question

The traits of a good leader are easily acquired.

answer

F

question

Which trait of good leaders causes them to have deep concern for others?

answer

D. sincerity

question

There are leaders in all areas of society.

answer

T

question

A leader demonstrates integrity by __________.

answer

B. doing the right thing, even when others are not around

question

Only a select few people can be real leaders.

answer

F

question

Reinforcing established standards is an example of discipline.

answer

T

question

A leader is responsible for __________.

answer

C. making sure that all the work on a project gets done

question

In the authoritarian leadership style, the leader is most likely to __________.

answer

D. give detailed instructions to team members

question

Leadership is a skill that can be learned.

answer

T

question

The traits of a good leader are easily acquired.

answer

F

question

Flexibility is a key characteristic for all leadership styles.

answer

T

question

Which type of leadership style is most helpful in emergency situations?

answer

A. authoritarian

question

A leader demonstrates integrity by __________.

answer

B. doing the right thing, even when others are not around

question

A delegative style of leadership is useful when all team members __________.

answer

C. are highly motivated

question

A leader is responsible for __________.

answer

C. making sure that all the work on a project gets done

question

A democratic style of leadership is useful when all team members __________.

answer

D. need to feel involved

question

A commitment to being ethical is important for good leadership.

answer

T

question

The traits of a good leader are easily acquired.

answer

F

question

In the authoritarian leadership style, the leader is most likely to __________.

answer

D. give detailed instructions to team members

question

What distinguishes mass from weight?

answer

A. Mass is a measure of the amount of matter in an object, while weight is a measure of the force of gravity on the object.

question

Second and third class levers are differentiated by __________.

answer

B. the location of the load

question

The first class lever is the most common lever in the human body.

answer

F

question

Which of the following is NOT a component of a lever?

answer

B. tension

question

The ankle is a third class lever.

answer

F

question

According to Newton's second law of motion, force is equal to mass times acceleration.

answer

T

question

Second and third class levers both have __________.

answer

D. the fulcrum at one end of the lever

question

The elbow is considered a third class lever because __________.

answer

B. the effort is applied closer to the fulcrum than the load

question

Force is based upon both mass and acceleration.

answer

T

question

What is the difference between velocity and acceleration?

answer

B. Velocity is how fast an object moves and acceleration is the rate of change in velocity.

question

The joints in the fingers are __________.

answer

C. condyloid joints

question

Range of motion is the distance an object can travel when separated from another object.

answer

F

question

Why do women typically tend to have slightly greater stability than men?

answer

C. Women have lower centers of gravity, and lower centers of gravity provide more stability.

question

Hyperextension bends a joint in the opposite direction as flexion.

answer

T

question

Why does range of motion need to be measured separately for each joint?

answer

B. Each joint has a different range of motion.

question

The center of gravity does not contribute to individual stability.

answer

F

question

Which of the following describes the BEST strategy for increasing a specific joint's range of motion?

answer

C. applying the principles of overload and progression to exercise the joint

question

Which of the following terms describes the straightening of a joint, rather than the bending?

answer

C. extension

question

The thumb is the only saddle joint in the human body.

answer

T

question

Which of the following BEST explains why stability is an important skill for athletes?

answer

B. Without good stability, athletes are too clumsy to perform well.

question

The rear deltoid row is a back exercise.

answer

T

question

Which of the following is TRUE about protein and supplements in diets?

answer

C. It is uncertain whether many dietary supplements are effective.

question

Which of the following is a myth about weight lifting?

answer

B. Women who lift weights will develop large, bulky muscles.

question

The principal difference between isometric and isotonic exercises is the __________.

answer

C. change in muscle length during exercise

question

A one-repetition maximum is most important in developing muscle __________.

answer

A. strength

question

What distinguishes push-ups from other chest exercises such as the bench press and dumbbell flies?

answer

C. Push-ups do not require any weights or machines.

question

Why is it a myth that muscle turns into fat when someone stops working out?

answer

A. Muscle and fat are two different kinds of tissue.

question

Well-designed weight-training programs only target two or three body areas.

answer

F

question

Why is spot training a myth?

answer

D. Exercise cannot burn fat in a target body region.

question

Upright rows are a shoulder exercise.

answer

T

question

What characterizes static stretching?

answer

B. assuming and holding a stretch position

question

Variety is important for an exercise program because it __________.

answer

C. alleviates boredom

question

Trunk rotation is the most common static flexibility assessment.

answer

F

question

Based on the stated expectations of the sit-and-reach test, which of the following is TRUE?

answer

B. Women are generally more flexible than men.

question

Why are dynamic flexibility tests NOT used as often as static flexibility tests?

answer

A. Dynamic flexibility tests involve more subjective measurements.

question

A lack of flexibility is a risk factor for athletic injuries.

answer

T

question

Which of the following BEST defines dynamic stretching?

answer

A. Dynamic stretching features slow, deliberate, controlled motions useful for activity preparation and reducing muscle tightness.

question

Why is it important to assess flexibility both before AND during a workout regimen?

answer

A. to assess flexibility progress

question

The trunk rotation is a common dynamic flexibility assessment.

answer

F

question

What distinguishes the exercise principle of progression from that of overload?

answer

B. Progression deals with increasing fitness goals rather than the physical challenge of a workout.

question

The hip flexor is predominantly a calf stretching exercise.

answer

F

question

There aren't health risks with any yoga positions or forms.

answer

F

question

Which of the following BEST describes balanced stretching?

answer

A. stretching many groups of muscles throughout the body

question

The ballistic method of developing flexibility is the safest form of stretching.

answer

F

question

What would be a particularly good stretching exercise to do before going on a run?

answer

A. the calf stretch

question

Why is the standing quadriceps stretch a better stretching exercise than the sitting quadriceps stretch?

answer

C. It exerts less force on the knees.

question

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate result of healthy stretching?

answer

C. muscle pain

question

Which of the following is NOT a good exercise for the lower body?

answer

B. spine stretch

question

Stretching should be accompanied by slow, deep breaths.

answer

T

question

Which of the following is NOT a dangerous stretch?

answer

D. hip flexor

question

Why do males tend to have better cardiorespiratory fitness than females?

answer

A. Males tend to have higher levels of hemoglobin in their blood.

question

Body composition has little to do with cardiorespiratory fitness.

answer

F

question

Doctors can directly measure a person's maximum oxygen intake by measuring their oxygen intake while they __________.

answer

B. run on a treadmill, which increases speed

question

As a person ages, his or her levels of cardiorespiratory fitness tend to __________.

answer

B. decline

question

The maximum oxygen uptake is known as the __________.

answer

A. VO2 max

question

Increasing cardiorespiratory fitness levels is difficult for experienced athletes because __________.

answer

C. they have already achieved high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness

question

According to this multistage fitness test reference chart, what would the maximum oxygen intake be for a person who failed to complete the seventh shuttle run in the fifth level?

answer

C. 30.2 ml/kg/min

question

During exercise, an individual's heart rate tends to increase steadily until __________.

answer

C. a level of consistent intensity has been reached

question

The cardiovascular system helps move hormones throughout the body during exercise.

answer

T

question

Your maximum oxygen intake is a measurement of the ability __________.

answer

D. all of the above are measured by maximum oxygen intake

question

Optimal cardiorespiratory fitness requires a BMI of __________.

answer

A. 18.5 to 24.9

question

Which of the following physiological effects occurs as a result of increased exercise?

answer

D. the volume of blood pumped by the heart increases

question

As exercise levels increase, which of the following physiological changes occurs in the respiratory system?

answer

B. The lungs expand in size.

question

Australian Rules Football can trace its roots to __________.

answer

A. rugby

question

Which of the following statements about cricket is NOT true?

answer

B. The game is played on a rectangular field.

question

Over-encouraging lesser skilled players can lead to embarrassment.

answer

T

question

Rotating teams more frequently is an example of __________ of the game to keep things fair.

answer

B. modifying the rules

question

Positive reinforcement can only be given to friends.

answer

F

question

Competitive games can __________ those with limited skill.

answer

A. intimidate

question

Athletic ability will always guarantee success in sports.

answer

F

question

Soccer is the most popular sport in the United States.

answer

F

question

Which of the following statements about Australian football is TRUE?

answer

B. Goals are scored by kicking the ball through goal posts.

question

Gauging yourself against others is acceptable in competitive sports.

answer

T

question

Organic foods tend to have higher levels of nutrients than nonorganic foods.

answer

f

question

Nutritional labels list only healthy nutrients.

answer

f

question

Vitamins A, vitamin C, calcium, and __________ are required to appear on nutritional labels.

answer

A. iron

question

The expiration date on a product refers to the last date a product should be __________.

answer

not A. sold to a customer

question

1 in 4 daily calories should come from fat.

answer

f

question

Acne is caused by __________.

answer

C. hormones

question

Referencing the product below, what is one serving size in cups?

answer

A. 1/2 Cup

question

The acronym FDA stands for __________.

answer

D. Food and Drug Administration

question

Which of the following is NOT a step one can take to prevent food borne illnesses?

answer

C. cutting all meats with the same knife

question

Processed, low-fat foods are typically low in calories.

answer

F

question

Thirty years ago, there were only two common and easily treated STIs.

answer

T

question

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about birth control?

answer

NOT A

question

Which of the following contraceptive methods do females NOT use?

answer

B. vasectomy

question

Barrier methods of birth control are more effective than hormonal methods.

answer

F

question

To stay abstinent, one should __________.

answer

D. all of the above

question

Though teen pregnancy may have social and emotional consequences, there is no danger to one's physical well-being.

answer

F

question

Which of the following contraceptive methods do men NOT use?

answer

A. IUD

question

Abstinence is the only birth control method that has a zero percent failure rate for an unplanned pregnancy and 100 percent rate of protection against STIs.

answer

T

question

Which of the following BEST explains why the natural family planning method should be used by long-term couples only?

answer

NOT D

question

Which of the following is NOT a valid reason to attend an HIV/AIDS support group?

answer

NOT C

question

How long can it take before HIV symptoms are detected?

answer

D. several years

question

According to the lecture, over 42 million people have died from AIDS.

answer

F

question

Monogamy is defined as __________.

answer

A. only having one sex partner at a time

question

Millions of US teens are newly infected by HIV every year.

answer

F

question

AIDS was officially named in the 1980s.

answer

T

question

When did the first AIDS treatment program start in Africa?

answer

NOT C

question

Which of the following is NOT a type of opportunistic infection common to HIV/AIDS positive people?

answer

A. hereditary

question

How many cases of HIV/AIDS infection exist in the world today?

answer

NOT C

question

When should an HIV positive person share his or her status with friends and family?

answer

NOT C

question

Type 2 diabetes usually appears after age 40.

answer

t

question

Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder?

answer

not d

question

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about diabetes?

answer

not b

question

How many deaths worldwide result from noncommunicable diseases?

answer

B. approximately 60%

question

Which of the following diseases is caused by an abnormal chromosome inherited before birth?

answer

not c

question

Type 2 diabetes is treated with a medication to make the body sensitive to insulin.

answer

t

question

What is the leading cause of type 2 diabetes?

answer

not a

question

People with type 2 diabetes have to monitor their blood sugar levels and take insulin to manage the disease.

answer

t

question

Type 2 diabetes would be considered a(n) __________.

answer

D. complex disease

question

What percentage of diabetes patients have type 2?

answer

not a

question

Developmental disabilities cannot be cured.

answer

t

question

As a result of education and law enforcement, negative attitudes toward the disabled are rare in society today.

answer

f

question

Which of the following laws requires that information technology in any federally funded program be accessible to the disabled?

answer

not d

question

Which of the following laws protects the accessibility to employment opportunities for the disabled?

answer

C. Americans with Disabilities Act

question

If a company that has 18 employees interviews five people for a position and chooses to hire the person with the second best qualifications because the building may not be able to accommodate the wheelchair of the most qualified candidate, who is disabled, which act is the employer violating?

answer

not C.

question

If a disabled person is unable to board the bus in a wheelchair, what does the Americans with Disabilities Act require?

answer

B. that alternative transportation that can accommodate the man and his wheelchair be made available

question

Which of the following is NOT a disability protected by law?

answer

D. blurred vision that is a symptom of eye surgery

question

A person who was injured in a war and lost a portion of his leg is considered to have which of the following?

answer

A. impairment

question

Many automobile companies have custom options available for disabled people.

answer

t

question

Which of the following situations would NOT violate the Americans with Disabilities Act?

answer

not c

question

Once exhaustion sets in, stress becomes easier to manage.

answer

f

question

Stress is __________.

answer

D. A and B only

question

Emotional signs of stress include aches and nausea.

answer

f

question

Illness is considered a behavioral stressor.

answer

f

question

The general adaptation syndrome response includes __________.

answer

A. alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

question

The signs of cognitive (mental) stress include all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

not a

question

Which of the following glands does NOT release hormones into the bloodstream during a stress response?

answer

C. pancreas

question

Which of the following statements relating to stress is FALSE?

answer

not b

question

High blood pressure is a physical response to stress.

answer

t

question

A major side effect that stress can cause on the gastrointestinal system is __________.

answer

D. diminished levels of cortisol, causing weight loss

question

A 10% increase in cigarette prices has been found to result in a _____ decrease of smokers.

answer

B. 4%

question

Advertising or promoting the use of tobacco to adolescents is prohibited.

answer

T

question

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding smoking and pregnancy?

answer

not c not a

question

Smoking can have both long- and short-term effects on an individual's health.

answer

t

question

Secondhand smoke is more dangerous in enclosed spaces.

answer

t

question

Which of the following effects of smoking is an individual least likely to experience from secondhand smoke?

answer

c

question

Environmental tobacco smoke causes the death of approximately 7,000 nonsmokers per year.

answer

f

question

Which of the following statements about secondhand smoke is NOT true?

answer

not b not a

question

Smoking reduces a person's life span by an average of __________.

answer

not c

question

Which of the following is the safest level of exposure to secondhand smoke?

answer

C. never

question

How have high taxes on tobacco products impacted the number of people who use them?

answer

not a

question

What percentage of adult deaths is attributed in part to smoking?

answer

not c

question

Secondhand smoke is less dangerous than the smoke tobacco users breathe.

answer

f

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