question

A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur:

answer

Precipitating factor.

question

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?

answer

An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug.

question

Etiology is defined as the study of the:

answer

Causes of a disease.

question

Apoptosis refers to:

answer

Pre-programmed cell self-destruction.

question

A tissue in which the cells vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called:

answer

Dysplasia.

question

An acute episode of a chronic disease is called:

answer

An exacerbation.

question

The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:

answer

Signs and symptoms of a disease.

question

The term cancer refers to:

answer

Malignant neoplasm.

question

Cessation refers to an area of necrosis where:

answer

Dead cells form a thick cheesy substance.

question

Hypertrophy of the heart would be related to:

answer

An increase in the size of the individual cells.

question

Lack of exercise during an illness may cause skeletal muscles to undergo:

answer

Atrophy.

question

When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:

answer

Necrosis.

question

The best definition of the term prognosis is:

answer

The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.

question

An abscess is an example of a:

answer

Purulent exudate.

question

Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following except:

answer

Relief of fever.

question

Which of the following statements applies to fever?

answer

It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation.

question

Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:

answer

Histamine and prostaglandins.

question

A serous exudate is best described as:

answer

Watery, colorless exudate.

question

Healing of large areas of skin loss (including dermis and epidermis) would best take place through:

answer

Covering area with biosynthetic skin substitute.

question

The characteristic appearance of a full thickness burn is:

answer

Dry, firm, charred, or white surface.

question

Which of the following drugs relieves fever and pain, but is not an anti-inflammatory agent?

answer

Acetaminophen.

question

The term leukocytosis means:

answer

Increased white blood cells in the blood.

question

Indicators of a general inflammatory response would include:

answer

Elevated c-reactive protein.

question

Scar tissue consists primarily of:

answer

Collagen fibers.

question

The inflammatory responce is cause by:

answer

Any tissue injury.

question

Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal lever include:

answer

General cutaneous vasodilation.

question

The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:

answer

Increased blood flow into the area.

question

A major source of infection in burn areas is:

answer

Microbes surviving in the hair follicles in the burn area.

question

During an inflammatory response, erythema is cause by:

answer

Vasodilation in the area.

question

Edema or tissue swelling associated with inflammation results directly from:

answer

Increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment.

question

What is the correct order of the following evens in the inflammatory response immediately after tissue injury?

answer

3,2,5,1,and 4.

question

Application of ice to an injured knee reduces edema by:

answer

Causing local vasoconstriction.

question

The process of phagocytosis involves the:

answer

Ingestion of foreign material or cell debris by leukocytes.

question

Humoral immunity is mediated by:

answer

B lymphocytes.

question

What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS.

answer

Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood.

question

The role of memory cells is to:

answer

Support the immune response by recognizing certain antigens.

question

Cytokines:

answer

Activate and stimulate proliferation and B and T lymphocytes.

question

All of the following conditions frequently occur in AIDS patients except:

answer

Polyarthritis.

question

Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the intitial step in the immune response?

answer

Macrophages.

question

Anaphaylaxis is considered a critical situation because:

answer

Bronchoconstriction and systemic vasodilation develop rapidly.

question

Host-versus-graft disease refers to:

answer

Transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system.

question

Distinguishing clinical features of a systemic lupus erythematosus include:

answer

Inflammation in multiple organs.

question

Neutrophils are:

answer

Primarily phagocytic cells.

question

Incompatible blood transfusions result in:

answer

Hemolysis of erythrocytes.

question

Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:

answer

Immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.

question

A patient experienced an episode of influenza 6 months ago. A recent exposure to a mutated form of the same virus would result in:

answer

A primary immune response.

question

Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?

answer

Active artificial.

question

When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:

answer

type I hypersensitivity

question

The target cells for HIV are the:

answer

T-helper lymphocytes.

question

HIV infection impairs:

answer

Both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.

question

An autoimmune disease means:

answer

Failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.

question

HIV is transmitted by:

answer

Blood, semen, and vaginal secretions from and infected person.

question

A retrovirus such as HIV contains:

answer

RNA and enzymes for its conversion.

question

The structure of a virus includes:

answer

A protein coat and DNA or RNA.

question

The term 'nosocomial' infection means:

answer

Infection acquired in a hospital or medical facility.

question

What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?

answer

Presence of inflammation or infection.

question

The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:

answer

Inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.

question

A bacterial endospore can:

answer

Survive high temperatures and dry environment.

question

An anaerobe thrives and reproduces best in:

answer

The absence of O2.

question

When do clinical signs of infection appear?

answer

When the microbial colony is large enough to damage the host.

question

What does bacteremia refer to?

answer

Small numbers of microbes temporarily present in the blood.

question

Opportunistic infection may develop when:

answer

A member of resident flora migrates and colonizes a new location in the body.

question

Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by:

answer

Cysts in feces, contaminating food/water.

question

A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:

answer

Destroy many gram positive and gram negative bacteria.

question

All types of microorganisms can be killed by proper use of:

answer

Autoclaves.

question

Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the:

answer

Balance of species in the resident flora is upset.

question

The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:

answer

Assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection.

question

The incubation period refers to the time period between:

answer

Entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.

question

How do antiviral drugs act?

answer

Reducing the rate of viral replication.

question

What are local signs of infection?

answer

Pain, erythema, and swelling.

question

How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?

answer

Interfering with cell-wall synthesis.

question

What does a vaccine contain?

answer

Attenuated or dead pathogens of their toxins.

question

The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy include:

answer

Thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.

question

Anti-angiogenesis drugs act on malignant tumor by:

answer

Reduce blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells.

question

What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?

answer

Sarcomas.

question

Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:

answer

Inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.

question

The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means:

answer

The patient is at high risk for infection.

question

What is the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites called?

answer

Metastasis.

question

What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?

answer

Lipoma.

question

What type of cells tend to be damaged the most during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?

answer

Epithelial cells.

question

What is the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors based on?

answer

Degree of differentiation of the cells.

question

The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:

answer

In irreversible change in the cell DNA.

question

Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?

answer

Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors develop.

question

Radiation therapy destroys:

answer

Primarily rapidly dividing cells.

question

Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:

answer

Bone marrow depression.

question

One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:

answer

Determine the best treatment and the prognosis.

question

A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following except:

answer

Sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea.

question

What does acidosis cause?

answer

CNS depression and drowsiness.

question

What would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate?

answer

Metabolic acidosis.

question

What is the slowest but most effective control for acid-base balance?

answer

Kidneys.

question

Emphysema impairs expiration causing the acid-base imbalance:

answer

Respiratory acidosis.

question

Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis?

answer

Seizures.

question

Compensation for respiratory system depression due to anesthesia and sedation would be:

answer

1, 2.

question

Young infants are more vulnerable to serious dehydration because of:

answer

Limited renal compensation.

question

What is likely to cause metabolic acidosis?

answer

Prolonged diarrhea.

question

What is a common causes of hyponatremia?

answer

Excessive sweating.

question

When excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body, serum:

answer

Bicarbonate ion levels decrease.

question

What would cause edema?

answer

Increased capillary permeability.

question

What do both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia cause?

answer

Cardiac arrhythmias.

question

What would be related to an elevated hematocrit?

answer

Fluid deficit.

question

An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to

answer

Decreased pCO2.

question

Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through:

answer

Perspiration and expiration.

question

How is scoliosis identified?

answer

Uneven hips and shoulders.

question

What might fluid and electrolyte deficits in a patient with anorexia nervosa cause?

answer

Cardiac arrhythmias.

question

Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:

answer

Alternating binge eating and purging.

question

What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?

answer

Scoliosis.

question

Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the:

answer

Sebaceous glands and hair follicles.

question

What are common local signs of osteomyelitis?

answer

A red, swollen area with pain that increases with movement.

question

Which statement applies to testicular cancer?

answer

It often develops from untreated, undescended testes.

question

All of the following changes are associated with aging except:

answer

Decreased secretion of hormones.

question

Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following except:

answer

Decreased parathyroid hormone.

question

What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?

answer

Cumulative exposure to carcinogens.

question

Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the lens of the eye becomes larger and less elastic, resulting in:

answer

Presbyopia.

question

Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased:

answer

1,2, and 4.

question

Severe, prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop due to:

answer

Prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia.

question

During the stress response, glucocorticoids assist in:

answer

Increasing blood glucose levels and stabilizing blood pressure.

question

Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:

answer

2,3.

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