Horse Bowl Study Guide

Q: The horse’s shoulder should be long, flat, and smooth, what degree of slope?
A: 45 degrees

Q: Which of the following is an artificial gait; trot, slow gait, or canter?
A: Slow gait

Q: How many joints are in the hind leg?
A: seven

Q: How many bones are in the skeletal system of the horse?
A: 205

Q: The horse has how many cervical vertebrae?
A: Seven

Q: What is the largest tissue mass in the horse’s body?
A: Muscles

Q: What is the external part of the ear called?
A: Auricle

Q: What part of the horse’s skeletal system consists of the skull, spinal column, ribs and breastbone?
A: Trunk

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col-lg-5 central-block">Q: What is the horny growth on the back of the fetlock?
A: Ergot

Q: Name the largest bone in the horse’s face.
A: Mandible (lower jawbone)

Q: In what area of the horse would you find the pectoral muscles?
A: Chest

Q: What is the horse’s counterpart to the human knee?
A: Stifle

Q: What is the name of the first cervical vertebrae?
A: Atlas

Q: What is the function of the short bones?
A: To absorb concussion.

Q: The increased height of the 3rd, 4th, and 5th thoracic vertebrae make up what?
A: Withers

Q: What should be the widest part of the hindquarters?
A: The stifle

Q: How are the muscles classified?
A: Smooth, cardiac, skeletal

Q: What is another name for capped elbow?
A: Shoe Boil

Q: What can be done to help bowed tendons?
A: Corrective Shoeing and Veterinary Intervention

Q: A heavy neck, which breaks and falls to one side, is called?
A: Broken Crest

Q: Name the joint where bog spavins, bone spavins, curbs and thoroughpins can occur.
A: Hock

Q: A thickening of the plantar ligament of the hock is called what?
A: Curb

Q: What is a thoroughpin?
A: A puffy swelling on the upper hock, in front of the large tendon.

Q: A condition characterized by excessive flexing of the hind legs, most easily detected when backing a horse is called what?
A: Stringhalt

Q: Free from any abnormal deviation which interferes with the usefulness of the horse is known as what?
A: Sound

Q: The front teeth are used to determine age. What are these front teeth called?
A: Incisors

Q: The young horse has how many deciduous teeth?
A: 24

Q: At the age of one month, how many teeth are visible?
A: 4

Q: What is the common name for the first upper premolar?
A: Wolf Teeth

Q: What is the space between the incisors and the molars?
A: Interdental Space (Bars)

Q: Name the rear grinding teeth of a horse.
A: Molars

Q: What do you call the filing of the rough, irregular teeth?
A: Floating

Q: How many teeth are in a mature mare?
A: 36

Q: What is the longitudinal depression on the lavial surface of the upper incisor?
A: Galvayne’s Groove

Q: The front teeth are used to determine age. What are these front teeth called?
A: Incisors

Q: The young horse has how many deciduous teeth?
A: 24

Q: At the age of one month, how many teeth are visible?
A: 4

Q: What is the common name for the first upper premolar?
A: Wolf Teeth

Q: What is the space between the incisors and the molars?
A: Interdental Space (Bars)

Q: Name the rear grinding teeth of a horse.
A: Molars

Q: What do you call the filing of the rough, irregular teeth?
A: Floating

Q: How many teeth are in a mature mare?
A: 36

Q: What is the longitudinal depression on the lavial surface of the upper incisor?
A: Galvayne’s Groove

Q: What parent determines the sex of a foal?
A: Stallion

Q: What determines all hereditary characteristics of a horse?
A: Genetics

Q: What is the sex genotype for mares?
A: XX

Q: What paired genes are not identical the animal is said to be what?
A: Heterozygous

Q: The mating of a pure black stallion and a red mare would produce what color foal?
A: Black

Q: Who was the Austrian monk to first work out the principles of how genetic material is transmitted from one generation to the next?
A: Gregor Mendel

Q: What may be defined as a sudden variation which is later passed on through inheritance and may result in changes in a gene or genes?
A: Mutation

Q: On what chromosome are the sex-linked traits carried?
A: The X chromosome

Q: A gene that does not show up when paired with a dominant gene is said to be what?
A: Recessive

Q: Which is a dominant coat color, black or brown?
A: Black

Q: What does the G locus provide for?
A: Dominant Grey

Q: What is the primary sex organ of the stallion?
A: Testicle

Q: What is a barren mare?
A: A mare that is not in foal

Q: What hormone is responsible for the masculine appearance and behavior of the stallion?
A: Testosterone

Q: When does puberty occur in the stallion?
A: About 1 year

Q: What do the ovaries produce?
A: Eggs (Ova)

Q: The membrane by which the fetus is attached to the uterus is what?
A: Placenta

Q: What is the function of the urethra?
A: To transport urine and sperm in the male

Q: How many days is the gestation period of the horse?
A: 335-342

Q: Where do the sperm and egg unite?
A: Oviduct

Q: Why is the colostrum important?
A: It provides the foal with the first, essential proteins and immunity to protect against infection.

Q: What is the name for the practice that is used to identify mares in estrus?
A: Teasing

Q: What is the name for inflammation of the udder?
A: Mastitis

Q: What is the name for a protrusion of intestine through the abdominal wall into the skin pouch that holds the testicles?
A: Scrotal Hernia

Q: The short estrus period soon after foaling is called what?
A: Foal Heat

Q: What is meant by parturition? A: Delivery of foals
A: Delivery of foals

Q: What is the production of milk called?
A: Lactation

Q: Place the following terms in order: mastication, defecation, prehension, and deglutition.
A: Prehension, mastication, deglutition, defecation

Q: Name the 3 pairs of salivary glands.
A: Parotid, submaxillary, sublingual

Q: Name the 6 accessory organs of the digestive system.
A: Lips, tongue, teeth, salivary glands, liver, pancreas

Q: Name the 6 parts of the digestive system.
A: Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

Q: About 65% of the digestive capacity of the horse is where?
A: Cecum & colon (lower gut)

Q: Name the 2 hormones responsible for regulating the concentration of glucose in the blood.
A: Insulin & glucagon

Q: What are the 5 regions of the large colon?
A: Left ventral colon, right ventral colon, right dorsal colon, left dorsal colon, traverse colon

Q: Put the following in order of length, from shortest to longest: Pharynx, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine.
A: Pharynx, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine

Q: Prolactin is produced in which gland & serves what function?
A: Anterior pituitary gland stimulates milk secretion

Q: What are the 2 main functions of the cecum & large colon in the digestive process?
A: Cecum-absorption of water, Large colon-breaks down fiber by bacterial fermentation

Feeds low in fiber, high in TDN.
Concentrates

Feeds high in fiber, low in TDN.
Forages-

A feed constituent that aids in the support of life.
Nutrient-

The less digestible form are carbohydrates found in feedstuffs.
Fiber-

Complex compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which mainly supply building material for the body.
Proteins-

Compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, and is the main source of energy to the body.
Carbohydrates (CHO) –

That part of each nutrient which is digested, taken into the body, and utilized.
Digestible Nutrient-

That part of the total or crude protein of a feed that can be utilized by the animal.
Digestive Protein-

The entire feed allowed an animal during a 24-hour day, whether all is given at one time or different times.
Ration-

A ration that contains all the digestible nutrients required to nourish an animal for 24 hours.
Balanced Ration-

A ration that furnishes just enough of each of the nutrients required to support an animal, which is doing no work and yielding no product, so that it will neither gain nor lose weight.
Maintenance Ration-

The sum of the digestible protein, digestible CHO, and digestible fat.
Total Digestible Nutrients (TDN) –

That which is left in a feed sample after the water has been removed.
Dry Matter-

The minerals that are needed in very small amounts for the normal functioning of the body.
Trace Minerals-

The part of the ration that is a concentrated form of one or more of the essential nutrients.
Supplement-

Chemical substances used in the treatment of infectious diseases.
Antibiotics-

What are the five required nutrients of a horse?
1. Water 2. Energy (Carbohydrates & Fats) 3. Protein 4. Vitamins 5. Minerals

Q: Name three problems associated with overfeeding horses.
A: Obesity, laminitis, colic, contracted tendons

Q: Should a horse be fed by weight or volume?
A: Weight

Q: Name five trace or micro minerals.
A: Iodine, Manganese, iron, zinc, copper, fluorine, selenium, silicon, cobalt.

Q: What part of grass is high in protein?
A: The leaves and the seeds

Q: Together the two minerals sodium and chlorine make up a common dietary nutrient called what?
A: Salt

Q: Where do horses get Vitamin D?
A: Sunlight and sun-cured hay

Q: What two minerals are necessary for none formation, muscular activity and blood clotting?
A: calcium and phosphorus

Q: Are the essential amino acids of the horse synthesized by the body of the horse?
A: No

Q: Which unsoundness causes difficulty in breathing due to lung damage?
A: heaves (COPD)

Q: What is the term for an animal’s ability to resist or repel a disease producing organism?
A: immunity

Q: Name a disease that can be contracted from organisms living in the soil?
A: tetanus

Q: What disease affects the spinal cord and nervous system & is caused by an organism whose live cycle is not yet completely understood?
A: Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM)

Q: What term describes a preventative injection of bacteria or viruses, that have been modified or inactivated, to protect the horse against certain diseases?
A: Vaccination

Q: Name a disease that if left untreated for a long period of time can cause the hoof wall to curl up & have rings around it.
A: Founder or laminitis

Q: Name 2 factors that predispose foals to pneumonia.
A: Stress, such as from overcrowding, weaning & handling, Dust, Poor nutrition, Parasites, Heat & humidity & fluctuations in temperature

Q: What does COPD stand for?
A: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

Q: What does the bacteria, Streptococcus Equi cause?
A: Strangles (distemper)

Q: During what time of year do most cases of Potomac Horse Fever occur?
A: Summer (July, August & early Sept)

Q: Which disease affects many systems, primarily the skin, joints, nervous system & heart & is caused by the bacteria, borrelia burgdorferi?
A: Lyme disease

Q: How long can a horse be infected with EIA or swamp fever?
A: Rest of its life

Q: Horses that are shown or mixed with other horses during the year, should be given at least what 5 vaccinations?
A: Eastern & Western encephalomyelitis, tetanus, influenza, rhinopneumonitis, Potomac Horse fever

Q: The Coggins test is used in the detection of what disease of the horse?
A: Equine Infectious Anemia

What is the normal temperature of the horse?
Temperature: 100 to 101.5 degrees

What is the normal pulse of the horse?
45-60 beats per minute

What is the normal respiration of the horse?
8-15 breaths per minute

Name 5 types of colic/
Spasmodic, Impaction, Incarcertion, Displacement, Gas

Spasmodic colic-
muscular spasms of the intestinal tract.

Impaction colic-
blockage of the intestinal tract.

Incarceration colic-
loop of intestine becomes placed or trapped in an abnormal position.

Displacement colic-
section of the intestine becomes twisted or caught in an abnormal position from an unknown cause.

Gas colic-
caused by large quantities of gas and fluid produced by the bacteria in the digestive tract.

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