question

anterior cruciate ligament origin/insertion

answer

lateral femoral condyle, anterior tibia

question

posterior cruciate ligament origin/insertion

answer

medial femoral condyle, posterior tibia

question

anterior drawer sign

answer

increased anterior tibial gliding due to ACL injury

question

What constitutes and abnormal passive knee abduction test?

answer

lateral/valgus force causes medial space widening, indicates MCL injury

question

What constitutes and abnormal passive knee adduction test?

answer

medial/varus force causes lateral space widening, indicates LCL injury

question

Greenstick fracture pathogenesis

answer

incomplete fx, extends part way through bone, follows bending stress

question

Torus fracture pathogenesis

answer

axial forced applied to immature bone, causes buckle fx of cortex

question

identify the fracture

answer

greenstick fx

question

identify the fracture

answer

torus fx

question

Unhappy triad pathogenesis

answer

lateral force applied to platned leg, damages ACL, MCL, medial meniscus

question

Prepatellar bursitis

answer

chronic trauma/pressure causes bursa inflammation

question

Baker cyst pathogenesis

answer

popliteal fluid collection in gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa

question

supraspinatus innervation

answer

suprascapular nerve

question

supraspinatus action

answer

arm abduction initiation

question

Infraspinatus innervation

answer

suprascapular nerve

question

Infraspinatus action

answer

arm lateral rotation

question

Supraspinatus typical injury mechanism

answer

trauma, degeneration, impingement

question

Infraspinatus typical injury mechanism

answer

pitching injury

question

Teres minor innervation

answer

axillary nerve

question

Teres minor action

answer

arm adduction, lateral rotation

question

Subscapularis innervation

answer

upper/lower subscapular nerves

question

Subscapularis action

answer

arm adduction, medial rotation

question

rotator cuff muscles primary spinal root innervation

answer

C5-C6

question

what is the primary muscle/nerve responsible for arm abduction? (0-15 degrees)

answer

supraspinatus, suprascapular nerve

question

what is the primary muscle/nerve responsible for arm abduction (150-100 degrees)

answer

Deltoid, axillary nerve

question

what is the primary muscle/nerve responsible for arm abduction (>90 degrees)

answer

Trapezius, CN XI

question

what is the primary muscle/nerve responsible for arm abduction (>100 degrees)

answer

Serratus anterior, long thoracic nerve

question

medial epicondylitis alternate name

answer

golfers elbow

question

medial epicondylitis pathogenesis

answer

repetitive flexion causes pain over medial epicondyle

question

lateral epicondylitis alternate name

answer

tennis elbow

question

lateral epicondylitis pathogenesis

answer

repetitive extensionc causes pain near lateral epicondyle

question

Scaphoid significant associated pathologies

answer

most commonly fx via FOSH, may cause osteonecrosis, nonunion

question

Lunate dislocation complications

answer

acute CTS

question

Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) pathogenesis

answer

carpal tunnel compresses median nerve

question

Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) clinical presentation

answer

paresthesia, pain, numbness in median nerve distribution, thenar atrophy

question

Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) risk factors

answer

repetitive use, pregnancy, RA, hypothyroid, DM, acromegaly, dialysis related amyloidosis

question

Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) diagnostic signs

answer

Tinel sign, phalen test

question

Guyon canal syndrome pathogenesis

answer

ulnar nerve compression at wrist/hand

question

Guyon canal syndrome risk factors

answer

cycling due to handlebar pressure

question

identify the pathology

answer

ACL tear

question

identify the pathology

answer

prepatellar bursitis

question

identify the pathology

answer

baker cyst

question

identify the pathology

answer

supraspinatus tear

question

identify the bone

answer

1st metacarpal

question

identify the bone

answer

capitate

question

identify the bone

answer

Hamate

question

identify the bone

answer

Lunate

question

identify the bone

answer

Pisiform

question

identify the bone

answer

Scaphoid

question

identify the bone

answer

trapezium

question

identify the bone

answer

trapezoid

question

identify the bone

answer

triquetrum

question

Axillary nerve spinal roots

answer

C5-6

question

Axillary nerve most common mechanism of injury

answer

humerus surgical neck fx, anterior dislocation

question

Axillary nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

flattened deltoid, no arm abduction >15 degrees, deltoid/lateral arm anesthesia

question

Musculocutaneous nerve spinal roots

answer

C5-7

question

Musculocutaneous nerve most common mechanism of injury

answer

upper trunk compression

question

Musculocutaneous nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

no forearm flexion, supination, lateral forearm anesthesia

question

Radial nerve spinal roots

answer

C5-T1

question

Radial nerve most common mechanism of injury

answer

midshaft humeral fx, axillary compression

question

Radial nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

no elbow, wrist, finger extension, decreased grip strength, posterior arm, forearm, dorsal hand anesthesia

question

Median nerve spinal roots

answer

C5-T1

question

Median nerve most common mechanism of injury

answer

supracondylar humeral fx, CTS, wrist laceration

question

Median nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

ape hand, no wrist, lateral finger flexion, thumb opposition, dorsal/palmar hand anesthesia

question

Median nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

no wrist flexion medial finger flexion, abduction/adduction, medial 1.5 fingers, hypothenar anesthesia

question

recurrent branch of median nerve spinal roots

answer

C5-T1

question

recurrent branch of median nerve most common injury mechanism

answer

superficial palm laceration

question

recurrent branch of median nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

ape hand, loss of thenar muscle group

question

Erb palsy alternate name

answer

Waiter's tip

question

Erb palsy pathogenesis

answer

traction/tear of upper brachial plexus trunks, C5-6 roots

question

Erb palsy injury mechanism (infants)

answer

lateral neck traction during delivery

question

Erb palsy injury mechanism (adults)

answer

trauma

question

Erb palsy muscles affected

answer

deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, biceps brachii

question

Erb palsy functional deficits

answer

loss of arm abduction, lateral rotation, forearm flexion, supination

question

Klumpke palsy: pathogenesis

answer

traction/tear of brachial plexus lower trunk, C8-T1

question

Klumpke palsy: injury mechanism (infants)

answer

upward force on arm during delivery

question

Klumpke palsy: injury mechanism (adults)

answer

trauma (grabbing branch to break fall)

question

Klumpke palsy: muscles affected

answer

intrinsic hand muscles: lumbricals, interossei, thenar, hypothenar

question

Klumpke palsy: functional deficits

answer

total claw hand

question

Thoracic outlet syndrome pathogenesis

answer

compression of brachial plexus lower trunk, subclavian vessels

question

Thoracic outlet syndrome mechanism of injury

answer

cervical rib, pancost tumor

question

Thoracic outlet syndrome muscles affected

answer

intrinsic hand muscles: lumbricals, interossei, thenar, hypothenar

question

Thoracic outlet syndrome: functional deficits

answer

intrinsic hand muscle atrophy, ischemia, pain, edema

question

Winged Scapula pathogenesis

answer

long thoracic nerve lesion

question

Winged Scapula mechanism of injury

answer

axillary node dissection after mastectomy, stab wounds

question

Winged Scapula muscles affected

answer

serratus anterior

question

Winged Scapula functional deficits

answer

iniability to anchor scapula to thoracic cage, loss of end arm abduction

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

Waiters tip deformity, Erb palsy

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

Claw hand, Klumpke palsy

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

cervical rib, thoracic outlet syndrome

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

winged scapula, long thoracic nerve injury

question

Clawing of hands anatomical mechanism

answer

extrinsic digital flexors exaggerate lumbrical loss: MCP extension, DIP, PIP flexion

question

identify the clinical finding and the associated pathology (patient was asked to extend fingers)

answer

ulnar claw, distal ulnar nerve lesion

question

identify the clinical finding and the associated pathology (patient was asked to make a fist)

answer

pope's blessing, proximal median nerve lesion

question

identify the clinical finding and the associated pathology (patient was asked to extend fingers)

answer

median claw, distal median nerve lesion

question

identify the clinical finding and the associated pathology (patient was asked to make a fist)

answer

OK gesture, proximal ulnar nerve lesion

question

name thanar muscles

answer

opponens, pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis

question

name the hypothenar muscles

answer

opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis

question

name the intrinsic hand muscles (not including thenar/hypothenar groups)

answer

dorsal/palmar interossei, lumbricals

question

Dorsal interossei muscles action

answer

finger abduction

question

Palmar interossei muscles action

answer

finger adduction

question

Lumbricals muscles action

answer

MCP flexion, PIP/DIP extension

question

Acetaminophen MOA

answer

reversibly inhibits COX in CNS, (inactivated peripherally)

question

Acetaminophen physiologic effects

answer

antipyretic, analgesic, not anti-inflammatory

question

Acetaminophen clinical uses

answer

fever, pain, use instead of ASA to avoid Reye syndrome

question

Acetaminophen adverse effects

answer

hepatic necrosis

question

Acetaminophen hepatotoxicity pathophysiology

answer

metabolite depletes glutathione, forms toxic byproducts, causes necrosis

question

Acetaminophen hepatotoxicity treatment

answer

N-acetylcysteine, regenerates glutathione

question

Aspirin MOA

answer

irreversibly inhibits COX 1/2, decreases prostaglandin, TXA2 synthesis

question

Aspirin effect on coagulation labs

answer

prolonged bleeding time, normal PT, PTT, lasts until new platelets produced

question

low dose aspirin clinical uses

answer

platelet aggregation inhibition (anticoagulation)

question

intermediate dose aspirin clinical uses

answer

antipyretic, analgesic

question

high dose aspirin clinical uses

answer

antiinflammatory

question

Aspirin adverse effects

answer

gastric ulcers, tinnitus, nephrotoxicity, reye syndrome

question

Aspirin toxicity pathophysiology

answer

initial respiratory alkalosis, transitions to compensated metabolic acidosis

question

Aspirin adverse effects: renal

answer

acute renal failure, interstitial nephritis

question

Celecoxib MOA

answer

selectively inhibits COX2

question

COX-2 function

answer

found in inflammatory cells, vascular endothelium, mediates inflammation, pain

question

Celecoxib beneficial effects

answer

anti-inflammatory w/o GI irritation, spares platelet function

question

Celecoxib clinical uses

answer

RA, osteoarthritis

question

Celecoxib adverse effects

answer

increased thrombosis risk, sulfa allergy

question

Ibuprofen drug class

answer

NSAID

question

Naproxen drug class

answer

NSAID

question

Indomethacin drug class

answer

NSAID

question

Ketorolac drug class

answer

NSAID

question

Diclofenac drug class

answer

NSAID

question

Piroxicam drug class

answer

NSAID

question

NSAIDs (Ibuprofen) MOA

answer

reversibly inhibits COX 1/2, prostaglandin synthesis

question

NSAIDs (Ibuprofen) clinical uses

answer

antipyretic, analgesic, anti-intlammatory

question

Indomethacin unique clinical uses

answer

close PDA in neonate

question

NSAIDs (Ibuprofen) adverse effects

answer

PUD, aplastic anemia, interstitial nephritis, renal ischemia

question

Leflunomide MOA

answer

reversibly inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, inhibits pyrimidine synthesis, T cell proliferation

question

Leflunomide clnical uses

answer

RA, psoriatic arthritis

question

Leflunomide adverse effects

answer

diarrhea, HTN, hepatotoxicity, teratogen

question

"-dronate" drug class

answer

bisphosphonate

question

Alendronate drug class

answer

bisphosphonate

question

Ibandronate drug class

answer

bisphosphonate

question

Zoledronate drug class

answer

bisphosphonate

question

Bisphosphonates (Alendronate) MOA

answer

pyrophosphate analog, binds bone hydroxyapatite, inhibits osteoclasts

question

Bisphosphonates (Alendronate) clincial uses

answer

osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Pagets disease, bone metastasis, osteogenesis imperfecta

question

Bisphosphonates (Alendronate) adverse effects

answer

esophagitis, jaw osteonecrosis, atypical stress fx

question

Bisphosphonates (Alendronate) administration instructions

answer

take w/ H2O, remain upright for 30 minutes

question

Teriparatide MOA

answer

recombinant PTH analog, increases osteoblast activity

question

Teriparatide absorption

answer

SQ

question

Teriparatide clinical uses

answer

osteoporosis, causes increased bone growth

question

Teriparatide adverse effects

answer

osteosarcoma risk, transient hypercalcemia

question

Teriparatide contraindications

answer

hx of cancer, radiation therapy

question

Allopurinol drug class

answer

xanthine oxidase inhibitor

question

Febuxostat drug class

answer

xanthine oxidase inhibitor

question

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (Allopurinol) MOA

answer

inhibits conversion of xanthine to urate

question

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (Allopurinol) clinical uses

answer

chronic gout, leukemia/lymphoma tumor lysis syndrome

question

Pegloticase MOA

answer

recombinant uricase, converts urate to allantoin

question

Pegloticase clinical uses

answer

chronic gout

question

Probenecid MOA

answer

inhibits PCT urate reabsorption

question

Probenecid adverse effects

answer

uric acid calculi

question

Colchicine MOA

answer

stabilizes tubulin, inhibits microtubule polymerization, inhibits neutrophil chemotaxis, degranulation

question

Colchicine clinical uses

answer

acute/prophylactic gout

question

Colchicine adverse effects

answer

GI effects

question

Drugs used for acute gout attacks

answer

NSAIDS, steroids, colchicine

question

TNF-alpha inhibitors adverse effects

answer

infection risk, latent TB reactivation

question

Etanercept drug class

answer

TNF-alpha inhibitor

question

Etanercept MOA

answer

soluble TNF receptor + IgG Fc, binds TNF

question

Etanercept clinical uses

answer

RA, psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis

question

Infliximab drug class

answer

TNF-alpha inhibitor

question

Adalimumab drug class

answer

TNF-alpha inhibitor

question

Certolizumab drug class

answer

TNF-alpha inhibitor

question

Golimumab drug class

answer

TNF-alpha inhibitor

question

TNF-alpha inhibitor monoclonal antibodies (Infliximab) clinical uses

answer

IBD, RA, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriasis

question

Iliohypogastric nerve spinal cord roots

answer

T12-L1

question

Genitofemoral nerve spinal cord roots

answer

L1-L2

question

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve spinal cord roots

answer

L2-L3

question

Obturator nerve spinal cord roots

answer

L2-L4

question

Femoral nerve spinal cord roots

answer

L2-L4

question

Sciatic nerve spinal cord roots

answer

L4-S3

question

Common peroneal nerve spinal cord roots

answer

L4-S2

question

Tibial nerve spinal cord roots

answer

L4-S3

question

Iliohypogastric nerve sensory innervation

answer

suprapubic

question

genitofemoral nerve sensory innervation

answer

scrotum/labia majora, medial thigh

question

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve sensory innervation

answer

anterior, lateral thigh

question

Obturator nerve sensory innervation

answer

medial thigh

question

Femoral nerve sensory innervation

answer

anterior thigh, medial leg

question

Sciatic nerve sensory innervation

answer

Posterior thigh

question

common peroneal nerve sensory innervation

answer

dorsum of foot

question

Tibial nerve sensory innervation

answer

sole of foot

question

Iliohypogastric nerve motor innervation

answer

transversus abdominis, internal oblique

question

Genitofemoral nerve motor innervation

answer

cremaster

question

Obturator nerve motor innervation

answer

obturator externus, adductor longus/brevis/magnus, gracilis, pectineus,

question

Femoral nerve motor innervation

answer

quadriceps, iliopsoas, pectineus, sartorius

question

Sciatic nerve motor innervation

answer

hamstrings, adductor magnus

question

Common peroneal nerve motor innervation

answer

biceps femoris, tibialis anterior, foot extensors

question

Tibial nerve motor innervation

answer

triceps surae, plantaris, popliteus, foot flexors

question

Iliohypogastric nerve most common cause of injury

answer

abd surgery

question

Genitofemoral most common cause of injury

answer

laparoscopic surgery

question

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve most common cause of injury

answer

tight clothing, obesity, pregnancy

question

Obturator nerve most common cause of injury

answer

Pelvic surgery

question

Femoral nerve most common cause of injury

answer

pelvic fx

question

Sciatic nerve most common cause of injury

answer

herniated disc

question

Common peroneal nerve most common cause of injury

answer

Trauma, compress of lateral leg, fibular neck fx

question

Tibial nerve most common cause of injury

answer

knee trauma, baker cyst, tarsal tunnel syndrome

question

Iliohypogastric nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

burning/tingling in incision site, radiates to inguinal, suprapubic region

question

Genitofemoral nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

decreased anterior thigh sensation beneath inguinal ligament, absent cremaster reflex

question

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

decreased thigh sensation

question

Obturator nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

decreased thigh sensation, adduction

question

Femoral nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

decreased thigh flexion, leg extension

question

Common peroneal nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

decreased dorsal foot sensation, foot drop

question

Tibial nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

decreased plantar foot sensation, foot inversion, plantarflexion

question

Superior gluteal nerve motor innervation

answer

gluteus medius/minimus, TFL

question

Inferior gluteal nerve motor innervation

answer

gluteus maximus

question

Pudendal nerve sensory innervation

answer

perineum

question

Pudendal nerve motor innervation

answer

external urethral/anal sphincter

question

Superior gluteal nerve spinal cord roots

answer

L4-S1

question

inferior gluteal nerve spinal cord roots

answer

L5-S2

question

Pudendal nerve spinal cord roots

answer

S2-S4

question

Superior gluteal nerve most common cause of injury

answer

Iatrogenic via intramuscular injection

question

Inferior gluteal nerve most common cause of injury

answer

posterior hip dislocation

question

Pudendal nerve most common cause of injury

answer

Stretch injury during childbirth

question

Superior gluteal nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

trendelenburg gait/sign, drop is c/l to lesion

question

Inferior gluteal nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

decreased hip extension, difficulty climbing stairs, rising from seated,

question

Pudendal nerve injury clinical presentation

answer

saddle anesthesia, incontinence

question

gluteus medius action (at hip)

answer

abduction, internal rotation

question

gluteus minimus action (at hip)

answer

abduction, internal rotation

question

Adductor magnus/longus/brevis action (at hip)

answer

adduction

question

Gluteus maximus action (at hip)

answer

extension, external rotation

question

semitendinosus action (at hip)

answer

extension

question

semimembranosus action (at hip)

answer

extension

question

Iliopsoas action (at hip)

answer

flexion, external rotation

question

Rectus femoris action (at hip)

answer

flexion

question

Tensor fascia lata action (at hip)

answer

flexion, internal rotation

question

piriformis action (at hip)

answer

external rotation

question

Obturator internus/externus action (at hip)

answer

external rotation

question

what direction to intervertebral discs typically herniate?

answer

posterolateral

question

if the L3-L4 intervertebral disc herniates, what clinical findings would be expected?

answer

weak knee extension, decreased patellar reflex

question

if the L4-L5 intervertebral disc herniates, what clinical findings would be expected?

answer

weak dorsiflexion, difficulty heel walking

question

if the L5-S1 intervertebral disc herniates, what clinical findings would be expected?

answer

weak plantar flexion, difficulty toe walking, decreased calcaneal reflex

question

what nerve/artery (respectively) is associated with the axilla/lateral thorax?

answer

long thoracic N, lateral thoracic A

question

what nerve/artery (respectively) is associated with the surgical neck of humerus?

answer

axillary N, posterior circumflex A

question

what nerve/artery (respectively) is associated with the midshaft humerus?

answer

radial N, deep brachial A

question

what nerve/artery (respectively) is associated with the distal humerus/cubital fossa?

answer

median N, brachial A

question

what nerve/artery (respectively) is associated with the popliteal fossa?

answer

tibial N, popliteal A

question

what nerve/artery (respectively) is associated with the posterior medial malleolus?

answer

tibial N, posterior tibial A

question

answer

M line

question

answer

myosin

question

answer

sarcomere

question

answer

T tubule

question

skeletal muscle triad

answer

T tubule + 2 terminal cisternae

question

cardiac muscle dyad

answer

T tubule + 1 terminal cisterna

question

type 1 muscle fiber characteristics

answer

slow twitch, red, aerobic, high mitochondria, Mb

question

type 2 muscle fiber characteristics

answer

fast twitch, white, anerobic, low mitochondria, Mb

question

if the myosin light chain kinase is active, does this cause smooth muscle to contract or relax?

answer

contract

question

if the myosin light chain phosphorylase is active, does this cause smooth muscle to contract or relax?

answer

relax

question

which bones undergo endochondral ossification

answer

axial/appendicualr skeleton, base of sull

question

which bones undergo membranous ossification?

answer

calvarium, facial bones, clavicle

question

endochondrial ossification mechanism

answer

cartilage replaced with woven bone, later replaced with lamellar bone

question

membranous ossification mechanism

answer

woven bone formed directly w/o cartilage, remodeled to lamellar bone

question

Osteoblast function

answer

builds bone via secreting collagen, catalyzing mineralization, produces ALP

question

Osteoblast cell of origin

answer

mesenchymal stem cells in periosteum

question

what lab tests are used to measure osteoblast activity?

answer

ALP, osteocalcin, type I procollagen propeptides

question

Osteoclast function

answer

secretes H+, collagenases to dissolve bone

question

Osteoclast cell of origin

answer

fusion of monocyte/macrophage precursors

question

PTH function (low concentration)

answer

anabolic effects on osteoblasts/osteoclasts, induces bone building

question

PTH function (high concentration)

answer

catabolic effects: osteitis fibrosa cystica

question

Estrogen effect on bone

answer

inhibits osteoblast apoptosis, induces osteoclast apoptosis, causes epiphyseal plate closure during puberty

question

Achondroplasia pathogenesis

answer

defective endochondral ossification, longitudinal bone growth causes short limbs, membranous ossification affected

question

Achondroplasia clinical presentation

answer

large head relative to limbs

question

Achondroplasia molecular pathogenesis

answer

constitutive activation of FGFR3, inhibits chondrocyte proliferation

question

Achondroplasia inheritance

answer

AD, full penetrance, homozygous is lethal

question

Osteoporosis pathogenesis

answer

trabecular/spongy bone loses mass, interconnections, due to increased bone resorption, decreased estrogen

question

Osteoporosis treatment

answer

eight bearing exercise, adequate Ca2+, vitamin D, bisphosphonates, teriparatide, SERMs, calcitonin

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

vertebral compression fx, osteoporosis

question

Osteopetrosis pathogenesis

answer

defective osteoclasts cause abnormal bone resorption, leads to thickened dense bones, prone to fx

question

Osteopetrosis complications

answer

fx, thikened bone causes decreased marrow, pancytopenia, cranial nerve impingement

question

Osteopetrosis treatment

answer

bone marrow transplant

question

Osteomalacia/rickets pathogenesis

answer

defective osteoid/growth plate mineralization

question

Osteomalacia/rickets most common etiology

answer

vitamin D deficiency

question

Osteomalacia clinical presentation

answer

osteopenia, pseudofractures

question

rickets clinical presentation

answer

epiphyseal widening, metaphyseal cupping, genu varum, bead-like costochondral junctions, craniotabes

question

Osteomalacia/rickets lab findings

answer

decreased vitamin D, Ca2+, PO4, increased PTH, ALP

question

Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans) pathogenesis

answer

increased osteoclast activity followed by disorganized osteoblast activity, forms poor quality bone

question

Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans) laboratory findings

answer

increased Ca2+, PO4, PTH, ALP

question

Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans) clinical presentation

answer

mosaic pattern of woven/lamellar bone, long bone chalk stick fx

question

Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans) complications

answer

high output CHF due to AV shunts, osteogenic sarcoma

question

lytic phase of Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans)

answer

osteoclast activity

question

mixed phase of Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans)

answer

osteoclast/osteoblast activity

question

Sclerotic phase of Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans)

answer

osteoblast activity

question

Quiescent phase of Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans)

answer

minimal osteoblast/osteoclast activity

question

Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans) treatment

answer

bisphosphonates

question

Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) pathogenesis

answer

bone/marrow infarction via ischemia

question

Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) etiology

answer

steroids, alcoholism, sickle cell, trauma, the bends, LCP/SCFE, Gaucher disease

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

bead-like costochondral junctions, rickets

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

genu varum, rickets

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

skull thickening, paget disease of bone

question

identify the pathology

answer

osteonecrosis

question

osteoporosis lab findings

answer

normal electrolytes/hormones, decreased bone lab

question

Osteopetrosis lab findings

answer

normal/decreased CA2+ if severe

question

Paget disease of bone lab findings

answer

increased ALP

question

Osteitis fibrosa cystica (primary hyperparathyroidism) lab findings

answer

increased Ca2+, AlP, PTH, decreased PO4

question

secondary hyperparathryoidism lab findings

answer

increased PO4, ALP, PTH, decreased Ca2+

question

Osteomalacia/rickets lab findings

answer

increased ALP, PTH, decreased Ca2+, PO4

question

Hypervitaminosis D lab findings

answer

increased Ca2+, PO4, decreased PTH

question

Osteitis fibrosa cystica clinical presentation

answer

brown tumors, subperiosteal thinning

question

Osteitis fibrosa cystica etiology

answer

idiopathic, parathyroid hyperplasia/adenoma/carcinoma

question

hypervitaminosis D etiology

answer

oversupplementation, granulomatous disease

question

Osteochondroma characteristics

answer

bony exostosis with cartilagenous cap

question

Osteochondroma complications

answer

fx, arely transforms to chondrosarcoma

question

Giant cell tumor of bone most common location of origin

answer

long bone epiphysis, especially distal femur, proximal tibia

question

Giant cell tumor of bone typical behavior

answer

locally aggressive, benign

question

Giant cell tumor of bone radiographic morphology

answer

soap bubble

question

Giant cell tumor of bone histologic morphology

answer

giant cells, express RANKL

question

Osteosarcoma risk factors

answer

paget disease, bone infarcts, radiation, familal retinoblastoma, Li-fraumeni syndrome

question

Osteosarcoma most common site of origin

answer

metaphysis of long bones

question

Osteosarcoma radiographic morphology

answer

Codman triangle, sunburst pattern

question

Osteosarcoma typical behavior

answer

aggressive

question

Ewing sarcoma risk factors

answer

children <15

question

Ewing sarcoma typical location of origin

answer

long bone diaphysis, pelvis, scapula, ribs

question

Ewing sarcoma histologic morphology

answer

anaplastic, small round blue cells

question

Ewing sarcoma typical vehavior

answer

extremely aggressive, early mets, responsive to chemo

question

Ewing sarcoma molecular pathogenesis

answer

t11:22 causes EWS-FLI1 fusion protein

question

identify the pathology

answer

osteochondroma

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

soap bubble, giant cell tumor

question

identify the pathology

answer

osteosarcoma

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

anaplastic small blue cells, ewing sarcoma

question

what type of bone lesion typically forms here?

answer

ewing sarcoma, myeloma

question

what type of bone lesion typically forms here?

answer

fibrous dysplasia

question

what type of bone lesion typically forms here?

answer

giant cell tumor

question

what type of bone lesion typically forms here?

answer

osteochondroma

question

what type of bone lesion typically forms here?

answer

osteoid osteoma

question

what type of bone lesion typically forms here?

answer

osteosarcoma

question

what type of bone lesion typically forms here?

answer

simple bone cyst

question

osteoarthritis pathogenesis

answer

mechanical damage destroys articular cartilage, infalmmation w/ inadequate repair, chondrocytes mediate degradation

question

osteoarthritis risk factors

answer

age, female, obesity, joint trauma

question

osteoarthritis clinical presentation

answer

asymmetric pain in weight bearing joints, worse after use, better with rest

question

osteoarthritis joint findings

answer

osteophytes, joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis/cysts, noninflammatory fluid, involves DIP, PIP, 1st CMC joints, no MCP

question

osteoarthritis treatment

answer

acetaminophen, NSAIds, glucocorticoids

question

Rheumatoid arthritis pathogenesis

answer

autoimmune: inflammation produces pannus, erodes articular cartilage/bone

question

Rheumatoid arthritis risk factors

answer

female, HLA DR4, smoking, silica exposure

question

Rheumatoid arthritis lab findings

answer

rheumatoid factor, anti-CCP antibody

question

Rheumatoid arthritis clinical presentation

answer

symmetric pain, swelling, morning stiffness, improves w/ use, extraarticular manifestations

question

Rheumatoid arthritis joint findings

answer

erosions, juxta-articular osteopenia, soft tissue swelling, subchondral cysts, joint space narrowing, involves MCP, PIP, wrist, not DIP, 2st CMC

question

Rheumatoid arthritis assocaited deformities

answer

cervical subluxation, ulnar finger deviation, swan neck/boutonniere deformity, i

question

Rheumatoid arthritis treatment

answer

NSAIDs, glucocorticoids, DMARDs

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

Pannus, RA

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

heberden nodes, OA

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

bouchard nodes, OA

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

swan neck deformity, RA

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

boutonniere deformity, RA

question

Gout pathogenesis

answer

monosodium urate precipitation in joints cause inflammation, pain

question

what diseases can cause gout via underexcretion of uric acid?

answer

idiopathic, renal failure, certain meds (thiazides)

question

what diseases can cause gout via overproduction of uric acid?

answer

lesch-nyhan syndrome, PRPP excess, tumor lysis syndrome, von Gierke disease

question

Gout histologic morphology

answer

needl shaped cristals, negatively birefringent under polarized light

question

gout clinical presentation

answer

asymmetric joint swelling, redness, pain

question

acute gout treatment

answer

NSAIDs, glucocorticoids, colchicine

question

chronic gout treatment

answer

xanthine oxidase inhibitor

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

urate crystals, gout

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

urate crystals, gout

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

tophus, gout

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

calcium pyrophosphate cyrstals in joint space, CPPD disease

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

calcium pyrophosphate crystals, CPPD disease

question

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD disease) pathogenesis

answer

calcium pyrophosphate crystals deposit in joint space

question

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD disease) risk factors

answer

hemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, joint trauma

question

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD disease) most commonly affected joint

answer

knee

question

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD disease) radiographic findings

answer

chondrocalcinosis

question

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD disease) acute treatment

answer

NSAIDs, colchicine, glucocorticoids

question

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD disease) chronic/preventative treatment

answer

colchicine

question

Sjögren syndrome pathogenesis

answer

autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands, especially lacrimal, sailvary

question

Sjögren syndrome histologic morphology

answer

lymphocytic infiltrates

question

Sjögren syndrome clinical presentation

answer

inflammatory joint pain, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, xerostomia, b/l parotid enlargement

question

Sjögren syndrome lab findings

answer

ANA, rheumatoid factor, SS-A, SS-B

question

Sjögren syndrome complications

answer

dental caries, MALToma

question

most common causes of septic arthritis

answer

S. aureus, strep, N. gonorrhoeae

question

septic arthritis clinical presentation

answer

joint swelling, redness, pain

question

septic arthritis lab findings

answer

synovial WBCS >50,000

question

Gonococcal arthritis clinical presentation

answer

purulent arthritis or polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, dermatitis

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

lymphocytic infiltrate, sjogren syndrome

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

xerostomia, sjogren syndrome

question

identify the pathology

answer

septic arthritis

question

seronegative spondyloarthritis risk factors

answer

HLA B27

question

seronegative spondyloarthritis common clinical presentation

answer

inflammatory back pain, peripheral arthritis, enthesitis, dactylitis, uveitis

question

Psoriatic arthritis clinical presentation

answer

skin psoriasis, nail lesions, asymmetric patchy involvement, dactylitis, pencil in cup deformity

question

Ankylosing spondylitis clinical presentation

answer

symmetric spine/SI joint involvement, ankylosis, uveitis, aortic regurg

question

classic traid of reactive arthritis

answer

conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis

question

which pathogens are associated with reactive arthritis?

answer

shigella, salmonella, yersinia, chlamydia, campylobacter

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

dactylitis, psoriatic arthritis

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

pencil in cup deformity, psoriatic arthritis

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

bamboo spine, psoriatic arthritis

question

Ankylosing spondylitis copmlications

answer

restrictive lung disease

question

Systemic lupus erythematosus clinical presentation (classic)

answer

rash, joint, pain, fever

question

Libman-Sacks endocarditis (SLE complications)

answer

nonbacterial verrucous thrombi on mitral/aortic valve

question

Systemic lupus erythematosus complications

answer

Libman-Sacks endocarditis, nephritis, CV disease, infections

question

Systemic lupus erythematosus clinical presentation

answer

rash, arthritis, serositis, hematologic/renal/neurologic disorders, photosensitivity

question

Systemic lupus erythematosus lab findings

answer

ANA, anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith, antiphospholipid, decreased C3, C4, CH50

question

What does the presence of anti-dsDnA antibodies indicate? (SLE)

answer

poor prognosis due to renal disease

question

What does the presence of anti-histone antibodies indicate? (SLE)

answer

sensitive for drug induced SLE

question

Antiphospholipid syndrome pathogenesis

answer

anticardiolipin antibodes cause increased thrombosis, spontaneous abortion, false positive VDRL/RPR

question

Antiphospholipid syndrome laboratory findings

answer

lupus anticoagulant, anticardiolipin, anti-beta 2 glycoprotein antibdoesi

question

Antiphospholipid syndrome treatment

answer

anticoagulation

question

mixed connective tissue disease characteristics

answer

features of SLE, systemic sclerosis, polymyositis

question

mixed connective tissue disease lab findings

answer

anti-U1 RNP antibodies

question

Sarcoidosis pathogenesis

answer

immune mediated noncaseating granulomas

question

Sarcoidosis lab findings

answer

increased ACE, CD4/CD8 ratio in bronchoalveolar fluid

question

Sarcoidosis radiographic findings

answer

XR: b/l adenopathy, coarse reticular opacities, CT: extensive hilar/mediastinal adenopathy

question

Sarcoidosis complications

answer

restrictive lung disease, erythema nodosum, lupus pernio, bell's palsy, epithelioid granulomas, uveitis, hypercalcemia

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

malar rash, SLE

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

discoid rash, SLE

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

noncaseating granulomas, sarcoidosis

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

coarse reticular opacities, sarcoidosis

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

hilar/mediastinal adenopathy, sarcoidosis

question

polymyalgia rheumatica clinical presentation

answer

pain/stiffness in shoulders/hips, fever, malaise, weight loss, no weakness

question

polymyalgia rheumatica disease associations

answer

giant cell arteritis

question

polymyalgia rheumatica lab findings

answer

increased ESR, CRP, normal CK

question

polymyositis/dermatomyositis lab findings

answer

increased CK, + ANA, anti-Jo-1, anti-SRP, anti-Mi-2 antibodies

question

polymyositis/dermatomyositis treatment

answer

steroids, long term immunosuppression

question

Polymyositis clinical presentation

answer

progressive symmetric proximal muscle weakness, commonly involves shoulders

question

Polymyositis histologic morphology

answer

endomysial inflammation w/ CD8 T cells

question

Dermatomyositis clinical presentation

answer

polymyositis + malar rash, grotton papules, heliotrope rash

question

Dermatomyositis complications

answer

occult malignant

question

Dermatomyositis histologic morphology

answer

perimysial inflammation, atrophy w/ CD4 T cells

question

Myasthenia gravis pathogenesis

answer

autoantibodies to postsynaptic Ach receptor

question

Myasthenia gravis clincial presentation

answer

ptosis, diplopia, weakness, worse with use, better with edrophonium

question

Myasthenia gravis disease associations

answer

thymoma, thymic hyperplasia

question

Myasthenia gravis interaction with AchE inhibitor

answer

improves sx

question

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic syndrome pathogenesis

answer

autoantibodies to presynaptic Ca2+ channel, decreases Ach release

question

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic syndrome clinical presentation

answer

proximal muscle weakness, autonomic sx, improves with muscle use

question

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic syndrome disease associations

answer

small cell lung cancer

question

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic syndrome interaction with AchE inhibitors

answer

minimal effect

question

Raynaud phenomenon pathophysiology

answer

arteriolar vasospasm in response to cold/stress causes decreased skin blood flow, color change

question

difference between raynaud disease and raynaud syndrome

answer

disease=primary, syndrome=secondary

question

Raynaud syndrome (secondary) complciations

answer

digital ulceration

question

Raynaud disease/syndrome treatment

answer

calcium channel blocker

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

grotton's papules, dermatomyositis

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

heliotrope rash, dermatomyositis

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

shawl/face rash, dermatomyositis

question

identify the pathology

answer

Raynaud phenomenon

question

Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) pathogenesis

answer

autoimmun, noninflammatory vasculopathy, collagen deposition with fibrosis

question

Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) clinical presentation

answer

skin sclerosis causes puffy taut skin, fingertip pitting

question

Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) complications

answer

renal, pulmonary, CV, GI sclerosis causes death

question

Diffuse scleroderma disease severity

answer

widespread skin involvement, rapid progression, early visceral involvement

question

Limited scleroderma disease severity

answer

limited skin involvement, confined tin fingers, face

question

Diffuse scleroderma lab findings

answer

anti-Scl-70/DNA topoisomerase I antibody

question

CREST syndrome (acronym)

answer

calcinosis, Raynaud phenoemon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia

question

limited scleroderma/CREST syndrome lab findings

answer

anti-centromere antibody

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

puffy, taut skin, scleroderma

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

fingertip pitting, scleroderma

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

calcinosis, scleroderma/CREST syndrome

question

identify the layer indicated by C

answer

stratum corneum

question

identify the layer indicated by L

answer

stratum lucidum

question

identify the layer indicated by G

answer

stratum granulosum

question

identify the layer indicated by S

answer

stratum spinosum

question

identify the layer indicated by B

answer

stratum basale

question

tight junctions function

answer

prevents paracellular solute movement

question

tight junctions structural components

answer

claudins, occludins

question

Adherens junctions function

answer

forms belt that connects actin cytoskeletons of adjacent cells

question

Adherens junctions structural components

answer

Cadherins

question

Desmosomes function

answer

structural support

question

Desmosomes structural components

answer

intermediate filaments

question

Gap junctions function

answer

channel proteins that permit intercellular electrical/chemical communication

question

Gap junctions structural components

answer

connexons

question

Hemidesmosomes function

answer

connect keratin to basement membrane

question

Integrins function

answer

membrane proteins that bind collagen, laminin, maintain integrity of basement membrane

question

if autoantibodies target desmosomes, what disease does this cause?

answer

pemphigus vulgaris

question

if autoantibodies target hemidesmosomes, what disease does this cause?

answer

bullous pemphigoid

question

describe the lesion

answer

macule

question

describe the lesion

answer

patch

question

describe the lesion

answer

papule

question

describe the lesion

answer

plaque

question

describe the lesion

answer

vesicle

question

describe the lesion

answer

bulla

question

describe the lesion

answer

pustule

question

describe the lesion

answer

wheal

question

describe the lesion

answer

scale

question

describe the lesion

answer

crust

question

identify the pathology

answer

labial macule

question

identify the pathology

answer

congenital nevus

question

identify the pathology

answer

nevus

question

identify the pathology

answer

Psoriasis

question

identify the pathology

answer

shingles

question

identify the pathology

answer

bullous pemphigoid

question

identify the pathology

answer

pustular psoriasis

question

identify the pathology

answer

urticaria

question

identify the pathology

answer

squamous cell carcinoma

question

identify the pathology

answer

impetigo

question

Hyperkeratosis definition (dermatology)

answer

increased thickness of stratum corneum

question

parakeratosis definition (dermatology)

answer

hyperkeratosis w/ retention of nuclei in stratum corneum

question

Hypergranulosis definition (dermatology)

answer

increased stratum granulosum thickness

question

Spongiosis definition (dermatology)

answer

epidermal accumulation of edematous fluid in intercellular spaces

question

Acantholysis definition (dermatology)

answer

epidermal cell separation

question

Acanthosis definition (dermatology)

answer

epidermal hyperplasia, increased stratum spinosum thickness

question

What diseases involve hyperkeratotic lesions? (dermatology)

answer

psoriasis, calluses

question

What diseases involve parakeratotic lesions? (dermatology)

answer

psoriasis

question

What diseases involve hypergranulolitic lesions? (dermatology)

answer

lichen planus

question

What diseases involve spongiotic lesions? (dermatology)

answer

eczematous dermatitis

question

What diseases involve acantholytic lesions? (dermatology)

answer

pempigus vulgaris

question

What diseases involve acanthotic lesions? (dermatology)

answer

acanthosis nigricans

question

Albinism pathogenesis

answer

tyrosinase deficiency causes decreased melanin production, normal number of melanocytes

question

Albinism complications

answer

skin cancer

question

Melasma (cholasma) pathogenesis

answer

hyperpigmentation associated with pregnancy, OCPs

question

Vitiligo pathogenesis

answer

autoimmune melanocyte destruction causes irregular areas of complete depigmentation

question

identify the pathology

answer

albinism

question

identify the pathology

answer

melasma

question

identify the pathology

answer

vitiligo

question

Acne vulgaris pathogenesis

answer

increased sebum, androgens causes abnormal keratinocyte desquamation, infection causes inflammation

question

Atopic dermatitis clinical presentation

answer

pruritic eruption, typically on flexor creases, face in infancy

question

Atopic dermatitis lab findings

answer

increased IgE

question

Atopic dermatitis disease associations

answer

asthma, allergies

question

Allergic contact dermatitis pathogenesis

answer

type IV hypersensitivity, occurs at site of contact

question

Melanocytic nevus alternate name

answer

mole

question

Melanocytic nevus pathogenesis

answer

benign melanocyte tumor, can transform to atypical mole, melanoma

question

Psoriasis clinical presentation

answer

papules/plaques with silver scale, common on knees, elbows, Auspitz sign

question

Psoriasis histologic morphology

answer

acanthosis w/ parakeratotic scaling, munro microabscesses, large stratum spinosum, small stratum granulosum

question

Psoriasis disease associations

answer

nail pitting, psoriatic arthritis

question

Rosacea pathogenesis

answer

inflammation facial skin disorder

question

Rosacea clinical presentation

answer

erythematous papules/pustules, no comedones, possible facial flushing with external stimuli

question

Seborrheic keratosis pathogenesis

answer

flat greasy pigmented squamous epithelial proliferation, keratin filled cysts, benign neoplasm

question

Leser-Trelat sign

answer

sudden appearance of multiple seborrheic keratoses, indicates underlying malignancy

question

Verrucae pathogenesis

answer

warts due to HPV

question

Verrucae clinical presentation

answer

soft, tan, cauliflower liek papules

question

Verrucae histologic morphology

answer

epidermal hyperplasia, hyperkeratosis, koilocytosis

question

Urticaria pathogenesis

answer

pruritic wheals due to mast cell degranulation

question

Urticaria histologic morphology

answer

superficial dermal edema, lymphatic channel dilation

question

identify the pathology

answer

Acne vulgaris

question

identify the pathology

answer

atopic dermatitis

question

identify the pathology

answer

atopic dermatitis

question

identify the pathology

answer

allergic contact dermatitis

question

identify the pathology

answer

allergic contact dermatitis

question

identify the pathology

answer

papular intradermal nevus

question

identify the pathology

answer

junctional nevus

question

Identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

papules/plaques w/ silver scale, psoriasis

question

Identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

auspitz sign, psoriasis

question

identiy the pathology

answer

rosacea

question

Identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

horn cyst, seborrheic keratosis

question

identify the pathology

answer

leser-trelat sign

question

identify the pathology

answer

verrucae

question

Identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

condyloma acuminatum, HPV

question

identify he pathology

answer

urticaria

question

identify the pathology

answer

bacillary angiomatosis

question

identify the pathology

answer

cherry angioma

question

identify the pathology

answer

cystic hygroma

question

identify the pathology

answer

glomus tumur

question

identify the pathology

answer

pyogenic granuloma

question

identify the pathology

answer

strawberry hemangioma

question

Angiosarcoma typical distribution

answer

head, neck, breast

question

Angiosarcoma risk factors

answer

elderly, sun exposure, radaiation, chronic postmastectomy lymphedema

question

Hepatic Angiosarcoma risk factors

answer

vinyl chloride, aresenic

question

Angiosarcoma typical behavior

answer

very aggressive, difficult to resect

question

Bacillary angiomatosis clinical presentation

answer

benign capillary skin papules

question

Bacillary angiomatosis causative agent

answer

B. henselae, only in AIDS

question

Bacillary angiomatosis histologic morphology

answer

neutrophilic infiltrate

question

Cherry hemangioma pathogenesis

answer

benign capillary hemangioma, does not regress

question

cystic hygroma pathogenesis

answer

cavernous lymphangioma of neck

question

cystic hygroma disease associations

answer

turner syndrome

question

glomus tumor clinical presentation

answer

benign painful, red blue tumor, commonly under fingernails

question

glomus tumor pathogenesis

answer

tumor of modified SMCs of thermoregulatory glomus body

question

Kaposi sarcoma causative agent

answer

HHV8 in HIV+ patients

question

Kaposi sarcoma pathogenesis

answer

endothelial malignancy of skin, mouth, GI, respiratory tract

question

Kaposi sarcoma histologic morphology

answer

lymphocytic infiltrate

question

Pyogenic granuloma pathogenesis

answer

polypoid lobulated capillary hemangioma, can ulcerate/bleed

question

Pyogenic granuloma risk factors

answer

trauma, pregnancy

question

Strawberry hemangioma pathogenesis

answer

benign capillary hemangioma of infancy

question

Strawberry hemangioma clinical course/behavior

answer

appears in first few weeks of life, grows rapidly, regresses spontaneously

question

Impetigo pathogenesis

answer

strep/staph superficial skin infection, highly contageous

question

Impetigo clinical presentation

answer

honey colored crust

question

Bullous impetigo characteristics

answer

similar to Impetigo + bullae, due to S. aureus

question

Erysipelas pathogenesis

answer

upper dermal/superficial lymphatics infection due to S. pyogenes

question

Erysipelas clinical presentation

answer

well defined demarcation between infected/normal skin

question

Cellulitis pathogenesis

answer

acute painful spreading infection of deeper dermis/SQ, due to strep/staph

question

Cellulitis risk factors

answer

skin break/trauma

question

Abscess pathogenesis

answer

collectin of walled of infection/pus within deeper skin layers

question

Abscess most common causative agent

answer

S. aureus

question

Necrotizing fasciitis pathogenesis

answer

deeper tissue injury causes S. pyogenes/anaerobic infection, produces bullae, purple color

question

Necrotizing fasciitis clinical presentation

answer

pain out of proportion to exam, crepitus due to gas production

question

Hairy leukoplakia clinical presentation

answer

irregular white painless plaques on lateral tongue, cannot be scraped off

question

Hairy leukoplakia pathogenesis

answer

EBV mediated in immunosuppressed patients

question

identify the pathology

answer

impetigo

question

identify the pathology

answer

bullous impetigo

question

identify the pathology

answer

erysipelas

question

identify the pathology

answer

cellulitis

question

identify the pathology

answer

abscess

question

identify the pathology

answer

necrotizing fasciitis

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

Nikolsky sign, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

herpetic whitlow, HSV

question

identify the pathology

answer

molluscum contagiosum

question

identify the pathology

answer

hairy leukoplakia

question

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome pathogenesis

answer

S. aureus exotoxin destroys keratinocyte attachment, causes skin sloughing

question

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome clinical presentation

answer

fever, generalized erythematous rash, upper epidermal sloughing, no scarring, + nikolsky sign

question

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome risk factors

answer

neonates, children, renal insufficiency

question

Pemphigus vulgaris pathogenesis

answer

type II hypersensitivity: anti-desmoglein IgG destroys intracellular desmosomes, acantholysis

question

Pemphigus vulgaris

answer

flaccid intraepidermal bullae, + nikolsky sign, may involve oral mucosa

question

Nikolsky sign

answer

epidermis separates upon manual skin stroking

question

Pemphigus vulgaris immunofluorescence findings

answer

antibodies around epidermal cells in reticular pattern

question

Bullous pemphigoid pathogenesis

answer

type II hypersensitivity: anti-hemidesmosome IgG detaches epidermis from basement membrane

question

Bullous pemphigoid clinical presentation

answer

tense blisters w/ eosinphils, spares oral mucosa

question

Bullous pemphigoid immunosluorescence findings

answer

linear pattern of antibodies at epidermal-dermal junction

question

dermatitis herpetiformis clinical presentation

answer

pruritic papules, vesicles, bullae

question

dermatitis herpetiformis disease associations

answer

celiac disease

question

dermatitis herpetiformis immunofluorescence findings

answer

IgA deposits at tips of dermal papillae

question

dermatitis herpetiformis treatment

answer

dapsone, gluten free diet

question

Erythema multiforme disease associations

answer

infections, (M. pneumoniae, HSV) drugs (sulfa, beta lactam, phenytoin), cancer, autoimmunity

question

Erythema multiforme clinical presentation

answer

multiple types of lesions

question

Stevens-Johnson syndrome clinical presentation (early)

answer

fever, bullae formation, necrosis, skin sloughing, involves >2 mucous membranes

question

Stevens-Johnson syndrome clinical presentation (late)

answer

targetoid skin lesions

question

Stevens-Johnson syndrome typical etiology

answer

drug adverse effect

question

toxic epidermal necrolysis

answer

more severe form of SJS

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

flaccid bullae, pemphigus vulgaris

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

reticular pattern, pemphigus vulgaris

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

tense blisters, bullous pemphigoid

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

linear pattern, bullous pemphigoid

question

identify the pathology

answer

dermatitis herpetiformis

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

targetoid lesions, erythema multiforme

question

identify the pathology

answer

SJS involving mucous membranes

question

identify the pathology

answer

SJS involving mucous membranes

question

identify the pathology

answer

toxic epidermal necrolysis/SJS

question

identify the pathology

answer

toxic epidermal necrolysis/SJS

question

acanthosis nigricans pathogenesis

answer

epidermal hyperplasia causes symmetric skin thickening w/ hyperpigmentation

question

acanthosis nigricans typical distribution

answer

axilla, neck

question

acanthosis nigricans disease associations

answer

insulin resistance, visceral malignancy

question

Actinic keratosis pathogenesis

answer

premalignant lesions due to sun exposure

question

Actinic keratosis clinical presentation

answer

small rough erythematous/brown papules/plaques

question

Actinic keratosis complications

answer

squamous cell carcinoma risk

question

Erythema nodosum pathogenesis

answer

painful raised inflammatory lesions of SQ fat

question

Erythema nodosum disease associations

answer

Sarcoidosis, Cocci, histoplasma, TB, strep, leprosy, IBD

question

Lichen planus clinical presentation

answer

pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules

question

Lichen planus histologic morphology

answer

sawtooth lymphcytic infiltrate at dermal-epidermal junction

question

Lichen planus disease associations

answer

HCV

question

Pityriasis rosea clinical presentation

answer

herald patch followed by other scaly erythematous plaques, christmas tree distribution

question

Pityriasis rosea typical distrubiont

answer

trunk

question

Pityriasis rosea clinical course

answer

resolves in 6-8 weeks spontaneously

question

Sunburn pathogenesis

answer

acute cutaneous inflammatory reaction due to excess UV light

question

Sunburn complications

answer

skin cancer, impetigo

question

identify the pathology

answer

acanthosis nigricans

question

identify the pathology

answer

acanthosis nigricans

question

identify the pathology

answer

actinic keratosis

question

identify the pathology

answer

actinic keratosis

question

identify the pathology

answer

erythema nodosum

question

identify the pathology

answer

erythema nodosum

question

identify the pathology

answer

lichen planus

question

identify the pathology

answer

lichen planus

question

identify the pathology

answer

pityriasis rosacea

question

identify the pathology

answer

pityriasis rosacea

question

basal cell carcinoma typical distribution

answer

sun exposed areas, esp. face

question

basal cell carcinoma typical behavior

answer

locally invasive, rarely metastasizes

question

basal cell carcinoma clinical presentation

answer

waxy pink pearly nodules with telangiectasias, rolled borders, central crust/ulceration

question

basal cell carcinoma histologic morphology

answer

palisading nuclei

question

Squamous cell carcinoma risk factors

answer

excessive sunlight exposure, immunosuppression, chronicaly draining sinuses, arsenic exposure

question

Squamous cell carcinoma typical distribution

answer

face, lower lip, ears, hands

question

Squamous cell carcinoma typical behavior

answer

locally invasive, may spread to lymph nodes, rarely metastasizes

question

Squamous cell carcinoma clinical presentation

answer

ulcerative red lesions w/ scale

question

Squamous cell carcinoma histologic morphology

answer

keratin pearls

question

Keratoacanthoma characteristics

answer

squamous cell carcinoma variant, grows rapidly, then regresses spontaneously

question

Melanoma immunostaining characteristics

answer

S100

question

Melanoma risk factors

answer

sunlight, dysplastic nevi, light skin

question

Melanoma molecular pathogenesis

answer

BRAF mutation

question

Melanoma treatment

answer

excision, BRAF kinase inhibitors (vemurafenib)

question

identify the pathology

answer

basal cell carcinoma

question

identify the pathology

answer

ulcerated basal cell carcinoma

question

identify the pathology

answer

superficial BCC

question

identify the pathology

answer

BCC

question

identify the pathology

answer

squamous cell carcinoma

question

identify the pathology

answer

squamous cell carcinoma

question

identify the clinical finding and associated pathology

answer

squamous pearl, squamous cell carcinoma

question

identify the pathology

answer

keratoacanthoma

question

identify the pathology

answer

superficial spreading melanoma

question

identify the pathology

answer

nodular melanoma

question

identify the pathology

answer

lentigo maligna (melanoma)

question

identify the pathology

answer

acral lentiginous melanoma

Musculoskeletal, skin, connective tissue (USMLE First Aid) – Flashcards

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