Health test #3 – Flashcards
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1. Which of the following best describes appetite? A. It is the social meaning attached to food. B. It is the same as hunger. C. It is more psychological than physiological. D. It is not triggered by smells or taste.
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C. It is more psychological than physiological.
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2. In the United States, which of the following factors does NOT affect most people's choices about dietary intake? A. Convenience B. Cultural traditions C. Advertising D. Limited food supply
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D. Limited food supply
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3. Which of the following is true about calories? A. Calories are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food. B. Calories are one of the basic nutrient groups. C. Restricted-calorie diets are always safe. D. Caloric needs stay about the same during various life stages.
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A. Calories are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food.
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4. Which type of proteins contain all nine essential amino acids? A. Incomplete B. Complete C. Plant-source D. Complementary
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B. Complete
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5. A form of fat circulating in the blood that can accumulate on the inner walls of arteries and restrict blood flow is A. cholesterol. B. lipids. C. triglycerides. D. saturated fat.
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A. cholesterol.
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6. A healthy diet should A. be adequate in energy, nutrients, and fiber. B. allow a wide range of portion sizes. C. include a limited number of menus for simplicity. D. not need to be nutrient dense.
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A. be adequate in energy, nutrients, and fiber.
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7. What is the difference between a portion and a serving? A. A serving is the amount you choose to eat, and a portion is the recommended amount to be consumed. B. A serving is the recommended amount to be consumed, and a portion is the amount you choose to eat. C. A serving amount varies more than a portion. D. Serving sizes and portions are equal for adults.
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B. A serving is the recommended amount to be consumed, and a portion is the amount you choose to eat.
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12. Which of the following foods is the most nutrient-dense? A. A glass of whole milk B. A glass of low-fat milk C. A bowl of ice cream D. A stick of butter
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B. A glass of low-fat milk
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13. All the following help the body break down nutrients into smaller usable forms EXCEPT A. muscle contractions. B. stomach acids. C. perspiration D. enzymes.
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C. perspiration
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14. What percentage of a person's body weight is water? A. 25% to 35% B. 40% to 50% C. 50% to 60% D. 65% to 75%
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C. 50% to 60%
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15. Molecules that are the building blocks of protein are A. calcium. B. starches. C. amino acids. D. lipids.
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C. amino acids.
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16. Which of the following is NOT true about fiber? A. It is the indigestible portion of plant foods. B. It adds bulk to the diet. C. It helps move foods through the digestive system. D. It is the digestible portion of plant foods.
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D. It is the digestible portion of plant foods.
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17. Which of the following foods is an example of a complete protein?**** A. Pinto beans B. Chicken breast C. Peanuts D. Tofu
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B. Chicken breast
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18. High-fiber diets can help decrease the risk of all of the following EXCEPT A. colon cancer. B. heart disease. C. obesity. D. fibromyalgia.
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D. fibromyalgia.
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19. Dietary fats that are solid at room temperature are A. unsaturated. B. polyunsaturated. C. saturated. D. monounsaturated.
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C. saturated
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20. The sugar found in milk and dairy products that some people can't digest properly is A. lactose. B. glucose. C. sucrose. D. fructose.
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A. lactose.
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The complex carbohydrate form of a sugar that is stored in the liver and muscles is A. glucagon. B. galactose. C. glucose. D. glycogen.
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D. glycogen.
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22. Which type of fiber dissolves in water and can be digested by bacteria in the colon? A. Soluble B. Complex C. Insoluble D. Composite
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A. Soluble
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23. Potent and essential organic compounds that promote growth and help to maintain life and health are A. minerals. B. nutrients. C. vitamins. D. additives.
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C. vitamins.
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24. All the following are good sources of complex carbohydrates EXCEPT A. oatmeal. B. spinach. C. carrots. D. milk.
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D. milk.
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25. High levels of this type of cholesterol appear to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, or cholesterol-clogged arteries A. LDL B. HDL C. Triglycerides D. ADL
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B. HDL
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26. The ideal cholesterol ratio for an individual would include ***** A. high HDL and high LDL. B. low HDL and low LDL. C. low HDL and high LDL. D. high HDL and low LDL.
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D. high HDL and low LDL.
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27. The purpose of hydrogenating unsaturated fats is to A. make them more liquid at room temperature. B. reduce the amount of cholesterol. C. make them more solid at room temperature. D. increase the levels of protein.
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C. make them more solid at room temperature.
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28. When liquid oils are hydrogenated A. LDLs are produced. B. trans fatty acids are produced. C. HDLs are produced. D. amino acids are produced.
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B. trans fatty acids are produced.
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30. Taking a large amount of this vitamin can be toxic because it accumulates in the liver. A. A B. B6 C. C D. B12
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A. A
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Minerals that the body needs in very small amounts are A. major minerals. B. organic minerals. C. trace minerals. D. macrominerals.
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C. trace minerals.
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32. The mineral necessary for the regulation of blood and body fluids is A. zinc. B. sodium. C. iodine. D. calcium.
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B. sodium.
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34. The chief function of this mineral in the body is to make teeth resistant to decay and bones resistant to mineral loss. A. Calcium B. Fluoride C. Magnesium D. Phosphorus
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B. Fluoride
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35. Which is NOT a good source of folate? A. Spinach B. Liver C. Lentils D. Fish
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D. Fish
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36. Which substances protect against oxidative stress and the resultant tissue damage at the cellular level?**** A. Hormones B. Enzymes C. Proteins D. Antioxidants
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D. Antioxidants
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37. Riboflavin is one of the A. C vitamins. B. D vitamins. C. B vitamins. D. E vitamins.
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C. B vitamins.
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38. Which of the following is true about Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs)? A. They are the reference standard for intake levels necessary to meet the needs of most healthy individuals. B. They are the highest amount of a particular nutrient that can be safely consumed on a daily basis. C. They are the recommended average daily intake by healthy people when the research is limited. D. They are the amount of intake needed to prevent chronic disease.
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A. They are the reference standard for intake levels necessary to meet the needs of most healthy individuals.
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40. A vegetarian who eats dairy products and eggs is called a A. pesco-vegetarian. B. lacto-vegetarian. C. lacto-ovo-vegetarian. D. semivegetarian.
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C. lacto-ovo-vegetarian.
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41. To ensure safety, leftovers that have been properly wrapped and refrigerated should be eaten within A. 24 hours. B. two days. C. three days. D. four days.
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C. three days.
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42. An increase in the spread of food-borne illness could be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT A. the globalization of the food supply. B. increased consumption of locally grown or raised food. C. the inadvertant introduction of pathogens into new geographic regions. D. insufficient education about food safety.
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B. increased consumption of locally grown or raised food.
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43. The safest way to thaw frozen food is A. in warm water. B. in the refrigerator. C. in the microwave. D. covered on the kitchen counter.
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B. in the refrigerator.
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44. Substances in food or supplements that that destroy free radicals and slow their formation are A. antioxidants. B. antibiotics. C. antigens. D. anticoagulants.
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A. antioxidants.
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45. According to the criteria set by the USDA, which of the following would be an appropriate label for an apple grown without synthetic pesticides, chemicals, or hormones? A. Organic B. 100 percent organic C. Made with organic ingredients D. Some organic ingredients
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B. 100 percent organic
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46. A person who avoids all foods and food products of animal origin, including dairy and eggs, is A. a lacto-ovo-vegetarian. B. a vegetarian. C. a vegan. D. lactose intolerant.
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C. a vegan.
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47. What proportion of people avoid something in their diet because they think they are allergic to it? A. About 10 percent B. About one third C. About half D. More than half
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B. About one third
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48. Common food allergens include all of the following EXCEPT A. green beans. B. peanuts. C. milk. D. eggs.
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A. green beans.
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49. The physiological need to eat to sustain life is A. craving. B. appetite. C. nutrition. D. hunger.
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D. hunger.
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50. The psychological desire to eat is A. craving. B. appetite. C. nutrition. D. hunger.
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B. appetite.
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51. The science that studies food and nourishment, including food composition and the physiological effects of food on the body is A. craving. B. appetite. C. nutrition. D. hunger.
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C. nutrition.
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52. Which of the following foods is an example of an incomplete protein? A. steak. B. legumes. C. eggs. D. fish.
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B. legumes.
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53. Which of the following provides a ready source of energy for daily activities? A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Fats D. Water
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A. Carbohydrates
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54. Which of the following play a role in developing and repairing bone, muscle, skin, and blood cells? A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Fats D. Water
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B. Proteins
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Which of the following is the most energy-dense source of calories in the human diet? A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Fats D. Water
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C. Fats
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56. Which of the following is essential for life and is the major component of blood? A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Fats D. Water
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D. Water
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57. The body converts all forms of simple sugars into which of the following substances to provide energy to cells? A. Maltose B. Glucose C. Starch D. Glycogen
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B. Glucose
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58. Complex carbohydrates are used by the body for A. digestion and elimination. B. short-term energy. C. sustained energy. D. tissue growth and healing.
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C. sustained energy.
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59. A condition in which a person experiences a depletion of body fluids is A. dehydration. B. hyponatremia. C. anemia. D. desalination.
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A. dehydration.
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60. What percentage of daily water needs is met by food consumed? A. 8% B. 12% C. 15% D. 20%
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D. 20%
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61. Alicia doesn't eat meat, cheese, or eggs. She is making her shopping list for the week and wants to make sure that she buys beans, nuts, grains, and seeds to meet her protein needs. Combining two or more of these plant sources in a meal will provide her with A. simple carbohydrates. B. complementary proteins. C. resistant proteins. D. omega-3 fats.
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B. complementary proteins.
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62. A grain that contains the bran, germ, and endosperm is a A. milled grain. B. refined grain. C. whole grain. D. raw grain.
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C. whole grain.
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63. About 95% of total body fat is made up of A. triglycerides. B. cholesterol. C. cellulite. D. water.
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A. triglycerides.
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64. Which form of fat poses high risks for heart disease and cardiac-related death? A. Omega-3 fats B. Omega-6 fats C. Monounsaturated fats D. Trans fats
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A. Omega-3 fats
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65. Foods believed to have additional health benefits beyond the basic nutrition they provide are known as A. health foods. B. functional foods. C. curative foods. D. organic foods.
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B. functional foods.
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66. On a food product label, the amount shown as % Daily Value shows A. how many servings are in the package. B. the number of calories in a serving. C. how much of a nutrient is in one serving. D. how many vitamins the food contains.
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C. how much of a nutrient is in one serving.
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67. Which controversial process is used by some food growers to enhance production and create disease- or insect-resistant plants? A. Cross pollination B. Genetic modification C. Crop rotation D. Soil rejuvenation
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B. Genetic modification
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The average American consumes more than half their calories from junk food.
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F
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Individuals need more protein if they are pregnant, fighting off a serious infection, or recovering from surgery or burns.
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T
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Simple sugars provide short-term energy.
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T
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Many processed foods contain high amounts of sugar.
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T
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Fats should make up less than 10% of daily calories consumed.
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F
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Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by feeling tired and run down.
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T
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Antioxidants have been scientifically proven to slow the aging process.
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F
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Eating yogurt is a scientifically proven method to benefit from probiotics' ability to optimize the bacterial environment in the intestines.
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F
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Food allergy and food intolerance mean the same thing.
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F
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5) An individual who is 22 percent above his or her ideal weight would be classified as A. average. B. overweight. C. obese. D. morbidly obese.
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C. obese.
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6) Sharon is of average height and build. Although she doesn't appear to be overweight, a personal trainer measured her body fat at 30%. This discrepancy is likely due to A. Sharon having low bone density. B. Sharon having a lower-than-average amount of muscle mass. C. Sharon having more dense form of fat compared to most people. D. Sharon having a higher-than-average amount of muscle mass.
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B. Sharon having a lower-than-average amount of muscle mass.
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7) A 20-year-old female with a BMI of 34 would be categorized as A. athletic. B. healthy. C. obese. D. morbidly obese.
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C. obese.
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8) Problems with the BMI measurement include that A. it is an indirect estimate of body fat. B. it requires the use of special laboratory equipment. C. it takes too long to calculate. D. it cannot be used for children.
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A. it is an indirect estimate of body fat
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9) John underwent a body composition test that involved being submerged to compare his underwater weight with land weight to determine the amount body fat. This method of assessment is known as a A. skinfold measure. B. hydrostatic weighing. C. bioelectrical impedance analysis. D. Bod Pod test.
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B. hydrostatic weighing.
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10) The body fat percentage below which a man is considered to be underweight is A. 1% to 2%. B. 3% to 7%. C. 8% to 10%. D. 8% to 15%.
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B. 3% to 7%.
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12) A good way to control portion sizes when you eat at home is to A. serve the food buffet style to reduce trips to the kitchen. B. serve meals on smaller plates. C. eat more frozen and convenience foods. D. eat restaurant leftovers several times a week.
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B. serve meals on smaller plates.
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13) All of the following are scientific methods for determining body composition EXCEPT A. height and weight tables. B. bioelectrical impedance analysis. C. skinfold measures. D. hydrostatic measures.
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A. height and weight tables.
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14) The body fat percentage below which a woman is considered to be underweight is A. 1% to 2%. B. 3% to 7%. C. 8% to 10%. D. 8% to 15%.
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D. 8% to 15%.
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15) The method of body composition measurement that sends a small current through the body to measure the resistance based on percentage of body water is A. electrical conductivity test. B. bioelectrical impedance analysis. C. soft tissue roentgenogram. D. dual-energy x-ray absorpiometry.
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B. bioelectrical impedance analysis.
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16) A high waist-to-hip ratio would indicate that more fat is stored A. in the hips and thighs. B. in the abdominal area. C. in the upper body. D. in the neck and face.
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B. in the abdominal area.
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17) Which of the following is true with respect to genetics and obesity? A. Adopted children are more likely to be similar in weight to their adopted parents as compared to their biological parents. B. Although genes may influence fat distribution, they do not affect metabolism. C. Studies reveal that identical twins are more likely than fraternal twins to be of similar weight. D. Studies reveal that fraternal twins are more likely than identical twins to be of similar weight.
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C. Studies reveal that identical twins are more likely than fraternal twins to be of similar weight.
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18) When blood levels of the hormone leptin rise, A. appetite levels increase. B. you feel like exercising. C. appetite levels decrease. D. you can consume large amounts of food without gaining weight.
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C. appetite levels decrease.
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19) The U.S. population has become increasingly sedentary because A. people spend more time sitting at home and at work. B. people have less access to health clubs than in the past. C. physical education is required in schools. D. people are under more stress at work.
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A. people spend more time sitting at home and at work.
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20) The amount of energy the body uses at complete rest is known as the A. resting metabolic rate. B. basal metabolic rate. C. metabolic balance. D. caloric restriction.
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B. basal metabolic rate.
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21) Over the last 20 years, the calorie intake of Americans has increased. This is due in part to A. increased consumption of fat. B. the inability to recognize normal serving sizes. C. the increase in low-price restaurant chains. D. increased consumption of organic food.
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B. the inability to recognize normal serving sizes.
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Data from the National Health Interview Survey show that 4 in 10 adults A. never engage in any exercise, sports, or physically active hobbies. B. participate in daily physical activity. C. participate in athletic activities on a regular basis. D. participate in vigorous physical exercise at least 3 times per week.
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A. never engage in any exercise, sports, or physically active hobbies.
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23) What percentage of dieters are likely to regain lost weight within two years? A. 20% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75%
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D. 75%
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24) In addition to the United States, which of the following nations or regions are also experiencing an obesity epidemic? A. Mexico and the United Kingdom B. Japan and Korea C. Mexico and Central America D. The United Kingdom and Scandinavia
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A. Mexico and the United Kingdom
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25) Higher metabolic rates during growth and development periods such as puberty and pregnancy are part of A. an increased need for rest. B. the body getting older. C. rapid bodily changes. D. the digestive process.
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C. rapid bodily changes.
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26) Kevin wants to lose 5 pounds of fat. He finds it hard to cut back on his eating, so he decides that he will walk an hour each day to burn more calories. How many extra calories must he expend to lose a pound of fat? A. 2,000 B. 3,000 C. 3,500 D. 4,500
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C. 3,500
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27) Individuals who go on and off starvation diets multiple times to lose weight will likely end up with A. an increased ability to lose weight each time. B. a decreased ability to lose weight without drugs. C. a lower basal metabolic rate. D. a higher basal metabolic rate.
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C. a lower basal metabolic rate.
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28) Which of the following people would be most likely to notice the effects of an age-related decline in metabolic rate? A. 25-year-old student B. 25-year-old truck driver C. 30-year-old computer programmer D. 30-year-old pregnant woman
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. 30-year-old computer programmer
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29) The concept of adaptive thermogenesis attempts to explain A. how genetics influences childhood obesity. B. how thin people can consume large amounts of calories without gaining weight. C. how obese people conserve calories, which makes it harder to lose weight. D. how metabolic rate slows down as we age.
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B. how thin people can consume large amounts of calories without gaining weight.
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30) Some scientists believe that the hypothalamus does all of the following EXCEPT A. monitors the level of certain nutrients in the blood. B. aids in adaptive thermogenesis. C. regulates appetite. D. disrupts adaptive thermogenesis.
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D. disrupts adaptive thermogenesis.
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31) People who seemingly can eat whatever they want without gaining weight usually A. don't actually consume that many calories. B. are very active in their daily routines. C. have low resting metabolic rates. D. have a past history of restrictive diets.
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B. are very active in their daily routines.
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32) Which of the following is NOT true about weight management? A. Low calorie diets increase the risk of disordered eating. B. Depression and stress can influence a person's ability to lose weight. C. Short-term diets are not as effective as long-term behavior modification. D. Long-term behavior modification is not as effective as short-term diets.
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D. Long-term behavior modification is not as effective as short-term diets.
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33) A good way to control portion sizes when you eat out is to A. choose your meal from a buffet instead of ordering from the menu. B. split an entrée with a friend or eat only half and take the other half home. C. order both appetizer and entrée courses. D. select a vegetarian meal that contains no meat or dairy.
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B. split an entrée with a friend or eat only half and take the other half home.
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34) Aaron is trying to lose weight but he still wants a snack while he is studying. He discovered that a low-calorie hot drink is a good choice because A. hot drinks are more satisfying than many other snack choices. B. it doesn't take much time to make a hot beverage. C. hot drinks don't contain any fat. D. hot drinks are the best way to replace fluids after exercising.
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A. hot drinks are more satisfying than many other snack choices.
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35) A person's exercise metabolic rate (EMR) will increase if he or she A. decreases the time spent exercising. B. performs light daily activities instead of structured exercise routines. C. increases the activity level from light to moderate. D. decreases the activity level from moderate to light.
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C. increases the activity level from light to moderate.
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36) In planning a weight management program that has the best chance of success you must A. decide to eliminate all fat from the diet. B. think of weight management as a temporary phase. C. set realistic short- and long-term goals. D. follow a formal plan such as Weight Watchers.
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C. set realistic short- and long-term goals.
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37) The body adapts to prolonged fasting or carbohydrate deprivation by converting body fat to ketones to be used as fuel for brain cells, a process known as A. ketosis. B. ketogenesis. C. hyperplasia. D. stenosis.
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B. ketogenesis.
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38) When fasting or eating a very-low-calorie diet for prolonged periods, the body will obtain fuel from its energy stores. One of the last reserves the body will use is A. subcutaneous fat. B. fat stored in the liver. C. protein in muscle and organ tissue. D. glycogen stores in the brain.
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C. protein in muscle and organ tissue.
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39) Problems associated with severe caloric restriction include all of the following EXCEPT A. blood sugar imbalance. B. fatigue. C. dehydration. D. increased tolerance to cold.
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D. increased tolerance to cold.
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40) An individual who is fasting will deplete his or her energy stores in about A. 2 days. B. 6 days. C. 10 days. D. 14 days.
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C. 10 days.
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41) The weight loss drugs Redux and Pondimin (also known as fen-phen) were recalled after FDA approval and widespread use because they were found to A. produce drastic ketosis. B. damage heart valves. C. cause cancer. D. damage the gastrointestinal tract.
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B. damage heart valves.
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42) A hormone produced in the stomach that is referred to as the "hunger hormone" is A. leptin. B. adrenaline. C. ghrelin. D. insulin. Answer: C
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C. ghrelin.
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43) A measurement based on the relationship between a person's height and weight that is highly correlated to the amount of body fat is the A. body composition index. B. obesity index. C. body fat index. D. body mass index.
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D. body mass index.
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44) The prescription drug orlistat (Xenical, marketed as Alli) has a number of unpleasant side effects but works to promote weight loss by A. increasing resting metabolic rate. B. inhibits the digestion of fat. C. suppressing appetite. D. increasing water loss.
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B. inhibits the digestion of fat.
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45) Currently there is no prescription weight loss drug available that can be used over time without increasing the chances of A. relapse and weight gain. B. excess fluid loss. C. adverse effects. D. adverse effects and abuse.
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D. adverse effects and abuse.
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46) Over-the-counter weight loss supplements typically contain A. diuretics. B. vitamins. C. antidepressants. D. minerals.
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A. diuretics.
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47) Gastric bypass is considered a(n) A. restrictive surgery. B. malabsorption surgery. C. cardiovascular surgery. D. elimination surgery.
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B. malabsorption surgery.
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48) Benefits of gastric bypass surgery include the potential to cure A. certain types of cancers. B. type 2 diabetes. C. infections. D. Crohn's disease.
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B. type 2 diabetes.
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49) Liposuction is used to A. restrict the calories absorbed by the body. B. spot reduce or contour body shape. C. decrease levels of leptin. D. reroute the passage of food through the body.
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B. spot reduce or contour body shape.
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50) Allen has just eaten a large meal and pushes his plate away, unable to eat any more. He is experiencing A. adaptive thermogenesis. B. hunger. C. appetite. D. satiety.
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D. satiety.
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24. All of the following are American Psychological Association criteria for bulimia nervosa EXCEPT A. recurrent episodes of binge eating. B. recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior. C. body weight and shape unduly influence self-evaluation. D. an imbalance of neurotransmitters.
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D. an imbalance of neurotransmitters.
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29. The primary characteristic that distinguishes compulsive exercise from regular exercise is A. compulsive exercise is planned in advance. B. compulsive exercise is used to alleviate guilt and anxiety. C. compulsive exercise is associated with lower risk of injury. D. compulsive exercise is only performed by athletes.
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B. compulsive exercise is used to alleviate guilt and anxiety.
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30. The decrease in estrogen seen with the female athlete triad contributes to A. decreased bone mineral density only. B. low energy intake. C. amenorrhea only. D. decreased bone mineral density and amenorrhea.
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D. decreased bone mineral density and amenorrhea.
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31. A healthy body image is a key indicator of a person's A. self-awareness. B. self-esteem. C. self-motivation. D. self-actualization.
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B. self-esteem.
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33. Chronic dieting is an example of A. healthy eating. B. binge-and-purge cycles. C. disordered eating. D. learned behavior.
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C. disordered eating.
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34. People with anorexia are at a risk of dying from A. colon cancer. B. heart or kidney failure. C. diabetes. D. muscle loss.
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B. heart or kidney failure.
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35. A disorder in which men take extreme measures to change their body because they believe they are either too fat or not muscular enough is A. muscle atrophy. B. anorexia nervosa. C. hyperplasia. D. muscle dysmorphia.
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D. muscle dysmorphia.
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Most Americans suffer from a true body image disorder
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F
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Bulimia nervosa has the highest death rate of any psychological illness.
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F
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Individuals suffering from bulimia nervosa tend to be underweight.
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F
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Eating disorders affect men and women equally.
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F
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The majority of people with a serious eating disorder will die if they do not get treatment.
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F
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1. Which of the following is NOT a major health-related component of physical fitness? A. Cardiorespiratory fitness B. Muscular strength and endurance C. Body composition D. Body image
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D. Body image
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Rita is always complaining that she doesn't like the way she looks. She tells her friend Sue that she thinks her thighs are too big and that she feels fat. Sue assures Rita that she isn't fat, but Rita won't listen. It is likely that Rita may be suffering from A. peer pressure. B. a negative body image. C. anxiety. D. depression.
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B. a negative body image.
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5. The body image continuum developed by researchers at the University of Arizona A. identifies distinct stages associated with how satisfied you are with your body. B. only identifies behaviors associated with a negative body image. C. represents a range of behaviors and attitudes toward body image. D. only identifies behaviors associated with a positive body image.
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C. represents a range of behaviors and attitudes toward body image.
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A major influence on our development of a body image is A. characters you read about in books. B. how lean or chubby you were as a child. C. how employers and teachers see you. D. the media and popular culture.
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D. the media and popular culture.
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10. Recent neurological studies have linked body image disorders to A. family environment and established eating patterns. B. poor neurotransmitter regulation and impairments in visual processing. C. poor emotional control and certain learning disabilities. D. several spinal column deformities or birth defects.
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B. poor neurotransmitter regulation and impairments in visual processing.
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12. A key characteristic associated with social physique anxiety is A. an over-reliance on counseling or therapy. B. avoidance of issues associated with appearance. C. a pattern of yo-yo dieting. D. an inability function in social interactions and relationships.
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D. an inability function in social interactions and relationships.
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14. Karen is extremely dissatisfied with her body shape and she has gone through three cosmetic surgeries to alter her facial structure. Karen is most likely suffering from A. social physique anxiety. B. anorexia nervosa. C. body dysmorphic disorder. D. bulimia nervosa.
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C. body dysmorphic disorder.
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17. Which of the following is NOT one of the eating disorders defined by the American Psychological Association? A. anorexia and bulimia nervosa. B. anxiety-related eating disorder. C. binge-eating disorder. D. EDNOS.
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B. anxiety-related eating disorder.
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21. All of the following are American Psychological Association criteria for anorexia nervosa EXCEPT A. maintaining a body weight above a minimally normal weight for age and height. B. intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat. C. denial of the seriousness of a current low body weight. D. disturbance in the way in which body weight or shape is experienced.
answer
A. maintaining a body weight above a minimally normal weight for age and height.
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3. In a fitness program, increasing the amount of weight you lift over time is an example of the A. specificity principle. B. overload principle. C. reversibility principle. D. intensity principle.
answer
B. overload principle.
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6. Which statement best summarizes the association between exercise and improved immunity? A. Long-term, heavy exercisers get the most gain in immunity versus those who exercise only moderately. B. Moderate-intensity exercise temporarily increases the number of white blood cells, thereby boosting immunity. C. Regular exercise does not have any correlation to a healthy immune system. D. The most significant improvements in immunity are seen when a moderate exerciser begins a more intense exercise program.
answer
B. Moderate-intensity exercise temporarily increases the number of white blood cells, thereby boosting immunity.
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7. Exercise can reduce the risk of heart disease by all of the following EXCEPT A. improving blood flow. B. increasing LDL levels. C. increasing heart efficiency. D. increasing the number of capillaries.
answer
B. increasing LDL levels
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8. Regular aerobic exercise can reduce which type of cholesterol known as "bad cholesterol"? A. HDLs B. LDLs C. Triglycerides D. Essential lipids
answer
B. LDLs
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9. All of the following are ways to measure the intensity of cardiovascular exercise EXCEPT A. target heart rate. B. talk test. C. blood gas analysis. D. rating of perceived exertion.
answer
C. blood gas analysis.
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10. Which of the following is true about target heart rate? A. It is a measure of the heart rate after 20 minutes of exercise. B. It is a percentage of your maximum heart rate. C. It is the threshold level of exercise at which one cannot talk and exercise comfortably. D. It varies by a person's body weight.
answer
B. It is a percentage of your maximum heart rate.
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11. Tasha is 20 years old and wants to find her 60 percent target heart rate. This calculation would equal A. 60 beats per minute. B. 200 beats per minute. C. 160 beats per minute. D. 120 beats per minute.
answer
D. 120 beats per minute.
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12. In a fitness program, the slogan "use it or lose it" describes which principle? A. Specificity B. Overload C. Reversibility D. Flexibility
answer
C. Reversibility
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13. Which of the following statements is true about tai chi? A. Tai chi increases flexibility through the use of asanas (poses). B. Tai chi originated in India about 5,000 years ago. C. Tai chi combines stretching and movement against resistance, which is aided by devices such as tension springs or heavy rubber bands. D. Tai chi is an ancient Chinese form of exercise widely practiced in the West that promotes balance, coordination, and meditation.
answer
D. Tai chi is an ancient Chinese form of exercise widely practiced in the West that promotes balance, coordination, and meditation.
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4. A person practicing which of the following forms of exercise will experience improvements in coordination? A. Yoga only B. Tai chi only C. Spinning D. Both yoga and tai chi
answer
D. Both yoga and tai chi
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15. The least serious form of heat-related illness is A. heatstroke. B. heat exhaustion. C. heat cramps. D. hypothermia.
answer
C. heat cramps.
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16. The amount of force that a muscle is capable of exerting is referred to as A. muscular endurance. B. muscular strength. C. aerobic capacity. D. the overload principle.
answer
B. muscular strength.
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17. Which type of physical activity involves planned, structured, and repetitive body movement? A. Exercise B. Strength C. Aerobic D. Fitness
answer
A. Exercise
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23. What is the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' recommendation for the minimum amount of moderate exercise for adults? A. 100 minutes per week B. 150 minutes per week C. 200 minutes per week D. 250 minutes per week
answer
B. 150 minutes per week
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24. Which general training principles must be considered when designing an exercise program? A. Overload and specificity B. Frequency, reversibility, and specificity C. Specificity and reversibility D. Overload, specificity, and reversibility
answer
D. Overload, specificity, and reversibility
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25. All of the following are overuse injuries EXCEPT A. shin splints. B. runner's knee. C. plantar fasciitis. D. ligament sprain.
answer
D. ligament sprain.
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26. All of the following are part of the RICE formula for treating sports- and fitness-related injuries EXCEPT A. rest the injured body part. B. elevate the injured extremity. C. compress the injury with an elastic bandage. D. apply heat at the injury site.
answer
D. apply heat at the injury site.
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27. Which of the following is the most serious form of heat-stress illness? A. Heat cramps B. Heat exhaustion C. Heat response D. Heatstroke
answer
D. Heatstroke
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28. How long does it take for a person's body to become accustomed to exercising in the heat? A. 4-5 days B. About a week C. About 2 weeks D. At least 3 weeks
answer
C. About 2 weeks
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29. Which of the following is not true about hypothermia? A. It is a potentially fatal condition from abnormally low body temperature. B. In early stages it causes shivering. C. It may produce poor judgment, apathy, and amnesia. D. It can only happen in temperatures below 32 degrees Fahrenheit.
answer
D. It can only happen in temperatures below 32 degrees Fahrenheit.
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30. Which of the following would NOT be good advice for someone who is purchasing running shoes? A. Make sure they fit properly by trying them on later in the day when feet have expanded to their largest size. B. Make sure the shoes are made specifically for running. C. Make sure the shoes have good shock absorption. D. Make sure there is no extra room in the toe box.
answer
D. Make sure there is no extra room in the toe box.
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31. What are the components of the FITT principle that apply to all types of exercise? A. Frequency, intensity, time, and type B. Fitness, intensity, tension, and time C. Frequency, information, time, and tempo D. Fitness, involvement, time, and type.
answer
A. Frequency, intensity, time, and type
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32. Which of the following is an example of a test that assesses muscular endurance? A. 1-minute curl-up test B. Maximum repetition test C. Sit-and-reach test D. 1.5-mile run test
answer
A. 1-minute curl-up test
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33. A person with strong core muscles has improved posture and A. reduced chance of injury. B. enhanced cardiovascular fitness. C. the ability to lift free weights. D. reduced training time.
answer
A. reduced chance of injury.
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34. According to cancer experts, what percentage of cancers could be prevented by being physically active and eating a healthy diet? A. One-quarter B. One-third C. One-half D. Three-quarters
answer
B. One-third
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35. When doing some form of aerobic exercise, you are at an appropriate intensity when you are A. not able to catch your breath. B. able to sing clearly. C. able to talk to someone. D. intermittently able to talk.
answer
C. able to talk to someone.
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36. Training for muscle endurance can be done with A. free weights or weight machines and the guidance of a personal trainer. B. weight machines or resistance bands or equipment. C. free weights or your own body weight. D. free weights, machines, resistance equipment, or your own body weight.
answer
D. free weights, machines, resistance equipment, or your own body weight.
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37. A swimmer trying to improve her stroke performance concentrates mainly on upper body weight training; her training program is an example of A. isometric training. B. specificity. C. tension training. D. isolation.
answer
B. specificity.
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38. When developing a strength-training program, if you want to increase muscular strength, you need A. a varied exercise selection. B. a consistent number of repetitions and sets. C. lower intensity and a higher number of repetitions and sets. D. higher intensity and fewer repetitions and sets.
answer
D. higher intensity and fewer repetitions and sets
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39. The body's core muscles are the A. back and abdominals. B. abdominals and legs. C. back and legs. D. chest and abdominals.
answer
A. back and abdominals.
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40. An example of an exercise to build core strength would be A. abdominal curl-ups. B. squats. C. hip stretches. D. toe touches.
answer
A. abdominal curl-ups.
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41. Which exercise technique involves working to slowly and gradually lengthen a muscle or group of muscles? A. Strength training B. Static stretching C. Reflex building D. Endurance training
answer
B. Static stretching
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42. General pain that occurs below the knee and above the ankle is called A. shin fasciitis. B. plantar fasciitis. C. tendon inflammation. D. shin splints.
answer
D. shin splints.
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43. Breaking a leg during a football game is an example of which type of injury? A. Overuse B. Traumatic C. Repetitive D. Stress-related
answer
B. Traumatic
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44. Good advice to someone who wants to exercise in hot weather would include all of the following EXCEPT A. wear appropriate clothing. B. exercise in early morning or evening, when temperatures are cooler. C. restrict the intake of fluids before working out. D. avoid dehydration.
answer
C. restrict the intake of fluids before working out.
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45. In hypothermia, death occurs when body core temperature drops to A. 75-80°F. B. 81-84°F. C. 87-89°F. D. 85-86°F.
answer
A. 75-80°F.
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46. A sprained ankle should be iced A. every two hours for the first 24 hours. B. three times a day for the first 24 to 72 hours. C. for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 to 72 hours. D. every hour for the first 24 hours.
answer
C. for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 to 72 hours.
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48. A potentially fatal condition resulting from abnormally low body core temperature is called A. hypothermia. B. hyperthermia. C. temperature deprivation. D. thermal atrophy.
answer
A. hypothermia.
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49. Which statement about heat exhaustion is true? A. It is the most serious heat-related illness. B. It is a mild form of shock. C. It causes 240 deaths per year in the United States. D. It is irreversible.
answer
B. It is a mild form of shock.
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50. It is wise to deal with being outdoors in cold temperatures by A. wearing lightweight clothing to aid air circulation. B. being out on a day with low humidity. C. wearing layered clothing and keeping hydrated. D. restricting the intake of fluids before going out.
answer
C. wearing layered clothing and keeping hydrated.
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52. Miranda plays on the lacrosse team and knows that increasing her aerobic capacity will help her on the field. To determine her current status, the team's trainer will conduct a test in which Miranda will run on a treadmill for a designated time while measurements are taken. What will the measure of her aerobic capacity show? A. The volume of oxygen her muscles consume during exercise B. Her rate of respiration while under stress C. The electrical activity in her heart while exercising D. The capacity her lungs have for expansion if she trains harder
answer
A. The volume of oxygen her muscles consume during exercise
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54. The amount of force that a muscle can exert in one contraction is muscle A. flexibility. B. strength. C. endurance. D. extension.
answer
B. strength.
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56. The relative proportions and distribution of fat and lean tissue throughout the body is its A. flexibility. B. risk of disease. C. weight. D. composition.
answer
D. composition.
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57. The amount of effort needed during a workout to improve some aspect of fitness is exercise A. flexibility. B. intensity. C. duration. D. resistance.
answer
B. intensity.
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58. When you engage in an aerobic exercise, such as a Latin dance class, which measurement will you use to confirm that you are working at 70% to 90% of your maximal heart rate for improved cardiorespiratory fitness? A. Number of sets B. Number of repetitions C. Target heart rate D. Target respiratory rate
answer
C. Target heart rate
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59. During aerobic exercise, when you need to check your pulse to determine your heart rate, where on the body are the arteries located that are best to use? A. Side of neck or inside the wrist B. Inside the wrist or behind the knee C. At the temple or side of neck D. Directly over the heart or inside the elbow
answer
A. Side of neck or inside the wrist
question
0. In resistance training, which of the following represents the amount of weight or resistance that can be moved only once? A. One set (1 S) B. One repetition maximum (1 RM) C. One resistance maximum (1 RM) D. One static stretch (1 SS)
answer
B. One repetition maximum (1 RM)
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61. Which multifaceted form of exercise combines stretching with movement against resistance and involves the use of equipment with pulleys and springs or devices such as resistance bands? A. Weight training B. Yoga C. Static stretching D. Pilates ANS: D
answer
D. Pilates
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62. Which form of exercise involves techniques that slowly and gradually lengthen a muscle or group of muscles and the associated tendons? A. Tai chi B. Yoga C. Static stretching D. Pilates
answer
C. Static stretching
question
Regular physical activity decreases both HDL and LDL levels in the blood.
answer
F
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A woman who does weight-bearing exercise will likely have higher bone mass and bone density than a woman who doesn't exercise.
answer
T
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Longevity is positively correlated with the intensity of regular exercise.
answer
T
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Overuse injuries are those that occur suddenly and violently.
answer
F
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A vigorous workout raises a person's metabolic rate during exercise and for several hours afterward.
answer
T
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Athletes who train too much are said to suffer from overload syndrome.
answer
F
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Athletes who engage in very extreme or intense physical activities, such as marathons, have been shown to be at an increased risk for colds and flu.
answer
T
question
The lower the intensity of activity, the longer the duration of exercise should be
answer
T
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Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of muscles in the lower back.
answer
F
