question

1.What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI)? A. Return On Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality B. Strategic, tactical and operational C. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities D. Technology, process and service

answer

D

question

2.Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Strategy B. Service Transition C. Service Operation D. Continual Service Improvement

answer

C

question

3.Reliability is a measure of: A. The availability of a service or component B. The level of risk that could impact a service or process C. How long a service or component can perform its function without failing D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working

answer

C

question

4.A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within: A. The RACI Model B. A Release Package C. A Request Model D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle

answer

B

question

5.What is a RACI model used for? A. Performance analysis B. Recording Configuration Items C. Monitoring services D. Defining roles and responsibilities

answer

D

question

6.Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge? A. Proprietary Knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

answer

A

question

7. Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management? A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS) C. To ensure that overall business risk of change is optimized D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

answer

D

question

8. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets? A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA) B. Capacity Plan C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)

answer

D

question

9. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management? A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

answer

A

question

10. "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following? A. Applications and Infrastructure B. Functions and Processes C. Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue D. Markets and Customers

answer

B

question

11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process? A. It is measurable B. Delivers specific results C. Responds to specific events D. A method of structuring an organization

answer

D

question

12. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process? 1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder 2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function A. Both of the above B. 1 only C. Neither of the above D. 2 only

answer

B

question

13. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition? A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported B. To provide training and certification in project management C. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

answer

B

question

14. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation? A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs D. To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

answer

D

question

15. When can a Known Error record be raised? 1. At any time it would be useful to do so 2. After the permanent solution has been implemented A. 2 only B. 1 only C. Neither of the above D. Both of the above

answer

B

question

16. What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)? A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis D. A document that describes business services to operational staff

answer

A

question

17. Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit? A. A measurement of cost B. A function described within Service Transition C. The team of people responsible for implementing a release D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together

answer

D

question

18. The BEST description of an Incident is: A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

answer

B

question

19. Which of the following BEST describes a Problem? A. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known B. The cause of two or more Incidents C. A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business D. The cause of one or more Incidents

answer

D

question

20. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of: A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers B. People, Process, Products, Technology C. People, Process, Products, Partners D. People, Products, Technology, Partners

answer

C

question

21. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after: 1. What is the vision? 2. Where are we now? 3. Where do we want to be? 4. How do we get there? 5. Did we get there? 6. ? A. What is the Return On Investment (ROI)? B. How much did it cost? C. How do we keep the momentum going? D. What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?

answer

C

question

22. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model. 1. Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives 2. Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved 3. Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI 4. Decision on implementation of further enhancements A. 3-1-2-4 B. 3-4-2-1 C. 1-3-2-4 D. 2-3-4-1

answer

A

question

23. Which of the following activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model? A. Implementing service and process improvements B. Reviewing measurable improvements C. Creating a baseline D. Defining measurable targets

answer

D

question

24. Which of the following do Service Metrics measure? A. Processes and functions B. Maturity and cost C. The end to end service D. Infrastructure availability

answer

C

question

25. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part of which process? A. Service Portfolio Management B. Service Level Management C. Component Capacity Management D. Demand Management

answer

D

question

26. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is: A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

answer

D

question

27. Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis? A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management B. Supplier Management and Demand Management C. Demand Management and Service Level Management D. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management

answer

A

question

28. Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT? A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thin

answer

C

question

29. Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure? A. Service Level Management B. IT Operations Management C. Capacity Management D. Incident Management

answer

B

question

30. Consider the following list: 1. Change Authority 2. Change Manager 3. Change Advisory Board (CAB) What are these BEST described as? A. Job descriptions B. Functions C. Teams D. Roles, people or group

answer

D

question

31. Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes? A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management B. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request Management C. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management D. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management, Request Fulfilment

answer

A

question

32. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base B. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database

answer

C

question

33. Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models? 1. Roles and responsibilities 2. Template release and deployment schedules 3. Supporting systems, tools and procedures 4. Handover activities and responsibilities A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. All of the above D. 1 and 4 only

answer

C

question

34. Major Incidents require: A. Separate procedures B. Less urgency C. Longer timescales D. Less documentation

answer

A

question

35. Which of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is CORRECT? A. Incidents can only be reported by users, since they are the only people who know when a service has been disrupted B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service. This includes technical staff C. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity D. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as Problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services

answer

B

question

36. What is the BEST description of a Major Incident? A. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve C. An Incident logged by a senior manager D. An Incident which has a high priority or high impact on the business

answer

D

question

37. Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact? A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency

answer

D

question

38. Hierarchic escalation is best described as? A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident B. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement

answer

A

question

39. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management? A. Minimizing the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented B. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening C. Eliminating recurring Incidents D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on the business

answer

D

question

40. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Request? A. A request from a User for information, advice or for a Standard Change B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface D. Any Request for Change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a Change Advisory Board (CAB) meeting

answer

A

question

41. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management? A. To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents B. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle C. To restore service to a user D. To eliminate recurring Incidents

answer

C

question

42. Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures? 1. Local Service Desk 2. Virtual Service Desk 3. IT Help Desk 4. Follow the Sun A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only

answer

A

question

43. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management? A. Network Management and Application Management B. Technical Management and Change Management C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management D. Facilities Management and Release Management

answer

C

question

44. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool? A. Knowledge B. Information C. Wisdom D. Data

answer

C

question

45. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Lifecycle? 1. Data mining and workflow 2. Measurement and reporting 3. Release and deployment 4. Process Design A. 2, 3 and 4 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. All of the above

answer

D

question

46. Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition? A. Measurement, methods and metrics B. Service Design Package C. Service Portfolio Design D. Process definitions

answer

B

question

47. What are the three Service Provider business models? A. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

answer

D

question

48. What is the Service Pipeline? A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage B. All services except those that have been retired C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. All complex multi-user services

answer

A

question

49. What are the key processes within Service Operation? A. Event Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Request Fulfilment and Access Management B. Event Management, Incident Management, Request Fulfilment and Access Management C. Incident Management, Problem Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfilment and Event Management D. Incident Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfilment, Access Management and Event Management

answer

A

question

50. Which of the following BEST describes 'Partners' in the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners"? A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors B. Customers C. Internal departments D. The Facilities Management function

answer

A

question

51. At which stage of the Service Lifecycle should the processes needed to operate a new service be defined? A. Service Design: Design the processes B. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings C. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment D. Service Operation: IT Operations Management

answer

A

question

52. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management? A. Service Catalogue Management B. Service Level Management C. IT Service Continuity Management D. Capacity Management

answer

D

question

53. Which of the following are objectives of Service Level Management? 1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided 2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided 3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction 4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above

answer

A

question

54. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Business Relationship Management C. Service Level Management D. Availability Management

answer

C

question

55. Availability Management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following? A. IT Services and Components B. IT Services and Business Processes C. Components and Business Processes D. IT Services, Components and Business Processes

answer

A

question

56. Which of the following does the Availability Management process include? 1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets 2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability 3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals A. 1 only B. All of the above C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

answer

B

question

57. Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors? A. Change Management B. Service Portfolio Management C. Supplier Management D. Continual Service Improvement

answer

C

question

58. Where should performance information that supports the Capacity Management process be stored? A. A configuration management database (CMDB) B. A capacity management database (CMDB) C. A configuration management system (CMS) D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)

answer

D

question

59. Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes? A. Capacity Management B. Incident Management C. Service Level Management D. Financial Management

answer

A

question

60. IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on: 1. Design of the service metrics 2. Business continuity strategy 3. Business Impact Analysis 4. Risk assessment A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only

answer

C

question

61. Which of these should a change model include? l. The steps that should be taken to handle the change 2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation 3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions 4. Complaints procedures A. 1,2 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 4 only

answer

A

question

62. Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority? A. The Change Advisory Board B. A person that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change. C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change. D. The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change

answer

C

question

63. The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is called the: A. Technical Management (TM) B. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) C. Urgent Change Board (UCB) D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

answer

B

question

64. Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process? A. A change to a contract with a supplier B. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes C. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident D. A change to a business process

answer

D

question

65. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management? A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service

answer

A

question

66. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk? 1. Logging details of Incidents and Service Requests 2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis 3. Restoring service 4. Diagnosing the root-cause of Problems A. All of the above B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only

answer

B

question

67. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre? A. Technical Management B. Service Desk C. Applications Management D. Facilities Management

answer

D

question

68. Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern of IT Governance? A. Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes B. Ensuring that processes and procedures are correctly followed C. Reducing the total cost of providing services D. Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met

answer

B

question

69. Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk? A. Something that will not happen B. Something that will happen C. Something that has happened D. Something that might happen

answer

D

question

70. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is: A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party B. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier D. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer

answer

D

question

71. What are underpinning contracts used to document? A. The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers C. Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer D. Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement

answer

B

question

72. The Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares are the responsibility of: A. Facilities Management B. Access Management C. Request Fulfilment D. Service Asset and Configuration Management

answer

D

question

73.Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users? A. Service Level Management B. Service Portfolio Management C. Request Fulfilment D. Demand Management

answer

C

question

74. What are Request Models used for? A. Assessing changes to understand their potential impact B. Modeling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote D. Defining how frequently received user requests should be handled

answer

D

question

75. What is the objective of Access Management? A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations C. To manage access to the Service Desk D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services

answer

D

question

76. A configuration model can be used to help 1. Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems 2. Assess the impact of proposed changes 3. Plan and design new or changed services 4. Plan technology refresh and software upgrades A. 1, 2, and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only

answer

B

question

77. Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit? A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together B. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release D. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process

answer

A

question

78. Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits? A. Service Asset and Configuration Management B. Event Management C. Service Catalogue Management D. Performance Management

answer

B

question

79. Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an Incident? 1. Incident Model 2. Known Error Record A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above

answer

C

question

80. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes? A. Demand Management B. Incident Management C. Release and Deployment Management D. Request Fulfilment

answer

D

question

81. Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Change Management? A. The Change Management Process Owner B. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) C. The Service Owner D. The Continual Service Improvement Manager

answer

A

question

82. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process? A. The IT Director B. The Process Owner C. The Service Owner D. The Customer

answer

B

question

83. Access Management is closely related to which other process? A. Capacity Management only B. 3rd line support C. Information Security Management D. Change Management

answer

C

question

84. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design? A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue B. The design of new or changed services C. The design of Market Spaces D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

answer

C

question

85. Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle? A. Act B. Plan C. Do D. Coordinate

answer

D

question

86. A Process Owner is responsible for which of the following? 1. Documenting the process 2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) 3. Improving the process 4. Performing all activities involved in a process A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. All of the above C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only

answer

C

question

87. Which of the following statements about the Service Owner is INCORRECT? A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own B. Is responsible for contributing to continual improvement affecting the service they own C. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service they own D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization

answer

A

question

88. A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be expected of them? A. Tell others about the progress of an activity B. Perform an activity C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity D. Manage an activity

answer

C

question

89. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure? A. RACI Model B. Service Model C. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model

answer

A

question

90. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of Service Catalogue Management? A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

answer

B

question

91. Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts? A. Change Management B. Service Catalogue Management C. Supplier Management D. Release and Deployment Management

answer

C

question

92. Which of the following are valid parts of the Service Portfolio? 1. Service Pipeline 2. Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) 3. Service Catalogue A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. All of the above

answer

C

question

93. Which of the following provides the primary guidance on what protection Information Security Management should provide for each asset? A. The IT Executive B. The ISO27001 Standard C. The Business D. The Service Level Manager

answer

C

question

94. Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis? A. The Service Level Management B. The IT Service Continuity Management C. The Service Catalogue Management D. The Supplier Management

answer

D

question

95. What does a service always deliver to customers? A. Applications B. Infrastructure C. Value D. Resources

answer

C

question

96. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service? A. The Service Provider B. The Service Level Manager C. The Customer D. The Finance department

answer

A

question

97. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives? A. Service Design B. Service Transition C. Service Strategy D. Service Operation

answer

C

question

98. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services? A. Change Management B. Service Transition C. Service Strategy D. Service Design

answer

D

question

99. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business? 1. Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements 2. Reduced cost to design new services 3. Improved success in implementing changes A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. All of the above

answer

C

question

100. Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency? A. Capacity Management B. Governance C. Service Design D. Service Level Management

answer

B

question

101. Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management? A. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs) B. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts C. Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)

answer

B

question

102. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service

answer

D

question

103. Which of the following would you expect to find in a contract for an underpinning service? 1. Service vision and mission 2. Service description and scope 3. Responsibilities and dependencies A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. None of the above

answer

C

question

104. Where should details of a Workaround always be documented? A. The Service Level Agreement (SLA) B. The Problem Record C. The Availability Management Information System D. The IT Service Continuity Plan

answer

B

question

105. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT? A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner C. They deliver specific results D. They respond to specific events

answer

A

question

106. Which of the following are objectives of Service Design? 1. Design services to satisfy business objectives 2. Identify and manage risk 3. Design effective and efficient processes 4. Design a secure and resilient IT infrastructure A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above

answer

D

question

107. You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines. Which statement could NOT be part of this value proposition? A. Reduced Total Cost of Ownership B. Improved quality of service C. Improved Service alignment with business goals D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services

answer

D

question

108. Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimized if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during development'? A. Service Design B. Service Strategy C. Service Operation D. Continual Service Improvement

answer

A

question

109. Which statement about Service Level Agreements(SLAs) is CORRECT? A. They must contain legal wording because of their importance B. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity D. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer

answer

C

question

110. A Known Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach? A. Yes B. No - the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented D. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem

answer

A

question

111. Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service Operation to perform? 1. Communication between Data Centre shifts 2. Communication related to changes 3. Performance reporting 4. Routine operational communication A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above

answer

D

question

112. Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT? 1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action 2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. None of the above

answer

C

question

113. Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management? A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services C. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening D. To detect security events and make sense of them

answer

B

question

114. Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk? A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place C. The desk provides 24 hour global support D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

answer

D

question

115. Service Design emphasizes the importance of the 'Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these 'Four Ps'? A. People, Products, Partners, Profit B. People, Process, Products, Partners C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit D. People, Potential, Products, Performance

answer

B

question

116. Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics? 1. The services 2. The architectures 3. The configuration items 4. The processes A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above

answer

D

question

117. Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages 1. Monitor, Measure and Review 2. Continual Improvement 3. Implement Initiatives 4. Plan for Improvement A. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act B. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act C. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act D. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

answer

C

question

118. Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'? A. Where are we now? B. Where do we want to be? C. How do we get there? D. Did we get there?

answer

B

question

119. Which of the following are objectives of Supplier Management? 1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts 2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database 3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts 4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. None of the above

answer

A

question

120. Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)? A. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database B. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management D. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported

answer

C

question

121. Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk? 1. Known Error Data 2. Change Schedules 3. Service Knowledge Management System 4. Diagnostic scripts and tools A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above

answer

D

question

122. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function? A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur B. Delivering improvements to achieve reduced costs C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

answer

C

question

123. How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model? A. As many as necessary to complete the activity B. Only one - the process owner C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor D. Only one - the process architect

answer

B

question

124. Which areas of Service Management can benefit from automation? 1. Design and Modeling 2. Reporting 3. Pattern Recognition and Analysis 4. Detection and Monitoring A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above

answer

D

question

125. Which of the following do Technology metrics measure? A. Components B. Processes C. The end to end service D. Customer satisfaction

answer

A

question

126. Outside of the core publications, which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments? A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance B. The Service Support book C. Pocket Guides D. The Service Strategy book

answer

A

question

127. Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of what? A. Service level requests B. Changes and Releases C. Password resets D. Incidents and Problems

answer

B

question

128. Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Service Transition C. Service Design D. Service Operation

answer

D

question

129. Gathering data, monitoring performance and assessing metrics in order to facilitate service improvements are all activities associated with which part of the service lifecycle? A. Service Operation B. Capacity Management C. Service Design D. Availability Management

answer

A

question

130. In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's contribution? A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated B. Measures for optimization are identified C. Service value is modeled D. Service value is actually seen by customers

answer

D

question

131. Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle? A. Service Operation B. Service Transition C. Continual Service Improvement D. Service Strategy

answer

C

question

132.Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive? 1. Risk assessment 2. Testing of resilience mechanisms A. None of the above B. Both of the above C. 1 only D. 2 only

answer

B

question

133. Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what? A. The value of a service B. Customer satisfaction C. Total cost of ownership D. Key performance indicators

answer

A

question

134. Which of these recommendations is good practice for Service Level Management? 1. Include legal terminology in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) 2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above

answer

D

question

135. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement(SLA)? A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services D. An SLA for a service with no customers

answer

A

question

136. Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi-level Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. Technology, Customer, User B. Corporate, Customer, Service C. Corporate, Customer, Technology D. Service, User, IT

answer

B

question

137. Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful? A. Remediation Planning B. Categorization C. Prioritization D. Review and Close

answer

A

question

138. What body exists to support the authorisation of changes and to assist Change Management in the assessment and prioritization of changes? A. The Change Authorisation Board B. The Change Advisory Board C. The Change Implementer D. The Change Manager

answer

B

question

139. Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT? A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director

answer

С

question

140. What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other? A. Configuration Baseline B. Project Baseline C. Change Baseline D. Asset Baseline

answer

A

question

141. Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT? 1. Configuration Items (CIs) may be grouped and managed together 2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of control A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above

answer

C

question

142. Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration Management? A. Describes the topography of the hardware B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

answer

B

question

143. What is the name of the area where the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items(CIs) are stored and protected? A. Definitive Media Library B. Definitive Software Store C. Service Knowledge Management System D. Software Secure Library

answer

A

question

144. Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented? A. A Service Level Agreement(SLA) B. A Request for Change(RFC) C. The Service Portfolio D. A Service Description

answer

A

question

145. Which of the following should be documented in an Incident Model? 1. Details of the Service Level Agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident 2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above

answer

B

question

146. Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine? 1. Things that were done correctly 2. Those things that were done incorrectly 3. How to prevent recurrence 4. What could be done better in the future A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above

answer

D

question

147. Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained? A. Categorization B. Diagnosis C. Prioritization D. Closure

answer

A

question

148. Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem? A. Definitive Media Library (DML) B. Configuration Management System (CMS) C. Statement of Requirements (SOR) D. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

answer

B

question

149. Identify the input to the Problem Management process. A. Request for Change B. Problem Resolution C. Incident Records D. New Known Errors

answer

C

question

150. What are the two major processes in Problem Management? A. Technical and Service B. Resource and Proactive C. Reactive and Technical D. Proactive and Reactive

answer

D

question

151. The goal of which process is: "To improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that reliable and secure information and data is available throughout the lifecycle"? A. Knowledge Management B. Availability Management C. Service Asset and Configuration Management D. Change Management

answer

A

question

152. Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity? A. The Asset Register B. The Service Knowledge Management System C. The Known Error Database D. The Information Management System

answer

B

question

153. Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what? A. The value of a service B. Governance C. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) D. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

answer

A

question

154. What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle? A. Rapid, one-off improvement B. Return on investment within 12 months C. Quick wins D. Steady, ongoing improvement

answer

D

question

155. "Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Operation B. Service Strategy C. Service Transition D. Continual Service Improvement

answer

C

question

156. Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Strategy B. Continual Service Improvement C. Service Operation D. Service Design

answer

B

question

157. The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service Lifecycle? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Service Strategy C. Service Design D. Service Transition

answer

B

question

158. Which of the following could BEST be described as "A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action"? A. A Problem model B. A Service Improvement Plan (SIP) C. A Request for Change (RFC) D. A Business Case

answer

D

question

159. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case? A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action B. A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documents C. A complaint by the business about a missed service level D. The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract

answer

A

ITIL Foundation v.3 Certification – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Haven't found what you were looking for?

Search for samples, answers to your questions and flashcards