Home Page Science Biology Microbiology Microbiology Final Mastering 12/08/2012 - Flashcards

Microbiology Final Mastering 12/08/2012 – Flashcards

Millie Miller

7 July 2022

question

Robert Hooke's observation of the individual units in thin layers of cork tissue led to the development of __________ theory.

answer

cell

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Lister knew that carbolic acid (phenol) kills bacteria. He used it as the first __________.

answer

disinfectant

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The protection from disease provided by vaccination is called __________.

answer

immunity

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The __________ are unicellular, eukaryotic microbes that move by pseudopods, flagella, or cilia.

answer

protozoa

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__________ involves the ability afforded by genetic engineering to insert a missing gene or replace a defective gene in a human cell.

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Gene therapy

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Microbes are responsible for: synthesis of vitamins breaking down wastes synthesis of acetone and alcohol oxygen generation via photosynthesis All of the above

answer

All

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An exposure to ________ protects against infection with smallpox.

answer

cowpox

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All life can be classified into three domains ________.

answer

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

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Which of the following properties are true of both bacteria and viruses? Both have cell walls composed of peptidoglycan. Both can replicate independently. Both contain DNA and RNA. Both are surrounded by a protein coat. Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity.

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Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity.

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Mad cow disease is caused by a prion, which is an infectious ________.

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protein

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Which of the following is a scientific name?

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Legionella pneumophila

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Which of the following fields of study and its example are not correctly matched? parasitology; study of HIV mycology; study of athlete's foot immunology; study of vaccines bacteriology; study of E. coli O157:H7

answer

parasitology; study of HIV

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In the scientific name, Escherichia coli, Escherichia is the ________.

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genus

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Which of the following types of microorganism and its description is not correctly matched? helminthes; multicellular animals bacteria; prokaryotic fungi; eukaryotic protozoa; small animals

answer

protozoa; small animals

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All of the following are examples of biotechnology except ________. bread making with bacteria and fungi enzyme production by bacteria and fungi bacteria that cause disease antibiotic production by bacteria

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bacteria that cause disease

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Examples of fungi include the yeasts, molds, and mushrooms.

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True

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Flagella are appendages that allow locomotion in bacteria.

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True

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E. coli O157:H7 is part of the normal microbiota in the human large intestine.

answer

False

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The avian influenza A virus is transmitted only between birds.

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False

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The vast majority of microbes are harmful to humans or plants.

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False

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The __________ of a compound light microscope focuses light from the light source on the specimen.

answer

condenser

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Which of the following is the most convenient and appropriate unit for expressing the size of an average bacterial cell?

answer

micrometer

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All of the following are visible through a compound light microscope except ________.

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0.02-Âµm ribosome

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Bacterial motility and flagellar movement can readily be viewed using transmission electron microscopy.

answer

False

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A __________ is equal to 0.000001 m.

answer

micrometer

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Acid-fast Mycobacteria differ from non-acid-fast bacteria by the presence of ________.

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carbol fuchsin waxy material in their cell wall

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When stained, bacteria in the genus Mycobacterium are __________.

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acid-fast

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When using a 10X ocular lens and a 40X objective, the total magnification achieved is

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400X

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Which of the following is not a modification of a compound microscope?

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electron microscope

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Flagella are too __________ to be seen with the light microscope without adding a mordant.

answer

small

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Immersion oil acts to decrease refraction of light rays and thus increase resolution.

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True

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In the Gram stain, if the decolorizing step is deleted, gram-negative cells will appear ________ at the completion of the staining procedure.

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purple

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Magnification is the quality of the microscope that allows one to distinguish between two points that are very close together.

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False

question

Place these structures of the compound light microscope in the order that light passes through them on the way to the observer's eyes: (1) condenser, (2) ocular lens, (3) illuminator, (4) specimen, (5) objective lens.

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(3) illuminator, (1) condenser, (4) specimen, (5) objective lens, (2) ocular lens.

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Bacterial smears must be heat-fixed before all staining procedures.

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False

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The ________ charge of a basic dye adheres to the ________ charge of bacterial cell surfaces.

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positive; ......negative

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The __________ is the part of the microscope that controls the amount of light entering the condenser.

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diaphragm

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The Gram stain is important in medical microbiology because the results help physicians select appropriate antibiotics for treatment.

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True

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Which of the following kinds of microscopy would be most appropriate for viewing the shape and arrangement of pili or fimbriae on the surface of a bacterial cell?

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scanning electron microscopy

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Which of the following types of microscopy is most useful for viewing the internal structures of unstained specimens?

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phase-contrast

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You are viewing a sputum smear that has been stained with an acid-fast stain. On this smear you see 5-Âµm- long red cells. You can conclude that ________.

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there are acid-fast bacteria in the specimen

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Consider a gram-positive cell in a hypertonic medium. If the peptidoglycan were damaged, the cell would __________.

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shrink/plasmolyze/collapse

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The motility of bacteria with flagella occurs through a series of "runs" and __________.

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tumbles

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The term describing bacteria with flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell is __________.

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Peritrichous

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Endoplasmic reticulum that has ribosomes attached to its outer surface is referred to as __________.

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rough ER

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Chemotaxis refers to the ability of microorganisms to ________.

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move toward or away from chemical stimuli

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All of the following are found in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria except ________.

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lipid A

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Gram-negative cells contain a periplasmic space that is ________.

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rich in degradative enzymes

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All of the following are true of the gram-negative outer membrane except:

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It contains enzymes for energy synthesis.

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A population of bacterial cells has been placed in a very nutrient-poor environment with extremely low concentrations of sugars and amino acids. Which kind of membrane transport becomes crucial in this environment?

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active transport

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Spherical shaped bacteria that divide and remain attached in chainlike patterns are called ________.

answer

streptococci

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Which of the following statements about a gram-negative cell wall is not true?

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It has teichoic acids.

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Which of the following processes requires energy?

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active transport

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Which of the following bacterial structures are necessary for chemotaxis?

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flagella

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Endospores are:

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Endospores are extremely durable structures that can survive high temperatures.

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The plane in which a bacterial cell divides determines the arrangement of cells.

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True

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The cell membrane is a fluid structure that allows membrane proteins to move freely.

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True

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Acid-fast bacteria demonstrate unique staining properties because of a special protein layer found in their cell walls.

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False

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Penicillin is more effective against gram-negative bacteria than gram-positive bacteria because it specifically interferes with the synthesis of lipopolysaccharide.

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False

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The endosymbiotic theory states that eukaryotic organelles evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes living within other prokaryotes.

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True

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Biological oxidations are also called __________ reactions.

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dehydrogenation

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At the completion of the Krebs cycle, the carbons from glucose are in __________. (name the molecule)

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carbon dioxide

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At the completion of aerobic respiration, energy has been formed. The energy from the oxidation of glucose is stored in __________?

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ATP

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__________ involves an inhibitor that fills the active site of an enzyme and competes with the normal substrate for the active site. (two words)

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competitive inhibition

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For every NADH that is oxidized via the electron transport chain, __________ ATP are formed.

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three

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All of the following pairs are correctly matched except ________.

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oxidation; reaction where electrons are gained

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Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves ________.

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competition with the substrate for binding at the active site

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During glycolysis, electrons from the oxidation of glucose are transferred to ________.

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NAD+

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Streptococcus bacteria lack an electron transport chain. How many molecules of ATP can a Streptococcus cell net from one molecule of glucose?

answer

question

Unlike eukaryotes, in prokaryotes chemiosmosis ________.

answer

occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria

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The chemical reactions involved in synthesizing proteins and cell wall peptidoglycan are examples of ________ reactions.

answer

anabolic

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For a cell, which of the following compounds has the greatest amount of energy per molecule?

answer

acetyl CoA pyruvate

question

The complete oxidation of glucose typically involves which three stages?

answer

glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain

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Which of the following mechanisms does not generate ATP using an electron transport chain?

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substrate-level phosphorylation

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Which of the following are products of the light-dependent reactions, on which the light-independent reactions are dependent?

answer

ATP and NADPH

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Enzymes work most effectively at their optimal temperature and pH.

answer

True

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Feedback inhibition generally acts on the last enzyme in an anabolic pathway.

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False

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Glycolysis produces ATP through substrate phosphorylation.

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True

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The synthesis of sugars by using carbon atoms from CO2 gas is called carbon fixation.

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True

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Lipids, proteins, and sugars all may serve as substrates of glycolysis.

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False

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The ability of microbes to utilize N2 as a nitrogen source is called __________.

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nitrogen fixation

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Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the __________ of bacterial cells.

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number

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An unknown organism grows at the top of a tube of thioglycolate broth. This organism is best described as a/an __________ for its oxygen requirements.

answer

aerobe

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Salt agar tends to inhibit the growth of most organisms, except Staphylococcus. This is an example of a/an __________ media.

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selective

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In a/an __________, cells are added to melted agar and poured into a petri dish. (2 words)

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pour plate

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Bacteria require nitrogen for the synthesis of ________.

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proteins

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What do all of these bacteria have in common? Bacteria in the rumen of cattle and sheep Bacteria in a sewage treatment plant Bacteria growing in the middle ear in chronic otitis media Bacteria growing on the teeth in dental plaque

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The bacteria are most likely growing in biofilms.

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An organism that grows both in the presence and the absence of oxygen and uses oxygen when it is available is called a/an ________.

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facultative anaerobe

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A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart extract is a/an ________.

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complex medium

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Niacin, when added to a medium, would be considered a/an Bacteria growing in and on the human body, including normal microbiota as well as pathogens, are classified as ________.

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organic growth factor mesophilic and heterotrophic

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Martian soil is inoculated into a glucose-containing medium. The radioactive form of carbon, 14C, is used in the glucose. After incubation for five days, which of the following would provide evidence suggesting that there is life on Mars?

answer

radioactive carbon dioxide

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A medium containing lauryl sulfate inhibits growth of gram-positive bacteria. This medium is ________.

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selective

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To look for bacteria that degrade petroleum, a culture medium containing crude oil, sodium nitrate, phosphate buffer, and magnesium sulfate is inoculated with soil. This medium is ________.

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complex

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The following steps occur during binary fission. What is the third step?

answer

inward growth of membrane After DNA replication and cell elongation, the membrane will grow inward between the two newly formed cells.

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Which biosafety level is described as follows? (open laboratory benchtop, gloves, lab coat, and face/eye protection)

answer

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Psychrotrophic organisms are often responsible for food spoilage in refrigerated foods.

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True

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Adding salts to a solution increases osmotic pressure and is used to preserve food.

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True

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Microaerophiles do not require oxygen for growth.

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False

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Aerotolerant organisms can grow in the presence of oxygen because their cell wall protects them from toxic products of oxygen.

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False

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In a direct microscopic count, dead cells are easily differentiated from live cells.

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False

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__________ has little value as an antiseptic but is important in the mechanical removal of microbes.

answer

soap

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Oxidizing agents, such as hydrogen peroxide, are useful for irrigating deep wounds where released oxygen will inhibit the growth of __________.

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anaerobic bacteria

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__________ bacteria may survive pasteurization.

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Thermoduric, Endospore-forming, Heat resistant

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Operating rooms may receive ventilation from air that has passed through __________ filters to remove microorganisms.

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high-efficiency particulate air HEPA

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__________ ammonium compounds are less effective against gram-negative bacteria and more effective against gram-positive bacteria.

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Quaternary

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Sterilization is the ________.

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destruction of all life-forms

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An antiseptic Degerming is used to remove microbes from ________.

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skin, before an injection

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Which of the following infectious agents challenges current sterilization strategies that have been accepted and in use for decades?

answer

prions

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Some antimicrobial treatments kill microbes; some inhibit growth. Which term refers to an agent that inhibits bacterial growth?

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bacteriostatic

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Which of the following is not a major target for action of antimicrobials?

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flagella

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You discover a compound that you suspect reduces spoilage in fruit. You treat apples with your compound and inoculate them with Botrytis, a common spoilage fungus. After seven days the dry weight of fungi on the treated apples is 5 mg and 10 mg on the untreated apples. You conclude from these results that ________. All of the following methods are used for food preservation except ________.

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Since the treatment appears to have slowed fungal growth, we can say that it is fungistatic.

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Decimal reduction time is the time in minutes in which ________ of the population at a given temperature will be killed.

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Decimal reduction time (DRT) is the time it takes with a particular treatment to kill 90% of the microbes.

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Which of these conditions is likely to interfere with the effectiveness of an antiseptic or disinfectant?

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presence of biofilms

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Which one of these substances is effective against bacterial endospores?

answer

chlorine bleach

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Which of these chemicals is not an oxidizing agent? Some microbes are very resistant to antimicrobial chemicals. Which of the following would be the easiest to kill?

answer

Triclosan E. coli

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Most viruses are highly resistant to disinfectants and antiseptics.

answer

False

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The presence of organic matter, such as blood or saliva, may impair the action of antimicrobial chemicals.

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True

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Ethylene oxide gas is used to sterilize medical equipment that might be damaged by exposure to the heat of autoclaving.

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True

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Iodine is one of the least effective antimicrobial chemicals, effective only against certain very sensitive strains of bacteria.

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False

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Soap is ineffective in killing bacteria. Therefore, hand washing is a rather ineffective measure in preventing disease transmission.

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False

question

To begin transcription, the RNA polymerase binds a region on DNA known as the __________.

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promoter

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Genes whose products are produced constantly are __________.

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constitutive

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Small stretches of DNA that can move within a genome are referred to as __________.

answer

transposons

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Most amino acids are encoded by several different codons. This is referred to as the __________ of the genetic code.

answer

degeneracy

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The transfer of genetic information between organisms through processes such as transduction or conjugation is called __________ gene transfer.

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horizontal

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All of these statements are true of plasmids except:

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They are essential for survival of the organism in most situations.

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Consider the polypeptide sequence encoded by the following DNA: TACAAAGAAATT If base number 6 is changed to G, how will this affect the polypeptide?

answer

There will be no change in the polypeptide.

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In E. coli, Hfr cells ________. All of these statements are true of base substitutions except ________.

answer

can pass main chromosome genes to a recipient cell Mutations rarely involve base substitutions.

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Which of these statements is true about transduction?

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A virus is required for transfer of genetic material.

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In the lac operon of E. coli, ________.

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the repressor protein binds to the operator in the absence of lactose

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Which one of the following is a method of vertical gene transmission?

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cell division

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Which of the following requires cell-to-cell contact?

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conjugation

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All of these statements are true about DNA replication except:

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Only one strand of the parent DNA serves as a template for a newly synthesized complementary strand.

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The major source of the genetic diversity among microorganisms upon which natural selection operates is ________.

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mutation

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Which one of the following would be the most likely to yield a recombinant cell after mating? Which of these statements is not true of translation?

answer

Hfr cell and F- cell Each amino acid is coded for by a single codon.

question

In prokaryotes, translation of an mRNA molecule can begin before transcription of the mRNA molecule is completed.

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True

question

Codons of mRNA temporarily bond to anticodons of tRNA during translation.

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True

question

Mutations are always harmful to cells.

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False

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Hfr cells transfer genes to recipient cells in a particular order. The term phenotype is used to describe all of the organism's genetic information.

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False

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In E. coli, the presence of lactose is necessary and sufficient for induction of the lactose-utilization genes. Mutations are always harmful to cells.

answer

False

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For the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus, the word Staphylococcus is the genus name and aureus is the __________. (2 words)

answer

specific epithet

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The process of using restriction enzymes to create DNA fragments that can be separated by electrophoresis and compared is known as __________. (2 words)

answer

DNA fingerprinting

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Bergey's Manual includes information on two domains: bacteria and __________.

answer

Archaea

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A map that shows the evolutionary relationships of organisms among organisms is the __________.

answer

cladogram

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A test that determines which phages a bacterium is susceptible to is called __________. (2 words)

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phage-typing

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Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Archaea?

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cause disease in humans

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Members of the Kingdom Fungi are ________.

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either unicellular or multicellular

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Which of the following is in the correct order?

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Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

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A key difference between classification methods and identification methods is that classification methods are designed to ________.

answer

determine evolutionary relationships of organisms

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Which of the following is not true for the slide agglutination test?

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The absence of agglutination indicates that the antibody reacted with the antigen. This technique identifies signature rRNA sequences of microbes.

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All of the following are characteristics of prokaryotesexcept ________.

answer

use mitosis

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The evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called a ________.

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phylogeny

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Which pair of organisms are the most closely related?

answer

Amanita fungus-human

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Which kingdom includes multicellular organisms with organelles containing a single circular chromosome, 70S ribosomes, and chlorophyll?

answer

Plantae

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Which of the following is an appropriate definition for a prokaryotic species?

answer

a population of cells with similar characteristics including structure, morphology, biochemical reactions, surface antigens, and rRNA

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Gram stains alone can be used to identify bacteria.

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False

question

Microorganisms must be cultured before they can be identified.

answer

False

question

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are collectively referred to as __________.

answer

granulocytes

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The process of coating bacteria with serum proteins to promote attachment of phagocytes is called __________.

answer

opsonization

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Complement components C5 through C9 form plasma membrane channels in cellular microbes referred to as the __________.

answer

membrane attack complex MAC

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When blood cells are removed from blood, the remaining liquid is referred to as __________.

answer

serum

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Body temperature, which can change because of infection, is controlled by a region of the brain known as the __________.

answer

hypothalamus

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The epidermis ________.

answer

contains the protein keratin

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The ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. One reason for this is because gnotobiotic cells would not be protected by ________.

answer

microbial antagonism

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The etiologic agent of fever blisters is __________.

answer

Human herpesvirus 1 Herpes simplex virus

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Scabies is a skin disease caused by a/an __________.

answer

mite

question

Infection with __________ causes a disease that closely resembles smallpox.

answer

monkeypox

question

A child with pus-filled vesicles and scabs on his face, throat, and lower back most likely has __________, caused by a herpesvirus infection.

answer

chickenpox

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Streptococcus?

answer

coagulase-positive

question

Place the following infections in order of increasing tissue involvement and severity: (1) septicemia, (2) folliculitis, (3) cellulitis, (4) furuncle.

answer

folliculitis, furuncle, cellulitis, septicemia

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All of the following are characteristics of the varicella-zoster virus except ________.

answer

benign skin growths

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All of the following cause conjunctivitis except ________.

answer

Propionibacterium

question

Which of the following is not a predisposing condition for candidiasis (yeast infections)?

answer

fifth disease

question

Which of the following is NOT normal skin microbiota?

answer

Streptococcus

question

The yeast Malassezia furfur may be the cause of:

answer

dandruff

question

Microorganisms that produce the enzyme keratinase can grow on ________.

answer

skin and hair

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Coagulase-negative strains of Staphylococcus are never associated with human disease.

answer

False

question

Impetigo can be caused by either Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, or both.

answer

True

question

The most common treatments for tinea are either penicillin or cephalosporin.

answer

False

question

Mycobacterium ulcerans causes a skin infection known as a __________. (2 words)

answer

Buruli ulcer

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A "teenage disease" called __________ is caused by gram-positive rods than can be isolated from pus-filled cysts on the face and upper back. (1 word)

answer

acne

question

Thrush in children and vaginitis in adults are caused by the fungal genus __________.

answer

Candida

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German measles infection during the first trimester of pregnancy may result in __________. (3 words)

answer

congenital rubella syndrome

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The __________ have at least 113 antigenic types and are the most common agent of colds.

answer

rhinoviruses

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Strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that are resistant to all of the first-line drugs and at least half of the second-line drugs are known as __________ tuberculosis. (3 words or initials)

answer

extensively drug resistant

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Mycoplasma pneumoniae, a frequent cause of pneumonia in children and young adults, is called __________ pneumonia.

answer

walking/primary atypical

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Large-scale changes in influenza envelope proteins, such as those found in the H5N1 strain, are due to reassortment between different strains. This is called antigenic __________.

answer

shift

question

The walled-off lesions in lung tissue formed by Mycobacterium tuberculosis are called __________.

answer

tubercles granulomas

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One of the most important reasons to diagnose and treat strep throat is ________.

answer

Untreated strep throat may contribute to the development of rheumatic fever.

question

All of these statements are true of tuberculosis except:

answer

Infection has been greatly reduced due to mass immunization.

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All of these descriptions pertain to Mycoplasmal pneumonia except ________.

answer

usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence

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A patient has a rapid onset of fever, headache and chills. He recently returned from Mexico, where he drank local water and stayed in an air-conditioned room. Several weeks ago, he purchased a parrot. After a physical exam, his physician prescribes tetracycline. What is the cause of the patient's illness?

answer

Chlamydia psittaci

question

All of these statements are true of diphtheria EXCEPT

answer

Patients can be cured using only antibiotics.

question

An 81-year-old female has a mass in her lower left lung. Her tuberculin skin test is negative. Microscopic examination of her lung biopsy reveals large, ovoid cells. The patient has ________.

answer

histoplasmosis

question

Which of these answers describes normal microbiota of the respiratory system?

answer

Microbial antagonism maintains a balance among the normal microbiota.

question

A 35-year-old male is hospitalized for cough, fever, and shortness of breath. He is HIV+. Bronchial washings reveal cysts. What is the etiology?

answer

Pneumocystis

question

The following sequence occurs during the initiation of tuberculosis. What is the first step?

answer

Mycobacteria reproduce in macrophages.

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The catarrhal stage of pertussis is characterized by intense mucus production and violent coughing.

answer

False

question

The common name for the disease caused by Histoplasma capsulatum is valley fever.

answer

False

question

Which of these answers describes normal microbiota of the respiratory system?

answer

Microbial antagonism maintains a balance among the normal microbiota.

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Legionellosis is a form of pneumonia that does not appear to be transmitted from person to person.

answer

True

question

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is probably the most common cause of viral respiratory disease in adults.

answer

False

question

Influenza vaccines are typically prepared by growing the virus in embryonated eggs.

answer

True

1 of

Unlock all answers in this set

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question

Robert Hooke's observation of the individual units in thin layers of cork tissue led to the development of __________ theory.

answer

cell

question

Lister knew that carbolic acid (phenol) kills bacteria. He used it as the first __________.

answer

disinfectant

question

The protection from disease provided by vaccination is called __________.

answer

immunity

question

The __________ are unicellular, eukaryotic microbes that move by pseudopods, flagella, or cilia.

answer

protozoa

question

__________ involves the ability afforded by genetic engineering to insert a missing gene or replace a defective gene in a human cell.

answer

Gene therapy

question

Microbes are responsible for: synthesis of vitamins breaking down wastes synthesis of acetone and alcohol oxygen generation via photosynthesis All of the above

answer

All

question

An exposure to ________ protects against infection with smallpox.

answer

cowpox

question

All life can be classified into three domains ________.

answer

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

question

answer

Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity.

question

Mad cow disease is caused by a prion, which is an infectious ________.

answer

protein

question

Which of the following is a scientific name?

answer

Legionella pneumophila

question

answer

parasitology; study of HIV

question

In the scientific name, Escherichia coli, Escherichia is the ________.

answer

genus

question

Which of the following types of microorganism and its description is not correctly matched? helminthes; multicellular animals bacteria; prokaryotic fungi; eukaryotic protozoa; small animals

answer

protozoa; small animals

question

answer

bacteria that cause disease

question

Examples of fungi include the yeasts, molds, and mushrooms.

answer

True

question

Flagella are appendages that allow locomotion in bacteria.

answer

True

question

E. coli O157:H7 is part of the normal microbiota in the human large intestine.

answer

False

question

The avian influenza A virus is transmitted only between birds.

answer

False

question

The vast majority of microbes are harmful to humans or plants.

answer

False

question

The __________ of a compound light microscope focuses light from the light source on the specimen.

answer

condenser

question

Which of the following is the most convenient and appropriate unit for expressing the size of an average bacterial cell?

answer

micrometer

question

All of the following are visible through a compound light microscope except ________.

answer

0.02-Âµm ribosome

question

Bacterial motility and flagellar movement can readily be viewed using transmission electron microscopy.

answer

False

question

A __________ is equal to 0.000001 m.

answer

micrometer

question

Acid-fast Mycobacteria differ from non-acid-fast bacteria by the presence of ________.

answer

carbol fuchsin waxy material in their cell wall

question

When stained, bacteria in the genus Mycobacterium are __________.

answer

acid-fast

question

When using a 10X ocular lens and a 40X objective, the total magnification achieved is

answer

400X

question

Which of the following is not a modification of a compound microscope?

answer

electron microscope

question

Flagella are too __________ to be seen with the light microscope without adding a mordant.

answer

small

question

Immersion oil acts to decrease refraction of light rays and thus increase resolution.

answer

True

question

In the Gram stain, if the decolorizing step is deleted, gram-negative cells will appear ________ at the completion of the staining procedure.

answer

purple

question

Magnification is the quality of the microscope that allows one to distinguish between two points that are very close together.

answer

False

question

answer

(3) illuminator, (1) condenser, (4) specimen, (5) objective lens, (2) ocular lens.

question

Bacterial smears must be heat-fixed before all staining procedures.

answer

False

question

The ________ charge of a basic dye adheres to the ________ charge of bacterial cell surfaces.

answer

positive; ......negative

question

The __________ is the part of the microscope that controls the amount of light entering the condenser.

answer

diaphragm

question

The Gram stain is important in medical microbiology because the results help physicians select appropriate antibiotics for treatment.

answer

True

question

Which of the following kinds of microscopy would be most appropriate for viewing the shape and arrangement of pili or fimbriae on the surface of a bacterial cell?

answer

scanning electron microscopy

question

Which of the following types of microscopy is most useful for viewing the internal structures of unstained specimens?

answer

phase-contrast

question

You are viewing a sputum smear that has been stained with an acid-fast stain. On this smear you see 5-Âµm- long red cells. You can conclude that ________.

answer

there are acid-fast bacteria in the specimen

question

Consider a gram-positive cell in a hypertonic medium. If the peptidoglycan were damaged, the cell would __________.

answer

shrink/plasmolyze/collapse

question

The motility of bacteria with flagella occurs through a series of "runs" and __________.

answer

tumbles

question

The term describing bacteria with flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell is __________.

answer

Peritrichous

question

Endoplasmic reticulum that has ribosomes attached to its outer surface is referred to as __________.

answer

rough ER

question

Chemotaxis refers to the ability of microorganisms to ________.

answer

move toward or away from chemical stimuli

question

All of the following are found in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria except ________.

answer

lipid A

question

Gram-negative cells contain a periplasmic space that is ________.

answer

rich in degradative enzymes

question

All of the following are true of the gram-negative outer membrane except:

answer

It contains enzymes for energy synthesis.

question

answer

active transport

question

Spherical shaped bacteria that divide and remain attached in chainlike patterns are called ________.

answer

streptococci

question

Which of the following statements about a gram-negative cell wall is not true?

answer

It has teichoic acids.

question

Which of the following processes requires energy?

answer

active transport

question

Which of the following bacterial structures are necessary for chemotaxis?

answer

flagella

question

Endospores are:

answer

Endospores are extremely durable structures that can survive high temperatures.

question

The plane in which a bacterial cell divides determines the arrangement of cells.

answer

True

question

The cell membrane is a fluid structure that allows membrane proteins to move freely.

answer

True

question

Acid-fast bacteria demonstrate unique staining properties because of a special protein layer found in their cell walls.

answer

False

question

Penicillin is more effective against gram-negative bacteria than gram-positive bacteria because it specifically interferes with the synthesis of lipopolysaccharide.

answer

False

question

The endosymbiotic theory states that eukaryotic organelles evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes living within other prokaryotes.

answer

True

question

Biological oxidations are also called __________ reactions.

answer

dehydrogenation

question

At the completion of the Krebs cycle, the carbons from glucose are in __________. (name the molecule)

answer

carbon dioxide

question

At the completion of aerobic respiration, energy has been formed. The energy from the oxidation of glucose is stored in __________?

answer

ATP

question

__________ involves an inhibitor that fills the active site of an enzyme and competes with the normal substrate for the active site. (two words)

answer

competitive inhibition

question

For every NADH that is oxidized via the electron transport chain, __________ ATP are formed.

answer

three

question

All of the following pairs are correctly matched except ________.

answer

oxidation; reaction where electrons are gained

question

Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves ________.

answer

competition with the substrate for binding at the active site

question

During glycolysis, electrons from the oxidation of glucose are transferred to ________.

answer

NAD+

question

Streptococcus bacteria lack an electron transport chain. How many molecules of ATP can a Streptococcus cell net from one molecule of glucose?

answer

question

Unlike eukaryotes, in prokaryotes chemiosmosis ________.

answer

occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria

question

The chemical reactions involved in synthesizing proteins and cell wall peptidoglycan are examples of ________ reactions.

answer

anabolic

question

For a cell, which of the following compounds has the greatest amount of energy per molecule?

answer

acetyl CoA pyruvate

question

The complete oxidation of glucose typically involves which three stages?

answer

glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain

question

Which of the following mechanisms does not generate ATP using an electron transport chain?

answer

substrate-level phosphorylation

question

Which of the following are products of the light-dependent reactions, on which the light-independent reactions are dependent?

answer

ATP and NADPH

question

Enzymes work most effectively at their optimal temperature and pH.

answer

True

question

Feedback inhibition generally acts on the last enzyme in an anabolic pathway.

answer

False

question

Glycolysis produces ATP through substrate phosphorylation.

answer

True

question

The synthesis of sugars by using carbon atoms from CO2 gas is called carbon fixation.

answer

True

question

Lipids, proteins, and sugars all may serve as substrates of glycolysis.

answer

False

question

The ability of microbes to utilize N2 as a nitrogen source is called __________.

answer

nitrogen fixation

question

Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the __________ of bacterial cells.

answer

number

question

An unknown organism grows at the top of a tube of thioglycolate broth. This organism is best described as a/an __________ for its oxygen requirements.

answer

aerobe

question

Salt agar tends to inhibit the growth of most organisms, except Staphylococcus. This is an example of a/an __________ media.

answer

selective

question

In a/an __________, cells are added to melted agar and poured into a petri dish. (2 words)

answer

pour plate

question

Bacteria require nitrogen for the synthesis of ________.

answer

proteins

question

answer

The bacteria are most likely growing in biofilms.

question

An organism that grows both in the presence and the absence of oxygen and uses oxygen when it is available is called a/an ________.

answer

facultative anaerobe

question

A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart extract is a/an ________.

answer

complex medium

question

Niacin, when added to a medium, would be considered a/an Bacteria growing in and on the human body, including normal microbiota as well as pathogens, are classified as ________.

answer

organic growth factor mesophilic and heterotrophic

question

answer

radioactive carbon dioxide

question

A medium containing lauryl sulfate inhibits growth of gram-positive bacteria. This medium is ________.

answer

selective

question

To look for bacteria that degrade petroleum, a culture medium containing crude oil, sodium nitrate, phosphate buffer, and magnesium sulfate is inoculated with soil. This medium is ________.

answer

complex

question

The following steps occur during binary fission. What is the third step?

answer

inward growth of membrane After DNA replication and cell elongation, the membrane will grow inward between the two newly formed cells.

question

Which biosafety level is described as follows? (open laboratory benchtop, gloves, lab coat, and face/eye protection)

answer

question

Psychrotrophic organisms are often responsible for food spoilage in refrigerated foods.

answer

True

question

Adding salts to a solution increases osmotic pressure and is used to preserve food.

answer

True

question

Microaerophiles do not require oxygen for growth.

answer

False

question

Aerotolerant organisms can grow in the presence of oxygen because their cell wall protects them from toxic products of oxygen.

answer

False

question

In a direct microscopic count, dead cells are easily differentiated from live cells.

answer

False

question

__________ has little value as an antiseptic but is important in the mechanical removal of microbes.

answer

soap

question

Oxidizing agents, such as hydrogen peroxide, are useful for irrigating deep wounds where released oxygen will inhibit the growth of __________.

answer

anaerobic bacteria

question

__________ bacteria may survive pasteurization.

answer

Thermoduric, Endospore-forming, Heat resistant

question

Operating rooms may receive ventilation from air that has passed through __________ filters to remove microorganisms.

answer

high-efficiency particulate air HEPA

question

__________ ammonium compounds are less effective against gram-negative bacteria and more effective against gram-positive bacteria.

answer

Quaternary

question

Sterilization is the ________.

answer

destruction of all life-forms

question

An antiseptic Degerming is used to remove microbes from ________.

answer

skin, before an injection

question

Which of the following infectious agents challenges current sterilization strategies that have been accepted and in use for decades?

answer

prions

question

Some antimicrobial treatments kill microbes; some inhibit growth. Which term refers to an agent that inhibits bacterial growth?

answer

bacteriostatic

question

Which of the following is not a major target for action of antimicrobials?

answer

flagella

question

answer

Since the treatment appears to have slowed fungal growth, we can say that it is fungistatic.

question

Decimal reduction time is the time in minutes in which ________ of the population at a given temperature will be killed.

answer

Decimal reduction time (DRT) is the time it takes with a particular treatment to kill 90% of the microbes.

question

Which of these conditions is likely to interfere with the effectiveness of an antiseptic or disinfectant?

answer

presence of biofilms

question

Which one of these substances is effective against bacterial endospores?

answer

chlorine bleach

question

Which of these chemicals is not an oxidizing agent? Some microbes are very resistant to antimicrobial chemicals. Which of the following would be the easiest to kill?

answer

Triclosan E. coli

question

Most viruses are highly resistant to disinfectants and antiseptics.

answer

False

question

The presence of organic matter, such as blood or saliva, may impair the action of antimicrobial chemicals.

answer

True

question

Ethylene oxide gas is used to sterilize medical equipment that might be damaged by exposure to the heat of autoclaving.

answer

True

question

Iodine is one of the least effective antimicrobial chemicals, effective only against certain very sensitive strains of bacteria.

answer

False

question

Soap is ineffective in killing bacteria. Therefore, hand washing is a rather ineffective measure in preventing disease transmission.

answer

False

question

To begin transcription, the RNA polymerase binds a region on DNA known as the __________.

answer

promoter

question

Genes whose products are produced constantly are __________.

answer

constitutive

question

Small stretches of DNA that can move within a genome are referred to as __________.

answer

transposons

question

Most amino acids are encoded by several different codons. This is referred to as the __________ of the genetic code.

answer

degeneracy

question

The transfer of genetic information between organisms through processes such as transduction or conjugation is called __________ gene transfer.

answer

horizontal

question

All of these statements are true of plasmids except:

answer

They are essential for survival of the organism in most situations.

question

Consider the polypeptide sequence encoded by the following DNA: TACAAAGAAATT If base number 6 is changed to G, how will this affect the polypeptide?

answer

There will be no change in the polypeptide.

question

In E. coli, Hfr cells ________. All of these statements are true of base substitutions except ________.

answer

can pass main chromosome genes to a recipient cell Mutations rarely involve base substitutions.

question

Which of these statements is true about transduction?

answer

A virus is required for transfer of genetic material.

question

In the lac operon of E. coli, ________.

answer

the repressor protein binds to the operator in the absence of lactose

question

Which one of the following is a method of vertical gene transmission?

answer

cell division

question

Which of the following requires cell-to-cell contact?

answer

conjugation

question

All of these statements are true about DNA replication except:

answer

Only one strand of the parent DNA serves as a template for a newly synthesized complementary strand.

question

The major source of the genetic diversity among microorganisms upon which natural selection operates is ________.

answer

mutation

question

Which one of the following would be the most likely to yield a recombinant cell after mating? Which of these statements is not true of translation?

answer

Hfr cell and F- cell Each amino acid is coded for by a single codon.

question

In prokaryotes, translation of an mRNA molecule can begin before transcription of the mRNA molecule is completed.

answer

True

question

Codons of mRNA temporarily bond to anticodons of tRNA during translation.

answer

True

question

Mutations are always harmful to cells.

answer

False

question

Hfr cells transfer genes to recipient cells in a particular order. The term phenotype is used to describe all of the organism's genetic information.

answer

False

question

In E. coli, the presence of lactose is necessary and sufficient for induction of the lactose-utilization genes. Mutations are always harmful to cells.

answer

False

question

For the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus, the word Staphylococcus is the genus name and aureus is the __________. (2 words)

answer

specific epithet

question

The process of using restriction enzymes to create DNA fragments that can be separated by electrophoresis and compared is known as __________. (2 words)

answer

DNA fingerprinting

question

Bergey's Manual includes information on two domains: bacteria and __________.

answer

Archaea

question

A map that shows the evolutionary relationships of organisms among organisms is the __________.

answer

cladogram

question

A test that determines which phages a bacterium is susceptible to is called __________. (2 words)

answer

phage-typing

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Archaea?

answer

cause disease in humans

question

Members of the Kingdom Fungi are ________.

answer

either unicellular or multicellular

question

Which of the following is in the correct order?

answer

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

question

A key difference between classification methods and identification methods is that classification methods are designed to ________.

answer

determine evolutionary relationships of organisms

question

Which of the following is not true for the slide agglutination test?

answer

The absence of agglutination indicates that the antibody reacted with the antigen. This technique identifies signature rRNA sequences of microbes.

question

All of the following are characteristics of prokaryotesexcept ________.

answer

use mitosis

question

The evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called a ________.

answer

phylogeny

question

Which pair of organisms are the most closely related?

answer

Amanita fungus-human

question

Which kingdom includes multicellular organisms with organelles containing a single circular chromosome, 70S ribosomes, and chlorophyll?

answer

Plantae

question

Which of the following is an appropriate definition for a prokaryotic species?

answer

a population of cells with similar characteristics including structure, morphology, biochemical reactions, surface antigens, and rRNA

question

Gram stains alone can be used to identify bacteria.

answer

False

question

Microorganisms must be cultured before they can be identified.

answer

False

question

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are collectively referred to as __________.

answer

granulocytes

question

The process of coating bacteria with serum proteins to promote attachment of phagocytes is called __________.

answer

opsonization

question

Complement components C5 through C9 form plasma membrane channels in cellular microbes referred to as the __________.

answer

membrane attack complex MAC

question

When blood cells are removed from blood, the remaining liquid is referred to as __________.

answer

serum

question

Body temperature, which can change because of infection, is controlled by a region of the brain known as the __________.

answer

hypothalamus

question

The epidermis ________.

answer

contains the protein keratin

question

answer

microbial antagonism

question

The etiologic agent of fever blisters is __________.

answer

Human herpesvirus 1 Herpes simplex virus

question

Scabies is a skin disease caused by a/an __________.

answer

mite

question

Infection with __________ causes a disease that closely resembles smallpox.

answer

monkeypox

question

A child with pus-filled vesicles and scabs on his face, throat, and lower back most likely has __________, caused by a herpesvirus infection.

answer

chickenpox

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Streptococcus?

answer

coagulase-positive

question

Place the following infections in order of increasing tissue involvement and severity: (1) septicemia, (2) folliculitis, (3) cellulitis, (4) furuncle.

answer

folliculitis, furuncle, cellulitis, septicemia

question

All of the following are characteristics of the varicella-zoster virus except ________.

answer

benign skin growths

question

All of the following cause conjunctivitis except ________.

answer

Propionibacterium

question

Which of the following is not a predisposing condition for candidiasis (yeast infections)?

answer

fifth disease

question

Which of the following is NOT normal skin microbiota?

answer

Streptococcus

question

The yeast Malassezia furfur may be the cause of:

answer

dandruff

question

Microorganisms that produce the enzyme keratinase can grow on ________.

answer

skin and hair

question

Coagulase-negative strains of Staphylococcus are never associated with human disease.

answer

False

question

Impetigo can be caused by either Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, or both.

answer

True

question

The most common treatments for tinea are either penicillin or cephalosporin.

answer

False

question

Mycobacterium ulcerans causes a skin infection known as a __________. (2 words)

answer

Buruli ulcer

question

A "teenage disease" called __________ is caused by gram-positive rods than can be isolated from pus-filled cysts on the face and upper back. (1 word)

answer

acne

question

Thrush in children and vaginitis in adults are caused by the fungal genus __________.

answer

Candida

question

German measles infection during the first trimester of pregnancy may result in __________. (3 words)

answer

congenital rubella syndrome

question

The __________ have at least 113 antigenic types and are the most common agent of colds.

answer

rhinoviruses

question

Strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that are resistant to all of the first-line drugs and at least half of the second-line drugs are known as __________ tuberculosis. (3 words or initials)

answer

extensively drug resistant

question

Mycoplasma pneumoniae, a frequent cause of pneumonia in children and young adults, is called __________ pneumonia.

answer

walking/primary atypical

question

Large-scale changes in influenza envelope proteins, such as those found in the H5N1 strain, are due to reassortment between different strains. This is called antigenic __________.

answer

shift

question

The walled-off lesions in lung tissue formed by Mycobacterium tuberculosis are called __________.

answer

tubercles granulomas

question

One of the most important reasons to diagnose and treat strep throat is ________.

answer

Untreated strep throat may contribute to the development of rheumatic fever.

question

All of these statements are true of tuberculosis except:

answer

Infection has been greatly reduced due to mass immunization.

question

All of these descriptions pertain to Mycoplasmal pneumonia except ________.

answer

usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence

question

answer

Chlamydia psittaci

question

All of these statements are true of diphtheria EXCEPT

answer

Patients can be cured using only antibiotics.

question

An 81-year-old female has a mass in her lower left lung. Her tuberculin skin test is negative. Microscopic examination of her lung biopsy reveals large, ovoid cells. The patient has ________.

answer

histoplasmosis

question

Which of these answers describes normal microbiota of the respiratory system?

answer

Microbial antagonism maintains a balance among the normal microbiota.

question

A 35-year-old male is hospitalized for cough, fever, and shortness of breath. He is HIV+. Bronchial washings reveal cysts. What is the etiology?

answer

Pneumocystis

question

The following sequence occurs during the initiation of tuberculosis. What is the first step?

answer

Mycobacteria reproduce in macrophages.

question

The catarrhal stage of pertussis is characterized by intense mucus production and violent coughing.

answer

False

question

The common name for the disease caused by Histoplasma capsulatum is valley fever.

answer

False

question

Which of these answers describes normal microbiota of the respiratory system?

answer

Microbial antagonism maintains a balance among the normal microbiota.

question

Legionellosis is a form of pneumonia that does not appear to be transmitted from person to person.

answer

True

question

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is probably the most common cause of viral respiratory disease in adults.

answer

False

question

Influenza vaccines are typically prepared by growing the virus in embryonated eggs.

answer

True

Microbiology Final Mastering 12/08/2012 – Flashcards

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