocyte
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Langerhans cells
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A 25-year-old paralyzed male develops a dermal pressure ulcer. When assessing the patient's skin, which finding is the first indication of this ulcer? (a) Redness (b) Whiteness (c) Indurations (d) Ulceration
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(a) Redness
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Pityriasis rosea is caused by a: (a) parasite. (b) virus. (c) bacteria. (d) fungus.
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(b) virus.
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A 42-year-old female presents with raised red lesions with a brownish scale. She was diagnosed with discoid lupus erythematosus. This disorder is related to: (a) infection. (b) trauma. (c) autoimmunity. (d) cancer.
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(c) autoimmunity.
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When assessing a patient diagnosed with localized scleroderma, which changes in the skin will be observed? (a) Cyanosis (b) Hyperpigmented (c) Necrosis (d) Thickening
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(d) Thickening
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A patient wants to know which malignant skin lesion is the most serious. The correct response is: (a) basal cell carcinoma. (b) squamous cell carcinoma. (c) Kaposi sarcoma (KS). (d) malignant melanoma
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(d) malignant melanoma
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A 10-year-old male is playing with matches and gets burned. His burn is waxy white in appearance. This burn is classified as: (a) first degree. (b) superficial partial-thickness. (c) deep partial-thickness. (d) third degree.
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(c) deep partial-thickness.
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A 15-year-old female reports abnormal hair growth on her face and body. This condition is referred to as: (a) alopecia. (b) areata. (c) hirsutism. (d) paronychia.
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(c) hirsutism.
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Which of the following is the most common cause of cellular injury? (A) Hypoxia (B) Chemical injury from drugs (C) Free radical--induced injury (D) Chemical injury from pollutants
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(A) Hypoxia
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Which type of necrosis best describes death of a cell from hypoxia, generally as a result of ischemia in the lower extremities? (A) Fat (B) Coagulative (C) Liquefactive (D) Gangrenous
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(D) Gangrenous
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Which statement is TRUE with regard to cellular change due to aging? (A) The cellular changes are reversible (B) DNA become less susceptible to injurious stimuli (C) The cellular changes proceed slowly and in small increments (D) Lipid, calcium, and plasma proteins are less likely to be deposited in vesel walls
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(C) The cellular changes proceed slowly and in small increments
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Which term best describes an allele with an observable effect (A) Carrier (B) Dominant (C) Recessive (D) Homozygous
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(B) Dominant
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The epigenetic process that results from attachment of methyl group to a cytosine is: (A) hypoacetylation (B) DNA methylation (C) Histone modification (D) Transgenerational inheritance
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(B) DNA methylation
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Genomic imprinting is best described as: (A) Epigenetic modifications caused by environmental factors (B) The heritable transmission to future generations of epigenetic modifications (C) Genes are silenced depending on which parent transmits them (D) Phenotype is the same whether a given allele is inherited from the mother or the father
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(C) Genes are silenced depending on which parent transmits them
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Which of the following skin conditions is caused by a bacterial infection (A) Warts (B) Varicella (C) Impetigo (D) Herpes simplex
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Correct Answer: C Impetigo is caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. Warts are caused by human papillomavirus. Varicella (chickenpox) is caused by the same herpesvirus. Herpes simplex is caused by the herpes simplex virus.
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Which of the following skin conditions is benign? (A) Kaposi sarcoma (B) Actinic keratosis (C) Basal cell carcinoma (D) Cutaneous melanoma
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Correct Answer: B Actinic keratosis is a premalignant lesion. Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is a vascular malignancy associated with immunodeficiency states. Basal cell carcinoma is a malignant cancer of the skin. Cutaneous melanoma is a malignant tumor of the skin that originates from melanocytes.
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Acne vulgaris involves inflammation of which of the following?
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Pilosebacious
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A 4 month old female develops white spots and shallow ulcers in her mouth. Her pediatrician diagnosis her with thrush. This condition is caused by which of the following?
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Candida Albicans
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A 14 year old female presents with severe acne. Which of the following promote acne development?
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androgens
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Scleroderma is most likely to cause which change in the skin?
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hardening
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A 36 year old male is experiencing frontotemporal hair recession. He is diagnosed with male patter baldness, which is a form of?
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alopecia
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Candidiasis is a condition caused by
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yeast
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Tinea corporis (ringworm) is a ______ infection of the skin
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fungal
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Rubella, rubeola, and roseola are common communicable diseases caused by ______ infection.
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viral
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The medical term for ringworm is
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tinea corporis
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A 4 month old female is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis (AD). Which of the following symptoms most support this diagnosis?
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dry, itching skin
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A 3 year old male develops tinea capititis after playing with the family dog. The infection is caused by which of the following?
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fungus
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Which of the following burns is most painful?
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superficial partial-thickness
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A 15 year old female reports abnormal hair growth on her face and body. This condition is referred to as which of the following?
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hypodermis
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A 5 year old female develops chicken pox after exposure at her day care center. This disease is caused by which of the following?
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herpes virus
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A 23-year-old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch. She is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis caused by overgrowth of which microorganism?
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Candida albicans
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If patient has carbuncles, the infection will be located in the:
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hair follicle
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A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and is taking immunosuppressive drugs. He now has painful vesicular eruptions on the face and trunk. He reports that he had chickenpox as a child. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on his chicken pox history?
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herpes zoster
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A 10-year-old male is given penicillin for an infection. He has an allergic reaction, during which he develops urticarial lesions. These lesions are mediated by the release of
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Histamine
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For a patient with candidiasis, which factor will exacerbate the condition?
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Systemic antibiotics
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A 20-year-old female presents with vaginal itch and thin-walled pustular lesions. She is diagnosed with candidiasis. This condition is caused by
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yeast
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A 52-year-old female is diagnosed with scleroderma. Which complication leads to ulcer formation?
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Raynaud phenomenon
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What of the following behavior in the patient with scleroderma would cause the nurse concern?
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Smokes a few cigarettes a day
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A 13-year-old female is concerned about several pigmented skin lesions on her body. Her primary care provider tells her that these lesions must be monitored because of their ability to transform into malignant melanoma. These lesions are referred to as:
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nevi (moles)
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A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with skin cancer. Her primary care provider explains that the most important risk factor for skin cancer is
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Amount of direct sun exposure at a young age
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A 27-year-old male lung transplant patient developed KS. He tells the nurse he thought only people with AIDS developed this type of cancer. The nurse knows that the cause of this patient's KS is most likely related to the fact that the patient:
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Is immunosuppressed
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Which of the following burns is most painful?
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2nd, Superficial partial-thickness
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A 29-year-old female is burned through all her dermis with only a few epidermal appendages intact. This burn is classified as:
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2nd , Deep partial-thickness
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In burn injury patients, the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate
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Total body surface area burned
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Hypovolemia in the early stages of burn shock is directly related to:
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Increased capillary permeability and evaporative water loss
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A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second- and third-degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
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Fluid movement out of the vascular space
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The patient has burns to both forearms that extend from the fingers to the elbows with no normal tissue present. The nurse has difficulty assessing the patient's pulse, and the patient complains of numbness in the fingers. The nurse notifies the primary care provider and expects the primary care provider to:
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Perform an escharotomy
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A 30-year-old female has a history of frequent candidiasis. The areas most likely affected include
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Mucous membranes, Vagina
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Which of the following diseases are attributed to mosquito bites?
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Malaria, Yellow fever, Dengue fever, Encephalitis
