Gov’t 2305 Finals – Flashcards
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The section of the U.S. Constitution commonly referred to as the Bill of Rights consists of A) the powers of the president to curtail individual rights. B) the amendments to the Constitution, added in 1791 following ratification, that guarantee individual rights. C) Article III, which sets up the judicial branch. D) voluntary measures to ensure domestic tranquility. E) police powers that are designed to control citizen uprising
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) the amendments to the Constitution, added in 1791 following ratification, that guarantee individual rights.
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One of the foundation principles of the U.S. Constitution is popular sovereignty, which means that A) the people are tightly controlled by the government. B) the president is the ultimate governmental power. C) Congress is supreme. D) the people are ultimately in charge of their political and social destiny. E) the Supreme Court is subordinate to no other agency or group.
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D) the people are ultimately in charge of their political and social destiny
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Constitutional powers that are shared by both the federal and state governments are called A) enumerated powers. B) reserved powers. C) concurrent powers. D) moderate powers. E) constituent powers.
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C) concurrent powers.
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The primary purpose of the system of checks and balances is A) to ensure that no one interest or faction could easily dominate the government. B) to ensure that the people do not become too powerful and attempt to control the government. C) to protect the executive branch from abuses of the judicial branch. D) to allow the president to be removed from office. E) to ensure that the government remains powerful and supreme.
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A) to ensure that no one interest or faction could easily dominate the government.
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ohn Locke purposed that ______ law supersedes any law made by government. A) natural B) civil C) human D) criminal E) environmental
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A) natural
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Match the court cases with their appropriate significance. A. Texas v. Johnson (1989) B. Miller v. California (1973) C. McDonald v. Chicago (2010) D. Furman v. Georgia (1972) E. Gregg v. Georgia (1976) F. Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992) G. Roe v. Wade (1973) H. Barron v. Baltimore (1833) I. Mapp v. Ohio (1961) J. Brown v. Board of Education (1954)
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-court's ruling stating that laws prohibiting flag burning are unconstitutional. -court attempt to clarify its obscenity doctrine. -incorporation of the 2nd Amendment. -Supreme Court ruled that the death penalty was unconstitutional because it was implemented in a manner that was arbitrary and capricious. -the Supreme Court ruled that Georgia's new death penalty legislation avoided the "arbitrary and capricious" implementation of the death penalty by establishing a bifurcated trial. -made it easier for states to place restrictions on abortion services. -court found abortion to be Constitutional. -held that enumerated rights contained in the Bill of Rights bound only the federal government. -developed the exclusionary rule. -overturned the separate but equal doctrine.
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Correct answer(s): Texas v. Johnson (1989):court's ruling stating that laws prohibiting flag burning are unconstitutional. , Miller v. California (1973):court attempt to clarify its obscenity doctrine., McDonald v. Chicago (2010):incorporation of the 2nd Amendment., Furman v. Georgia (1972):Supreme Court ruled that the death penalty was unconstitutional because it was implemented in a manner that was arbitrary and capricious., Gregg v. Georgia (1976):the Supreme Court ruled that Georgia's new death penalty legislation avoided the "arbitrary and capricious" implementation of the death penalty by establishing a bifurcated trial., Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992):made it easier for states to place restrictions on abortion services., Roe v. Wade (1973):court found abortion to be Constitutional., Barron v. Baltimore (1833):held that enumerated rights contained in the Bill of Rights bound only the federal government., Mapp v. Ohio (1961):developed the exclusionary rule., Brown v. Board of Education (1954):overturned the separate but equal doctrine.
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Lawrence v. Texas (2003) was one of the biggest court victories for A) Mexicans. B) homosexuals. C) Muslims. D) Native Americans. E) Asians.
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B) homosexuals
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Article IV, Section 1 of the U.S. Constitution contains the full faith and credit clause. What does this clause guarantee? A) The states must have full faith that the federal government's decisions are correct. B) The federal government is a guaranteed lender to the state governments for operational funds. C) Each state will abide by the decisions of other state and local governments, including their judicial decisions, and will respect the civil laws of each state. D) The federal government has the power to mediate disputes among states regarding religion. E) The federal government is committed to matters of faith and must ensure that the right to religious faith is upheld.
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C) Each state will abide by the decisions of other state and local governments, including their judicial decisions, and will respect the civil laws of each state.
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What is the most common method used to amend the U.S. Constitution? A) A two-thirds vote in both chambers of Congress B) Simple majority of the voters of the United States C) Approval from two-thirds of the state legislatures and the signature of the president D) Voter approval and the ruling of the Supreme Court on its constitutionality E) Two-thirds of both chambers of Congress or two-thirds of state legislatures, then ratified by three-fourths of state legislatures
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E) Two-thirds of both chambers of Congress or two-thirds of state legislatures, then ratified by three-fourths of state legislatures
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What was the Three-Fifths Compromise? A) A three-fifths majority would be necessary to amend the constitution. B) A three-fifths majority would be necessary to appoint members of the Supreme Court. C) Three states would be "slave states," five states would be "free states," and the remaining states would be able to decide their own fate after 1820. D) Five slaves would count as the equivalent of three "free persons" for purposes of taxes and representation. E) An agreement reached by three-fifths of the states to revoke the Articles of Confederation and install the Constitution.
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Five slaves would count as the equivalent of three "free persons" for purposes of taxes and representation.
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That "the will of people" ought to guide public policy is a concept that is defined as A) liberty. B) pluralism. C) plurality. D) majority rule. E) politics.
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D) majority rule.
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The Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution provides A) freedom of speech. B) citizenship rights to all natural born residents. C) that any powers not expressly given to Congress are reserved to the states. D) that the national government is supreme. E) for the powers of judicial review.
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C) that any powers not expressly given to Congress are reserved to the states.
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"Positive rights" A) cannot be denied by a government. B) exist even in the absence of government. C) are "inalienable." D) are granted by and subject to government authority. E) are based on the natural laws of human society.
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D) are granted by and subject to government authority.
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In 2003 the U.S. Supreme Court revisited the Bakke decision in the case of Grutter v. Bollinger. What was the Court's ruling in this 2003 case concerning affirmative action? A) It reversed Bakke and stated that such programs punish non-minorities who played no role at all in the original discriminatory practices. B) It ruled that the racial divide that exists in this country may be exacerbated by affirmative action. C) It ruled that affirmative action programs are explicit racial classifications, and as such they violate the principle of a "color-blind" society. D) It ruled that economically privileged African Americans who do not need such assistance may benefit at the expense of less privileged African Americans who have greater needs. E) It reaffirmed the ruling in Bakke that allows race to be used as one of several positive factors in the admissions process.
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E) It reaffirmed the ruling in Bakke that allows race to be used as one of several positive factors in the admissions process.
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A(n) ______ is a form of government in which a small exclusive class holds supreme power. A) republic B) monarchy C) oligarchy D) theocracy E) civic union
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C) oligarchy
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When antidiscrimination legislation failed to provide the necessary and desired results, civil rights leaders often turned to the courts for relief and support. In the first half of the twentieth century litigation efforts culminated in the 1954 landmark Supreme Court case of Brown v. Board of Education. This ruling brought about A) freedom for all slaves in the southern states. B) reparations for descendants of former slaves. C) free college tuition at all state universities. D) desegregation of all public schools. E) creation of affirmative action programs for all employers and college admission offices
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D) desegregation of all public schools
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A system of government in which power is divided between a central authority and constituent political subunits is called a(n) A) state system. B) federal system, or federated system. C) dual system. D) democracy. E) national system.
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B) federal system, or federated system.
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A government is viewed as legitimate when A) there is no opposition to its policies. B) all officials are elected with a majority of the popular vote. C) the affected people recognize the government and allow it to exercise control over them. D) it attempts to make all citizens happy. E) it takes the form of a democracy.
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C) the affected people recognize the government and allow it to exercise control over them.
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Democracy is A) government in which elected officials have control and remove any power or authority from the people. B) a form of government in which a small exclusive class holds supreme power. C) government in which religion must play a significant role. D) government in which the people, either directly or through elected representatives, hold power and authority. E) the only true and legitimate form of government.
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D) government in which the people, either directly or through elected representatives, hold power and authority.
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The era of cooperative federalism was rooted in the Great Depression struggles of the late 1930s. How did cooperative federalism differ from the previous era of dual federalism? A) Cooperative federalism acted as a return to the strict doctrine of state powers. B) Cooperative federalism increased the powers of the federal government when necessary, but retained basic state powers. C) Cooperative federalism was an arrangement whereby the state governments were allowed to approve all Supreme Court rulings. D) The Supreme Court had no authority under the dual federalism arrangement so the state governments cooperatively granted the Court its necessary powers. E) State supreme courts continued to be the supreme authority in the national government structure.
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B) Cooperative federalism increased the powers of the federal government when necessary, but retained basic state powers.
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When the Congress exercises power given to it under Article I, the federal law it creates may supersede a state law. This process is known as A) federal abuse of power. B) unconstitutional action. C) the doctrine of preemption D) the doctrine of fair business practice. E) judicial review.
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C) the doctrine of preemption
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"Layer Cake Federalism" is A) a system in which the aims of subnational government are subordinate to the goals of the central government. B) a system in which state and federal authority is intertwined in an inseparable mixture. C) a system in which the authority of the state and federal governments is distinct and more easily delineated. D) a system that affords Congress nearly unlimited authority to exercise its powers through means that often coerce states into administering and/or enforcing federal policies. E) a system that holds that state authority acts as a significant limit on congressional power under the Constitution.
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C) a system in which the authority of the state and federal governments is distinct and more easily delineated.
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The Ninth and Tenth Amendments A) guarantee specific rights. B) protect individuals from limitations on the right to bear arms. C) describe prohibit excessive bail. D) convey divisions of power between state and federal governments. E) prohibit quartering of troops among the civilian population
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D) convey divisions of power between state and federal governments
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In opposition to the recommendations of the Virginia delegates during the Constitutional Convention, the New Jersey Plan advocated a single-chamber legislature with A) equal representation among the states regardless of population. B) slaves counting as three-fifths of a whole person. C) the Supreme Court determining the number of representatives from each state. D) no executive branch. E) lifelong appointments for representatives.
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A) equal representation among the states regardless of population
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A social condition in which members of different groups possess substantially the same rights to participate actively in the political system is referred to as A) political equality. B) social equality. C) economic equality. D) civil equality. E) civil rights.
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A) political equality.
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The Fourth Amendment has had a very strong impact on the American legal system and has been a source of many Supreme Court rulings. The Fourth Amendment deals with A) the right to bear arms. B) the right to peaceably assemble and to petition the government for a redress of grievances. C) the right of the people to be secure against unreasonable searches and seizures. D) the powers of the state governments in relation to the federal government. E) the right to an attorney.
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C) the right of the people to be secure against unreasonable searches and seizures.
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The Great Compromise provided for A) a bicameral legislature with one house elected by the people and a second house selected by the first. B) a unicameral legislature with the members selected by each state legislature. C) a unicameral legislature elected by the people. D) a bicameral legislature elected by the people. E) a bicameral legislature with one house elected by the people and the second house chosen by state legislatures.
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E) a bicameral legislature with one house elected by the people and the second house chosen by state legislatures
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Which of the following is a check by the legislative branch on the powers of the executive branch? A) Congress may rule that a presidential action is unconstitutional. B) The Supreme Court may veto presidential orders. C) The Supreme Court recommends legislation to the judicial branch that is assured to pass constitutional muster. D) The president may veto a law passed by the legislative branch. E) The Senate must consent to all presidential appointees to the U.S. Supreme Court.
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E) The Senate must consent to all presidential appointees to the U.S. Supreme Court.
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What was the primary purpose of the Voting Rights Act of 1965? A) It removed any artificial barrier to voter participation, including literacy tests and poll taxes. B) It required African Americans to prove that they are descendants of slaves before being allowed to register to vote. C) It made all elections a function of the federal government instead of the states. D) It ensured an African American senator from every state within 50 years. E) It reinstated the racial restrictions on voter registration, especially in southern states.
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A) It removed any artificial barrier to voter participation, including literacy tests and poll taxes
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A. Legislative Check on the Judicial B. Legislative Checks on the President C. Judicial Checks on the Legislative D. Executive Checks on the Legislative E. Executive Checks on the Judicial
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A. Propose constitutional amendments to override judicial decisions B. Impeach the president C. Rule federal and state laws unsconstitutional D. Veto Legislation E. Appoint federal judges
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The values and beliefs toward government and its operations and institutions, widely held among its citizens in a society, are often referred to as A) political culture. B) political leaning. C) partisanship. D) collective ideology. E) politics.
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A) political culture.
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Article I of the U.S. Constitution grants that Congress has the power to make laws that are "necessary and proper" to carry out its duties. What is the meaning of this statement? A) Congress has implied powers that are not expressly stated in the Constitution and, though not expressly stated, Congress has an expectation to enact legislation to carry out its duties. B) Congress is required to enact most laws. C) The Constitution contains all of the rights and powers necessary for Congress to perform its duties. D) Congress ultimately has the power to override any state laws that it deems unnecessary or improper. E) Congress is expected to keep its lawmaking function to a minimum.
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A) Congress has implied powers that are not expressly stated in the Constitution and, though not expressly stated, Congress has an expectation to enact legislation to carry out its duties.
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Which of the following is NOT considered a weakness of the Articles of Confederation? A) The creation of a nationwide postal service B) The federal government's lack of authority to raise troops C) The executive branch's lack of authority to enforce laws D) The sovereignty of states in relations with the federal government E) The inability of Congress to raise an army by its own power
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A) The creation of a nationwide postal service
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Sovereignty is defined as A) the power of a governmental unit to control the destiny of another unit. B) the lack of a centralized government. C) the supreme political power of a government to regulate its affairs with outside interference. D) the political power to control all subordinate governments. E) a state of anarchy.
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C) the supreme political power of a government to regulate its affairs with outside interference.
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One of the most important reasons for the strength and endurance of the U.S. Constitution is A) its flexibility. B) its rigidity. C) the ability of ordinary citizens to change it. D) its declaration that the power of government is supreme. E) that it is steadfast and cannot change.
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A) its flexibility.
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Article VI of the U.S. Constitution contains the supremacy clause. What is the importance of this clause? A) It requires that the individual state constitutions will be the "supreme law of the land" and that the national constitution may not override them. B) It creates the standard that no other law, state constitution, or government action may override the U.S. Constitution, which is considered the "supreme law of the land." C) It states that Congress is supreme over the other two branches of government. D) It provides that no single government has supremacy over another. E) It establishes the supremacy of the American citizen as the ultimate power.
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B) It creates the standard that no other law, state constitution, or government action may override the U.S. Constitution, which is considered the "supreme law of the land."
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The U.S. Constitution allows some powers while denying others. Such explicitly stated powers are referred to as A) constitutionally mandated powers. B) amended powers. C) natural rights. D) enumerated powers. E) inherent powers.
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D) enumerated powers.
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The core principles of the Virginia Plan were A) a strong central government and a bicameral legislature. B) a unicameral legislature with representation by population. C) strong state governments and popular election of Supreme Court justices. D) the ideal of one state having one vote and the addition of four new states. E) economic and political features that replicated the European nation-state model.
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A) a strong central government and a bicameral legislature.
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How does representative democracy differ from direct democracy? A) In a direct democracy the citizens are taxed directly, whereas in representative democracy taxes are less obvious. B) In a direct democracy the individual citizens play an active and direct role in government, whereas in representative democracy they elect officials to act on their behalf. C) Unlike direct democracy, representative democracy eliminates the power of the citizens to have any say in government. D) The only difference between the two is the way in which representatives are elected. E) Direct democracy is synonymous with a monarchy, whereas representative democracy allows more citizen involvement in government.
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B) In a direct democracy the individual citizens play an active and direct role in government, whereas in representative democracy they elect officials to act on their behalf.
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The legal rule requiring that all evidence illegally obtained by police in violation of the Bill of Rights must be excluded from admission in a court of law, where it might have assisted in convicting those accused of committing crimes is called the A) good faith exception. B) Katz test. C) exclusionary rule. D) ex post facto law. E) free exercise clause.
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C) exclusionary rule.
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A standard that courts established to determine if material is obscene is based in part on whether the material has serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value. If it does, then the material is not obscene as it has passed the ______ test. A) SLAPS B) Katz C) Lemon D) First Amendment E) None of the above is tru
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A) SLAPS
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Which term refers to equality and fair treatment within the various institutions, both public and private that serve the public at large? A) Political equality B) Social equality C) Economic equality D) Liberty E) Social stratification
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B) Social equality
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of federalism? A) Strengthening of liberty through the division of powers B) Accommodation of diversity C) Encouragement of laboratories of democracy D) Fiscal disparities among the states E) None of the above is true.
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D) Fiscal disparities among the states
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Powers explicitly delegated to the Congress under Article I of the U.S. Constitution are referred to as A) enumerated powers. B) reserved powers. C) concurrent powers. D) federal powers. E) constituent powers.
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A) enumerated powers.
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Segregation in southern states during the early 1900s was legislated and institutionalized, and not all acts of discrimination were as obvious as housing, economic disparities, etc. Segregation in reality, as it is sometimes called, is known legally as A) de jure segregation. B) de facto segregation. C) case law segregation. D) geographic segregation. E) regional inequality.
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B) de facto segregation.
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How does the term "civil liberties" differ from the term "civil rights"? A) Lawsuits may be filed when violations of civil liberties occur, but they may not be filed for violations of civil rights. B) Civil liberties are voluntary whereas civil rights are mandatory. C) In most cases, the terms mean the same thing. D) Civil liberties are guaranteed by the Constitution and cannot be taken away, whereas civil rights refer to the rights to equal treatment for specific groups based on race, gender, sex, etc. E) The term "civil liberties" was used prior to the twentieth century, whereas the term "civil rights" was used afterward.
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D) Civil liberties are guaranteed by the Constitution and cannot be taken away, whereas civil rights refer to the rights to equal treatment for specific groups based on race, gender, sex, etc.
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Certain positive rights, whether political, social, or economic, are conferred by the government on individuals or groups that had previously been denied them. These are called A) civil liberties. B) civil rights. C) suffrage. D) social incentives. E) incremental rights.
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B) civil rights.
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What is the purpose of the establishment clause of the First Amendment? A) It requires Congress to establish a national religion to be used as a foundation for other religious efforts. B) It prohibits the display of any religious symbols, gestures, or thoughts at any level of government. C) It prohibits the government from enacting any law "respecting the establishment of religion." D) It establishes Christianity as the national religion, in keeping with the beliefs of the founding fathers. E) It ensures that any and all religious beliefs have equal and full support of the federal government.
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C) It prohibits the government from enacting any law "respecting the establishment of religion."
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In the U.S. Constitution, powers that are not expressly given to Congress but are retained by the state governments are called A) enumerated powers. B) reserved powers. C) concurrent powers. D) federal powers. E) decentralized powers.
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B) reserved powers.
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Criminal laws that are retroactively applied to those who engaged in activities when they were not yet illegal are called A) backdoor laws. B) fascist laws. C) civil subpoenas. D) bill of attainder. E) ex post facto laws.
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E) ex post facto laws.
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Congressional oversight includes A) placing an artillery round beyond a target for the purpose of adjusting fire. B) a preliminary scan of proposed regulations to check for logical consistency. C) a review of the relevant enabling act to assess conformance with the Constitution. D) regular monitoring of bureaucratic agency performance for the purpose of accountability. E) asking the Attorney General for an advisory opinion regarding a proposed regulation.
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D) regular monitoring of bureaucratic agency performance for the purpose of accountability.
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If the president vetoes a bill passed by Congress, then Congress may, in turn, check presidential power by overriding the veto. What is the threshold that Congress needs to be successful with the override? A) A simple majority of either chamber B) A simple majority of both chambers C) A two-thirds majority in both chambers D) A two-thirds majority in only one chamber E) A three-fourths majority in both chambers
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C) A two-thirds majority in both chambers
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The Supreme Court uses a significant power to declare acts of the other two branches of government, and of state governments, as unconstitutional and thus invalid. This power is referred to as A) appellate review. B) judicial veto. C) judicial review. D) veto override. E) ratification.
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C) judicial review.
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Members of the U.S. House of Representatives serve A) terms of two years. B) terms of four years. C) terms of six years. D) lifetime appointments. E) staggered terms
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A) terms of two years.
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In the U.S. House of Representatives, membership from each state is based upon A) political party strength. B) appointment by the governor. C) equal representation from each state. D) population of the state. E) amount of funding allotted by the previous Congress.
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D) population of the state.
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A government corporation A) is based on the idea that a market exists of customers willing to pay for services provided. B) relies on revenue primarily derived from payment for services provided. C) often is kept in business by government intervention. D) Options A, B, and C are true. E) None of the above is true
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D) Options A, B, and C are true.
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Each bureaucratic unit or agency has a written procedure for carrying out its programs or services. These procedures are referred to as A) red tape. B) regulations. C) statutes. D) writs. E) implementation cycles.
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B) regulations.
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Sets of legislative codes, laws, or rules that are enacted by duly authorized lawmaking bodies or offices are broadly known as A) civil law. B) martial law. C) case law. D) common law. E) executive law.
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A) civil law.
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Sociologist Max Weber, an early student of bureaucratic organizations, identified several common characteristics of effective bureaucracies. Which of the following would NOT be on Weber's list? A) Hierarchical arrangement with a clear chain of command from top to bottom B) A focus on the professionalism of all employees C) Hiring and promotional decisions that are normally influenced by local politicians D) Organization based on a division of labor, expertise, and specialization E) A common set of rules and regulations for carrying out organizational func
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C) Hiring and promotional decisions that are normally influenced by local politicians
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One of the reasons for Congress passing vague laws, thus calling for administrative discretion, is A) a set of rules that guide employees of an agency in carrying out a program or service. B) a widely accessible federal government publication. C) freedom in deciding how to implement a law. D) Congress choosing not to deal with politically difficult issues. E) the process of carrying out a law.
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D) Congress choosing not to deal with politically difficult issues.
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Leadership positions in Congress, such as Speaker of the House, are determined by A) appointments by the president, which are confirmed by Congress. B) the results of the nationwide elections. C) the preferences of the state legislatures. D) the laws that dictate who will be in the leadership positions. E) the elected members of Congress.
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E) the elected members of Congress.
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The President's responsibility to see "that the laws be faithfully executed" includes the power to A) suit the laws to his own particular advantage. B) determine the separation of powers. C) exert too much power over the executive. D) implement and enforce measures passed by Congress. E) carry out capital punishment.
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D) implement and enforce measures passed by Congress
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Article II of the United States Constitution lists four express powers of the president. Which of the following is NOT one of the express powers? A) Commander in chief of the armed forces B) Power to grant reprieves or pardons C) Power to make treaties D) Power to declare war E) Power to appoint federal judges and justices
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D) Power to declare war
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A member of the House of Representatives must A) be at least 21 years of age. B) a U.S. citizen for at least seven years. C) a resident of the district they represent. D) never have been convicted of a felony. E) a U. S. citizen for at least ten years.
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B) a U.S. citizen for at least seven years.
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The document filed by an outside party with an interest in litigation is a(n) A) writ of certiorari. B) Jurisprudence. C) amicus curiae. D) dicta. E) stare decisis.
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C) amicus curiae.
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Our legislative branch consists of two chambers: The U.S. House of Representatives and the U.S. Senate. This arrangement is referred to as A) congressional redistricting. B) congressional reapportionment. C) the system of checks and balances. D) pro tempore. E) a bicameral legislature
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E) a bicameral legislature
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The Constitutional provision limiting the president to only two elected terms is A) Article II. B) Twenty-second Amendment. C) Twenty-first Amendment. D) Seventeenth Amendment. E) Seventh Amendment.
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B) Twenty-second Amendment.
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What is meant by "administrative law"? A) Ethical standards for agency employees including all managers and administrators B) Laws that relate specifically to the authority of an administrative agency, are created by that agency, and carry the enforceability of law C) Laws in which Congress dictates how an agency head will conduct his or her business D) Laws created by the president that all federal agencies must follow but state agencies may disregard in certain cases E) Court opinions that carry the weight of law based on Supreme Court rulings that have stood over time
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B) Laws that relate specifically to the authority of an administrative agency, are created by that agency, and carry the enforceability of law
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What is meant by the term "administrative judge"? A) It is a judge that does not preside in a courtroom but handles court-related paperwork. B) It is a judge who serves as a magistrate. C) It is a judge who works within a federal agency to hold hearings and make judgments on cases related to that agency. D) It is a lower court judge who determines guilt but not punishments. E) It is another name for an appellate court judge, such as those on the Court of Appeals.
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C) It is a judge who works within a federal agency to hold hearings and make judgments on cases related to that agency.
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How is membership from each state in the U.S. Senate determined? A) By the population of the individual state B) By equal representation from each state C) By the results of the U.S. Census every 10 years D) By the courts E) By each session of the Senate as members determine the method to be used
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B) By equal representation from each state
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Litigants who receive an adverse judgment in federal appeals court and wish to be heard in the U.S. Supreme Court may petition for a A) writ of habeas corpus. B) writ of mandamus. C) writ of certiorari. D) subpoena. E) warrant.
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C) writ of certiorari.
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The formal process by which the House brings charges against federal officials is A) confirmation of appointees. B) ratification of treaties. C) impeachment. D) oversight. E) casework.
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C) impeachment.
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Which of the following is NOT a limitation on the powers of the judicial branch? A) Federal courts cannot initiate or maintain lawsuits. B) Federal courts can only hear lawsuits that constitute true cases or controversies. C) Federal courts can provide only a limited scope of relief. D) Federal courts must rely on other branches of government for enforcement. E) Federal courts may not hear cases that arise out of state court cases.
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E) Federal courts may not hear cases that arise out of state court cases.
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Bureaucratic adjudication A) includes determining the rights and duties of particular parties within the scope of agency rules or regulations. B) takes place in the court system. C) is a process whereby an agency expands its power into subject matter areas adjacent to its primary area of concern. D) Options A, B, and C are true. E) None of the above is true.
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A) includes determining the rights and duties of particular parties within the scope of agency rules or regulations.
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The direct assistance that a member provides to a constituent is A) confirmation of appointees. B) ratification of treaties. C) impeachment. D) oversight. E) casework.
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E) casework.
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Political partisanship receives much bad press in our modern times, but partisanship serves a purpose. Which of the following is a benefit of political partisanship? A) It eliminates third party interference. B) It exposes the hypocrisy of the opposing party. C) It provides a framework for individuals to translate broad values and beliefs into preferences for issue positions and political candidates. D) It divides the electorate and forces voters to take a stand. E) It discourages excessive voting.
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C) It provides a framework for individuals to translate broad values and beliefs into preferences for issue positions and political candidates.
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How does a candidate win in the electoral college? A) He/she must receive an outright majority of all electoral votes. B) He/she must receive two-thirds of the electoral votes. C) The results of the electoral college are considered and another vote is then taken in Congress to confirm D) He/she must receive three-fourths of all electoral votes. E) The electoral college is symbolic and is no longer used in presidential elections.
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) He/she must receive an outright majority of all electoral votes.
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The number of electoral votes from each state is determined by A) the state legislatures of each state. B) a vote in Congress prior to each election. C) a number that is equivalent to the state's allotment of House members plus two more for each senator from the state. D) each political party. E) results of a conference between the two major political parties.
answer
C) a number that is equivalent to the state's allotment of House members plus two more for each senator from the state.
question
An open caucus is a method where A) voters can show up on primary election day and cast their ballots without declaring party affiliation. B) the party's leaders select the party's nominee for President. C) the party's Congressional delegation selects the party's nominee for President. D) party members are invited to a statewide meeting that votes for a slate of delegates to send to the national convention. E) party members formally meet to provide input as to who their party should nominate for elective office
answer
E) party members formally meet to provide input as to who their party should nominate for elective office
question
Which of the following concepts is most closely aligned with contemporary conservative ideology? A) Prefers sharply increased government assistance in health care B) Advocates government owned and operated health care. C) Maintains traditional values on social issues but prefers government restraint in economic redistribution D) Promotes an increase in free education to all college students E) Promotes an increase in Medicaid and Medicare benefits
answer
C) Maintains traditional values on social issues but prefers government restraint in economic redistribution
question
In his dissenting opinion in Abrams v. United States in 1919, then-Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes coined the term "free marketplace of ideas" as an argument for a free press. What is meant by this statement? A) People should be allowed to freely communicate their ideas to provide a variety of ideas to consider. B) People and the media should be free to benefit financially from the marketability of media. C) The press should support our economic system of capitalism. D) In the open market the top retailers will put the smaller retailers out of business. E) All forms of media should be disseminated without cost.
answer
A) People should be allowed to freely communicate their ideas to provide a variety of ideas to consider.
question
The District of Columbia (Washington, D.C.) does not lie within a state; therefore, in the U.S. Constitution its citizens did not originally have a vote for president nor did they have any electoral votes. How was this changed in 1961 to allow residents of the District to cast votes for president? A) The citizens of the District of Columbia held violent protests and government officials succumbed. B) The District of Columbia became a state and then assumed the right to extend voting privileges to its citizens. C) The U.S. Constitution was amended to include the District of Columbia in the electoral college. D) The District of Columbia's representatives in the U.S. House and Senate introduced legislation to make the change. E) A federal law was created that extended the right to vote
answer
C) The U.S. Constitution was amended to include the District of Columbia in the electoral college.
question
Which of the following is most closely aligned with contemporary liberal ideology? A) Prefers states' rights over the rights of the federal government B) Prefers that government take a more assertive role in the redistribution of economic resources and individual freedoms C) In the United States, is more closely aligned with the Socialist Party D) Strongly advocates governmental regulation of morality E) Advocates that government take a hands-off approach to economic matters
answer
B) Prefers that government take a more assertive role in the redistribution of economic resources and individual freedoms
question
How does a presidential candidate win in the electoral college? A) The candidate must have a plurality of the electoral votes. B) The candidate must win a simple majority of the 538 electoral votes. C) The candidate must win a majority of the electoral votes in two-thirds of each of the states. D) The candidate must receive at least one-third of the electoral votes coup
answer
B) The candidate must win a simple majority of the 538 electoral votes.
question
Which theory says that public policy largely results from a variety of interest groups competing with one another to promote laws that benefit members of their respective groups? A) Cooperativism B) Majoritarianism C) Pluralism D) Capitalism E) Legalism
answer
C) Pluralism
question
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of interest group activity? A) Interest groups provide all groups in society with an opportunity to win support for their ideas and positions. B) Joining groups and working for the interests of the group is a natural inclination of citizens and should be encouraged as a method of representation in our democracy. C) Interest groups work to concentrate benefits for the few while distributing costs to the many. D) The right of association is a basic right protected implicitly by the First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, which affords individuals the right "peaceably to assemble." E) The system is fair in that it gives all groups an equitable opportunity to compete.
answer
C) Interest groups work to concentrate benefits for the few while distributing costs to the many.
question
Dealignment refers to A) a shifting of party coalitions in the electorate that remain in place for several election cycles. B) the decline in voter attachment to both parties. C) party identification. D) issue attachment. E) party unity.
answer
B) the decline in voter attachment to both parties.
question
What constitutional amendment lowered the voting age to 18 in all local, state, and federal elections? A) Fifteenth Amendment B) Nineteenth Amendment C) Twenty-third Amendment D) Twenty-fourth Amendment E) Twenty sixth Amendment
answer
E) Twenty sixth Amendment
question
Which of the following theories proposes that viewers imitate what they see on television? A) Cultivation theory B) Social learning theory C) Minimal effects theory D) Agenda setting theory E) Hypnotic theory
answer
B) Social learning theory
question
The Fifteenth Amendment A) guarantees the right to vote regardless of race, color, or any previous condition of servitude. B) legally required that that individuals pay a fee before being allowed to vote. C) outlawed poll taxes. D) required individuals must be able to read and write before being allowed to vote. E) mandates that when an individual applies for or renews a state driver's license, the state must also provide that individual with voter registration materials
answer
A) guarantees the right to vote regardless of race, color, or any previous condition of servitude. B) legally required that that individuals pay a fee before being allowed to vote.
question
Which of the following is considered a positive role of political parties? A) The constitutional role of political parties is to balance control of the legislative and executive branches. B) Political parties control the government, thereby keeping government power in check. C) The major political parties play a central role in running government at all levels, including organizing and providing context to voters. D) Political parties stir dissent so that citizens do not trust their government too much. E) Effective political parties successfully eliminate competition.
answer
C) The major political parties play a central role in running government at all levels, including organizing and providing context to voters.
question
Which of the following ensures any one group or "faction" from becoming too powerful for too long? A) Competition between the political parties B) Checks and balances C) The media watchdog D) Public opinion E) Both options A and B are true.
answer
E) Both options A and B are true.
question
In the United States a candidate for a congressional seat wins a plurality of the votes but not a majority, however, the candidate still wins the seat. This process is referred to as A) proportional representation. B) winner-take-all. C) district voting. D) clean sweep theory. E) constitutional apportionment
answer
B) winner-take-all.
question
Beyond an iron triangle, a broader set of actors who all have a vested interest in an area of public policy and try to collectively influence their policy area is generally referred to as A) an issue network. B) Congressional committees. C) an emergent network. D) executive agencies. E) private interest groups.
answer
A) an issue network.
question
Which of the following is a way in which the media acts as a Watchdog? A) Publishing editorial columns in newspapers on differentiating perspectives B) Providing live, objective coverage of an event C) Pinning news anchors against ideological opponents on live news D) Preventing abuse of government power by acting as fourth state E) Renouncing the goals of the muckrakers
answer
D) Preventing abuse of government power by acting as fourth state
question
Though never explicitly intended, which of the following has been a positive benefit of the competition for power between the two major parties? A) Competition has been successful in keeping the government weak and under control. B) The struggles between the two parties have kept third parties from confusing the goals of democracy. C) Competition has proven to be a significant check against tyranny. D) The two parties have been able to retain control of the government in the proper hands. E) Most observers doubt that there are any positive benefits from political parties.
answer
C) Competition has proven to be a significant check against tyranny.
question
Passed in 1964, which Amendment outlawed poll taxes by making unconstitutional any law that made payment of a tax a voting eligibility requirement in federal elections? A) Fifteenth Amendment B) Nineteenth Amendment C) Twenty-third Amendment D) Twenty-fourth Amendment E) Twenty sixth Amendment
answer
D) Twenty-fourth Amendment
question
Which theory says that public policy is a product of whatever the majority of citizens prefer? A) Mass cooperation B) Pluralism C) Majoritarianism D) Democracy E) Conservatism
answer
C) Majoritarianism
