Med Micro- Exam 1-Beck – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
| Steps of Gram Stain |
answer
| 1) Crystal Violet 2)Iodine (mordant) 3)Alcohol 4)Saphranin |
question
| Steps of Endospore stain |
answer
| 1) Malachite Green 2) Steam (mordant) 3) Water 4) Saphranin |
question
| Steps of Acid Fast Stain |
answer
| 1) Carbolfuschin 2) Steam 3) Acid-alcohol 4) Methylene blue |
question
| Negative stain |
answer
| acidic dye |
question
| Capsule stain |
answer
| negative stain followed by a simple stain |
question
| Four different types of media |
answer
| nonselective, selective, differential, specialized |
question
| Levels of resistance |
answer
| Sensitive, intermediate and resistant |
question
| Cytopathic effect |
answer
| viral host cell damage due to viral overload, cytocidal effects, and noncytocidal effects |
question
| Polyclonal antibody |
answer
| recognize multiple epitopes |
question
| Monoclonal antibody |
answer
| recognize one epitope |
question
| Primary antibody |
answer
| bind to the desired antigen |
question
| Secondary antibody |
answer
| bind to another specific kind of antibody |
question
| Three methods of Antibody Labelling |
answer
| fluorescent dyes, enzyme labels, and gold particles |
question
| Fluorescent antibodies |
answer
| labelled antibodies bind to specific things in sample |
question
| Serotyping |
answer
| use of antibodies to break organisms into groups |
question
| Flow cytometry |
answer
| living cells are sent down a thin tube where a visual detector looks at specific properties |
question
| ELISA |
answer
| Enzyme Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay enzyme is attached to an antibody to determine if it binds to specific antibodies or antigens |
question
| Antibody Chromatography |
answer
| modified ELISA |
question
| Western Blot |
answer
| purified protein is run thru a protein gel, transferred to a membrane and incubated with a specific antibody |
question
| IgM |
answer
| first response antibody |
question
| Minimum significant dilution |
answer
| 1:64 |
question
| Gel electrophoresis |
answer
| direct detection of DNA |
question
| Probes |
answer
| fragments of DNA that can be used to look for specific sequences |
question
| In Situ Hybridization |
answer
| location of certain DNA within the tissue |
question
| Southern Blot |
answer
| probe for DNA after gel electrophoresis |
question
| Northern Blot |
answer
| probe for RNA |
question
| Microarray |
answer
| unknown DNA is labelled and allowed to hybridize with DNA on the chip |
question
| PCR |
answer
| polymerase chain reaction logarithmic multiplication of DNA samples |
question
| RT-PCR |
answer
| reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction copy RNA to DNA then perform regular PCR |
question
| Nested PCR |
answer
| sequential PCR using two sets of primer, one internal to the first |
question
| Multiplex PCR |
answer
| multiple PCRs performed in the same tube |
question
| Real Time PCR |
answer
| fluorescent probes immediately detect product DNA |
question
| RFLP |
answer
| Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism Cut DNA samples with restriction enzyme then compare banding patterns |
question
| PFGE |
answer
| Pulse Field Gel Electrophoresis used to visualize very large DNA fragments |
question
| Most abundant bacteria in the mouth |
answer
| Veillonella parvula |
question
| Microbial Antagonism |
answer
| 1) blockage of binding sites 2) sequestering of nutrients 3) pH and O2 variation 4) antimicrobial production |
question
| Infection |
answer
| presence of an infectious organism |
question
| Disease |
answer
| any negative change in a person's health |
question
| Etiology |
answer
| study of the cause of disease |
question
| Microbial flora |
answer
| microorganisms located on/in the body |
question
| Acute disease |
answer
| symptoms develop quickly, but only last a short time |
question
| Chronic disease |
answer
| symptoms develop slowly, but persist for a long time |
question
| Latent disease |
answer
| symptoms continue to reappear long after the initial infection |
question
| focal infection |
answer
| initial site of a spreading infection |
question
| septicemia |
answer
| organisms multiplying in the blood |
question
| Periods of Disease |
answer
| 1) Incubation 2) Prodromal 3) Illness 4) Decline 5) Convalescence |
question
| Incubation Period |
answer
| pathogen enters body and begins growing |
question
| Prodromal period |
answer
| first symptoms appear |
question
| Period of Illness |
answer
| major symptoms occur |
question
| Period of Decline |
answer
| decline of symptoms |
question
| Period of Convalescence |
answer
| major symptoms have disappeared and patient is beginning to return to preinfection state |
question
| Septic shock |
answer
| massive leakage of plasma that causes blood pressure to plummet and the blood to clot |
question
| MODS |
answer
| Multi-Organ Dysfunction Syndrome |
question
| SIRS |
answer
| Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome |
question
| DIC |
answer
| Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation |
question
| Candy Jar Disease |
answer
| a disease unrelated to the normal transmission cycle |
question
| Alternate host |
answer
| an accidental host which may or may not be able to transmit an infection |
question
| Incidence |
answer
| number of new cases over a specific period of time |
question
| Prevalence |
answer
| total number of people infected at any one time |
question
| Endemic |
answer
| a constantly present disease in a population |
question
| Sporadic |
answer
| occurs as a small number of isolated cases |
question
| Epidemic |
answer
| very high incidence rate of disease in a population |
question
| Pandemic |
answer
| worldwide epidemic |
question
| Reservoirs of infection |
answer
| sites in which viable infectious organisms persist |
question
| Modes of Transmission |
answer
| Contact Vector Vehicle |
question
| Direct contact transmission types |
answer
| horizontal or vertical |
question
| Indirect contact transmission types |
answer
| fomites or droples |
question
| Vehicles |
answer
| inanimate objects such as water, air, food, blood and drugs |
question
| Vectors |
answer
| living agents of disease transmission, whether by mechanical or biological transmission |
question
| 7 Control Measures |
answer
| Animal Control, Vector Control, Sterilization of Fomites, Treatment, Immunization, Education, and Quarantine |
question
| XXDR-TB |
answer
| extremely drug resistant tuberculosis |
question
| Five main groups of Eubacteria associated with infection |
answer
| Spirochetes, Chlamydia, Actinobacteria, Gram-positive bacteria, and Proteobacteria |
question
| Gram + Cell Wall |
answer
| thick peptidoglycan covers cell membrane and contains teichoic acid |
question
| Gram - Cell Wall |
answer
| Thin peptidoglycan between two membranes, the outer containing LPS |
question
| Acid Fast Cell Wall |
answer
| membrane coated in peptidoglycan, fatty acids and a capsule-like material |
question
| Endospores |
answer
| dormant form of G+ bacteria that are resistant to most errthang |
question
| Microsporidia |
answer
| Obligate intracellular parasites that are very simple with small genomes and mitochondrial remnants |
question
| Amoebazoa |
answer
| move by pseudopodia |
question
| Ciliophora |
answer
| ciliates; only parasitic is Balantinidium coli |
question
| Archaezoa |
answer
| flagellate with mitosomes |
question
| Euglenozoa |
answer
| flagellates that are disk-shaped and are either euglenoids or hemoflagellates |
question
| Sporozoa |
answer
| non-motile obligate parasites like Plasmodium |
question
| Fungi |
answer
| spore-forming, heterophilic, eukaryotes |
question
| Teleomorph |
answer
| sexual phase of fungi |
question
| Anamorph |
answer
| asexual phase of fungi |
question
| Helminths |
answer
| worms |
question
| Platyhelminths |
answer
| flatworms |
question
| Trematodes |
answer
| flukes; have leaf-shaped bodies w/ ventral and oral suckers |
question
| Cestodes |
answer
| tapeworms; head has suckers and body is made of proglottids |
question
| Nematodes |
answer
| roundworms |
question
| Number 1 vector of infectious disease |
answer
| Mosquitoes |
question
| Sand flies |
answer
| spread Leishmania |
question
| Reuviid bug |
answer
| kissing bug; spreads CHagas disease |
question
| Black flies |
answer
| spread River Blindness |
question
| Myiasis |
answer
| invasion of tissue with dipterous larva which feed upon living or dead tissue |
question
| Dermatobia hominis |
answer
| fly which lays eggs on mosquitoes, which transport the larva to humans, where they bore into the skin |
question
| Properties of viruses |
answer
| 1) obligate intracellular parasites 2) DNA or RNA genome 3) uses host cell machinery to make viral components 4) has an extracellular infectious phase |
question
| Satellite virus |
answer
| parasitizes another virus (the helper virus) E.g. Hepatitis D |
question
| Nucleocapsid |
answer
| capsid and nucleic acid of a virus |
question
| Most common viral shape? |
answer
| Icosohedral |
question
| Steps of the Viral Life Cycle |
answer
| 1) Attachment 2) Penetration 3) Uncoating 4) Synthesis 5) Maturation/Assembly 6) Release |
question
| +RNA |
answer
| equivalent to mRNA, it may be infectious alone |
question
| -RNA |
answer
| equivalent to DNA, it must be accompanied by replication proteins and a genome |
question
| Latency Protein |
answer
| keeps the virus inactive/reactivates it |
question
| Integrase |
answer
| protein responsible for inserting the viral genome into the host cell genome |
question
| Prions |
answer
| infectious proteins which lack a genetic component and affect the brain |
question
| PrP* |
answer
| infectious form of a protein which converts normal PrPc into PrP* |
question
| Capnophilic |
answer
| require levels of CO2 higher than that of air |
question
| Psychrophile |
answer
| grows well at 15 degrees Celsius or below |
question
| Mesophile |
answer
| Optimal growth between 25-45 Celsius (human pathogens) |
question
| Transformation |
answer
| uptake and incorporation of free DNA |
question
| Transduction |
answer
| uptake and incorporation of DNA via viral vector |
question
| Conjugation |
answer
| uptake and incorporation of plasmid DNA |
question
| Innate immunity |
answer
| nonspecific host immunity |
question
| Adaptive immunity |
answer
| specific host defenses acquired after exposure to an infectious agent |
question
| IgM |
answer
| first antibodies to appear after initial exposure |
question
| IgG |
answer
| most abundant antibody class; only one transported across the placenta |
question
| IgA |
answer
| most abundant antibody class in mucous and other secretions |
question
| sIgA |
answer
| dimeric IgA that binds secretory peptide |
question
| Colostrum |
answer
| fluid secreted by breasts at the start of lactation |
question
| IgE |
answer
| bound to specific cells and involved in allergic type reactions |
question
| Cell-mediated responses do three things: |
answer
| 1. stimulate an immune response 2. Phagocytosis 3. Secretion of digestive enzymes and compounds |
question
| Four essential roles of inflammation |
answer
| 1. Activation of immune cells 2. Delivery of effector molecules to the site of infection 3. Microvascular coagulation 4. Repair of injured tissue |
question
| Four methods of microbial antagonism: |
answer
| 1. Block binding sites 2. Compete for nutrients 3. Affect pH and O2 4. Produce antimicrobial compounds |
question
| Primary immune deficiency |
answer
| results from some mutation |
question
| Secondary immune deficiency |
answer
| result of some acute or chronic infection |
question
| Diabetes mellitus |
answer
| most common secondary immunodeficiency; occurs after infection of beta cells by enterovirus |
question
| Complement deficiency |
answer
| lack of complement leads to increased diseases, especially Neisseria gonorrhea and Neisseria meningitidis |
question
| Rheumatoid arthritis |
answer
| caused by an autoantibody produced in the synovial fluid of the joints |
question
| Glomerulonephritis |
answer
| occurs after infection with Group A streptococci |
question
| Bacteriocidal |
answer
| cause the direct killing of microbes |
question
| Bacteriostatic |
answer
| stop further growth of the organism |
question
| Bacteriolytic |
answer
| cause the cells to literally burst |
question
| Six factors effecting the effectiveness of antimicrobials |
answer
| Number of microbes concentration duration of exposure environmental factors endospore formation temperature |
question
| Sterilization |
answer
| complete killing of all vegetative cells AND endospores |
question
| Disinfection |
answer
| killing of vegetative cells on an inanimate surface |
question
| Sanitation |
answer
| removal of dirt and dust from a surface |
question
| Antisepsis |
answer
| killing of vegetative cells on a biological surface |
question
| Three purposes of antimicrobials |
answer
| 1. Preservation 2. Chemotherapy 3. Decontamination |
question
| Physical means of control |
answer
| Heat, filtration and radiation |
question
| Autoclaving |
answer
| 121 degrees Celsius at 15 lb/square inch for 30 minutes to kill all cells and spores |
question
| Amphotericin B |
answer
| isolated from Streptomyces, it is the drug of choice for Candida albicans |
question
| Gene casettes |
answer
| sets of genes that move as a group |
question
| Blood Agar Plate |
answer
| differential for hemolysis alpha - green zone beta - clear zone gamma - no zone |
question
| Columbia CNA Agar |
answer
| enriched with Colistin and Nalidixic Acid to inhibit G- bacteria Same hemolysis results as BAP |
question
| MacConkey Agar |
answer
| contains lactose pink + |
question
| MAC-S Agar |
answer
| contains sorbitol pink + |
question
| Oxidase Test |
answer
| used to identify Pseudomonads purple paper + |
question
| Catalase Test |
answer
| used to ID G+ Staph & Strep breakdown of H2O2 to O2 + |
question
| Bacitracin |
answer
| Group A strep - S Group C step - R |
question
| Coagulase |
answer
| test for Staph aureus add bacteria to rabbit serum, watch for clumping + |
question
| Salt Broth |
answer
| tests halotolerance yellow + purple - |
question
| Optochin |
answer
| Strep pneumoniae - S |
question
| Bile Esculin |
answer
| tests for Esculin hydrolysis black precipitate + (enterococcus) no precip - |
question
| PYR test |
answer
| ID Group A streptococcus place disks on plate & add bacteria pink + |
question
| Tinsdale Tellurite Agar |
answer
| Potassium tellurite inhibits all BUT Corynebacterium diphteriae cause a brown precipitate w/ halo |
question
| Egg Yolk Agar |
answer
| Lecithinase: ID's bacillus (opaque precip +) Lipase: (oil on water sheen +) Protease: (clear zone +) |
question
| Starch Agar |
answer
| amylase test add 0.5x iodine (clearing +) |
question
| Phenol Red Carbohydrate Broth |
answer
| Durem tube - measures CO2 production (G) yellow +/A orange - pink -/K |
question
| Motility Media |
answer
| Listeria forms an umbrella (only motile at microaerophilic environment) |
question
| KIA |
answer
| glucose (bottom) and lactose (top): yellow +/A, red -/K Gas production +/G H2S: black precipitate + |
question
| Group A |
answer
| Streptococcus pyogenes |
question
| Group B |
answer
| Streptococcus agalactiae |
question
| Group D |
answer
| Streptococcus bovis |
question
| Novobiocin |
answer
| test for Staph. saprophyticus-R |