GCH metcalf – Flashcards
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Which of the following is a common portal of exit for a pathogen? A. skin B. hair C. saliva D. urine
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c. saliva
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One of the best ways to break the chain of infection is to A. wash your hands frequently. B. use disinfectant agents when cleaning your house. C. get boosters for immunizations 6 months early. D. drink water only if it is fluoridated.
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A.wash your hands frequently.
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Tears, saliva, and vaginal secretions are rich in ______ that break down and destroy many microorganisms. A. histamines and antigens B. antibodies and enzymes C. macrophages and killer T-cells D. lymphocytes and neutrophils
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B. antibodies and enzymes
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The body's first line of defense against invasion of organisms is A. the skin. B. chlorination. C. white blood cells. D. fever.
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a. the skin
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Obstacles to microorganisms' entering the body include A. enzymes. B. cuts. C. reservoirs. D. pathogens.
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A. enzymes
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Microscopic, hair-like structures that sweep mucus and foreign substances out of the lungs are called A. cilia. B. phagocytic cells. C. macrophages. D. enzymes.
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a. cilia
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White blood cells are produced in the A. brain. B. bone marrow. C. heart. D. gastrointestinal tract.
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B. bone marrow
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Macrophages A. act as scavengers. B. trigger the immune response. C. counteract swollen lymph nodes. D. are suppressor cells.
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A. act as scavengers
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White blood cells that directly destroy virus-infected and cancerous cells are ______ cells. A. helper T B. suppressor T C. natural killer D. B
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c. natural killerq
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Which of the following is not a type of white blood cell? A. macrophage B. neutrophil C. lymphocyte D. antibody
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D. antibody
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Lymph nodes A. produce enzymes in the lymph. B. are where macrophages congregate. C. produce antibodies and antigens. D. are part of the respiratory system.
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B. are where macrophages congregate.
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Swollen lymph nodes are an indication of A. anemia. B. poor diet. C. hemophilia. D. infection.
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D. infection
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Lymphocytes that stimulate other lymphocytes to increase are called ______ cells. A. suppressor T B. B C. memory D. helper T
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d. helper t
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Lymphocytes that can get rid of cells that have been invaded by foreign organisms or have turned cancerous are called A. killer T cells. B. helper T cells. C. suppressor T cells. D. phagocytes.
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A. killer t
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Chemicals responsible for the dilation and increased permeability of blood vessels in allergic reactions are called A. histamines. B. antigens. C. antibodies. D. lymphocytes.
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histamines
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Lymphocytes that produce antibodies are called ______ cells. A. helper T B. B C. killer T D. suppressor T
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B.B
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A marker on the surface of a foreign substance that triggers the immune response is called a(n) A. antibody. B. lymphocyte. C. antigen. D. enzyme.
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C. Antigen
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Lymphocytes generated during an initial infection that circulate in the body for years and quickly destroy the specific antigens if they ever appear again are called ______ cells. A. killer T B. helper T C. suppressor T D. memory T
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D. memory t
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A disease in which an individual's immune system attacks his or her own body's cells is called a(n) A. autoimmune disease. B. acquired immune response. C. antibody deficiency disease. D. natural immune disorder.
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A. autoimmune disease.
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Which of the following does the release of histamines not cause in the affected area? A. redness B. swelling C. infection D. heat
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c. infection
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The body's defense system literally eats invading pathogens during a(n) ______ response. A. acquired B. imagined C. natural D. adaptive
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c. natural
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T and B cells change after contact with the pathogen in a(n) ______ immune response. A. acquired B. imagined C. natural D. innate
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a. acquired
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Neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells are part of the ______ response to invading pathogens. A. natural B. acquired C. adaptive D. cell-mediated
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A. natural
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Antibodies have complementary surface markers that work with ______ like a lock and key. A. histamines B. antigens C. T cells D. cytokines
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B. antigens
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During which of the following phases of immune response are memory B and T cells stored for future invasions? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
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d. 4
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Which of the following are chemical messengers released by immune system cells that help amplify and coordinate the immune response? A. cytokines B. antibodies C. antigens D. histamines
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A. cytokines
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Examples of autoimmune disease include A. systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis. B. rheumatoid arthritis and HIV. C. cancer and systemic lupus erythematosus. D. allergies and HIV.
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A. systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis.
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Lynette has begun feeling feverish and has a sore throat. Which phase of the immune response is she experiencing? A. incubation B. prodromal C. clinical D. initial
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b. prodromal
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Immunization is based on the A. body's ability to remember an encounter with a specific antigen. B. body's ability to tell a harmful pathogen from a harmless one. C. introduction of unrelated pathogens into the body to stimulate antigen production. D. introduction of helper T cells into the body.
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A. body's ability to remember an encounter with a specific antigen.
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Which of the following is a preparation of killed or weakened pathogens injected or taken orally to stimulate the body to produce antibodies? A. gamma globulin B. vaccine C. antibody D. immunoglobulin
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B. vaccine
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Vaccines confer ______ immunity. A. active B. passive C. innate D. natural
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A. active
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A person who is exposed to a disease and who is subsequently injected with antibodies produced by others has been given ______ immunity. A. active B. passive C. innate D. natural
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b. passive
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Which of the following is a serum that contains a variety of antibodies and is injected to provide temporary immunity? A. plasma B. gamma globulin C. antivirals D. immunotherapy
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B. gamma globulin
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Which of the following describes the body's recognition of a relatively harmless substance as a dangerous antigen and subsequent mounting of an immune response? A. passive immunity B. active immunity C. pathogenesis D. allergic reaction
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D. allergic reaction
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Substances that provoke allergies are known as A. parasites. B. antigens. C. bacteria. D. allergens.
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D. Allergens
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Which of the following increases the inflammatory response and secretion of mucus following exposure to an allergen? A. immunoglobulin E B. histamine C. interferon D. memory T cells
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B. histamine
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The antibody most involved in triggering an allergic reaction is A. immunoglobulin E B. gamma globulin C. a mast cell D. histamine
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A. immunoglobulin E
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Which of the following is not a key component of a typical asthma attack? A. secretion of extra mucus B. inflammation of the airways C. spasm in the muscles surrounding the airways D. anaphylaxis
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D. anaphylaxis
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Which of the following is true of the 2009 H1N1 flu pandemic? A. It was even more virulent than expected. B. Sufficient vaccines were on hand to combat it early. C. The virus evolved from swine, avian, and human flu viruses. D. It broke out at the same time as the seasonal flu.
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C. The virus evolved from swine, avian, and human flu viruses.
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Which of the following is not a pathogen? A. prions B. bacteria C. protozoa D. cancer cells
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D. cancer cells
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Streptococcus and staphylococcus are examples of A. rickettsiae. B. bacteria. C. viruses. D. parasites.
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B. bacteria
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Malaria and trichomoniasis are caused by A. protozoa. B. bacteria. C. viruses. D. parasites.
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A. protazoa
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Meningitis is an infection of the A. membrane covering the brain and spinal cord. B. bone marrow and lymphatic tissue. C. alveoli in the lungs. D. lining of the gastrointestinal tract.
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A. membrane covering the brain and spinal cord.
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Johnny has a red, sore throat with white patches on the tonsils, swollen lymph nodes, fever, and a headache. Which of the following bacteria most likely caused his symptoms? A. staphylococcus B. streptococcus C. mycobacterium D. Escherichia coli
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B. Streptococcus
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Which of the following is a common bacterium found on the skin of healthy people that can cause infection if it enters the body? A. streptococcus B. staphylococcus C. mycoplasma D. spirochete
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B. staphylococcus
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hich of the following statements about tuberculosis is false? A. It usually affects the digestive tract. B. It responds to a long course of antibiotic treatment. C. Most infected people have latent infections. D. It is typically transmitted via the respiratory route.
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A. It usually affects the digestive tract.
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Which of the following is not a potential result of lyme disease? A. fetal damage B. arthritis C. ulcers D. impaired motor coordination
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C.ulcers
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) Lyme disease is transmitted by A. mosquitoes. B. deer ticks. C. black widow spiders. D. dog fleas.
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B. deer ticks
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Most ulcers are caused by A. tickborne rickettsia. B. Helicobacter pylori infection. C. overconsumption of spicy food. D. high levels of stress.
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B. Helicobacter pylori infection.
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Generally, antibiotics are useful against A. influenza. B. colds. C. bacteria. D. viruses.
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c. bacteria
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Viral diseases are the most common form of ______ disease. A. spontaneous B. contagious C. chronic D. recurrent
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B. contagious
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Colds are usually transmitted by A. airborne respiratory droplets. B. hand-to-hand contact. C. coughing. D. sharing food or drink.
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B. hand-to-hand contact.
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Which of the following is true of the common cold? A. It may be caused by any of more than 200 different viruses. B. It may be caused by exposure to cold weather. C. It most often occurs during the spring and fall. D. It is usually treated with antibiotics.
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A. It may be caused by any of more than 200 different viruses.
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Influenza is highly contagious and spread via A. coughing. B. respiratory droplets. C. ingesting food that has been infected. D. hand-to-hand contact.
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B. respiratory droplets
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Which of the following is not a common symptom of influenza virus? A. fever B. severe fatigue C. muscle aches D. gastrointestinal distress
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D. gastrointestinal distress
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Which of the following viruses has a vaccine available? A. influenza B. rhinovirus C. Epstein-Barr D. hepatitis C
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A. influenza
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The herpes virus associated with infectious mononucleosis is A. herpes simplex type I. B. herpes simplex type II. C. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). D. cytomegalovirus.
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c. epstein-barr virus
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) The mildest form of hepatitis is hepatitis A. A. B. B. C. C. D. EB.
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A.A
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Hepatitis B is transmitted mainly by A. casual contact. B. contaminated food. C. organ donation. D. intimate sexual contact.
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D. intimate sexual contact
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Yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes is called A. hemorrhage. B. toxic shock. C. jaundice. D. impetigo.
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C. jaundice
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Warts on the hands are caused by infection with a type of A. virus. B. bacterium. C. prion. D. fungus.
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virus
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Molds, mushrooms, and yeasts belong to what classification? A. protozoa B. spirochete C. fungi D. prions
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C. fungi
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A fungus that causes vaginitis and thrush is A. Histoplasma capsulatum. B. Candida albicans. C. Coccidioides immitis. D. dermatophyte fungus.
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b. candida albicans
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Which of the following is a fungal disease that can give rise to major problems? A. athlete's foot B. jock itch C. histoplasmosis D. ringworm
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C. histoplasmosis
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Microscopic, single-celled organisms that often cause recurrent diseases are called A. viruses. B. parasites. C. protozoa. D. bacteria.
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c. protazoa
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Which of the following is not an illness associated with protozoa? A. giardiasis B. amoebic dysentery C. histoplasmosis D. malaria
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c. histoplasmosis
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The largest organisms that can enter the body to cause infection are A. bacteria. B. parasitic worms. C. viruses. D. protozoa.
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b. parasitic worm
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An infectious agent that consists only of protein is a A. virus. B. prion. C. bacterium. D. protozoan.
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b. prion
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Prions cause which of the following diseases? A. rabies B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. syphilis D. toxic shock syndrome
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B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
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Which of the following infections is transmitted by a mosquito bite? A. E. Coli O157:H7 B. West Nile virus C. new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. hantavirus
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B. west nile virus
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An example of an infection that spread widely via air travel of infected people is A. hantavirus. B. new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. C. malaria. D. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
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D. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
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Which of the following best describes a factor that contributes to emerging infections? A. underprescription of antibiotics B. low birth rates C. natural disasters D. local food production
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c. natural disasters
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Autoimmune diseases occur when A. bacteria severely damage the immune system. B. cancer creates an imbalance in the immune system. C. the body erroneously recognizes its own cells as foreign. D. a virus such as HIV destroys the immune system.
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C. the body erroneously recognizes its own cells as foreign.
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Which of the following the best way to support the immune system? A. Get at least 4 hours of sleep. B. Exercise even when you're sick. C. Avoid contact with people. D. Get recommended vaccinations.
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D. Get recommended vaccinations.
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Which one of the following is not true of STDs? A. They often are silent diseases with no symptoms. B. They cannot be transmitted unless symptoms are present. C. They are linked to infertility and can cause birth defects. D. Under certain circumstances, they can lead to death.
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B. They cannot be transmitted unless symptoms are present.
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Which country has the highest STD rate of any developed nation? A. Canada B. France C. United States D. Holland
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C. united states
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Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) A. is a member of the herpes virus family. B. disables the immune function of the CD4 T cells. C. survives by attacking B cells. D. has been a source of human infection for over 200 years.
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B. disables the immune function of the CD4 T cells.
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Which of the following statements describes the asymptomatic phase of HIV infection? A. It lasts about 1-2 years. B. The virus lays dormant in the immune system. C. The virus cannot be transmitted. D. It is also referred to as the latency phase.
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D. It is also referred to as the latency phase.
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Transmission of HIV occurs through A. using the same toilet as someone with HIV. B. sharing eating utensils with someone with HIV. C. hugging someone with HIV. D. unprotected sexual intercourse with someone with HIV.
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D. unprotected sexual intercourse with someone with HIV.
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The riskiest sexual activity in terms of contracting HIV is A. receiving fellatio. B. being the receptive partner during unprotected vaginal intercourse. C. being the receptive partner during unprotected anal intercourse. D. receiving cunnilingus.
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C. being the receptive partner during unprotected anal intercourse.
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Studies have found that women who frequently used ______ for contraception were at greater risk for HIV transmission. A. spermicides with nonoxynol-9 B. condoms C. a cervical cap D. a diaphragm
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A. spermicides with nonoxynol-9
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Needle-sharing among drug users often leads to HIV transmission because A. psychoactive drugs carry large amounts of the virus. B. needles may be contaminated with blood that contains HIV. C. a drug user's immune system is already weakened. D. antiviral medications are ineffective when other drugs are in the bloodstream.
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B. needles may be contaminated with blood that contains HIV.
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The transmission of HIV from mother to child is called A. lateral. B. gestational. C. perinatal. D. opportunistic.
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C. perinatal
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Vertical transmission of HIV describes A. mother-to-child transmission. B. sexual transmission. C. transmission through contaminated needles. D. transmission during medical procedure.
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A. mother-to-child transmission.
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Worldwide, the most common route of HIV infection is A. injecting drugs. B. men having sex with men. C. heterosexual contact. D. receipt of blood transfusions.
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c. heterosexual contact
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Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of HIV infection? A. unexplained, persistent swollen glands B. weight gain C. fever, chills, or night sweats D. immobilizing fatigue
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B. weight gain
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The secondary infection most often seen in people with HIV is A. Kaposi's sarcoma. B. Pneumocystis pneumonia. C. tuberculosis. D. mycobacterium avium complex.
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B. Pneumocystis pneumonia.
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A rare form of cancer that has become common among men with HIV infection is A. Kaposi's sarcoma. B. Pneumocystis carinii. C. cryptosporidiosis. D. Burkitt's lymphoma.
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A. Kaposis sarcoma
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The initial screening test for HIV antibodies is the A. ELISA. B. CD4 lymphocyte count. C. Western blot. D. HIV-1 antigen.
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A. ELISA
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The test that is used as a confirming test for HIV is the A. ELISA. B. CD4 lymphocyte. C. Western blot. D. HIV-1 antigen.
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C. western blot
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The status of the immune system of someone who has HIV can be monitored by checking A. total lymphocyte counts. B. antibody levels. C. therapeutic drug levels. D. CD4 T-cell counts.
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D. CD4 T-cell counts.
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n people with HIV infection, the amount of virus in the body can be measured with a(n) A. ELISA test. B. Western blot test. C. rapid HIV test. D. HIV RNA assay.
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D. HIV RNA assay
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Which of the following was not one of the first three classes of antiviral drugs developed for HIV infection? A. entry inhibitors B. reverse transcriptase inhibitors C. integrase inhibitors D. protease inhibitors
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C. integrase inhibitors
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Which of the following groups of people should most consider being tested for HIV? A. mutually monogamous partners B. people who received blood transfusions after 1985 C. people who have not had an STD before D. people who have had unprotected vaginal sex
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D. people who have had unprotected vaginal sex
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A negative test result for HIV infection means you A. do not have the virus. B. are infected with the virus. C. should immediately retest to verify the result. D. do not have HIV-related antibodies.
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D. do not have HIV-related antibodies.
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A widely used drug in the treatment of HIV infection that inhibits reproduction of the virus is A. Compound Q. B. zidovudine (AZT). C. interleukin-2. D. didanosine (ddI).
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B. zidovudine (AZT).
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Protease inhibitors A. target the development of a protein coat around new copies of HIV. B. replace HIV DNA with CD4 RNA to stop cell reproduction. C. stop the production of CCR-5 cells. D. regulate the production of new CD4 lymphocytes.
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A. target the development of a protein coat around new copies of HIV.
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A class of antiviral drugs that blocks HIV from entering and infecting cells is known as ______ inhibitors. A. reverse transcriptase B. protease C. entry D. maturation
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C. Entry
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W hich of the following is not an important guideline when considering HIV testing? A. Know your testing options. B. Understand the possible test results. C. Be familiar with modes of transmission. D. Wait for symptoms to appear.
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D. Wait for symptoms to appear.
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Long-term antiviral therapy for HIV infection A. is effective for all patients. B. has few side effects. C. is very expensive. D. eliminates the virus from the body.
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C. is very expensive
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Drugs frequently used to treat opportunistic infections such as pneumonia and tuberculosis are A. protease inhibitors. B. antiviral agents. C. antibiotics. D. nucleoside analogs.
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C. antibiotics
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for contracting HIV? A. sex with multiple partners B. alcohol and other drug use C. using a condom lubricated with nonoxynol-9 during vaginal or anal sex D. mutual masturbation
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D. mutual masturbation
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Which of the following does not offer protection against HIV transmission during oral sex? A. oral contraceptives B. condoms C. latex squares D. dental dams
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A. oral contraceptives
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Chlamydia is the most prevalent ______ STD. A. viral B. bacterial C. fungal D. protozoal
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B. bacterial
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Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of ______ in men under age 35. A. epididymitis B. prostatitis C. urethritis D. testiculitis
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C. urethritis
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Infants with chlamydia infection are A. infected during delivery. B. born with congenital deformities. C. infected in the second trimester. D. at risk for brain damage.
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A. infected during delivery.
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Which of the following is not a symptom of chlamydia? A. generalized rash B. painful urination C. discharge from the penis or vagina D. lower abdominal pain in females
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A. generalized rash
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Which of the following best describes the relationship between gender and STDs? A. Most STDs in the United States occur in men. B. Female-to-male transmission is more common than male-to-female. C. Young women have high rates of STDs because they often are afraid to demand condom use. D. Women are likely to be diagnosed with STDs earlier in the disease lifecycle.
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C. Young women have high rates of STDs because they often are afraid to demand condom use.
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Gonorrhea is best described as a sexually transmitted disease A. that produces a painful rash. B. characterized by the appearance of dry, rough growths on the genital area. C. caused by a bacterium that usually affects mucous membranes. D. characterized by recurrent outbreaks of blister-like sores.
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C. caused by a bacterium that usually affects mucous membranes.
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Which of the following accurately describes gonorrhea? A. It is caused by a bacterium that can survive for several hours outside the body. B. There is no effective treatment for it. C. It is the most prevalent viral STD. D. Most women who have it do not have symptoms.
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D. Most women who have it do not have symptoms.
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Gonococcal conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the A. urinary tract. B. respiratory tract. C. eyelids. D. vagina.
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c. eyelids
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Which of the following is not true of an infant born to a gonorrhea-infected mother? A. It is protected from the disease by the mother's antibodies. B. It can be born with life-threatening gonorrheal infections of the blood. C. It may contract gonococcal conjunctivitis. D. It can be born with life-threatening gonorrheal infections of the joints.
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A. It is protected from the disease by the mother's antibodies.
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An infection that progresses from the vagina and cervix to infect the pelvic cavity and fallopian tubes is called A. a urinary tract infection. B. an ascending pelvic inflammation. C. endometriosis. D. pelvic inflammatory disease.
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D. pelvic inflammatory disease.
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Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common complication of A. syphilis and herpes. B. herpes and gonorrhea. C. genital HPV infection and chlamydia. D. gonorrhea and chlamydia.
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D. gonorrhea and chlamydia.
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Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is false? A. It can cause chronic pain. B. It is the leading cause of infertility in young women. C. It always has severe and unmistakable early symptoms. D. There may be recurrent problems despite treatment.
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C. It always has severe and unmistakable early symptoms.
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The organism that causes genital warts is A. HPV. B. HSV. C. HIV. D. HBV.
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A. HPV
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Which of the following best describes HPV infection? A. It is the most common STD in the United States. B. It cannot cause cancer in men. C. Many people with HPV have some visible symptoms. D. It only appears on the penis and vagina.
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A. It is the most common STD in the United States.
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The family of viruses that causes genital warts is A. coronavirus. B. norovirus. C. human papillomavirus. D. herpes simplex virus.
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C. human papillomavirus.
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The incubation period of HPV is ______ from the time of contact. A. 5 to 7 days B. 1 to 2 weeks C. 1 month to 2 years D. 6 to 11 years
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C. 1 month to 2 years
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Which of the following is linked to the development of cervical cancer? A. syphilis B. trichomoniasis C. genital HPV infection D. pelvic inflammatory disease
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C. genital HPV infection
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Which of the following is not a treatment for genital HPV infection? A. cryosurgery B. electrocautery C. antibiotics D. podophyllin
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C. antibiotics
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The herpes virus most often responsible for cold sores is A. HSV 1. B. HSV 2. C. EBV. D. HSV B.
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A. HSV 1.
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Genital herpes is most often caused by A. HSV 1. B. HSV 2. C. HAV. D. HBV.
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B. HSV 2.
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Which of the following statements best describes genital herpes? A. After infection, the virus lies dormant in nerve cells. B. The virus is transmitted when lesions are present. C. It has not been proved to be a factor in HIV transmission. D. Using condoms does little to prevent its spread.
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A. After infection, the virus lies dormant in nerve cells.
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A drug used to treat herpes is A. podophyllin. B. Flagyl. C. doxycycline. D. acyclovir.
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D. acyclovir.
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Which of the following is not a reason herpes is considered a serious STD? A. high fatality rate B. high incidence rate C. serious impact on newborns D. lack of a cure for the disease
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A. high fatality rate
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Inflammation of the liver is known as A. hepatitis. B. jaundice. C. Treponema pallidum. D. epididymitis.
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A. hepatitis
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Which of the following is not a mode of transmission of the hepatitis B virus? A. toilet seats B. toothbrushes C. eating utensils D. razor blades
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A. toilet seats
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Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis is false? A. Hepatitis is diagnosed using blood tests. B. A vaccine is available for HBV. C. Hepatitis cannot be transmitted to an unborn child. D. Immunoglobulin can be used to minimize risk of infection after exposure to HBV.
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C. Hepatitis cannot be transmitted to an unborn child.
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