Government I - Flashcards | StudyHippo.com

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Throughout U.S. history, Americans have A) supported strong government. B) been suspicious of strong government. C) moved from suspicion of government to enthusiastic support for government. D) moved from a belief in no government to a belief in strong government.

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B

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2. The trend line of Americans' trust in the federal government A) has declined steadily since the early 1960s. B) declined during Watergate but rose again during the 1980s. C) rose in the 1990s and peaked in 2002. D) rose during the 1970s and 1980s but has declined since 1992.

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C

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3. The belief that citizens can affect government is called political A) culture. B) socialization. C) efficacy. D) satisfaction.

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C

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4. According to the ancient Greeks, a citizen was A) any free male who was at least 18 years old. B) anyone who was knowledgeable of and actively participated in government. C) anyone born of Greek parents. D) anyone who votes.

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B

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5. According to the authors of the text, good citizenship requires A) political knowledge. B) political engagement. C) a good education. D) both a and b.

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D

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6. The majority of Americans believe that "government is run by a few big interests" and that government officials "don't care what people think." The term used to describe this would be A) low efficacy. B) high efficacy. C) low participation. D) high participation.

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A

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7. The formal institutions that rule a people are called its A) economy. B) legislature. C) politics. D) government.

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D

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8. Government run by a few people is called A) autocracy. B) totalitarianism. C) pluralism. D) oligarchy.

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D

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9. According to Harold Lasswell, politics is A) a form of deceit practiced by everyone. B) what people do to get what they want from government. C) who gets what, when do they get it and how. D) the misallocation of "values" for partisan purposes.

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C

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10. A system of government that recognizes no formal limits on its power is A) direct democracy. B) autocratic. C) oligarchic. D) totalitarian.

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D

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11. The bourgeoisie of western Europe wanted to A) open up political participation to all social classes. B) restore the divine right of kings. C) promote political participation for the middle classes. D) overthrow parliaments.

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C

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12. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the Federal Government? A) police the cities B) establish zoning for commercial and residential purposes C) license doctors and lawyers D) NONE of these are responsibilities of the Federal government

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D

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13. In nineteenth-century Prussia, Otto von Bismarck introduced social reforms to aid the lower class because he A) wanted to introduce modern democratic ideas. B) was trying to offset the growing power of the middle class. C) had a religious conversion that told him to aid the poor. D) needed support from the middle class, which was advocating greater representation of the poor.

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B

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14. A student council is an example of: A) direct democracy. B) representative democracy. C) limited democracy. D) an oligarchy.

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B

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15. Which of the following is not part of the U.S. political culture? A) belief in equality of results B) belief in equality of opportunity C) belief in individual liberty D) belief in free competition

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A

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16. Laissez-faire capitalism has been limited by A) public opinion, which opposes capitalism. B) voluntary actions by big businesses. C) government regulation. D) papal encyclicals.

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C

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17. Many of the conflicts in American politics today revolve around A) the proper scope of government. B) whether government should exist at all. C) allowing minorities to participate in government. D) consolidating the three branches of the military into one.

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A

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18. In a democracy, sovereignty is vested in A) the president. B) the federal government. C) the people. D) Congress.

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C

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19. The U.S. definition of liberty refers to A) personal freedom only. B) economic liberty only. C) personal and economic freedom. D) political and religious freedom.

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C

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20. Americans A) are less supportive of income redistribution than Europeans. B) are more supportive of income redistribution than Europeans. C) never support income redistribution programs. D) want government to equalize income in times of recession.

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A

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21. Realistically, the United States did not become a full practicing democracy until A) 1789. B) the Civil War. C) the New Deal. D) the 1960s.

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D

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22. The United States' core political values are A) liberty and responsibility. B) liberty, equality, and minority rights. C) liberty, equality, and democracy. D) liberty, democracy, and capitalism.

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C

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23. Which of the following is not a principle of our democracy? A) majority rule B) complete freedom C) minority rights D) equality of opportunity

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B

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24. In which of the following activities will a typical college student feel the presence of their state government? A) waking up to standard time B) reading the nutrition labels on his/her cereal C) taking American Government 101 D) surfing the internet

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C

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24. In which of the following activities will a typical college student feel the presence of their state government? A) waking up to standard time B) reading the nutrition labels on his/her cereal C) taking American Government 101 D) surfing the internet

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B

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26. The gambling industry in your state wants to change the state constitution to allow gambling. They organize a campaign through voter signatures and put their proposal directly on the ballot. This is called a(n) A) ballot initiative B) midterm election C) primary D) ex post facto law

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A

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27. In recent years, more and more Americans are learning about government from A) newspapers. B) the evening news. C) late-night comedians. D) CNN.

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c

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28. What kind of government do we have? A) direct democracy. B) republic. C) totalitarian. D) authoritarian.

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b

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29. How much do Americans know about their government? A) a lot B) some C) very little

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c

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30. Trust in government in the United States A) reached an all-time high after 9/11. B) has declined in the last fifty years. C) is higher today than ever before.

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b

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31. Which is a key American value in our political culture? A) liberty B) equality C) democracy D) All of these are American values.

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d

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32. Which of the following statements describes America's growing population since its founding? A) More Americans trace their roots to Europe today than ever before. B) African Americans now make up a much smaller percentage of the total population. C) The percentage of the American population that identifies as Protestants has been on the rise. D) The number of elderly Americans has grown and the number of children eighteen and under has declined.

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d

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33. The framers of the Constitution stipulated that the number of representatives in the House of Representatives "shall not exceed one for every thirty Thousand. . . " constituents, but today the average member of Congress represents approximately how many people? A) 150,000 B) 500,000 C) 650,000 D) 750,000

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c

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///1. Which of the following is not among the four distinct physical regions of the state of Texas? A) Coastal Plains B) Interior Lowlands C) Great Plains D) Great Plateau

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d

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///2. Texas is the second largest state consisting of approximately ________________ square miles. A) 167 million B) 267,000 C) 627,000 D) 950,000

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b

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///3. One of the earliest cash crops in Texas was _______________ A) onions B) citrus C) cotton D) rice

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c

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///4. _____________ coexisted with farming as a major economic enterprise until the early twentieth century. A) Fishing B) Ranching C) Manufacturing D) Shipbuilding

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b

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///5. The first economically significant oil discovery in Texas occurred in __________________ A) Navarro County B) Harris County C) Bexar County D) Jefferson County

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a

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////6. The discovery of oil at _______________ in 1901 produced Texas' first oil boom. A) Baytown B) Humble C) Odessa-Permian D) Spindletop

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d

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////7. By 1929, ___________ of all manufacturing employees in Harris County worked in refineries. A) 10 percent B) 27 percent C) 55 percent D) 90 percent

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b

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////8. The _________________ Commission began regulating oil and gas production in 1917. A) Public Utilities B) Land C) Railroad D) Petroleum

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c

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////9. The Texas economy diversified in the 1980s and 1990s with the rapid growth of __________ enterprises in the Austin and Dallas areas. A) high-tech B) industrial C) manufacturing D) construction

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a

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////10. The ____________ sought to create a free trade zone in North America. A) North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) B) Mexico and United States Trade Treaty C) Rio Grande Proviso D) Treaty of Guadalupe

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a

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///. States often demonstrate a distinct _____________ that is the product of their entire history. A) ideology B) socialization C) political culture D) political economics

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c

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///12. The Texas Workforce Commission reports that between 1998 and 2000, __________ workers in Texas have been certified by the U.S. Department of Labor as being negatively impacted by the free trade agreement entered into by the United States, Canada, and Mexico. A) 2,000 B) 12,000 C) 35,000 D) 21,000

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d

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///13. Which of the following is not used by Daniel Elazar to describe state political cultures? A) moralistic B) monistic C) individualistic D) traditionalistic

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b

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////14. ______________ state political cultures were rooted in New England, where Puritans and other religious groups sought to create the Good Society. A) moralistic B) monistic C) individualistic D) traditionalistic

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a

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/15. ______________ state political cultures originated in the middle states where individuals sought material wealth and personal freedom through commercial activities. A) moralistic B) monistic C) individualistic D) traditionalistic

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b

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///16. ______________ political culture developed in the South, reflecting the values of the slave plantation economy and its successor, the Jim Crow era. A) moralistic B) monistic C) individualistic D) traditionalistic

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d

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////17. Texas is categorized as having a __________________ political culture. A) monistic-moralistic B) moralistic-individualistic C) moralistic-traditionalistic D) traditionalistic-individualistic

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d

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///18. The ______________ Party dominated Texas politics from the end of Reconstruction until the 1990s. A) Republican B) Progressive C) Democratic D) Republic of Texas

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c

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////19. The concept of __________________ emphasizes rural values and Jeffersonian notions of limited government. A) provincialism B) socialism C) agrarianism D) utopianism

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a

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///20. Which of the following economic sectors dominated Texas politics throughout the latter half of the twentieth century? A) labor B) business C) environmental D) consumer

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b

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1. Since 1789, more than 11,000 amendments were formally offered in Congress. Of these, only ____________ were finally ratified by the states. A) 500 B) 100 C) 50 D) 27

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d

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2. Prior to the twentieth century, most governments relied on ____________ for revenue. A) tariffs, duties, and other taxes on commerce B) local sales taxes C) a national sales tax D) a personal income tax

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a

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3. The First Continental Congress met in 1774. Which of the following actions did the delegates at the Congress take? A) They declared independence from Great Britain. B) They called for a total boycott of British goods. C) They elected George Washington as General of the Colonial Army. D) They wrote the pamphlet Common Sense, which argued for independence from British rule.

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d

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4. The United States' first written constitution was A) the U.S. Constitution. B) the Declaration of Independence. C) the League of States. D) the Articles of Confederation and Perpetual Union.

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d

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5. The Declaration of Independence and the Articles of Confederation were not sufficient to hold the new nation together as an independent and effective nation-state. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The central government under the Articles of Confederation was powerless to intervene to resolve trade, economic, and political disputes among the states. B) Many of the pre- and post-revolutionary radicals, small farmers, artisans, and shopkeepers wanted a strong national government in order to protect their economic interests. C) Many of the pre-Revolutionary colonial elite favored a stronger national government in order to protect their economic interests. D) Competition among the states for foreign commerce allowed the European powers to play the states against one another.

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b

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. The Shays's Rebellion was significant in that it A) demonstrated the weakness of government under the Articles of Confederation. B) represents the first major battle of the Civil War. C) led to renewed fighting between the colonists and the British. D) was the last battle in the Revolutionary War.

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a

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7. The Connecticut Plan provided for which of the following? A) a House of Representatives apportioned by the number of free inhabitants and a Senate consisting of two members from each state selected by state legislatures B) a House of Representatives apportioned by the number of free inhabitants plus three-fifths of the slaves and a Senate consisting of two members from each state directly elected by the people C) a House of Representatives apportioned by the number of free inhabitants plus three-fifths of the slaves and a Senate consisting of two members from each state selected by the state legislatures D) a bicameral legislature in which both houses would be apportioned according to the number of free inhabitants plus three-fifths of the slaves

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c

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8. Which of the following statements is true about the Three-fifths Compromise? A) It settled the question of how many senators each state would get. B) It created a system to elect the president of the United States. C) Under this compromise, five slaves would count as three free persons in apportioning seats in the House of Representatives. D) Only three-fifths of all slaves were allowed to vote in national elections.

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c

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9. Under the original, unamended Constitution, the only person(s) elected directly by the people was/were A) the President. B) Senators. C) Supreme Court judges. D) members of the House of Representatives.

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d

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10. Which of the following statements is true about the Constitutional ratification process? A) Ratification of the Constitution was a speedy and uncontroversial process. B) The Constitution was ratified in state legislatures. C) The struggle for ratification was carried out in thirteen separate campaigns. D) The so-called Federalists opposed ratification of the U.S. Constitution.

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c

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11. What or who were Publius and Brutus? A) The pen names used in essays written defending ("Publius") and attacking ("Brutus") the proposed U.S. Constitution B) The nicknames given to Alexander Hamilton ("Publius") and Aaron Burr ("Brutus") C) Latin terms meaning Federalist ("Publius") and Antifederalist ("Brutus") D) None of the above

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a

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12. In general, it was the ____________ vision of the United States that triumphed. A) Federalist B) Antifederalist C) Jeffersonian D) Washingtonian

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a

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13. Most of the seventeen Constitutional amendments ratified since the Bill of Rights in 1791 have been directly or indirectly concerned with A) due process of law. B) equal protection of the law. C) structure or composition of government. D) civil liberties.

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c

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14. According to the text, the story of the founding is important because A) it is a story about morality; the British were oppressive, and the Americans had the moral obligation to rebel. B) all students should learn the lessons of history. C) it was a story of political choices, and Americans continue today to make tough political choices. D) it illustrates that democracy is the only political choice for freedom-loving people.

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c

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15. According to your text, which of the following statements best articulates the motives of the framers at the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia? A) The United States' framers were a collection of securities speculators and property owners whose main aim was self-interest and personal gain. B) The framers' interests were reinforced by their principles. C) The framers were primarily interested in philosophical and ethical principles. D) The framers were most concerned about the expansion of democracy to all new Americans.

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b

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16. Under the Great Compromise, small states were given an advantage in the A) Senate. B) House of Representatives. C) electoral college. D) Supreme Court.

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a

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17. The power of judicial review A) allows the Senate to confirm presidential judicial appointments. B) is defined in Article III of the U.S. Constitution. C) was assumed by the Supreme Court. D) was declared unconstitutional by Chief Justice John Marshall in Marbury v. Madison.

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c

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18. An important issue dividing Federalists and Antifederalists was the threat of tyranny, meaning, A) generally, unjust rule by the group in power. B) from the Antifederalists' perspective, the fear of an aristocracy. C) from the Federalists' perspective, rule by the passions of the majority. D) All of the above

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d

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19. Which of the following concepts best explains the underlying reason for the Bill of Rights? A) checks and balances B) separation of powers C) limited government D) rule by government

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c

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20. The amendment route to social change A) is, and always will be, extremely limited. B) is very frequently followed. C) is hard, but has been used over fifty times in American history. D) has never been used in America.

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a

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21. The Constitution's framers placed ____________ ahead of all other political values. A) individual liberty B) democracy C) equality D) civil rights

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a

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22. An amendment to the U.S. Constitution may be proposed in which of the following ways? A) a majority vote in both houses of Congress and the president's signature B) a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress C) a majority vote in both houses of Congress and a ruling by the Supreme Court that the measure is constitutional D) a constitutional convention called by one-half of the state legislatures

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b

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23. The Equal Rights Amendment A) was formally approved by Congress and ratified by the states, becoming the Twenty-Seventh Amendment. B) failed to receive approval in Congress and was never sent to the states. C) was formally approved by Congress but failed to be ratified by three-quarters of the states. D) None of the above

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c

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24. The purpose of the first ten amendments was to A) provide more power to the national government. B) provide clear limitations on the powers of national government. C) provide clear limitations on the powers of the state governments. D) limit both the national and state governments.

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b

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25. The Tenth Amendment A) reserves power not granted to the states to the national government. B) reserves power not granted to the national government to the states. C) prohibits Congress from restricting freedom of speech. D) prohibits the states from interfering with the national government.

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b

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26. According to your text, _________ inevitably leads to the growth of political activity and the expansion of political participation. A) equality B) a political party C) liberty D) All of the above

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c

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27. What is a limitation (drawback) of liberty as a political principle? A) Limits on government action can inhibit effective government. B) Government can use its power to allocate status and opportunity among groups. C) Groups can use the political process to achieve economic and social gains. D) None of the above

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a

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28. ___________ is a system of government in which states retain sovereign authority except for the powers expressly delegated to the national governments. A) A constitution B) A confederation C) Federalism D) Separation of powers

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b

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29. ______________ is a system of government in which power is divided, by a constitution, between a central government and regional governments. A) A confederation B) Separation of powers C) A monarchy D) Federalism

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d

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30. One of the key underlying themes of the original Constitution was A) recognizing the mistrust of people. B) creating three branches of government that were all democratically elected. C) making the government as efficient as possible. D) promoting cooperation between branches of government.

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d

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31. The Virginia Plan was favored by A) small states, since it emphasized the importance of population. B) large states, since it emphasized the importance of size and wealth. C) small states, since it treated all states equally. D) slave states, since it allowed slaves to be counted toward the population of the states.

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b

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32. The Three-fifths Compromise dealt primarily with what issue? A) A slave would count as three-fifths of a person when determining population. B) Three-fifths of the states had to ratify the current constitution. C) It now takes a three-fifths vote in Congress to propose constitutional amendments.

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a

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33. Antifederalists wanted A) to stay a British colony. B) a more decentralized government. C) more power in the hands of the national government. D) the right to spit in their opponents' faces.

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b

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34. When was our current constitution written? A) 1776 B) 1787 C) 1812 D) 1920

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b

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35. Proponents of the idea of the living Constitution argue that? A) The judiciary is the institution best qualified to adjust the Constitution's principles to new problems and times. B) Judges should adhere closely to the word of the document's text. C) States should be able to amend the constitution with a majority vote. D) Supreme Court justices should be popularly elected.

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a

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1. Most of the rules and regulations Americans face in their daily lives are set by A) state and local governments. B) the federal government. C) regulatory commissions. D) the U.S. Supreme Court.

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a

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2. Especially since the New Deal in the 1930s, ____________ has/have played a much more prominent role in protecting liberty and promoting equality. A) the national government B) state governments C) county governments D) city governments

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a

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3. Over the course of American history, the federal government has _______ compared with state government. A) grown stronger B) grown weaker C) remained the same D) grown in tandem

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a

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4. Which of the following best represents a unitary system of government? A) The national government selects the textbooks and curriculum for all schools. B) The national government establishes general guidelines for school policy. C) The national government gives vouchers to parents for use in private schools D) The national government makes funding for schools dependent on test scores.

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a

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5. Which of the following statements best captures the meaning of the concept devolution of authority? A) State governments have given the federal government more of their powers over time. B) State governments have devolved to the point where they exercise very little power in the federal system. C) City governments are now the premiere power brokers in national politics. D) The national government grants the states more authority over a range of policies.

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d

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6. The division of powers and functions between the national government and state governments is the definition of A) confederation. B) intergovernmental relations. C) expressed powers. D) federalism.

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d

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7. Specific powers provided to the national government in the U.S. Constitution are called ____________ powers. A) expressed B) reserved C) concurrent D) defined

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a

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8. McCulloch v. Maryland is an important case because A) the Court interpreted the delegated powers of Congress broadly, creating the potential for increased national powers. B) the court gave a very restricted definition of Congress's delegated powers, in keeping with the era of dual federalism. C) the Court announced that dual federalism did not conform to the framers intent. D) this case began the era of dual federalism.

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a

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9. The power to declare war is an example of which type of power? A) reserved B) implied C) concurrent D) expressed

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d

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10. The Constitution SPECIFICALLY grants Congress the power to do all of the following EXCEPT: A) borrow money. B) lay and collect taxes. C) declare war. D) charter a national bank.

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d

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11. Gibbons v. Ogden in 1824 was important because it A) gave the national government significant new authority to regulate interstate commerce. B) established the principle of judicial review. C) declared that interstate commerce was to be regulated by state governments. D) established the principle of no fees on exports.

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a

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12. States' rights advocates argue that A) state governments' rights are subordinate to national government policies. B) the elastic clause allows for expansion of states' rights. C) only the national government can amend the U.S. Constitution. D) states do not have to submit to national laws when they believe the national government exceeds its authority.

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D

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13. Which provision allows cities a guarantee of noninterference in various local affairs by state governments? A) home rule B) referendum C) initiative D) merit system

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a

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14. Which of the following statements about federalism is true? A) Federalism is the most widely used method to divide powers among governmental units in the democracies of the world. B) The U.S. system of federalism allows substantial inequalities to exist across the country. C) Federalism and democracy are synonymous concepts. D) The United States is the only federal system in the world.

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b

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15. "State governments experiment with different policies to find measures that best meet the needs and desires of their citizens." This quote from your text best reflects which of these statements? A) Unlike the federal government, state governments really never know which policies to pursue. B) Unlike the federal government, state governments always seem to make the "right" policy decisions. C) State governments can be viewed as laboratories of democracy. D) The federal government makes policies that apply equally to all state governments.

answer

c

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16. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) For most of U.S. history, the national government was quite small by comparison both to state governments and to the governments of other Western nations. B) For most of U.S. history, virtually all of the functions of the national government were aimed at assisting commerce. C) For most of U.S. history, virtually none of the national government's policies directly coerced citizens. D) For most of U.S. history, the national government followed a strict interpretation of interstate commerce.

answer

d

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17. The Supreme Court ruling in United States v. Lopez is important because A) it was the first time since the New Deal that the Supreme Court limited the power of Congress under the commerce clause. B) it was the first time that the Court had ever used the Tenth Amendment to limit the power of Congress. C) the Court found that citizens could not bring racial discrimination suits against state governments. D) the court found the line-item veto to be unconstitutional.

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a

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18. Implied powers or the necessary and proper clause allows A) state governments to nullify national government laws. B) the national government to interpret its delegated powers expansively. C) for judicial review. D) the national government to reserve powers to state governments.

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b

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19. What is the purpose of the Tenth Amendment? A) to give each state constitution the same protections as the federal constitution B) to limit the powers of the central government by establishing reserved powers for states and individuals C) to grant to the citizens of each state access to the federal court system D) to establish the electoral college

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b

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20. The New Deal of the 1930s signaled the rise of A) a less active national government. B) a more active national government. C) unfunded mandates. D) revenue sharing.

answer

b

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21. By the year 1932, ____________ percent of the U.S. workforce was unemployed. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25

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d

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22. The era of "New Federalism" began in the A) 1950s. B) 1960s. C) 1970s. D) 1980s.

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c

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23. Which president is best known for his attempts to return power to the states? A) Richard Nixon B) George W. Bush C) Jimmy Carter D) Harry Truman

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a

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24. Which of the following best exemplifies the doctrine of preemption? A) welfare reform, which preempts states from giving benefits to some residents B) federal criminalization of marijuana, even when states or cities allow medicinal use C) federal regulations in which the cost is borne by the states D) federal and state governments sharing the cost of a new highway

answer

b

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25. The 1996 Welfare Reform Act is an example of "New Federalism" because, A) the national government has tried "new" types of taxes to pay for it. B) it reduced the restrictions on how states spend grant money. C) it reduced the role of state governments in administering the program. D) it increased the role of the federal government in the day-to-day operation of the programs.

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b

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26. For three-quarters of American history, ____________ has/have done most of the fundamental governing. A) state governments B) local governments C) the national government D) the people directly

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a

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27. What is a grant-in-aid? A) Money provided by cities to state governments B) Money appropriated by the national Congress to state and local governments C) The major source of revenue for the national government D) What the Department of War uses to fund military operations.

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b

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28. In contrast to __________ federalism that defined America until the 1930s, since the New Deal, ____________ federalism has prevailed. A) dual; cooperative B) dual; layer-cake C) cooperative; dual D) cooperative; new

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a

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29. Regulations or new conditions for receiving grants that impose costs on state and local governments for which they are not reimbursed by the national government is the definition of A) preemption. B) unfunded mandates. C) fiscal federalism. D) dual federalism.

answer

b

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30. Which type of grant provides more control to state and local governments in the distribution of federal grants-in-aid? A) formula B) project C) categorical D) block

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d

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31. Which of the following statements best captures the meaning of the concept regulated federalism? A) State governments regulate how much personal income tax revenue they send to the national government. B) In recent years the national government has created a large number of regulatory commissions primarily to monitor the policy performance of state governments. C) The national government sets standards of conduct or requires the states to set standards that meet national guidelines. D) The states act as watchdogs and regulate federal government grants-in-aid.

answer

c

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32. Why did the framers of the Constitution limit the power of the federal government? A) They disliked a bloated "big government." B) They feared that federal government could be a guarantor of liberty. C) They valued most the political principle of equality. D) They were suspicious of centralized power.

answer

d

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33. According to the text, what is one of the important arguments for a strong federal government? A) its role in ensuring equality B) its role in ensuring liberty C) its role in allocating wealth to a particular group D) None of the above

answer

a

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34. When a state's laws conflict with federal law on international trade issues, A) the state and federal governments enter negotiations to work out a compromise. B) the World Trade Organization hears the case. C) the state law is supreme, so the federal law is invalid. D) the national government law is supreme, so the state law is invalid.

answer

d

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35. One benefit of having a federal system is that A) states can act as laboratories of democracy. B) states have different needs and concerns. C) it gives state and local governments more flexibility to handle problems. D) All of these are benefits of federalism.

answer

d

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36. Which of the following is a "traditional" area of national government responsibility? A) defense B) Social Security C) welfare D) FEMA

answer

a

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37. During the course of American history, the federal government has _______ compared with the states. A) grown stronger B) grown weaker C) remained the same D) grown in tandem

answer

a

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38. Which level of government is not addressed in the Constitution? A) the national government B) the states C) cities D) All of these are addressed in the Constitution.

answer

c

question

39. The process of transferring more responsibilities of governing from the national level to the state level is known as A) preemption B) full faith and commerce C) devolution D) dual federalism

answer

c

question

40. By 2008, how many states had some spousal rights for same sex partners via gay marriage or civil unions? A) two B) nine C) forty one D) none

answer

b

question

41. The Internet Tax Freedom Act that prohibits states and localities from taxing Internet access services is a good example of A) preemption. B) home rule. C) devolution. D) dual federalism.

answer

a

question

1. More than ____________ of the daily newspapers in the United States are owned by large conglomerates such as the Hearst or Gannett corporations. A) one-quarter B) one-half C) three-quarters D) 90 percent

answer

c

question

2. In the United States, there are only three truly national newspapers. Which of the following is NOT one of the newspapers? A) the Wall Street Journal B) the Christian Science Monitor C) USA Today D) the Washington Post

answer

d

question

3. According to the text, the new liberal network Air America Radio was created in order to A) continue the dominance of liberal talk radio. B) combat the conservative dominance of American media. C) combat conservative dominance of talk radio. D) give the in-depth coverage of issues that only radio can give.

answer

c

question

4. American radio and television are regulated by A) state governments. B) the Federal Communications Commission. C) local governments. D) All of the above

answer

b

question

5. Broadcasters must provide candidates running for the same political office equal opportunities to communicate their messages to the public. This is the A) equal time rule. B) right to rebuttal rule. C) fairness doctrine. D) equal access rule.

answer

a

question

6. The process by which a relatively similar picture of events, issues, and problems is presented to the entire nation is referred to as A) news enclaves. B) privatization of the news. C) nationalization of the news. D) None of the above

answer

c

question

7. The Telecommunications Act of 1996 was an attempt to do all of the following EXCEPT A) loosen federal restrictions of media ownership. B) allow broadcasters, telephone companies, and cable companies to compete with one another. C) ban indecent sexual material accessible to minors on the Internet. D) All of the following were parts of the act.

answer

d

question

8. The FCC requires broadcasters to provide individuals the right to respond to personal attacks, which is known as the A) equal time rule. B) right of rebuttal. C) fairness doctrine. D) None of the above

answer

b

question

9. Most of the news on the Internet is A) news events uncovered by amateur news sleuths. B) in-depth stories provided by TV networks to enhance their evening news programs. C) electronic versions of what is already in print. D) from foreign news agencies.

answer

c

question

10. Which of the following is a federally licensed media outlet? A) the NBC network B) Newsweek magazine C) New York Times D) Slate magazine on the Internet

answer

a

question

11. The FCC's fairness doctrine A) is no longer in effect. B) is strictly enforced. C) is enforced only during presidential campaigns. D) applies only to cable television.

answer

a

question

12. Advertising in the mass media is heavily skewed toward A) working-class families because there are so many of them. B) upscale, well-educated, and affluent consumers because they have money. C) the age group of 15 to 21-year-olds because they have jobs and allowances. D) the public in general, without targeting special groups.

answer

b

question

13. Slate magazine, ActBlue, and Facebook illustrate A) the growing influence of the internet in American media. B) the liberal dominance of the mainstream media. C) the power of the mainstream media to affect election outcomes. D) All of the above

answer

a

question

14. Which of the following factors influences the interpretation a news story receives from the media? A) the audience of the news B) journalists and producers C) the sources or topics of the news D) All of these affect the interpretation of the news.

answer

d

question

15. The media frenzy over the Monica Lewinsky scandal is evidence that A) the media is not at all liberal. B) the conservative media has more influence on public opinion than any other group. C) the power of the media is declining. D) the media's bias is more oriented to entertainment than ideology.

answer

d

question

16. According to the authors of the text, today most publishers A) are most concerned with editorial content. B) are business people and are more concerned with business operations than editorial content. C) dictate a particular political bias that the media should promulgate. D) have a liberal political ideology. B

answer

b

question

17. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the government and the media in the United States today? A) The government controls most of the media content through regulations and tightly controlled press briefings. B) The government owns, but does not control, the major sources of media. C) The government does not own, but regulates, the content and the ownership of broadcast media. D) Broadcast media are not regulated in the United States.

answer

C

question

18. "Although they represent only a small percentage of the population, individuals under the age of fifty whose family income is in the 80th percentile or better account for nearly 50 percent of the retail dollars spent on consumer goods in the United States." This statement supports the authors' contention that A) the print and broadcast media cater to the preferences of consumers. B) the media cater to the upscale segments of their audiences. C) the media attempt to understand the tastes and preferences of consumers. D) All of the above

answer

D

question

19. According to the text, what must Americans tolerate to guarantee the maintenance of a democratic society? A) Politicians will occasionally abuse their power. B) The media will occasionally abuse their power. C) Judges will occasionally abuse their power. D) All of the above

answer

B

question

20. Which of the following events do the authors NOT use to illustrate the power of the media in U.S. politics? A) the civil rights movement B) ending American involvement in the Vietnam War C) Watergate D) the savings and loan scandal

answer

D

question

21. In the 2004 Democratic primary, Al Sharpton's efforts to force the problem of poverty to the level of a major issue A) succeeded because journalists supported the issue. B) succeeded because Sharpton was able to reach beyond the media to communicate his ideas through the Internet. C) did not succeed because the journalists did not consider it to be a major issue. D) forced the other candidates to make poverty a major issue in their campaigns.

answer

C

question

22. Media coverage heavily influenced public opinion in which of the following events? A) civil rights movements of the 1950s and 1960s B) Watergate disclosures C) negotiations by President Nixon to end the Vietnam War D) All of the above

answer

D

question

23. Who are the ultimate beneficiaries of a free and active media? A) the politicians B) the reporters C) the people D) None of the above

answer

C

question

24. The decline of party organizations since the 1970s has increased the dependence that politicians have on A) the party machines. B) the primaries. C) the media. D) interest groups.

answer

C

question

25. According to the textbook, the media's adversarial posture toward government may A) increase the levels of political participation. B) decrease the levels of political participation. C) not have any impact on the levels of political participation. D) increase participation at the national level but decrease participation at the state level.

answer

B

question

26. What happened to the adversarial relationship between the press and the government in the aftermath of the 9/11 attacks? A) The press savagely attacked President Bush for failing to stop the attacks. B) The press continued its usual adversarial policy, criticizing President Bush's response. C) The media openly supported the Bush administration, and such unquestioning support continues today. D) The media openly supported the Bush administration in the aftermath of the attacks but has recently begun to criticize President Bush's approach to Iraq.

answer

D

question

27. According to the authors, which media outlet tended to cover international news the most thoroughly? A) New York Times B) Times of London C) St. Louis Post-Dispatch D) CNN

answer

B

question

28. What percentage of young people cite the Internet as their main source of news? A) 66 percent B) 50 percent C) 46 percent D) 25 percent

answer

C

question

29. The media have become A) more partisan. B) more ideological. C) more diverse. D) All of the above

answer

D

question

30. Which of the following sources of news typically covers topics with the LEAST depth of coverage? A) radio talk shows B) television C) the Internet D) newspapers

answer

B

question

31. Why did Howard Stern move to satellite radio? A) It isn't regulated by the FCC. B) He could reach the whole country. C) He wanted to broadcast in Europe. D) He would get a higher audience share.

answer

A

question

32. The media has a bias in favor of A) liberals. B) conservatives. C) moderates. D) whatever will get the largest audience.

answer

D

question

1. Which group is most likely to vote for Republican candidates? A) African Americans B) Women C) Whites D) Hispanics

answer

C

question

2. Voter turnout in the United States is A) about the same as in most other Western democracies. B) slightly more than most other Western democracies. C) slightly less than most other Western democracies. D) significantly less than most other Western democracies.

answer

D

question

3. Which is not an obstacle to voting in the United States? A) registration requirements B) voting bans for convicted felons C) vote by mail D) having elections on a regular workday

answer

C

question

4. Which group is the least likely to vote? A) young adults B) middle aged C) retirees D) wealthy people

answer

A

question

5. American women got the right to vote in A) 1870 B) 1920 C) 1940 D) 1965

answer

B

question

6. Americans are taught to equate citizenship with A) paying taxes. B) voting. C) serving on a jury. D) joining the military.

answer

B

question

7. African American voting rates increased substantially A) after the resignation of President Nixon. B) as a result of Brown v. Board of Education. C) after the 1965 Voting Rights Act was passed. D) after the Motor Voter Act was passed.

answer

C

question

8. The debate over ______________ provokes questions about whether we need more direct participation to promote political equality and a vibrant democracy. A) separation of powers. B) secession of the rich. C) checkbook democracy. D) public institutions.

answer

C

question

9. What tendency of Americans did the nineteenth-century writer Alexis de Tocqueville identify as distinctive of our democratic culture? A) the tendency to vote at high rates B) the tendency to form associations C) the tendency to protest policies through riots and other forms of violence D) the tendency to shun politics whenever possible

answer

C

question

10. The phenomenon called the 'gender gap' refers to the fact that A) women are more likely to vote for Democrats than men are. B) more men turn out to vote than women. C) in families, it is usually man who determine how the family votes. D) more men than women have their ballots invalidate

answer

A

question

11. Citizens who engage in letter writing, signing petitions, and other forms of political activity, usually focus their efforts on A) the local level. B) the state level. C) the national level. D) a and b.

answer

D

question

12. ___________ is the strategy by which organized interests seek to influence the passage of legislation by exerting direct pressure on members of the legislature. A) Public relations B) Grassroots mobilization C) Protests D) Lobbying

answer

D

question

13. After Hurricane Katrina, President Bush's approval rating among blacks A) rose to nearly 20 percent. B) fell to nearly 15 percent. C) fell, but rebounded quickly. D) was only at 2 percent.

answer

D

question

14. Registration requirements were instituted in the early twentieth century A) in order to increase the number of voters. B) by Democrats who wanted to disenfranchise Republicans. C) to replace poll taxes and literacy tests as requirements for voting. D) to make voting more difficult, to reduce multiple voting and other corruption, as well as to reduce lower-class voting.

answer

D

question

15. In general, voter turnout over the last 50 years has A) declined. B) risen. C) stayed the same as a proportion of eligible voters, but more people are voting now that many obstacles to voting have been removed. D) declined in Presidential elections, but risen in Midterm elections.

answer

A

question

16. Which of the following is MOST likely to vote? A) A high school student from a middle-class background B) A 70-year-old middle-class retired person C) A 30-year-old automobile mechanic D) An ex-felon trying to turn his life around

answer

B

question

17. What was the effect of the Motor Voter Registration Act in the first Presidential election after it passed? A) Voter registration rose, but voter turnout did not. B) Both voter registration and voter turnout rose. C) Neither voter registration nor voter turnout rose. D) Voter registration did not rise, but voter turnout levels did.

answer

A

question

18. Approximately what percentage of senators and representatives in the U.S. Congress are women? A) 8 percent B) 16 percent C) 26 percent D) 40 percent

answer

B

question

19. ____________ is an organization that connects people to politics, such as a political party, or to a governmental organization, such as the Congress. A) A political institution B) The American political community C) Socioeconomic status D) Civil engagemen

answer

A

question

20. As Americans are becoming more educated, we are seeing A) a moderate increase in political participation. B) that political participation is remaining about the same. C) an overall tendency for political participation to decline. D) a sharp increase in political participation.

answer

C

question

21. Checkbook democracy arises when A) there is a decline in political participation. B) fund raising becomes the most important task for political organizations. C) participation levels take on an unequal economic bias. D) All of the above.

answer

D

question

22. For many years, analysts have referred to the ________ vote as the "sleeping giant," because this is such a large group with relatively low levels of participation. A) African American B) Latino C) Asian D) labor

answer

B

question

23. When income and education are taken into account, Latinos and African Americans vote at A) the same rate as white ethnics. B) the same rate or slightly higher than white ethnics. C) a lower rate than white ethnics. D) substantially higher rates than white ethnics.

answer

B

question

24. In the United States, voter participation by the unemployed is A) very high. B) very low. C) about the same as by the employed. D) not determinable; we have no data for comparison.

answer

B

question

25. In terms of mobilizing their constituents, political parties A) no longer attempt to mobilize voters directly. B) are beginning to reemphasize direct voter mobilization. C) have not changed their level of effort. D) have never mobilized voters in the past, but are planning massive voter registration drives through the 2008 elections.

answer

B

question

26. Participation that involves assembling crowds to confront a government or other official organization is considered A) public relations. B) a grassroots mobilization. C) protests. D) lobbying.

answer

C

question

27. The Constitution was amended to allow women the right to vote in all public elections in A) 1870. B) 1885. C) 1920. D) 1948.

answer

C

question

28. Over the years, the power of labor leaders and machine politicians has A) declined. B) increased. C) stayed about the same. D) disappeared.

answer

A

question

29. Which country has higher voter turnout than the United States? A) Mexico B) Germany C) Italy D) All of the above

answer

D

question

30. Voting qualifications are determined by the A) local governments. B) federal government. C) Constitution. D) states, subject to certain federal rules and limits.

answer

D

question

31. Voter turnout is HIGHEST for which level of government? A) State elections B) Local elections C) National elections D) School-board elections

answer

C

question

32. Which of the following does NOT reduce voter turnout in the US today? A) Registration requirements B) Poll taxes C) Bans on ex-felons voting D) All of the above affect turnout in modern America

answer

B

question

33. Registering to vote in the United States is A) easier than in Europe. B) required when you get a driver's license. C) required if you apply for a student loan. D) harder than in Europe.

answer

D

question

34. The most recent expansion of the suffrage in the United States took place in 1971, when the A) Motor Voter Act was passed. B) poll tax was abolished. C) Supreme Court struck down white primaries. D) voting age was reduced from twenty-one to eighteen.

answer

D

question

35. Why do some argue that the secession of the rich from public institutions is weakening democracy? A) Because by not participating in public institutions, the rich don't have a stake in what happens to them. B) Because the rich can buy their political influence so they are above public institutions. C) Because the rich spend their time abroad and thus they don't care about American culture. D) All of the above.

answer

A

question

1. Which of the following differentiates an interest group from a political party? A) A party attempts to influence policy, whereas an interest group attempts to gain control of government by running candidates for office. B) An interest group is more comprehensive than a party. C) An interest group seeks to influence government on a narrow range of issues, whereas a party attempts to win elections. D) An interest group attempts to appeal broadly to many groups of voters.

answer

C

question

2. Which famous American, in his farewell address, encouraged his fellow citizens to avoid partisan politics? A) Alexander Hamilton B) Thomas Jefferson C) George Washington D) George Mason

answer

C

question

3. Compared with political parties in Europe, parties in the United States have always seemed A) strong. B) centralized. C) weak. D) coherent.

answer

C

question

4. According to the authors, which of the following depend on the existence of strong, competitive political parties? A) liberty B) equality C) democracy D) All of these require strong parties.

answer

D

question

5. The ____________ gave each territory the right to decide whether to permit slavery. A) Compromise of 1850 B) Missouri Compromise of 1820 C) Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854 D) Three-fifths Compromise of 1860

answer

C

question

6. Historically, the United States has always been a ____________-party system. A) one B) two C) three D) four

answer

B

question

7. Which of the following reasons best explains the short lives of third parties? A) Their goals and objectives are too extreme for most Americans. B) They lack requisite resources (membership, money, organization, etc.) to survive. C) They are organized to redistribute income; once new policies are in place, the parties disband. D) Their causes are usually eliminated by the ability of the major parties to absorb their programs and to draw their supporters into the mainstream.

answer

D

question

8. The process by which a party selects a single candidate to run for an elective office is defined as a A) caucus. B) primary. C) nomination. D) general election.

answer

C

question

9. In the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, many cities and counties and even a few states have had such well-organized parties that they were called _________ and their leaders were called_________ A) machines; bosses. B) caucuses; King Caucus. C) precincts; chairs. D) None of the above

answer

A

question

10. The original party system in the United States pitted the Federalists, supported by ______ against the Jeffersonian Republicans, supported by _______. A) agrarian interests; merchants B) merchants; loyalists C) loyalists; agrarian interests D) merchants; agrarian interests

answer

D

question

11. The Republican Party was formed A) as a coalition of antislavery forces. B) as a coalition of proslavery forces. C) in response to Thomas Jefferson's call for states rights. D) after suffering persecution under the Alien and Sedition Acts.

answer

A

question

12. Who was the founder of the Democratic Party? A) George Washington B) Andrew Jackson C) Alexander Hamilton D) Abraham Lincoln

answer

B

question

13. From the Civil War to the 1960s, the _________was a Democratic stronghold. A) Midwest B) West C) South D) Northeast

answer

C

question

14. After thirty-six years of dominating U.S. political life, the Republican Party lost power after _________ began. A) the Great Depression B) World War II C) the Civil War D) the 9/11 attacks

answer

A

question

15. Which person came up with the "southern strategy" in order to get white southerners to start voting Republican? A) Ronald Reagan B) George W. Bush C) Richard Nixon D) Abraham Lincoln

answer

C

question

16. One important cause of the United States' two-party system is A) the Constitution's requirement for bipartisanship in Congress. B) single-member electoral districts. C) multimember electoral districts. D) proportional representation.

answer

B

question

17. Which of the following is a task of the Democratic and Republican National Committees? A) Nominating the president and vice president B) Raising campaign funds C) Writing party platforms D) Helping the president select cabinet members

answer

B

question

18. The ___________ is a party document, written at a national convention, that contains party philosophy, principles, and positions on issues. A) party constitution. B) party bylaws. C) party caucus. D) party platform.

answer

D

question

19. According to the text, the majority of young Americans purport to be A) Republicans. B) Democrats. C) Libertarians. D) Independents.

answer

D

question

20. A psychological tie to a political party is the definition of A) party identification. B) political socialization. C) caucus. D) a party activist.

answer

A

question

21. Since the 1930s and the New Deal, African Americans have been overwhelmingly ____________ in their party identification; women are somewhat more likely to support ____________ candidates; and Jews are among the ____________ Party's most loyal constituent groups. A) Democratic, Democratic, Democratic B) Republican, Republican, Republican C) Democratic, Republican, Democratic D) Democratic, Republican, Republican

answer

A

question

22. Upper-class Americans are considerably more likely to affiliate with the ____________ Party; conservatives are more likely to identify with the ____________ Party; and citizens living in the northeast region are more likely to identify with the ____________ Party. A) Democratic, Democratic, Democratic B) Republican, Republican, Republican C) Republican, Democratic, Republican D) Republican, Republican, Democratic

answer

D

question

23. Partisan ties in the United States have __________ in recent years. A) originated B) increased C) declined D) been steady

answer

C

question

24. Which of the following is NOT usually considered a function of political parties? A) nominating candidates B) getting out the vote C) influencing voters choices D) lobbying

answer

D

question

25. What method of policy making has become popular as a means of direct democracy? A) voter selection of judges B) motor voter registration C) voter selection of nominees D) referendum

answer

D

question

26. In general, which party tends to favor lower taxes and few social programs? A) Democratic B) Republican C) Independent D) Reform

answer

B

question

27. In general, Democrats A) support social programs and regulation of businesses. B) support lower taxes and cuts in social programs. C) support higher taxes and cuts in social programs. D) support cuts in military spending and deregulation of businesses.

answer

A

question

28. Until recent years at least, ____________ have been the principal agents responsible for giving citizens the motivation and incentive to vote. A) the major parties B) the media C) third parties D) interest groups

answer

A

question

29. The speaker of the house is actually selected by A) the president. B) the party that holds the majority of seats in the House. C) the party that holds the minority of seats in the House. D) the Supreme Court.

answer

B

question

30. _______________ is a set of principles that idealizes a strong role for parties in defining their stance on issues, mobilizing voters, and fulfilling their campaign promises once in office. A) Patronage B) The platform C) Proportional representation D) Responsible party government

answer

D

question

31. The authors of the text argue that one of the major factors responsible for the relatively low rates of voter turnout that characterize U.S. national elections is A) the low level of political efficacy. B) dissatisfaction with the political system. C) apathy. D) the decline of political parties.

answer

D

question

32. Since the creation of our current "two-party" system, when was the last time a "third-party" candidate won the presidency of the United States? A) 1912 B) 1948 C) 1992 D) Third parties have never won the presidency since the inception of our current system.

answer

D

question

33. The first "party system" in the United Stated consisted of A) Federalists and Whigs. B) Democrats and Whigs. C) Federalists and Jeffersonian Republicans. D) Republicans and Whigs.

answer

C

question

34. African Americans A) overwhelmingly vote Democratic. B) tend to vote Republican. C) vote more frequently than whites. D) have voted for Democrats in the past, but are trending more Republican in recent years.

answer

A

question

35. Which party has controlled the White House for most of the last twenty-five years? A) Democratic B) Republican C) Reform D) No one party has been dominant during the past twenty-five years.

answer

B

question

36. What was George Washington's relationship with political parties in early America? A) He was the founder of the Federalist Party. B) He was the founder of the Bull Moose Party. C) He was the founder of the Whig Party. D) He thought political parties were a terrible idea.

answer

D

question

1. What is a majority vote? A) More votes than anyone else B) 51 percent of all votes cast C) one vote more than half of all votes cast D) one vote more than half of all registered voters

answer

C

question

2. Except in rare occasions, boundaries for congressional and state legislative districts in the United States are redrawn by the states every _______ years. A) two B) ten C) twenty D) twenty-five

answer

B

question

3. State legislators routinely seek to influence electoral outcomes by manipulating the organization of electoral districts. This strategy is called A) reapportionment. B) the one person, one vote doctrine. C) gerrymandering. D) a recall.

answer

C

question

4. The number of a state's electoral votes is determined by the A) number of members it has in the U.S. House of Representatives. B) percentage of its registered voters who voted in the last presidential election. C) number of members it has in both houses of Congress. D) state's proportionate share of the total U.S. population.

answer

C

question

5. Which of the following widely used systems has the effect of diminishing the power of American party leaders? A) proportional representation B) machine system C) primary system D) patronage system

answer

C

question

6. In the U.S. federal system, the responsibility for organizing elections A) rests largely with Congress. B) is constitutionally defined. C) is defined in federal statutes. D) rests largely with state and local governments.

answer

D

question

7. Joe walks into his voting station and the election judge asks him which party's ballot he would like to vote on today. Joe is in A) a closed primary state. B) an open primary state. C) a caucus state. D) a dictatorship.

answer

B

question

8. If the winner of an election is whoever receives the most votes, regardless of the percentage of votes received, the candidate has been running under a ________ system. A) majority B) plurality C) proportional representation D) cumulative voting

answer

B

question

9. Which of the following is the best example of direct democracy in practice in the United States today? A) gerrymandering B) open primary C) referendum D) caucus

answer

C

question

10. In 2003, Californians voted out Governor Gray Davis. This election was unusual because A) his opponent was an actor. B) he lost in a rare recall effort. C) California never votes Republican. D) California's economy was in good shape.

answer

B

question

11. When the Supreme Court announced the principle of "one person, one vote," what did it mean? A) Voters may only vote once in an election. B) Within a state, electoral districts must have roughly equal populations. C) No one could be denied suffrage on the basis of race or gender. D) Voting was an individual right, not a group right.

answer

B

question

12. Polling is used in a political campaign to A) assess the electorates' needs, hopes, fears, and past behavior. B) craft campaign strategies. C) develop themes for the campaign. D) All of the above

answer

D

question

13. ____________ determine which candidates will receive the major parties' official nominations for all offices but the presidency. A) Caucuses B) Conventions C) Primaries D) None of above

answer

C

question

14. The ____________ is the document, written at a national convention, that contains party philosophy, principles, and positions on issues. A) party constitution B) party platform C) party bylaws D) party caucus

answer

B

question

If you want to run for a seat in the House of Representatives, you should have at least A) $50,000. B) $100,000. C) $500,000. D) $5 million.

answer

C

question

16. Between the 1830s and World War II, national convention delegates were generally selected by A) state party leaders. B) state legislatures. C) primary elections. D) direct primaries.

answer

A

question

17. A current officeholder is called A) a party official. B) a partisan. C) an incumbent. D) All of the above

answer

C

question

18. In most states, how do independent and third-party candidates qualify for the general election ballot? A) by paying a small filing fee with a state's secretary of state B) by winning a primary election in which all independent and third-party candidates are on the ballot C) by obtaining thousands of petition signatures D) by qualifying automatically

answer

C

question

19. In the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, election campaigns tended to be more _________ than today's campaigns. A) capital intensive B) labor intensive C) media driven D) short and peaceful

answer

B

question

20. According to the text authors, which group has a decided advantage in American politics? A) unions B) small businesses C) farmers D) the wealthy

answer

D

question

21. In the 2000 presidential race, George Bush won Missouri 50 percent to 47 percent. How many of Missouri's eleven electoral votes did Bush get in 2000? A) six B) seven C) nine D) eleven

answer

D

question

22. Unions, corporations, and nonprofit agencies may not broadcast "issue ads" mentioning federal candidates within ____ days of a general election and ___ days of a primary election. A) 120; 120 B) 60; 30 C) 30; 30 D) 30; 60

answer

B

question

23. Since the passage of the 2002 Campaign Finance law, individuals may donate a maximum of ____________ to any single candidate; a political action committee may donate ____________ to each candidate. A) $1,000, $25,000 B) $2,300, $5,000 C) $10,000, $50,000 D) $100,000, $500,000

answer

B

question

24. The right of candidates to spend their own money on running for office A) is limited by a cap of $50 million. B) is protected by the First Amendment right of free speech. C) was forbidden by the Campaign Reform Act of 2002. D) is allowed only if the candidate could meet every personal dollar with a dollar of outside donations.

answer

B

question

25. Which are organizations established by corporations, labor unions, or interest groups to channel the contributions of their members into political campaigns? A) special interest groups B) political action committees C) Congressional campaign committees D) so-called soft money cartels

answer

B

question

26. Before the 2002 Campaign Finance Reform law, soft money had been used primarily for A) TV ads for congressional candidates. B) personal expenses for presidential campaign aides. C) voter registration and issue campaigns. D) All of the above

answer

C

question

27. What has been a common way for interest groups, corporations, and political parties to aid a candidate while avoiding campaign finance laws? A) fund money through the unregulated PACs B) work with 527 Committees and 501c(4)s to run campaign ads and promote issues C) use spot advertisements. D) contribute large sums of money to the candidates

answer

B

question

28. According to the authors, who benefits from the American system of private funding of campaigns? A) Republicans B) Democrats C) labor unions D) wealthy interest groups

answer

D

question

29. According to the authors, which economic tool is the best predictor of presidential outcomes? A) consumer price index B) purchasing power index C) Consumer Confidence Index (CCI) D) inflation rate

answer

C

question

30. According to the authors, which of the following is not one of the three types of factors that influence voters' decisions at the polls? A) partisanship B) issues C) candidate characteristics D) the electoral system used to select candidates

answer

D

question

31. ____________ voting occurs when voting is based on the imagined future performance of a candidate. A) Prospective B) Retrospective C) Evaluative D) Partisan

answer

A

question

32. ____________ voting occurs when voting is based on the past performance of a candidate. A) Prospective B) Retrospective C) Evaluative D) Partisan

answer

B

question

33. 527 and 501C(4)s are groups that play a significant role in American politics because A) they provide valuable information to members of Congress. B) they spent more than $1 billion in the 2008 campaign. C) hey are the only groups outside the parties that are allowed to spend money on campaigns. D) unlike PACs, they can coordinate their spending with the candidates.

answer

B

question

34. What point do the authors make about MBNA and the National Association of Manufacturers? A) Both gave huge sums of money to the Democratic Party in return for political favors in the 1990s. B) Both hired Jack Abramoff as their lobbyist, who bribed dozens of Congressmen to get their support for legislation affecting their industry. C) Both received political favors after contributing large amounts of money to President Bush and other GOP candidates. D) Money in politics is a "wash" since some groups support Republicans and others support Democrats.

answer

C

question

35. Members of the House of Representatives are selected by A) single member districts. B) proportional representation. C) the Senate.

answer

A

question

36. Which is correct regarding elections? A) Elections do not require more than one candidate on the ballot. B) Elections can mobilize popular support for authoritarian regimes. C) Elections can act as a "safety valve" for social discontent. D) All of these are correct

answer

D

question

37. Which of the following typifies "American" campaign techniques? A) party machines B) reliance on technology such as polls and spot ads C) grass-roots campaigning D) a well-organized political party organizing large numbers of campaign volunteers

answer

B

question

38. What was the impact of the 2002 Campaign Finance Reform law? A) It significantly reduced the importance of money in campaigns. B) It increased the role of money in campaigns. C) It reduced the role of parties in financing campaigns. D) It limited the role of independent spending by tax-exempt organizations.

answer

C

question

39. How big a role does money play in American politics compared to other countries? A) very little B) about the same C) slightly more D) much more

answer

D

question

1. Which powerful interest group represents the interests of older Americans? A) NOW B) NRA C) AARP D) AFL-CIO

answer

C

question

2. Which interest group made it virtually impossible for Democrats to oppose President Bush's Medicare prescription drug plan? A) NRA B) AARP C) MBNA D) NAM

answer

B

question

3. General Motors is an example of a(n) ____________ interest group, the AFL-CIO is an example of a(n) ____________ interest group, and the American Bar Association is an example of a(n) ____________ interest group. A) professional association; business; labor B) business; professional association; labor C) business; labor; professional association D) labor; professional association; business

answer

C

question

4. Common Cause is an example of a(n) ____________ interest group, the National Taxpayers Union is an example of a(n) ____________ interest group, and the Brookings Institution is an example of a(n) ____________ interest group. A) public interest; ideological; public sector B) ideological; public interest; public sector C) public sector; public interest; ideological D) ideological; public sector; public interest

answer

A

question

5. Benefits that are broadly available and cannot be reasonably denied to others is the definition of A) constituent goods. B) regulative goods. C) collective goods. D) universalistic goods.

answer

C

question

6. What is a free rider? A) an interest group that files an amicus curiae brief B) a person who enjoys the benefits of an action or service without any effort on her or his part C) an economic term that means a person receives the services distributed by a monopoly D) a member of a public interest group

answer

B

question

7. Interest groups offer numerous incentives for members to join. Insurance and discount cards would be examples of A) informational benefits. B) material benefits. C) solidary benefits. D) purposive benefits.

answer

B

question

8. According to James Madison, a good constitution A) prohibits the formation of interest groups, or factions. B) encourages multitudes of interests so that no single interest can ever tyrannize the others. C) should be silent on the issue of the formation of interest groups; such groups should not be regulated in a free society. D) should protect the rights of interest groups in a bill of rights.

answer

B

question

9. The theory that competition among organized interests will produce a balance with all the interests regulating one another is A) elite theory B) pluralism C) socialism D) Machiavellian theory

answer

B

question

10. According to the authors, in general, to obtain adequate political representation, forces from the bottom rungs of the socioeconomic ladder must be organized on the massive scale associated with A) political parties. B) interest groups. C) charismatic leaders. D) public interest groups.

answer

A

question

11. According to the authors, the explosion of interest group activity in the United States has been the result of the A) concomitant growth in the power of U.S. political parties. B) increasing importance of the election as a linkage institution. C) expansion of the role of government. D) decline of public interest groups.

answer

C

question

12. Problems with the pluralist explanation of democracy are A) the uneven distribution of group resources. B) the upper-class bias of most interest group members. C) that inherent biases may have more to do with the outcome than the size and economic power of a group. D) All of the above.

answer

D

question

13. New Politics groups use ______ to efficiently identify and mobilize their adherents. A) petitions on street corners B) electronic communication C) huge TV advertising D) All of the above

answer

B

question

14. Which of the following is true about the so-called New Politics movement? A) The movement is made up of the poor and lower socioeconomic strata of U.S. society. B) The membership seeks particular benefits for specific groups such as prayer in school for religious members or a balanced budget for fiscal conservatives. C) The movement is overwhelmingly supportive of the status quo and the political system. D) The movement is made up of upper-middle-class professionals and intellectuals for whom the civil rights and antiwar movements were formative experiences.

answer

D

question

15. Over the past twenty-five years, the number of interest groups in the United States has A) increased. B) increased enormously. C) decreased. D) decreased enormously.

answer

B

question

16. Communicating with lawmakers and members of the government by an individual or a group to influence the passage of legislation is the definition of A) strong-arm tactics. B) lobbying. C) amicus curiae. D) subsystem politics.

answer

B

question

17. According to the text, what tactic did Microsoft and Wal-Mart use to get favorable treatment from the government? A) litigation B) grassroots mobilization C) lobbying D) ballot initiatives

answer

C

question

18. Which of the following are the requisite parts of a so-called iron triangle? A) state, local, and federal governments B) the president, the secretary of defense, and the secretary of state C) an executive agency, a congressional committee or subcommittee, and an interest group D) an interest group, the president, and Congress

answer

C

question

19. When an agency falls under the influence of an interest group, it is said to be A) captured. B) co-opted. C) wayward. D) unresponsive

answer

A

question

20. The term amicus curiae means A) send up the records of a case. B) national supremacy. C) friend of the court. D) mechanical jurisprudence.

answer

C

question

21. Interest groups were heavily involved in the recent Michigan Affirmative Action cases. Some groups sponsored the lawsuit, other filed amicus curiae briefs for both sides. All of these groups would be using which interest group tactic? A) tort reform B) judicial review C) litigation D) going public

answer

C

question

22. In grassroots lobbying, interest groups A) deal directly with just junior members of Congress. B) file suits in state and local courts. C) deal directly with low-level bureaucrats. D) attempt to involve the general citizen and voter. Q

answer

D

question

23. According to the authors of the text, by far the most common electoral strategy employed by interest groups is A) staging protests aided by the media. B) giving money to political parties or to particular candidates. C) direct-mail advertising. D) lobbying Congress.

answer

B

question

24. According to the authors of the text, forming PACs and contributing to the campaign coffers of candidates is basically a strategy of buying A) access. B) votes. C) Congress people. D) information.

answer

A

question

25. In 2004, the gambling industry in Missouri wanted to change the Missouri Constitution to expand gambling. They organized a campaign through voter signatures and put their proposal directly on the ballot for a vote of the people. This is called a(n) A) initiative. B) ex post facto law. C) primary. D) amicus curiae.

answer

A

question

26. In terms of the public policy process, what is the significance of the concept iron triangle? A) Policy is disproportionately made at the subsystem level. B) Policy is particularistic in nature rather than aimed at the public interest. C) Policies made through iron triangle processes can lead to a runaway budget. D) All of the above

answer

D

question

27. I run a Washington-based consulting firm. An interest group hires my firm to persuade Congress not to pass a particular bill. I use mailing lists to send members of Congress thousands of letters showing "an outpouring of opposition to the bill." In many cases the individuals whose names were on the letters had no strong feelings or even no opinion about the bill. This process is called A) deceptive advertising. B) Astroturf lobbying. C) direct-mail advertising. D) negative lobbying.

answer

B

question

28. Lobbyists are often likely to be A) former union members. B) former government employees. C) former members of Congress. D) Both b and c

answer

D

question

29. _____________ wrote that "liberty is to faction as air is to fire" and that interests should be permitted to regulate themselves by competing with one another. A) Thomas Jefferson B) Alexander Hamilton C) James Madison D) Alexis de Tocqueville

answer

C

question

30. Unlike Madison, the authors of the text argue that "in the realm of group politics, liberty A) is what makes our political system the most fair" B) is to faction as air is to fire" C) is not as important as civil rights" D) seems inconsistent with equality"

answer

D

question

31. According to the authors, _________ are those services that all citizens need but are unable to provide for themselves. A) free rider B) public goods C) popular sovereignty D) political efficacy

answer

B

question

32. The structure and provisions of the 2007 Energy bill illustrates A) the power of the oil and utility industries. B) the importance for perseverance in pushing for change. C) that the average "Joe" can stand up to wealth special interests. D) the benefits of alternative sources of energy.

answer

A

question

33. The idea that competition among interest groups will balance each other is called A) idealism B) pluralism C) elite theory D) democracy

answer

B

question

34. What is the difference between an interest group and a political party? A) Interest groups try to influence the elected, while parties try to win elections. B) Interest groups try to win elections, while parties try to shape policy. C) Interest groups try to appeal to mainstream America, while parties have a more narrow focus. D) Parties contribute money to candidates, while interest groups are not allowed to do so.

answer

A

question

35. Which of the following is not a typical tactic of interest groups? A) lobbying B) litigation C) campaign contributions D) All of the above are typical tactics of interest groups.

answer

D

question

36. Which person is most likely to join an interest group? A) Wal-Mart employee B) college student C) doctor D) single mother

answer

C

question

```1. The Constitution of ________ abolished slavery in the state. A) 1845 B) 1865 C) 1866 D) 1876

answer

C

question

` 2. ______________ was elected to serve as governor of the state of Texas under the Constitution of 1869. A) Jim "Pa" Ferguson B) Andrew Johnson C) Edmund Davis D) Jim Hobby

answer

C

question

` 3. A significant number of the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention of 1875 were affiliated with the __________ A) Ku Klux Klan B) Grange C) Republicans D) Populists

answer

B

question

` 4. The Constitution of 1876 created a __________ state government. A) strong B) parliamentary C) weak D) centralized

answer

C

question

` 5. In the November 2007 constitutional amendment elections, voters were asked to consider _______ proposed amendments. A) ten B) sixteen C) sixty D) one hundred and ten

answer

B

question

` 6. The Texas Bill of Rights prohibits the denial or abridgment of free and equal rights on the basis of _____________ A) sex B) race C) creed D) all of the above

answer

D

question

` 7. The Texas Constitution provides for a state legislature with _____ members in the Senate and ____ members in the House. A) 100, 435 B) 31, 150 C) 50, 100 D) 435, 100

answer

B

question

`. Article IV of the Texas Constitution provides for a(n) ________ executive. A) single B) appointed C) plural D) none of the above

answer

C

question

` 9. Judges in the state of Texas are ___________ A) appointed by the governor and confirmed by the Senate B) appointed by the lieutenant governor C) elected by the voters D) chosen by a commission established by the state bar of Texas.

answer

C

question

` 10. Constitutional amendments in Texas are proposed by the legislature and approved by the ____________ A) voters of the state B) governor C) lieutenant governor D) supreme court of Texas

answer

A

question

` 11. Which of the following is not a function of a state constitution? A) Concentrate political power in the hands of a small group of leaders B) Provide legitimacy to state political institutions C) Delegate power to specific institutions D) Limit political power

answer

A

question

`` 12. It is the job of the _____________ to make recommendations for salary increases for members of the Texas Legislature. A) Governor B) Texas Ethics Commission C) Texas Legislature D) Comptroller

answer

B

question

` 13. Texas has had ___________ constitutions in 200 years. A) one B) two C) seven D) six

answer

C

question

` ``14. The first constitution that Texas operated under was actually the _____________ A) Articles of Confederation B) French Constitution. C) Spanish Constitution. D) Mexican Constitution.

answer

D

question

` 15. In 1827, _______________ was established as the state religion and was supported by the state. A) Catholicism B) Protestantism C) Southern Baptist D) Judaism

answer

A

question

` 16. The Constitution of 1836 was written in response to the ______________ A) Mexican-American War. B) Texas Declaration of Independence. C) Civil War. D) Seven Years War.

answer

B

question

`17. The Constitution of 1836 differed from the first constitution in that it included constitutional protection for ______________ A) community Property. B) slavery C) homestead Protections. D) debtor Relief.

answer

B

question

` 18. By 1860, there were over approximately ______________ slaves in Texas, accounting for over 30 percent of the state's population. A) 58,000 B) 180,000 C) 130,000 D) 100,000 B

answer

B

question

` 19. Texas adopted its third constitution in 1845 in response to _______________ A) gaining its independence. B) statehood C) secession D) Reconstruction

answer

B

question

` 20. The Constitution of _________ was drafted following Texas' secession from the union. A) 1860 B) 1861 C) 1865 D) 1866

answer

B

question

` 1. Beginning in the 1950s, the ______________ Party began drawing votes away from Democratic candidates in _____________ elections. A) Progressive, national B) Populist, state C) Republican, national D) Republican, local

answer

D

question

` 2. From 1927 through 1951, Republicans comprised ________ percent of the Texas legislature. A) 50 B) 75 C) 25 D) 0

answer

D

question

`3. In 1998, _________ of statewide elected offices were held by Republicans. A) 50 B) 75 C) 100 D) 0

answer

C

question

` 4. The practical effect of the political transformations that took place over the last fifty years is that Texas Democrats are now more likely to consider themselves ______________ A) liberal B) conservative C) moderate D) none of the above

answer

B

question

` 5. The successes of the Democratic Party in Texas local and county races is due largely to an increase in ______________ voters A) older B) independent C) Hispanic D) out of state

answer

C

question

` 6. The primary election is held to determine who will ____________ A) serve on the Texas supreme court. B) be the party's nominee in the general election. C) succeed the governor in the event that he or she becomes president. D) serve on the state board of education.

answer

B

question

` 7. A _____________ is held if no candidate receives an absolute majority of the primary vote. A) special election B) run-off C) general election D) closed primary

answer

B

question

` 8. The Texas Constitution and elections law consider the Texas primary system to be a(n) _________ primary. A) open B) jungle C) closed D) revolving door

answer

C

question

` 9. In Texas, _______________ are used to fill vacancies in office, to give approval to borrow money, or to ratify amendments to the Texas Constitution. A) primaries B) special elections C) executive orders D) special sessions

answer

B

question

` 10. Texas used all of the following to limit the right to vote, except for: A) poll taxes B) literacy tests C) white primaries D) early registration

answer

B

question

` 11. Which of the following is not a role of political parties? A) To provide a label under which candidates run and with which voters may identify B) To help raise money for candidates' campaigns C) To organizing government D) To lobby the legislature on behalf of the party's membership

answer

D

question

` 12. What percent of the voting-age population in Texas is registered to vote? A) 90 B) 77 C) 60 D) 55

answer

B

question

` 13. In Texas, a voter must become a registered ___________ A) Democrat or Republican. B) Independent C) Both a and b D) None of the above

answer

D

question

` 14. The _____________ heads the precinct convention and serves on the party's county executive committee. A) precinct chair B) county chair C) election judge D) county judge

answer

A

question

` 15. The temporary campaign organization of the party includes all of the following, except: A) precinct convention B) county convention C) state convention D) regional convention

answer

D

question

`16. The ______________ serves to certify the nominees for statewide election, adopt the party platform, and elect a chair. A) state executive committee B) state convention C) state advisory committee D) state assembly

answer

B

question

` 17. Which of the following event signaled the beginning of a period of dominance by the Democratic Party in Texas? A) Texas independence B) the defeat of Edmund Davis C) the New Deal D) the civil rights movement

answer

B

question

`. The Shivercrat movement brought about a pattern of voting in presidential elections known as _______________ A) yellow-dog democratization B) presidential Republicanism C) populism

answer

B

question

` 19. The "______________ counties" were traditional Republican strongholds in the post Civil War era. A) Old South B) Gulf Coast C) German D) East Texas

answer

C

question

` 20. Despite the apparent dominance of the Democratic Party in Texas for most of the twentieth century, schisms developed between __________ within the party. A) liberals B) liberals and conservatives C) moderates and liberals D) conservatives

answer

B

question

1. Which of the following is not a form of municipal government in Texas? A) council-manager B) commission C) mayor-council D) confederation

answer

D

question

2. The ________________ form of municipal government is the most widely adopted form in Texas. A) council-manager B) commission C) mayor-council D) confederation

answer

A

question

3. The council-manager form of government is distinctive in its use of a _______________, who is a professionally trained administrator. A) strong mayor B) commissioner C) city manager D) comptroller

answer

C

question

4. Houston, the largest city in Texas, uses the ________________ form of municipal government. A) strong mayor B) weak mayor C) council-manager D) commission

answer

A

question

5. San Antonio, the second largest city in Texas, has a ______________ form of municipal government. A) strong mayor council B) weak mayor council C) council-manager D) commission

answer

C

question

6. A _______________ is a unit of local government that performs a single service in a limited geographical area. A) county B) municipality C) special district D) council of government

answer

C

question

7. The most common form of special district is the ___________________. A) municipal utility district B) hospital district C) drainage district D) independent school district

answer

D

question

8. A ________________ offers electricity, water, sewer, and sanitation services outside the city limits. A) municipal utility district B) public utilities commission C) county utilities district D) flood control district

answer

A

question

9. _____________ are the primary source of revenue for special districts. A) User fees B) Property taxes C) Income taxe

answer

B

question

10. A ___________________ is created to promote the coordination of efforts between various units of local government. A) special district B) municipal utility district C) council of government D) commission

answer

C

question

11. There are ________ counties in the state of Texas. A) 1,125 B) 254 C) 377 D) 31

answer

B

question

12. Community colleges are governed by a _________________. A) board of regents B) commission C) council of government D) none of the above

answer

A

question

13. Counties have primary responsibility over _________________. A) urban areas. B) suburban areas C) rural areas D) school districts

answer

C

question

14. County officials are __________________. A) appointed by the governor B) elected by the voters C) appointed by the county judge D) appointed by the county commissioners' court

answer

B

question

15. The ______________ presides over meetings of the county commissioners' court and has administrative as well as judicial powers within the county. A) county tax assessor B) county attorney C) justice of the peace D) county judge

answer

D

question

16. The main duty of the county commissioners is the __________________. A) construction of roads and bridges B) construction of public schools C) construction of community colleges D) enforcement of municipal ordinances

answer

A

question

17. Legend has it that the size of counties in Texas was intended to _________________. A) allow the citizens to travel by carriage to the county seat and back in one day B) closely resemble the legislative districts C) comply with the one-person, one-vote rule D) minimize the power of political elites

answer

A

question

18. County governments may serve each of the following functions, except ___________________. A) road and bridge construction B) law enforcement C) community college administration D) record-keeping

answer

C

question

19. In 2002, there were ________________ municipal governments incorporated in Texas. A) 254 B) 1,533 C) 1,196 D) 2,345

answer

C

question

20. A city with a population in excess of 5,000 may adopt a(n) _________________, which allows for some degree of self-rule. A) annexation charter B) home-rule charter C) commission charter D) unilateral charter

answer

B

question

`1. People's underlying beliefs and ideologies A) force them to think carefully about each opinion that they hold. B) color their perceptions so that they often may make automatic judgments on particular issues. C) prevent liberals and conservatives from sharing similar core values. D) are established when people are young and rarely change as they get older.

answer

B

question

` 2. The term used to denote the beliefs that people have about issues, events, and personalities is A) public opinion. B) political socialization. C) democracy. D) political culture.

answer

A

question

` 3. What is the so-called gender gap? A) Different agents of socialization for men (boys) and women (girls) B) Political differences between men and women C) The difference between the number of men and women in political institutions such as Congress D) Women who join the military in general are not permitted to serve in combat positions, but men are.

answer

B

question

`4. Which of the following is not a core U.S. value? A) individual liberty B) democracy C) big government D) equality of opportunity

answer

C

question

` 5. Which of the following variables is likely to affect public opinion? A) income B) race C) education D) gender E) All of the above

answer

E

question

` 6. The processes through which underlying political beliefs and values are formed are collectively called A) political socialization. B) public opinion. C) survey research. D) political learning.

answer

A

question

` 7. Which of the following is NOT one of the four most important agents of socialization? A) partisanship B) family C) membership in social groups D) prevailing political conditions

answer

A

question

` 8. James Madison and other framers of the Constitution thought that ____________ would always be the most important source of conflict in political life. A) race B) the inherent gulf between the rich and poor C) religion D) education level

answer

B

question

` 9. The set of underlying orientations, ideas, and beliefs through which individuals come to understand and interpret politics is called A) liberalism. B) conservatism. C) public opinion. D) ideology.

answer

C

question

`10. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the differences in opinion of African Americans and white Americans concerning the O. J. Simpson trial? A) The opinions of African Americans and white Americans did not in fact differ much. B) African Americans and white Americans hold different political values. C) African Americans and white Americans have different perspectives and experiences with the criminal justice system. D) African Americans and white Americans have different levels of sports appreciation.

answer

C

question

` 11. According to the text, which type of equality is most prominent in the United States? A) equality of results B) output equality C) market equity D) equality of opportunity

answer

D

question

`12. Which of the following agents of socialization provide most people with their initial orientation to politics? A) family B) peers C) church D) education

answer

A

question

` 13. Which of the following is an example of a social group? A) females B) a labor union C) a political party D) All of the above

answer

D

question

`14. In many respects schooling in the United States A) helps determine a person's success in life. B) is a great equalizer. C) teaches children a common set of civic values. D) All of the above

answer

D

question

` 15. One of the major differences between college graduates and other Americans can be seen in levels of A) political tolerance; college graduates have less political tolerance than Americans with less education. B) religion; college graduates are more religious than Americans with less education. C) political participation; college graduates participate more in politics than Americans with less education. D) All of the above

answer

C

question

` 16. "The South's move from the Democratic to the Republican camp took place because of white southern opposition to the Democratic Party's racial policies." According to the authors, this statement illustrates A) how political conditions affect political beliefs. B) how political socialization does not always work. C) the transitory nature of political culture. D) why the Democrats have not won a southern state in a presidential election since 1964.

answer

A

question

` 17. I support political and social change, government intervention in the economy and the expansion of federal social services. However, I mistrust government involvement in personal issues, such as telling my children when or how to pray. I am most likely A) a liberal. B) a conservative. C) a libertarian. D) None of the above

answer

A

question

`18. I support the social and political status quo and I am suspicious of government regulation of business. However, I favor government involvement in social issues and believe the government should promote prayer in public school. I am most likely A) a liberal. B) a conservative. C) a libertarian. D) None of the above

answer

B

question

`19. Although political ideologies color our political perspectives, they seldom fully determine our views. Why? A) Most people have at least some conflicting underlying attitudes. B) Individuals may have difficulty linking particular issues of personalities to their own underlying beliefs. C) Most individuals' ideologies contain internal contradictions. D) All of the above

answer

D

question

`20. The ____________ is the interplay of opinions and views that takes place as competing forces attempt to persuade as many people as possible to accept a particular position on a particular event. A) economic marketplace B) marketplace of ideas C) political marketplace D) marketplace of demographics

answer

B

question

`21. Recent studies by political scientists have shown A) Americans' knowledge of politics is generally high. B) the average American exhibits little knowledge of political institutions, processes, or leaders. C) there is actually little connection between possessing political knowledge and being an effective citizen. D) it is often difficult for the people seeking knowledge about government to actually find such information.

answer

B

question

` 22. ____________ is the ability to influence government and politics. A) Political apathy B) Political efficacy C) Political knowledge D) None of the above

answer

B

question

` 23. The ability of the government to shape public opinion is A) unlimited. B) limited by other sources of information. C) nonexistent. D) None of the above

answer

B

question

`24. The _________________ are among the most powerful forces operating in the marketplace of ideas. A) state and federal governments B) interest groups C) communications media D) nation's schools

answer

C

question

` ````25. Above all, a public opinion sample must A) be representative. B) not be random. C) consist of 10 percent of the population group. D) be administered in person-to-person interviews.

answer

A

question

` 26. People are more likely to change their opinions when they A) are presented with a well-reasoned argument. B) are well-informed on the issue. C) don't have any strong feelings about the issue. D) are regular voters.

answer

C

question

`27. Which of the following is NOT important in determining the reliability of a poll? A) size of the population B) size of the sample C) wording of the questions D) margin of error

answer

A

question

` 28. ______________ are scientific instruments for measuring public opinion. A) samples B) public opinion polls C) caucuses D) primaries

answer

B

question

` 29. The impression conveyed by polls that something is important to the public when it actually is not is known as (the) A) existence of saliency. B) illusion of saliency. C) bandwagon effect. D) push polling.

answer

B

question

` 30. The practice of push polling involves A) the technique of telemarketers pretending to be pollsters in order to push their products B) the technique of calling people during dinner in the evening to assure that as many people as possible will be home. C) the technique of asking loaded questions in order to subtly shape the respondent's opinion. D) the effect that polls have to push politicians to adopt policy proposals they would not otherwise adopt.

answer

C

question

` 31. What mechanism is currently used by many states to allow public opinion to directly control policy? A) the initiative and referendum B) town hall meetings C) the election of state representatives D) All of the above

answer

A

question

` 32. In general, the government's actions are __________ with citizen's preferences. A) consistent B) inconsistent C) unconcerned D) None of the above

answer

A

question

`33. Which of the following can contribute to a lack of consistency between public opinion and governmental policy? A) politicians who care too much about public opinion B) politicians who don't care at all about public opinion C) a committed majority that can override the viewpoint of the minority D) a committed minority that can override the viewpoint of the majority

answer

D

question

`34. How did the framers of the Constitution affect the power of public opinion on governmental policy? A) by creating a system that gave wealth and power to the elite B) by creating a system that did not automatically let popular opinion translate into public policies C) by creating a system of expressed powers D) by creating a system that gave the people the direct power to make public policies

answer

B

question

` 35. Which of the following is NOT a core U.S. value? A) liberty B) equality of opportunity C) democracy D) big government

answer

D

question

` 36. College graduates are A) brainwashed by their liberal professors. B) more likely to participate in politics. C) less likely to support women's rights. D) All of the above

answer

B

question

` 37. What is the error in the following poll question: "Do you think it was appropriate for President Bush to lie to get us into war with Iraq"? A) selection bias B) sample size C) push polling D) saliency

answer

C

question

` 38. Which group is the most influential agent of socialization in early childhood? A) family B) schools C) peers D) media

answer

A

question

` 39. On average, Americans' knowledge of politics is A) very low B) about as much as the rest of the world. C) more than most countries. D) more than any other country.

answer

A

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