PART 1 AP GOVE MULTIPLE CHOICE – Flashcards
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Which of the following is an example of checks and balances, as established by the Constitution? (A) A requirement that states lower their legal drinking age to eighteen as a condition of receiving funds through federal highway grant programs (B) Media criticism of public officials during an election campaign period (C) The Supreme Court's ability to overturn a lower court decision (D) The requirement that presidential appointments to the Supreme Court be approved by the Senate (E) The election of the President by the electoral college rather than by direct election
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D
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Supreme Court justices were given tenure subject to good behavior by the framers of the Constitution in order to ensure that (A) justices are free from direct political pressure (B)justices remain accountable to the public (C) justices are encouraged to make politically popular decisions (D) cooperation between the judicial and legislative branches is assured (E) Presidents are encouraged to seek younger nominees for the Supreme Court
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A
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The importance of Shay's Rebellion to the development of the Constitution of the United States Constitution was that it (A) revealed the necessity of both adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution and creating a new system of checks and balances (B) demonstrated the intensity of antiratification sentiment within the thirteen states (C) indicated that a strong, constitutionally designed national government was needed to protect property and maintain order (D)convinced the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan (E) reinforced the idea that slavery should be outlawed in the new Constitution
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C
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The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those powers (A) not specifically granted to the national government or denied to the states (B) implied in the Fifth Amendment (C) listed specifically in the Tenth Amendment (D) exercised by both national and state governments (E) granted to states as part of the implied powers doctrine
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A
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Of the following, which ahs been used most to expand the power of the national government? (A) the commerce clause of the Constitution (B) The habeas corpus clause of the Constitution (C) The bill of attainder clause of the Constitution (D) The First Amendment (E) The Fifth Amendment
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A
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The procedure for formally amending the Constitution best illustrates which of the following? (A) The dominance of the national government over the state governments (B) The dominance of the state governments over the national governments (C) The Founding Father's desire to facilitate rapid constitutional revisions (D) The Supreme Court's power to review constitutional amendments (E) The federal structure of the United States government
answer
E
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Which of the following is true under the system of checks and balances? (A) The Supreme Court can overrule the President's policy proposals (B) The Senate must ratify treaties negotiated by the President before they become law (C) A bill becomes a law when the House and the Senate pass it, and the Supreme Court declares it Constitutional (D) The Supreme Court can remove members of Congress, and Congress can impeach the President (E) The House of Representatives appoints justices to the Supreme Court and the Senate approves the appointments
answer
B
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The Supreme Court ruled the legislative veto unconstitutional on the grounds that such vetoes (A) were the province of the courts alone (B) violated the principal separation of powers (C) would give the executive branch too much power (D) would give too much authority to nonelected officials (E) were an unwarranted infringement on the rights of state governments
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B
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In The Federalist No. 10 James Madison argued that factions in a republic are (A) a more serious threat if the republic is large (B) natural but controllable by institutions (C) not likely to occur if people are honest (D) prevented by majority rule (E) prevented by free elections
answer
B
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Which of the following was the most important effect of replacing the Articles of Confederation with the Constitution of 1787? (A) The protection of free speech (B) The guarantee of states' rights (C) The establishment of direct democracy (D) The creation of a strong national government (E) The establishment of judicial review
answer
D
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. In the Constitution as originally ratified in 1788, the provisions regarding which of the following most closely approximate popular, majoritarian democracy? (A) Election of members of the House of Representatives (B) Election of members of the Senate (C) Election of the President (D) Ratification of treaties (E) Confirmation of presidential appointments
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A
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All of the following issues were decided at the Constitutional Convention EXCEPT (A) representation in the legislature (B) voting qualifications of the electorate (C) method of electing the President (D) congressional power to override a presidential veto qualifications for members of the House and Senate
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C
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All of the following were concerns about the Articles of Confederation that led to the calling of the Constitutional Convention of 1787 EXCEPT (A) dissatisfaction over safeguards of individual rights and liberties (B) fear for the stability of the central government (C) desire to promote trade among the states (D) the need to give the central government the power to levy taxes (E) dissatisfaction with the central government's ability to provide for national defense
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A
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All of the following were concerns about the Articles of Confederation that led to the calling of the Constitutional Convention of 1787 EXCEPT (A) dissatisfaction over safeguards of individual rights and liberties (B) fear for the stability of the central government (C) desire to promote trade among the states (D) the need to give the central government the power to levy taxes (E) dissatisfaction with the central government's ability to provide for national defense Which of the following is argued by James Madison in The Federalist paper number 10? (A) A system of republican representation helps to limit the excesses of factionalism (B) Small republics are better able to ensure individual liberty than are large republics (C) The presence of a few large factions helps to protect the rights of minorities (D) Participatory democracy is the surest way to prevent tyranny (E) The elimination of the causes of factionalism is the best protection against tyranny
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A
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1. The Constitution as ratified in 1788 most clearly reflects the framer' commitment to (A) the idea of direct democracy (B) the principle of limited government (C) the abolition of slavery (D) protecting the rights of the accused (E) maintaining the primacy of the states
answer
B
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Which of the following most accurately describes The Federalist Papers? (A) The Federalist party platform during the presidency of John Adams, the first Federalist president (B) A popular anti- British booklet of the pre-Revolutionary era (C) A collection of essays arguing the merits of the Constitution (D) A series of congressional acts defining the relationship between the federal and state Governments (E) The laws under which the South was governed during Reconstruction
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C
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All of the following are specifically mentioned in the Constitution EXCEPT (A) judicial review (B) the national census (C) rules of impeachment (D) the State of the Union address (E) length of term of federal judgeships
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D
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Which of the following best illustrates a use of the elastic clause? (A) The Supreme Court allows a lower court ruling to stand by refusing to hear an appeal (B) A congressional committee prevents the full chamber from voting on legislation delaying its report (C) Congress passes legislation establishing a national speed limit (D) A member of the House of Representatives introduces a bill to increase federal income tax rates (E) A governor issues an executive order requiring all state employees to submit to drug testing
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C
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According to the Federalist Papers, federalism has which of the following effects on political factions? (A) It provides a structured environment in which factions may flourish (B) It limits the dangers of factionalism by diluting political power (C) It allows factions to dominate on the national level while limiting their influence on state governments (D) It eliminates any opportunity for factions to form (E) It prevents factions by declaring them illegal
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B
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The Constitution, as originally ratified, addressed all of the following weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT the (A) lack of chief executive office (B) national government's inability to levy taxes effectively (C) absence of a central authority to regulate interstate trade (D) insufficiency of the government's power to raise an army (E) omission of a universal suffrage Claus
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E
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The swift adoption of the Bill of Rights in the years following ratification of the Constitution demonstrates the (A) framers' unqualified commitment to individual rights (B) small states' determination to receive equal representation in the legislature (C) Northern states' support for abolitionism (D) Federalists' concerns that the system of checks and balances would weaken the national government
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D
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. The relative stability of American public policy is achieved through (A) cooperation between the two major political parties (B) judicial activism (C) the Constitutional fragmentation of power (D) affirmative action programs (E) the delegation of unique reserved powers to each house of Congress
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C
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The Supreme Court has used the Fourteenth Amendment to apply portions of the Bill or Rights to state law by citing the amendment's (A) prohibition on unreasonable search and seizures (B) due process of law (C) guarantee of privacy rights (D) abolition of slavery (E) "reserved powers" provision
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B
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The framers of the Constitution sought to insulate the Senate from public opinion by (A) restricting Senate membership to those who previously served in the House of Representatives (B) delegating the responsibility for electing senators to the state legislatures (C) requiring all spending bills to originate in the House of Representatives (D) empowering the Senate to provide advice and consent to the executive branch (E) assigning exactly two senators to each state's congressional delegation
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B
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Under the Articles of Confederation, the national government had the power to (A) negotiate treaties (B) collect taxes (C) establish a federal judiciary (D) enforce its laws (E) regulate interstate commerce
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A
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The principles of freedom- "we hold these truths to be self evident, that all men are created equal"- stated in the Declaration of Independence were influenced by the beliefs of political philosopher (A) Thomas Hobbes (B) Niccolo Macchiavelli (C) Jonathan Edwards (D) John Locke (E) John Calvin
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D
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In "Federalist No. 10," James Madison argues that a federal system of government reduces the danger of political factions by (A) creating insurmountable obstacles to the founding of factions (B) making it difficult for one faction to gain the power necessary to govern (C) requiring equal representation of all factions within the government (D) restricting factional political activity to the state level only (E) allowing federal agencies to strictly regulate the activities of factions
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B
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In the federal system of government, political power is primarily (A) vested in local governments (B) vested in the regional governments (C) vested in the central governments (D) divided between the central government and regional governments (E) divided between regional governments and local governments
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C
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Diversity of public policy throughout the United States is primarily a consequence of (A) federalism (B) separation of powers (C) innovation within bureaucratic agencies (D) decentralization in the Senate (E) lack of party discipline in the House
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A
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The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to (A) prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government (B) reserve powers to the states (C) restrict the application of judicial review (D) allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest (E) limit the use of the legislative veto
answer
B
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The terms "fiscal federalism" and "cooperative federalism" refer to situations in which (A) the federal government completely dominates state and local governments (B) states are forbidden any activity that has not been specifically approved by the Supreme Court (C) the federal judiciary uses its power of judicial review to ensure congressional dominance over state legislature (D) state, municipal, and local income taxes are pooled by special agreement and redistributed in accordance with individual need (E) federal, state, and local governments work together to complete a project, with the federal government providing much of the project funding
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E
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Congressional district boundaries are usually redrawn every ten years by (A) Bureau of the Census (B) state legislatures (C) President (D) House Rules Committee (E) Federal Election Commission
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B
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29. States and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from (A) categorical grants (B) matching grants (C) block grants (D) project grants (E) grants-in-aid
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C
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Which of the following actions by the federal government best illustrates the concept of unfunded mandates? (A) Requiring that polling booths remain open beyond the hours of the work day (B) Requiring states the municipalities to provide certain services for their citizens without providing resources to pay for those services (C) Requiring state governments to guarantee short-term bonds issued by large municipalities in their states (D) Requiring all municipalities to impose a minimum property tax on all residential and business properties (E) Requiring states and municipalities to privatize many previously publicly funded services
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B
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60. Federal benefits that must be funded by Congress and must be paid to all citizens who meet eligibility criteria are called (A) discretionary appropriations (B) individual entitlements (C) distributive benefits (D) tax expenditures (E) continuing appropriations
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B
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. This decision of the Supreme Court upheld the principle that (A) the federal government and the state governments are equal (B) Congress has only those powers specifically enumerated in the Constitution (C) Congress has the power to make laws to carry out its constitutional duties (D) taxation without representation is unconstitutional (E) the federal government alone may levy taxes
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C
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Which of the following resulted from this Supreme Court decision? (A) The power of the national government was strengthened (B) The power of the Supreme Court was weakened (C) The power of state governments to tax individual citizens was clearly limited (D) Congress was given the power to coin money (E) Congress alone was given the power to charter banks
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A
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Which of the following best defines the constitutional interpretation of federalism? (A) The federal government and the states each have separate and mutually exclusive roles and responsibilities; neither controls the other (B) The states have some powers reserved to theme which they may exercise if the Supreme Court permits (C) The federal government and the states have separated but overlapping powers; where these powers conflict the federal government prevails (D) The states may only exercise those powers delegated to them by Congress (E) The federal government may exercise only those powers specifically enumerated in the Constitution
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C
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In the organization of government, the principle of federalism is illustrated best by the (A) President's power as commander in chief (B) separation of powers between the United States Supreme Court and Congress (C) representation system for electing senators (D) qualifications for the office of President (E) federal bureaucracy
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C
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Of all of the following, American federalism is most clearly exemplified by the (A) system of checks and balances among the three branches of the national government (B) process by which international treaties are completed (C) special constitutional status of Washington, DC (D) Tenth Amendment to the Constitution (E) president's power to grant reprieves and pardons
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D
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To which characteristic of American government does the term "federalism" refer? (A) The system of checks and balances within the national government (B) The power of the Supreme Court to review the constitutionality of laws (C) The Bill of Rights' protection of the rights of the accused (D) The process by which the size of each state's delegation to the House of Representatives is determined (E) The division and sharing of power between the national and state governments
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E
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The national and state governments share all of the following powers EXCEPT the power to (A) administer elections (B) impose taxes (C) establish courts (D) borrow money (E) enact laws
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A
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The government often finds it difficult to make substantive change to entitlement programs for which of the following reasons? (A) Most such programs were established by constitutional amendment (B) These programs are extremely popular among their numerous beneficiaries (C) Such programs are vital to national defense (D) Most such programs primarily benefit the wealthy, a powerful political bloc (E) These programs' budgets are determined by nonelected bureaucrats, not by Congress
answer
B
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In the majority of cases, federal programs are implemented by (A) private businesses working as subcontractors to the government (B) state and local governments, by means of federal funding (C) Congress, through the local offices of its elected representatives (D) the federal courts by means of criminal prosecutions (E) federal agencies, though their many local offices in cities and towns
answer
B
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A primary election in which voters are required to identify a party preference before the election and are not allowed to split their ticket is called (A) an open primary (B) a blanket primary (C) a closed primary (D) a runoff primary (E) a presidential preference primary
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C
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When selecting a vice-presidential candidate, a presidential nominee is usually concerned primarily with choosing a running mate who (A) has significant personal wealth (B) adds balance and appeal to the national ticket (C) comes from the same ideological wing of the party as the President (D) can serve as the most important domestic policy adviser to the President (E) can effectively preside over the Senate
answer
B
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The primary function of political action committees (PAC's) is to (A) serve as fund-raising organizations for challengers (B) provide members of Congress with unbiased information regarding proposed legislation (C) consult with the President regarding domestic policy (D) encourage broader participation in politics among the electorate (E) raise campaign funds to support favored candidates
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E
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Registered voters directly elect which of the following? I. The President and Vice President II. Supreme Court justices III. Members of the Senate IV. Members of the House of Representatives (A) I only (B) IV only (C) I and II only (D) III and IV only (E) II, III, and IV only
answer
D
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16. Which of the following generalizations about group voting tendencies is true? (A) Jewish voters tend to vote Republican (B) Protestant voters tend to be more liberal than Roman Catholics on economic issues. (C) More women than men identify themselves as Republicans (D) Rural voters are more likely to support Democratic candidates than are urban voters (E) African American Democrats tend to support the more liberal candidates within their party
answer
C
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16. Which of the following is a significant trend in the presidential nominating process over the past three decades? (A) Replacement of national party conventions by national primaries for each party (B) Increasing importance of presidential primaries rather than state conventions (C) A sharply declining role for political action committees (PAC's) (D) Decreasing cost of campaigns (E) Increasing control of political party leaders over outcomes
answer
D
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Political socialization is the process by which (A) the use of private property is regulated by the government (B) governments communicate with each other (C) public attitudes toward government are measured and reported (D) political values are passed to the next generation (E) children are trained for successful occupations
answer
D
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Which of the following is the most important influence on the choice made by voters in presidential elections? (A) Partisan identification (B) Party platform adopted at the national convention (C) Vice-Presidential running mate (D) Endorsement by political incumbents (E) Appeal of the candidates' spouses
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A
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The advantages of incumbency in congressional elections include which of the following? I. Incumbents receive more campaign contributions than do challengers II. Incumbents are able to provide important services for individual voters III. The government provides campaign funds for incumbents IV. The President usually endorses incumbents for reelection V. Most American voters believe Congress does a good job (A) I and II only (B) II and IV only (C) I, IV and V only (D) II, III, and V only (E) III, IV, and V only
answer
A
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The boundaries of United States congressional districts are usually determined by (A) the Federal Election Commission (FEC) (B) the state legislatures (C) the House Rules Committee (D) a conference committee of the House and Senate (E) the director of the United States Census Bureau
answer
B
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Critical elections in the United States typically have occurred (A) as a result of temporary shift in the popular coalition supporting one or both parties (B) whenever a third party has secured more than fifteen percent of the presidential vote (C) each time a Republican has been elected President (D) when voter turnout has declined significantly from the previous election (E) when groups of voters have changed their traditional patterns of party loyalties
answer
E
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When 18 to 21 year olds received the right to voted in 1971, in the 1972 elections they did which of the following? (A)Voted overwhelmingly for Republican candidates (B)Voted overwhelmingly for Democratic candidates (C)Voted overwhelmingly for radical candidates (D)Turned out at a lower rate than the rest of the electorate (E) Turned out at the same rate as the rest of the electorate
answer
D
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The largest amount of political coverage in newspapers during presidential campaigns is devoted to (A) day-to-day campaign activities (B) the platforms of the major parties (C) candidates' policy stands on domestic issues (D) candidates' stands on foreign policy issues (E) candidates' experience and qualifications
answer
A
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A state has 11 electoral votes. In a presidential election, the Democratic candidate receives 48 percent of that state's popular vote, the Republican candidate receives 40 percent of the vote, and an independent candidate receives 12 percent of the vote. If the state is similar to most other states, how will the electoral votes most likely be allocated? (A) The Democratic candidate will receive 5 electoral votes, the Republican will receive 4, and the independent will receive 2 (B) The Democratic candidate will receive 6 electoral votes and the Republican will receive 5 (C) The Democratic candidate will receive all the 11 electoral votes (D) The votes will not be allocated until there has been a runoff election between the Democratic and Republican candidates (E) The House of Representatives will determine the allocation of the electoral votes
answer
C
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Which of the following is the most accurate statement about political parties in the United States? (A) Parties increasingly identify themselves with coherent ideologies to attract large blocs of voters (B) The percentage of voters identifying themselves as either Democrats or Republicans has been declining since the 1970's (C) National party organizations are generally the strongest party organizations (D) It is increasingly difficult for third parties to gain more than two percent of the popular vote (E) Most candidates prefer to run as independents rather than as Democrats or Republicans
answer
B
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An election involving more than two candidates in which the person who receives the most votes is the winner is called (A) a majority election (B) a proportional election (C) a plurality election (D) a simple election (E) an indirect election
answer
C
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Considering all elections at all levels of government, which of the following best describes electoral behavior in the United States? (A) Primary elections tend to elicit a higher voter turnout than do general elections (B) The majority of the electorate does not vote in most elections (C) Voter turnout plays and insignificant role in election outcomes (D) Adult citizens under the age of 30 tend to have the highest rate of voter turnout (E) Voters with strong party identification vote less regularly than do independents
answer
B
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9. Which of the following is a result of the electoral college system? (A) The winner of the presidency often lacks a majority of the popular vote (B) Candidates focus on one-party states in which they can win most of the electoral votes (C) The House of Representatives frequently chooses the President from the top three candidates (D) Candidates focus on the states with the largest populations (E) Campaign spending increases because candidates emphasize television advertising
answer
E
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16. Which of the following best explains why delegates to both the Republican and Democratic Conventions in 1996 were much more likely to have college and postgraduate degrees than was the rest of the voting population? (A) College education increases the likelihood of the holding liberal political positions (B) College education increases the likelihood of holding conservative political positions (C) Political activism increases with education levels (D) Education allows people to have more time to attend conventions (E) Some states required delegates to hold college degree
answer
E
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Which of the following took place after presidential candidates Truman in 1948, Nixon in 1968, and Clinton in 1992 won only pluralities of the popular vote? (A) The election was formally decided in the House of Representatives (B) The election was formally decided in the Senate (C) The winning candidate took office after receiving less than 50 % of the popular votes cast (D) The electoral college votes cast by independents were critical in determining the winner (E) The results of the popular vote necessitated a runoff
answer
C
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Which of the following is generally true of the gerrymandering of congressional districts? (A) It results in more Democrats being elected to the House (B) It results in more Republicans being elected to the House (C) It guarantees that all minority parties will be equally represented (D) It creates districts that favor one political party over another (E) It violates the principle of one-person, one-vote
answer
D
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An electoral system based on single-member districts is usually characterized by (A) strong, centralized political parties and a weak executive (B) higher rates of voter turnout than are common in other systems (C) legislative representation of each party in proportion to the number of votes it receives (D) domination of the legislature by two political parties (E) ideological rather than mass-based parties
answer
D
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Which of the following is a provision of federal election laws? (A) A small fee must be paid by persons voting in federal elections (B) On-site registration to vote must be permitted on the day of any federal election (C) Electoral districts must be apportioned to equalize the numbers of Democratic and Republican voters wherever a historic imbalance exists (D) Citizens must be automatically registered to vote on their eighteenth birthday (E) In areas with significant populations of linguistic minorities, voting materials must be made available in the preferred languages of the population
answer
E
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The concept of "critical elections" is most closely associated with (A) the electoral college process (B) elections during wartime (C) the nomination process (D) economic recession (E) party realignment
answer
E
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Which of the following statements most accurately compares elections in the United States with those in other Western democracies? (A) United States citizens have fewer opportunities to vote in elections (B) Political parties exert a stronger influence over voting in the United States (C) There are fewer obstacles to voting in the United States (D) There are more political parties in the United States (E) The voter turnout rate in the United States is usually lower
answer
E
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Suppose that in 1980 "strong" Democrats who shared Ronald Reagan's views on taxation and Republican women who opposed their party's plank on the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) both turned out to vote at unexpectedly low rates. These findings would provide evidence for which of the following hypotheses? (A) Anything that produces cross-pressure reduces turnout (B) Strong party identification promotes participation (C) "Rational" voters need a sense of civic duty to motivate them to vote (D) Those who express satisfaction with candidate choices are less likely to vote (E) Those who are party activists are not likely to vote
answer
A
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Which of the following would result from the direct election of presidential candidates? (A) A national primary would be established (B) Party nominating conventions would be abolished (C) Each vote would count equally in determining which candidate won the election (D) The electoral college would become more influential in the electoral process (E) Third-Party candidates would have less chance of winning the election
answer
C
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28. Since 1960 the presidential election process has been affected by an increase in all of the following EXCEPT the (A) proportion of independents in the electorate (B) influence of political consultants (C) number of primaries (D) turnout of voters (E) role of television
answer
D
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28. Between 1964 and 1984, which of the following would have been most likely to vote for the Democratic presidential candidate? (A) A Cuban- American business executive from Miami (B) A Black teacher from Los Angeles (C) A White doctor from Atlanta (D) A Polish-American truck driver from Phoenix (E) A Methodist farmer from Iowa
answer
B
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28. "Voting is partly a matter of habit: the more frequently a person has voted in the past, the more likely she or he is to vote in the current election" All of the following support the observation above EXCEPT: (A) Immediately after Twenty- Sixth Amendment in 1971 gave 18-to-21 year olds the vote, the proportion of eligible voters who actually voted declined. (B) Immediately after the Nineteenth Amendment in 1920 gave women the right to vote, the proportion of eligible voters who actually voted declined. (C) Immediately after the passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965, the participation rate of Black voters in the South was lower than the White voters in the South. (D) Unmarried persons over the age of 65 are less likely to vote than are married persons in that age group. (E) Newly naturalized citizens may need special inducements to vote.
answer
E
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28. During the past forty-five year, all of the following changes in public opinion and political behavior have occurred in the United States EXCEPT (A) a decline in party competition in the South (B) a decline in the level of trust in government (C) a drop in voter turnout (D) an increase in ticket-splitting (E) an erosion of party loyalties, especially among young people
answer
A
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All of the following contribute to the success of incumbent members of Congress in election campaigns EXCEPT (A) Incumbents usually raise more campaign funds than do their challengers (B) Incumbents tend to understand national issues better than do their challengers (C) Incumbents are usually better known to voters than are their challengers (D) Incumbents can use legislative staff to perform campaign services (E) Incumbents often sit on committees that permit them to serve district interests
answer
D
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The primary election system of selecting presidential candidates has had which of the following effects? (A) It has increased importance of state party organizations (B) It has loosened the hold of party leaders over the nominations process (C) It has reduced the role of citizens in the candidate selection process (D) It has lowered the cost of running for office (E) It has led to a decline in the importance of party voter-registration drives
answer
B
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Voters who rely exclusively on television network news coverage of national elections are most likely to be aware of (A) which special interest groups have endorsed which candidates (B) the relative strength of each candidate's support, as indicated by public opinion polls (C) candidates' positions on international crisis (D) candidates' positions on domestic issues (E) candidates' congressional voting records
answer
B
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Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the voting behavior of Americans over the age of 65? (A) They are as, or more, likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they have received the highest level of formal education of all age groups (B) They are as, or more, likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they believe that they have a personal stake in government policy (C) They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they are less likely to be aware of election schedules (D) They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they are less likely to be aware of election schedules (E) They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because very few senior citizens run for political office
answer
B
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Which of the following statements about the electoral college is correct? (A) Each state must split its electoral votes among all the candidates that receive votes (B) Each state is equally represented in the electoral college (C) The electoral college was created by an amendment to the Constitution (D) The results of electoral college voting tend to distort the winner's margin of victory, when compared with the popular vote for president (E) Each state's delegation to the electoral college consists of that state's U.S. senators and representatives
answer
D
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Which of the following statements is true of congressional incumbents who run for reelection? (A) Incumbent senators are more likely to be reelected than are incumbent members of the House of Representatives (B) Incumbents are prohibited by law from spending more on their reelection campaigns than their challengers spend (C) Incumbents have a great advantage over challengers because they are better known and can raise campaign funds more easily (D) Ever since the 1994 election, the majority of congressional incumbents have failed in their reelection attempts (E) Most incumbents who run for reelection are unopposed in the general election
answer
C
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The boundary lines of congressional districts must be redrawn every 10 years to (A) reflect population shifts indicated by the national census (B) guarantee the turnover of the majority of congressional seats (C) make sure each state's congressional delegation exactly mirrors its residents' part affiliations (D) determine which party's leader will be named Speaker of the House (E) increase the number of female and minority members of Congress
answer
A
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Which of the following factors would mist likely explain why voter registration records underestimate the number of Independent voters in the United States? (A) Independents are less likely than Republicans or Democrats to register to vote (B) Many Americans who consider themselves Independent do not participate in elections (C) Independents make up only a small portion of the electorate (D) Because Independents in many states are not allowed to participate in primary elections, many Independents register as either Republicans or Democrats (E) The majority of Independents are non-citizens who are not allowed to vote
answer
D
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A corporate lobbyist would be LEAST likely to have an informal discussion about a pending policy matter with which of the following? (A) A member of the House in whose district the corporation has a plant (B) A member of the White House staff concerned about the issue (C) A member of the staff of the Senate committee handling a matter of concern to the corporation (D) A federal judge in whose court a case important to the corporation is being heard (E) A journalist for a major newspaper concerned about the issue
answer
D
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Interest groups and political parties both promote United States democracy by (A) expressing detailed, ideologically distinct programs (B) centralizing public authority (C) linking citizens to the political process (D) increasing domination of the political process by elites (E) lobbying members of Congress
answer
C
question
Which of the following is true of amicus curiae briefs? (A) They are used by interest groups to lobby courts (B) They are used exclusively by liberal interest groups (C) They are used exclusively by conservative interest groups (D) They are now unconstitutional (E) They are means by which of litigant seeks Supreme Court review of a lower court decision
answer
E
question
Lobbyists try to influence legislators mainly through (A) "wining and dining" legislatures (B) orchestrating petition drives and letter-writing campaigns (C) placing persuasive advertisements in the media (D) threatening to help the legislator's opponent in the next election (E) providing legislators with information on technical issues
answer
E
question
Political action committees (PAC's) representing which of the following groups have increased in number most substantially since the mid-1970's? (A) Labor (B) Business (C) Health-care professionals (D) Veterans' groups (E) Civil rights advocates
answer
B
question
interest group is most likely to have influence in Congress when the issue at stake (A) is narrow in scope and low in public visibility (B) is part of the President's legislative package (C) has been dramatized by the media (D) engages legislator's deeply held convictions (E) divides legislators along party lines
answer
A
question
Which of the following statements about political action committees (PAC's) is true? (A) PAC'S may give unlimited contributions to the election campaigns of individual candidates (B) PAC spending has not kept pace with inflation (C) PAC activity is limited to direct contributions to candidates (D) Social issue groups are the source of most PAC dollars (E) PAC spending makes up a higher percentage of congressional campaign funds than of presidential campaign funds
answer
E
question
Which of the following techniques would a corporate lobbyist by likely to use influence political outcomes in Congress? I. Organizing a demonstration in Washington just before a key House vote II. Ensuring that the corporation's political action committee (PAC) makes donations to the campaigns of members of key committees III. Meeting informally with Senate aides over lunch or cocktails IV. Bringing influential constitutions to Washington to discuss important policy matters with their representatives (A) II only (B) I and II only (C) II and IV only (D) I, II and IV only (E) II, III, and IV only
answer
E
question
All of following are commonly used by interest groups to influence the political process EXCEPT (A) lobbying (B) contributing money to candidates (C) nominating candidates (D) filling lawsuits (E) appealing to public opinion
answer
C
question
Which of the following is true of congressional redistricting? (A) The responsibility for redrawing congressional districts belongs to congressional committees (B) It is a noncontroversial process because it has few political ramifications (C) It occurs every 10 years to reflect changes in population according to the census (D) The Supreme Court has ruled that legislators may not consider racial demographics when redrawing districts
answer
C
question
Politicians and political reporters are natural adversaries; the adversarial nature of their relationship, however, is tempered by the fact that (A) younger politicians who are more comfortable with the media are gradually displacing older politicians (B) government regulations on interaction between the two groups are very strict (C) each group is dependent on the other to perform its job effectively (D) very few media outlets will cover a story that is embarrassing to a political leader (E) most government activity is classified and therefore inaccessible to the media
answer
C
question
Which of the following describes an unintended result of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1974? (A) Limits were placed on the amount of money individuals could donate to a federal election campaign (B) Federal funding became available to presidential candidates who agree to abide by spending (C) Candidates drastically decreased the amount of money spent on television advertising (D) Thousands of political action committees were created to raise funds for candidates (E) The number of third-party campaigns for the presidency decreased dramatically
answer
D
question
An open primary is a primary election in which (A) voters registered as "independents" may not vote (B) candidates do not specify the office for which they are running (C) voters may register at their polling place on election day (D) candidates need not announce their candidacy until the day of the primary (E) voters may vote in the election of a party other than the one to which they are registered
answer
E
question
The rules governing the electoral college make it especially important for presidential candidates to (A) win as many states as possible, regardless of the size of the states (B) spend most of their time campaigning in the south (C) campaign most aggressively among those who will be chosen as electors (D) concentrate their campaign efforts on "battleground" states (E) concentrate on the states in which they are farthest behind, to reduce the margin of their eventual losses in those states
answer
D
question
In the past decade many states have moved forward the date of their presidential primary elections in an effort to (A) minimize the cost of running the election (B) convince the national government to move forward the date of the general election (C) restrict the number of entrants in the presidential race (D) focus greater national attention on their state primary races (E) increase the significance of their election results
answer
E
question
All of the following can be considered true about the impact of a higher level of education on voting habits EXCEPT (A) voters are more likely to support government-enforced racial and sexual equality (B) voters are more likely to support environmental protection efforts (C) voters are more likely to support public prayer in schools (D) voters are less likely to support restrictions on abortion rights (E) voters are more likely to promote civil liberties
answer
C
question
The primary function of political action committees (PACs) is to (A) contribute money to candidates for reelection (B) coordinate local get-out-the-vote campaigns (C) promote the defeat of incumbents in the federal and state legislatures (D) organize protest demonstrations and other acts of civil disobedience (E) contact Congress to suggest legislation
answer
A
