question

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal? A) rifampins B) aminoglycosides C) cephalosporins D) penicillin E) polyenes

answer

E) polyenes

question

To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus? A) Streptomyces B) Cephalosporium C) Penicillium D) Paenibacillus E) Bacillus

answer

A) Streptomyces

question

In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because A) it undergoes lysis. B) its contents leak out. C) it plasmolyzes. D) it lacks a cell membrane. E) it lacks a cell wall.

answer

A) it undergoes lysis.

question

Lamisil is an allylamine used to treat dermatomycoses. Lamisil's method of action is similar to that of A) griseofulvin. B) bacitracin. C) polymyxin B. D) echinocandins. E) azole antibiotics

answer

E) azole antibiotics

question

In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike? A) Both are resistant to penicillinase. B) Both are resistant to stomach acids. C) Both are bactericidal. D) Both are based on Ά-lactam. E) Both are broad spectrum.

answer

D) Both are based on Ά-lactam.

question

Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? A) ethambutol N inhibits mycolic acid synthesis B) streptomycin N inhibits protein synthesis C) bacitracin N inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis D) vancomycin N inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis E) streptogramin N inhibits protein synthesis

answer

A) ethambutol N inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

question

Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? A) It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs. B) Two are always twice as effective as one. C) It can prevent drug resistance. D) It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis. E) All of these are advantages of using two antibiotics together.

answer

B) Two are always twice as effective as one

question

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A) competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis B) competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase C) inhibition of protein synthesis D) injury to plasma membrane E) inhibition of cell wall synthesis

answer

C) inhibition of protein synthesis

question

Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) it was the first antibiotic. B) it inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis. C) it does not affect eukaryotic cells. D) it kills bacteria. E) it has selective toxicity.

answer

A) it was the first antibiotic.

question

Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation; therefore, it would NOT affect A) human cells. B) fungi. C) protozoa. D) helminths. E) bacteria.

answer

E) bacteria.

question

Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections? 1. aminoglycosides 2. cephalosporins 3. griseofulvin 4. polyenes 5. bacitracin A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 3 and 4 C) 3, 4, and 5 D) 4 and 5 E) All of these antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections.

answer

B) 3 and 4

question

Which of the following antibiotics causes misreading of mRNA? A) chloramphenicol N inhibits peptide bonds at 50S subunit B) oxazolidinone N prevents formation of 70S ribosome C) aminoglycoside N changes shape of 30S units D) streptogamin N prevents release of peptide from 70S ribosome E) tetracyclines N bind with 30S subunit

answer

C) aminoglycoside N changes shape of 30S units

question

More than half of our antibiotics are A) produced by Fleming. B) produced by fungi. C) produced by eukaryotic organisms. D) produced by bacteria. E) synthesized in laboratories.

answer

D) produced by bacteria.

question

Which of the following drugs does NOT act by competitive inhibition? A) isoniazid B) streptomycin C) trimethoprim D) ethambutol E) sulfonamide

answer

B) streptomycin

question

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are A) chloramphenicol. B) aminoglycosides. C) penicillin G. D) tetracyclines. E) macrolides

answer

D) tetracyclines.

question

Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE? A) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. B) It may be carried on a plasmid. C) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. D) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug. E) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation

answer

C) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.

question

Which of the following antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? A) penicillin B) streptomycin C) chloramphenicol D) erythromycin E) tetracycline

answer

A) penicillin

question

The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with A) peptide bond formation. B) transcription. C) plasma membrane function. D) cellular respiration. E) translation.

answer

B) transcription.

question

Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A) fungi. B) viruses. C) bacteria. D) protozoa. E) All of the answers are correct.

answer

C) bacteria.

question

A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against A) fungi. B) mycobacteria. C) gram-positive bacteria. D) wall-less bacteria. E) gram-negative bacteria

answer

A) fungi.

question

Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells? A) antihelminthic drugs B) semisynthetic penicillins C) antiprotozoan drugs D) antifungal drugs E) nucleotide analogs

answer

B) semisynthetic penicillins

question

Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria? A) polymyxin B) cephalosporin C) bacitracin D) polyenes E) penicillin

answer

A) polymyxin

question

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A) polymyxin B) amphotericin B C) cephalosporin D) penicillin E) bacitracin

answer

B) amphotericin B

question

Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because A) their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells. B) they replicate inside human cells. C) they have more genes than bacteria. D) they do not reproduce. E) they do not have ribosomes

answer

A) their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells

question

Which of the following organisms would MOST likely be sensitive to natural penicillin? A) Penicillium B) penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) helminths E) Mycoplasma

answer

C) Streptococcus pyogenes

question

Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis? A) penicillin B) guanine C) uracil D) thymine E) flucytosine

answer

E) flucytosine

question

Antimicrobial peptides work by A) disrupting the plasma membrane. B) complementary base pairing with DNA. C) hydrolyzing peptidoglycan. D) inhibiting cell-wall synthesis. E) inhibiting protein synthesis.

answer

A) disrupting the plasma membrane.

question

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) monobactam B) cephalosporin C) streptomycin D) bacitracin E) penicillin

answer

C) streptomycin

question

Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE? A) They cause cellular plasmolysis. B) They are used against viral infections. C) They interfere with protein synthesis. D) They cause mutations. E) They can affect host cell DNA.

answer

A) They cause cellular plasmolysis.

question

Which of the following is mismatched? A) Florey and Chain - identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin B) Fleming - identification of penicillin C) Ehrlich - "magic bullet" theory D) Kirby and Bauer - disc-diffusion method E) None of these is mismatched.

answer

A) Florey and Chain - identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin

question

Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because A) bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics. B) the antibiotics persist in soil and water. C) the few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the antibiotics, which they pass on to their progeny. D) the antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in resistance to antibiotics. E) the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.

answer

E) the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.

question

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis? A) cephalosporins B) vancomycin C) macrolides D) natural penicillins E) semisynthetic penicillins

answer

C) macrolides

question

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B) gram-negative bacteria. C) gram-positive bacteria. D) viruses. E) helminths

answer

E) helminths

question

Drug resistance occurs A) when antibiotics are used indiscriminately. B) against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. C) when antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear. D) because bacteria are normal microbiota. E) All of the answers are correct.

answer

A) when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.

question

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis. B) Interferon inhibits glycolysis. C) Amantadine inhibits the release of viral nucleic acid. D) Azoles inhibit plasma membrane synthesis. E) Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis.

answer

B) Interferon inhibits glycolysis.

question

True or False: Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in syngerism because they display the same mode of action.

answer

False

question

True or False: An antibiotic that attacks the LPS layer would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of activity.

answer

True

question

True or False: Due to its target, rifamycins can be effective over a broad spectrum

answer

True

question

True or False: Phage therapy has been used in the past as an antiviral treatment.

answer

False

question

True or False: Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides

answer

False

question

True or False: Community-acquired MRSA is typically more virulent than health care-associated MRSA

answer

True

question

True or False: Undergrowth of fungi after antibiotic use is commonly referred to as a superinfection

answer

False

question

True or False: Both trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole inhibit reactions along the same metabolic pathway.

answer

True

question

True or False: Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection.

answer

True

question

True or False: PABA serves as the competitive inhibitor in the action of sulfanilamides.

answer

False

question

All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT A) rubella. B) measles. C) smallpox. D) tinea. E) chickenpox.

answer

D) tinea.

question

An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight-year-old have? A) scabies B) fever blisters C) measles D) rubella E) chickenpox

answer

E) chickenpox

question

Which of the following is a subcutaneous mycosis? A) athlete's foot. B) Buruli ulcer. C) tinea capitis. D) sporotrichosis. E) erysipelas

answer

D) sporotrichosis.

question

Which of the following is incorrectly matched? A) Neisseria gonorrhea — opthalmia neonatorum B) Chlamydia trachomatis — trachoma C) Haemophilus influenzae — pinkeye D) Pseudomonas — inclusion conjunctivitis E) Acanthamoeba — keratitis

answer

D) Pseudomonas — inclusion conjunctivitis

question

Newborns' eyes are treated with an antibiotic A) when Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the eyes. B) when the mother is blind. C) when the mother has genital herpes. D) when the mother has gonorrhea. E) as a routine precaution.

answer

E) as a routine precaution.

question

All of the following are causative agents of conjunctivitis EXCEPT A) Chlamydia trachomatis. B) herpes simplex. C) adenovirus. D) Haemophilus influenzae. E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

answer

B) herpes simplex.

question

Thrush and vaginitis are caused by A) Candida albicans. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) herpesvirus. D) Chlamydia trachomatis. E) Streptococcus pyogenes.

answer

A) Candida albicans.

question

Scabies is transmitted by A) fomites. B) soil. C) respiratory secretions. D) water. E) food.

answer

A) fomites

question

The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small eight-legged animals. The etiology is A) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Sarcoptes. C) Microsporum. D) Candida. E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

answer

B) Sarcoptes.

question

A 17-year-old boy has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by A) herpes simplex virus. B) Streptococcus pyogenes. C) Propionibacterium acnes. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Acanthamoeba.

answer

C) Propionibacterium acnes.

question

A possible complication of chickenpox is A) congenital rubella syndrome. B) fever blisters. C) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. D) macular rash. E) encephalitis.

answer

E) encephalitis.

question

Which of the following is used to treat shingles? A) fungicide B) trifluridine C) sulfonamide D) acyclovir E) penicillin

answer

E) penicillin

question

Which of the following statements about Reye syndrome is FALSE? A) It mostly affects older adults. B) Prolonged neurological problems may occur. C) Symptoms may include vomiting, drowsiness, or behavior changes. D) It is associated with aspirin use. E) It is a complication that may occur in chickenpox infection.

answer

A) It mostly affects older adults.

question

A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has A) chickenpox. B) rubella. C) smallpox. D) measles. E) mumps.

answer

A) chickenpox

question

Which of the following are incorrectly matched? A) parvovirus — fifth disease B) poxvirus — fever blisters C) herpes zoster — shingles D) varicella-zoster — chickenpox E) HHV-6 — roseola

answer

B) poxvirus — fever blisters

question

The eradication of smallpox was possible because A) it can be prevented with the same vaccine used to prevent chickenpox. B) there are no animal reservoirs of the virus. C) insect vectors were eliminated. D) it occurs only in the tropics. E) it was a relatively mild disease.

answer

B) there are no animal reservoirs of the virus

question

All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT A) production of pyocyanin. B) rod-shaped. C) gram-positive cell wall. D) growth in moist environments. E) resistance to many types of disinfectants and antibiotics.

answer

C) gram-positive cell wall.

question

In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles (rubella)? A) Encephalitis is a possible complication. B) Congenital complications may occur. C) They have a similar type of rash. D) They are caused by the same virus. E) They can be controlled by vaccination.

answer

E) They can be controlled by vaccination.

question

Which of the following is used to treat herpetic keratitis? A) trifluridine B) penicillin C) fungicide D) sulfonamide E) acyclovir

answer

A) trifluridine

question

Which of the following leads to all the others? A) toxemia B) staphylococcal infection C) sudden drop in blood pressure D) TSST-1 E) scalded skin syndrome

answer

B) staphylococcal infection

question

Buruli ulcer is caused by A) acid-fast bacteria. B) gram-positive bacteria. C) a mite. D) a fungus. E) a virus

answer

A) acid-fast bacteria.

question

The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings. The etiology is A) Mycobacterium ulcerans. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Candida. D) Microsporum. E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

answer

D) Microsporum.

question

Which of the following is used to treat sporotrichosis? A) potassium iodide B) trifluridine C) penicillin D) acyclovir E) sulfonamide

answer

A) potassium iodide

question

Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population? A) scalp B) armpits C) feet D) forearms E) All of these support similarly sized bacterial populations.

answer

B) armpits

question

Which of the following cause(s) ringworm? A) Microsporum B) Epidermophyton C) Mycobacterium D) Microsporum and Epidermophyton E) Microsporum, Epidermophyton, and Mycobacterium

answer

D) Microsporum and Epidermophyton

question

The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is A) pinkeye. B) trachoma. C) inclusion conjunctivitis. D) neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia. E) keratoconjunctivitis.

answer

B) trachoma.

question

Exfoliative toxin is responsible for A) fever blisters. B) scalded skin syndrome. C) otitis externa. D) thrush. E) impetigo.

answer

B) scalded skin syndrome.

question

Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of A) smallpox. B) chickenpox. C) measles. D) fifth disease. E) rubella

answer

C) measles.

question

Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis of the skin or mucous membranes? A) acyclovir B) miconazole C) trifluridine D) sulfonamide E) penicillin

answer

B) miconazole

question

A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to A) varicella-zoster virus. B) Streptococcus pyogenes. C) herpes simplex virus. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Candida albicans.

answer

A) varicella-zoster virus.

question

All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT A) Propionibacterium. B) Corynebacterium. C) Staphylococcus. D) Streptococcus. E) Micrococcus

answer

D) Streptococcus.

question

Why is vaccination for rubella recommended? A) It has a high mortality rate in school-age children. B) Death from secondary infections is common. C) Health care workers have a high incidence of infection. D) There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects. E) It is no longer recommended; rubella has been eradicated.

answer

D) There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects.

question

The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Sarcoptes. D) Microsporum. E) Candida.

answer

B) Staphylococcus aureus.

question

All of the following are protective factors of the skin and its secretions EXCEPT A) lysozyme production. B) tightly packed cells. C) keratin. D) salt. E) pyocyanin production.

answer

E) pyocyanin production.

question

Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT A) sties. B) acne. C) boils. D) carbuncles. E) pimples.

answer

B) acne.

question

Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE? A) It can be prevented by vaccinating women prior to pregnancy. B) It may be fatal to the unborn child. C) It does not occur with subclinical infections. D) It is contracted during the first trimester of pregnancy. E) It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation.

answer

C) It does not occur with subclinical infections.

question

Which of the following is NOT true of acne? A) Drugs that inhibit sebum formation are useful in treating inflammatory acne. B) Antibiotics may be prescribed for moderate cases. C) It is often due to the action of Propionibacterium. D) Mild cases are treated with topical agents. E) It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.

answer

E) It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.

question

Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and uses the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for A) conidiospores. B) pseudopods. C) a coagulase reaction. D) an acid-fast reaction. E) pseudohyphae.

answer

C) a coagulase reaction.

question

Warts are caused by A) papillomavirus. B) parvovirus. C) poxvirus. D) herpesvirus. E) Staphylococcus aureus.

answer

A) papillomavirus.

question

Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1? A) herpes whitlow B) cold sores C) canker sores D) herpes gladiatorum E) herpes encephalitis

answer

C) canker sores

question

Scabies is a skin disease caused by a A) protozoan. B) mite. C) slow virus. D) bacterium. E) prion.

answer

B) mite.

question

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Buruli ulcer N Mycobacterium B) otitis externa - Pseudomonas C) keratitis N Acanthamoeba D) conjunctivitis N Chlamydia trachomatis E) chickenpox N poxvirus

answer

E) chickenpox N poxvirus

question

A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by A) herpes simplex virus. B) Streptococcus pyogenes. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Candida albicans. E) varicella-zoster virus.

answer

D) Candida albicans.

question

All of the following are characteristic of the Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci EXCEPT A) hyaluronidase production. B) the ability to dissolve blood clots. C) the ability to damage cell membranes. D) methicillin resistance. E) M proteins

answer

D) methicillin resistance.

question

Which of the following is likely to spread MRSA among athletes? A) taping gels B) whirlpool baths C) physical contact D) shared equipment E) All of the answers are correct.

answer

E) All of the answers are correct.

question

True or False: The normal flora of the skin is predominantly gram-negative rods

answer

False

question

True or False: Candidiasis often occurs following antibiotic therapy for bacterial infections

answer

True

question

True or False: The abbreviation "GAS" refers to pathogenic strains of Staphylococcus.

answer

False

question

True or False: Pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands

answer

True

question

True or False: Blue-green pus is characteristic of Pseudomonas wound infections

answer

True

question

True or False: The varicella-zoster virus is the causative agent of chickenpox and shingles.

answer

True

question

True or False: Infection with Pediculus humanus is called scabies

answer

False

question

True or False: The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive.

answer

False

question

True or False: Haemophilus influenzae is the most common bacterial cause of pinkeye.

answer

True

question

True or False: Acanthamoeba infections are usually transmitted via insects.

answer

False

question

Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE? A) Hydrophobia is associated with the disease. B) Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques. C) Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs. D) Average incubation period is 30 to 50 days after initial infection. E) It is caused by Lyssavirus.

answer

C) Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs.

question

On June 30, a 47-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness, blurred vision, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, and nausea. Examination revealed facial paralysis. The patient had partially healed superficial knee wounds incurred while laying cement. He reported eating home-canned green beans and stew containing roast beef and potatoes 24 hours before onset of symptoms. The patient should be treated with A) antibiotics. B) surgery. C) antitoxin. D) supportive care, including respiratory assistance. E) vaccination

answer

D) supportive care, including respiratory assistance.

question

All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT A) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly. B) it is also known as "sleeping sickness." C) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts. D) death ultimately occurs without proper treatment. E) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the more common cause of disease.

answer

C) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.

question

All of the following organisms are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT A) Listeria monocytogenes. B) Haemophilus influenzae. C) Cryptococcus neoformans. D) Neisseria meningitidis. E) None of the answers is correct; all of these organisms are transmitted by the respiratory route.

answer

A) Listeria monocytogenes.

question

All of the following are acquired by ingestion EXCEPT A) listeriosis. B) botulism. C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. D) cryptococcosis. E) poliomyelitis.

answer

D) cryptococcosis.

question

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism? A) Streptococcus B) Listeria C) Naegleria D) Haemophilus E) Neisseria

answer

B) Listeria

question

Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because A) antibiotics damage nervous tissue. B) the infections move along peripheral nerves. C) no medications exist for treatment of these infections. D) it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe. E) many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood—brain barrier.

answer

E) many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood—brain barrier.

question

The prodromal symptom(s) of bacterial meningitis is/are A) mild cold symptoms. B) fever and headache. C) stiff neck and back pains. D) convulsions. E) fever, headache, and stiff neck.

answer

A) mild cold symptoms.

question

Which of the following is a free-living amoeba that can cause encephalitis? A) Acanthamoeba B) Entamoeba C) Naegleria D) Naegleria and Acanthamoeba E) Entamoeba and Naegleria

answer

D) Naegleria and Acanthamoeba

question

Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is A) tetanus immune globulin. B) tetanus toxoid. C) debridement. D) none; no action is necessary. E) penicillin.

answer

A) tetanus immune globulin.

question

Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________. A) encephalitis; mosquitoes B) meningitis; exposure to certain trees C) encephalitis; exposure to certain trees D) meningitis; mosquitoes E) both meningitis and encephalitis; mosquitoes

answer

A) encephalitis; mosquitoes

question

All of the following are associated with botulism outbreaks EXCEPT A) type B toxin is most virulent. B) Alaskan natives have the highest rate of botulism. C) type E toxin is associated with seafood. D) endospores of C. botulinum have been recovered from honey. E) antibodies are not an effective method of treatment.

answer

B) Alaskan natives have the highest rate of botulism

question

Which of the following is treated with antibiotics? A) streptococcal pneumonia B) botulism C) polio D) tetanus E) All of these diseases can be successfully treated with antibiotics.

answer

A) streptococcal pneumonia

question

Which one of the following causes the most severe illness in humans, with a mortality rate of 30 percent? A) western equine encephalitis B) West Nile encephalitis C) eastern equine encephalitis D) California encephalitis E) St. Louis encephalitis

answer

C) eastern equine encephalitis

question

The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is A) treatment of uninfected humans. B) elimination of the mosquito population. C) treatment of infected humans. D) avoidance of endemic areas. E) treatment of infected wild animals.

answer

B) elimination of the mosquito population.

question

All of the following are true of M. leprae EXCEPT A) it survives ingestion by macrophages. B) it invades cells of the PNS. C) it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours. D) it grows best at temperatures below 37° C. E) it can be cultured in armadillos.

answer

C) it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours.

question

A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy. What was the cause of death? A) meningococcal meningitis B) Hansen's disease C) poliomyelitis D) rabies E) eastern equine encephalitis

answer

D) rabies

question

The symptoms of tetanus are due to A) systemic infection. B) sustained relaxation of muscles. C) endospore formation. D) tetanospasmin. E) inflammation.

answer

D) tetanospasmin.

question

Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT A) sheep scrapie. B) bovine spongiform encephalopathy. C) kuru. D) rabies. E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

answer

D) rabies.

question

Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE? A) It is a gram-positive anaerobe. B) Its most distinguishing feature is a unique rash. C) It is typically transmitted by droplet aerosols or direct contact with secretions. D) It is encapsulated. E) A healthy carrier state can exist.

answer

A) It is a gram-positive anaerobe.

question

All of the following microorganisms can directly cause meningitis EXCEPT A) virus. B) bacteria. C) fungi. D) mosquitoes. E) protozoa.

answer

D) mosquitoes.

question

A one-year-old boy was listless, irritable, and sleepy. Capsulated Gram-negative rods were cultured from his cerebrospinal fluid. His symptoms were caused by A) Clostridium tetani. B) Neisseria meningitidis. C) a prion. D) rabies. E) Haemophilus influenzae.

answer

E) Haemophilus influenzae.

question

Initial treatment for tetanus in a fully immunized person with a puncture wound is A) debridement. B) tetanus toxoid. C) DTaP. D) tetanus immune globulin. E) penicillin.

answer

B) tetanus toxoid.

question

All of the following organisms are correctly matched to the recommended treatment EXCEPT A) Mycobacterium leprae — dapsone. B) poliovirus — amphotericin B. C) Cryptococcus neoformans — amphotericin B. D) Haemophilus influenzae — cephalosporins. E) Neisseria meningitidis — cephalosporins.

answer

B) poliovirus — amphotericin B.

question

Which of the following vaccines can cause the disease it is designed to prevent? A) Haemophilus influenzae capsule vaccine B) inactivated polio vaccine C) tetanus toxoid vaccine D) oral polio vaccine E) meningococcal capsule vaccine

answer

D) oral polio vaccine

question

A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Any of the following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT A) Clostridium botulinum. B) Haemophilus influenza. C) Streptococcus pneumoniae. D) Listeria monocytogenes. E) Any of these organisms could be the causative agent

answer

A) Clostridium botulinum.

question

All of the following diseases are caused by arbovirus EXCEPT A) primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). B) St. Louis encephalitis. C) eastern equine encephalitis. D) West Nile encephalitis. E) None of the answers is correct; all of these diseases are caused by arbovirus.

answer

A) primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).

question

Vaccination is available for all the following EXCEPT A) tetanus. B) rabies. C) botulism. D) Neisseria meningitis. E) Haemophilus meningitis

answer

C) botulism

question

Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis is commonly acquired by A) mosquito bites. B) exposure to body fluids of a contaminated individual. C) ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material. D) exposure to bird droppings. E) swimming in warm ponds or streams.

answer

E) swimming in warm ponds or streams.

question

All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT A) initial sites of viral replication are the throat and small intestine. B) the oral polio vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus. C) the majority of cases are asymptomatic. D) infection is due to ingestion of contaminated water. E) most cases result in muscle paralysis.

answer

E) most cases result in muscle paralysis.

question

All of the following are true of chronic fatigue syndrome EXCEPT A) it is also known as myalgic encephalomyelitis. B) it may be triggered by a viral infection. C) it is a psychological disorder. D) it may have a genetic component. E) it often begins with flu-like symptoms that do not go away

answer

C) it is a psychological disorder.

question

The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through A) the gastrointestinal system. B) the circulatory system. C) the skin. D) direct penetration into nerves. E) the parenteral route

answer

B) the circulatory system.

question

Patients with leprosy usually die from complications such as A) brain damage. B) pneumonia. C) cardiac arrest. D) tuberculosis. E) loss of nerve function.

answer

D) tuberculosis.

question

A physician diagnoses a patient with lepromatous Hansen's disease. All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT A) the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage. B) disfiguring nodules form all over the body. C) a skin biopsy will be taken to aid diagnosis. D) treatment will include injections of penicillin. E) infection probably occurred as a result of prolonged contact with another infected individual

answer

D) treatment will include injections of penicillin.

question

Diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by A) direct fluorescent-antibody test. B) Gram stain. C) passive agglutination. D) patient's death. E) patient's symptoms.

answer

A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.

question

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Cryptococcus neoformans — acid-fast rod B) Naegleria fowleri — causes amoebic encephalitis C) Haemophilus influenzae — virulence due to capsule D) Mycobacterium leprae — cultured in armadillos E) Neisseria meningitidis —produces deadly endotoxins

answer

A) Cryptococcus neoformans — acid-fast rod

question

On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies was diagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold 34 kittens. Approximately 1000 people responded to health care providers following local media alerts. These people were given A) human diploid cell vaccine. B) antibiotics. C) antiviral medications. D) immune globulin injections. E) postexposure prophylaxis.

answer

E) postexposure prophylaxis.

question

All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT A) Neisseria meningitidis. B) Haemophilus influenzae. C) Cryptococcus neoformans. D) Mycobacterium leprae. E) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

answer

D) Mycobacterium leprae.

question

Which of the following statements about leprosy is FALSE? A) Patients with leprosy must be isolated. B) The etiologic agent is acid-fast. C) Diagnosis is based on skin biopsy. D) It is transmitted by direct contact. E) It is rarely fatal.

answer

A) Patients with leprosy must be isolated.

question

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) meningococcal meningitis N respiratory route B) listeriosis N ingestion C) leprosy N direct contact D) poliomyelitis N respiratory route E) rabies N direct contact

answer

D) poliomyelitis N respiratory route

question

Encephalitis is more common in the summer months because A) pathogens are present in swimming pools and lakes. B) people encounter more bats during warm summer evenings. C) ticks are encountered while hiking in the woods. D) ameba populations increase in swimming pools. E) mosquito populations increase

answer

E) mosquito populations increase

question

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) rabies virus N destroys cells of the CNS B) leprosy N deformation of nose and hands can occur C) poliomyelitis N multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine D) botulism N stimulates transmission of nerve impulse E) tetanus N releases potent neurotoxin

answer

D) botulism N stimulates transmission of nerve impulse

question

A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms? A) check serum antibodies B) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid C) Gram stain of throat culture D) biopsy of brain tissue E) None of these would provide rapid identification.

answer

B) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid

question

An eight-year-old girl in rural Wisconsin has chills, headache, and fever and reports having been bitten by mosquitoes. How would you confirm your diagnosis? A) brain biopsy for Negri bodies B) examination of local mosquitoes C) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid D) complement fixation test for IgG antibodies E) ELISA test for IgM antibodies

answer

E) ELISA test for IgM antibodies

question

True or False: Cryptococcus neoformans is a gram-negative cocci with a thick capsule

answer

False

question

True or False: Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus and typically leads to paralysis in those affected

answer

False

question

True or False: Botulism and tetanus are caused by bacterial endospores commonly found in the soil.

answer

True

question

True or False: Viral meningitis is much more common than bacterial meningitis and tends to cause a milder form of disease.

answer

True

question

True or False: Lifelong immunity is conferred once an individual has had botulism and recovered

answer

False

question

True or False: The number of leprosy cases in the United States is gradually increasing.

answer

True

question

True or False: CSF contains high levels of complement and circulating antibodies to prevent infection of the brain and spinal cord.

answer

False

question

True or False: Autopsy of a stillborn fetus reveals the cause of death to be meningitis. The likely pathogen is Haemophilus influenza

answer

False

question

True or False: The most common host of the virus causing eastern equine encephalitis is horses.

answer

True

question

True or False: If a normal protein typically found on the surface of nervous tissue cells comes into contact with an abnormally folded protein, it can lead to prion-related disease.

answer

True

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