FINAL: Mastering #19 – Flashcards
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Which of the following does histamine NOT directly cause? A) vasodilation B) anaphylactic shock C) smooth muscle contraction D) increased vascular permeability
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B
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Which of the following would NOT be an example of a common allergen? A) pollen B) peanuts C) dust mites D) hay fever
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D
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A patient enters the emergency room with itchy, swollen hives. This is an example of a ___________ allergic response called __________. A) localized; anaphylaxis B) localized; asthma C) systemic; urticaria D) localized; urticaria
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D
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When the wasps stung Sally, the injection of venom initiated a type I hypersensitivity reaction called anaphylaxis. Which of the following best describes a hypersensitivity reaction? A) a reaction that occurs in a sensitized individual resulting in tissue damage rather than immunity B) a hyperactive immune response generated upon initial exposure to antigen C) an immune response characterized by an overproduction of T cytotoxic cells D) an immune response that results in an overproduction of IgG
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A
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Sally decides to go through the desensitization program recommended by her doctor. What is the overall purpose/goal of this process? A) The process will eliminate all of the wasp venom-specific IgE from Sally's body. B) Desensitization will decrease the overall sensitivity of Sally's immune responses, eliminating its hyperactivity. C) Repeated exposure to wasp venom antigen will increase the amount of IgG produced by Sally's immune system. D) During the desensitization process, the number of wasp venom-reactive mast cells will decrease.
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C
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The IgG molecules that are produced during desensitization function as blocking antibodies. These antibodies are extremely effective in providing protection from a hypersensitivity reaction. Why are blocking IgG antibodies so effective at protecting Sally from another anaphylactic response to wasp venom? A) The IgG antibodies bind to the circulating IgE and block their binding to the mast cells. B) The blocking IgG antibodies "outnumber" the IgE antibodies and bind to wasp venom before the IgE antibodies can bind. C) The IgG molecules bind to mast cells and prevent IgE molecules from binding, thereby preventing degranulation. D) The IgG molecules bind to the mast cells; but when wasp venom binds, IgG blocks degranulation.
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B
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Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of A) IgA antibodies in joints. B) IgD and IgE complexes in joints. C) IgG and IgA complexes in joints. D) complement in joints. E) complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.
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E
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Assuming Rh compatibility is present, individuals with which of the following blood types would be able to receive donor blood from any of the four blood types (A, B, AB, and O)? A) O B) AB C) A D) B
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B
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Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system is unable to discriminate "self" from "nonself." A) True B) False
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A
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Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible? A) xenotransplant B) allograft C) autograft D) isograft E) All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.
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A
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Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause A) immunologic enhancement. B) immunotherapy. C) immunosuppression. D) immunologic surveillance. E) autoimmunity.
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C
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All of the following regarding "immune privileged sites" are true EXCEPT A) they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus. B) they include any tissue transplanted from a pig. C) they are rarely rejected. D) they do not have lymphatic vessels. E) they include corneal and brain tissue.
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B
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A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with A) CTLs. B) CD+ T cells. C) CTLs and activated macrophages. D) activated macrophages. E) tumor-specific antigens.
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C
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Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on A) gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor. B) gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane. C) gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5. D) CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor. E) gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor.
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A
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Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is A) homosexual intercourse. B) nosocomial. C) heterosexual intercourse. D) intravenous drug use. E) blood transfusions.
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C
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Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT A) prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA. B) termination of viral DNA. C) blockage of viral attachment. D) destruction of viral ribosomes. E) inhibition of viral proteases.
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D
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HIV attack of CD4+ T cells causes suppression of both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. A) True B) False
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A
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All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT A) it is due to an altered immune response. B) it is synonymous with "allergy." C) it requires previous exposure to an antigen. D) it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time. E) it occurs in the presence of an antigen.
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D
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The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are A) antibodies. B) antigen-antibody complexes. C) antigens. D) found in basophils and mast cells. E) the proteins of the complement system.
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D
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Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? A) asthma B) hives C) immunodeficiency D) shock E) hay fever
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D
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Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+? A) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh B) anti-A, anti-Rh C) anti-B, anti-Rh D) anti-A E) anti-B
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D
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When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood A) lacks HLA and MHC antigens. B) will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma. C) has O type antigens on their red blood cells. D) will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens. E) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens.
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E
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A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of A) innate immunity. B) acute contact dermatitis. C) autoimmunity. D) delayed cell-mediated immunity. E) psoriasis.
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D
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The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to A) cytokines. B) phagocytosis. C) antibodies against self. D) complement activation. E) destruction of the antigen.
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D
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Allergic contact dermatitis is due to A) sensitized T cells. B) IgM antibodies. C) IgE antibodies. D) activated macrophages. E) IgG antibodies.
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A
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The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of A) antihistamine. B) RhoGAM. C) IgE. D) antigen. E) IgG.
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D
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Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE? A) They involve IgE antibodies. B) The symptoms are due to histamine. C) The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen. D) They involve helper T cells. E) Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.
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D
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Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE? A) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example. B) Cytokines initiate tissue damage. C) Reactions are not apparent for a day or more. D) Allergic contact dermatitis is an example. E) Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation.
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A
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Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an A) Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus. B) AB mother with a B fetus. C) AB mother with an O fetus. D) Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus. E) Rh- mother and an A fetus.
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A
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Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with A) histamine. B) IgE antibodies. C) IgG antibodies. D) complement. E) macrophages.
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B
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All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT A) dust allergies. B) pollen allergies. C) penicillin allergic reactions. D) asthma. E) transplant rejections.
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E
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All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first? A) Antibodies and complement react with platelets. B) Antibodies against haptens are formed. C) Drug binds to platelets. D) Purpura occurs on the skin. E) Platelets are destroyed.
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C
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Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to A) IgE antibodies. B) cytokines. C) antigens. D) IgG antibodies. E) neutrophils.
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B
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Skin tests are reliable indicators for the diagnosis of food-related allergies. A) True B) False
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B
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Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction? A) Cells are killed. B) Mediate by T cells. C) Immune complexes form. D) Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens. E) Antibodies are not made.
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D
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Which of the following is FALSE concerning type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reactions? A) IgM and IgG antibodies bind to antigens on foreign cells. B) IgE binds to mast cells or basophils. C) Macrophage activity may lead to additional cellular damage. D) They are responsible for transfusion reactions.
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B
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Which type of hypersensitivity is allergic contact dermatitis? A) type I reaction B) type II reaction C) type III reaction D) type IV reaction
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D
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Which of the following is true concerning systemic anaphylaxis? A) Anaphylactic shock results from an increase in blood pressure, which is caused by blood vessel constriction. B) Asthma is a type of systemic anaphylaxis. C) Injected antigens combine with IgE antibodies on the surface of certain cells, causing them to release histamines and other inflammatory mediators. D) Systemic anaphylaxis frequently occurs as a result of exposure to inhaled allergens.
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C
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Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n) A) Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus. B) bone marrow transplant. C) skin graft. D) corneal transplant. E) blood transfusion.
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B
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All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT A) they can detect antibodies but not antigens. B) they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes. C) reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells. D) they can be used to diagnose various diseases. E) they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation.
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A
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Which of the following statements about human embryonic stem cells is TRUE? A) They are pluripotent. B) They are typically obtained from the zygote stage of embryonic development. C) They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development. D) They express no MHC II antigens. E) They are obtained in great numbers from umbilical cords of newborns.
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C
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All stem cells are derived from embryonic stem cells. A) True B) False
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B
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Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin? A) immunosuppression B) immune complex C) immunotherapy D) immunologic surveillance E) immunologic enhancement
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C
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Which of the following best describes graft-versus-host disease? A) The cells of a host reject transplanted bone marrow. B) Immune cells attack transplanted tissue in a privileged site. C) A tissue transplant is rejected because the host's T cytotoxic cells are activated and kill the transplanted tissue. D) Immune cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the cells of the host.
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D
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Which of the following is a xenotransplantation product? A) transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her older brother B) transplantation of tissue from one area on a person's body to another C) transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her twin sister D) the replacement of a human's heart valve with a pig's heart valve
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D
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Cancer is similar to an infectious disease in that it is due to a failure of the body's defenses. A) True B) False
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A
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HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on A) T helper cells. B) macrophages. C) dendritic cells. D) T helper cells and macrophages. E) T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
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E
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Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection? A) There may be persistent yeast infections. B) The disease does not progress to AIDS. C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic. D) Virions may remain latent. E) All of the answers are correct.
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E
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During the asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by A) detecting antibodies against HIV. B) counting CD8+ T cells. C) the Western blot test. D) counting CD4+ T cells. E) detecting viral RNA.
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E
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HIV can evade host antibodies by A) lowering the CD4+ cell count. B) remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in vacuoles. C) causing cell-to-cell fusion. D) remaining an inactive provirus. E) virions remaining latent in vacuoles.
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B
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The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection? A) phase 2 B) phase 1 C) initial phase D) phase 3 E) asymptomatic phase
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D
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Individuals who do not express CCR5 are highly resistant to infection by HIV. A) True B) False
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A
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Which statement regarding the infectiveness and pathogenicity of HIV is FALSE? A) Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on the glycoprotein spike (gp120) combining with the CD4+ receptor. B) During latent infections, the provirus directs the synthesis of many new viruses. C) The ability of the HIV to remain as a provirus shelters it from the immune system. D) Some cells that do not carry the CD4 molecule can become infected with HIV.
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B
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HIV is believed to have arisen by mutation of a virus endemic to wild animals in Africa. A) True B) False
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A
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The level of HIV population in the blood is highest __________. A) when the patient has clinical AIDS B) when CD4+ T cell levels are the highest C) when the patient is asymptomatic
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C
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The progression from initial HIV infection to AIDS (in the United States) usually takes how long? A) 5 years B) 10 years C) 20 years
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B
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Which of the following is an early indication of immune system failure? A) high levels of HIV in the blood B) seroconversion C) repeated Candida albicans infections such as thrush and vaginitis
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C
