Lecture Exam #3 – Flashcards

question
Which statement is most accurate regarding immunological escape? A Daughter cells that display tumor-specific antigens will not be attacked by NK cells. B Cancer cells often mutate and can sometimes avoid detection by NK cells. C Once immunological escape has occurred, cancer cells remain stationary. D If a primary tumor has a surrounding capsule, the cells within absolutely cannot provoke a massive response by NK cells.
answer
B Cancer cells often mutate and can sometimes avoid detection by NK cells.
question
The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells. A suppressor T B plasma C helper T D NK E B
answer
D NK
question
Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify the processes and the structural components involved when a body cell becomes infected by a pathogen.
answer
...
question
When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell. A helper T B cytotoxic T C suppressor T D NK E plasma
answer
A helper T
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Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells. A plasma B suppressor T C helper T D B E cytotoxic T
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E cytotoxic T
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Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of these chemical weapons? A secrete mutant proteins B activate genes that trigger apoptosis C secrete free radicals D secrete organic solvent E secrete strong acid
answer
B activate genes that trigger apoptosis
question
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells? A NK cells induce the target cell to undergo "apoptosis" (cell suicide). B NK cells attack transplanted organs. C NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells. D NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane
answer
D NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.
question
Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication? A phagocytes B interferons C T lymphocytes D complement proteins
answer
B interferons
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How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria? A The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells. B The phagocytes look for the absence of "self" proteins. C Phagocytes recognize a specific antigen on the cell surface. D All the foreign cells or bacteria are marked with opsonins that the phagocytes recognize.
answer
A The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.
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Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis? A natural killer (NK) cells B cytokines C interferons D complement proteins
answer
D complement proteins
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Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis? A T cells B antibodies and complement proteins C interferons D natural killer (NK) cells
answer
B antibodies and complement proteins
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The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would A activate antibodies. B opsonize pathogens. C produce a fever. D activate complement. E cause inflammation.
answer
C produce a fever
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Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation, except A heat of the inflamed tissue. B chemotaxis of phagocytes. C swelling of the inflamed tissue. D redness of the inflamed tissue. E movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space.
answer
B chemotaxis
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Inflammation produces localized A swelling. B redness. C heat. D pain. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
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Which nonspecific defense mechanism increases the resistance of cells to viral infection and slows the spread of disease? A interferons B immunological surveillance C pyrogens D complement system
answer
A interferons
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Which of the following are secreted by T cells and NK cells, and stimulate macrophage activity? A beta interferons B gamma interferons C complement proteins D alpha interferons
answer
B gamma interferons
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Plasma contains ________ special complement proteins that form the complement system. A 9 B 3 C 11 D 5 E 7
answer
C 11
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The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following, except A enhanced phagocytosis. B destruction of target cell plasma membranes. C histamine release. D inhibition of the immune response. E stimulation of inflammation.
answer
D inhibition of the immune response.
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Which of the following are abundant, mobile, and quick to phagocytize cellular debris or invading bacteria? A fixed macrophages B neutrophils C eosinophils D free macrophages
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B neutrophils
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Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection, except A body hair. B basement membranes. C epithelium. D secretions. E complement.
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E complement
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The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the A phagocytes. B T cells. C B cells. D plasma cells. E NK cells.
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A phagocytes
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The attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment is called ________.
answer
chemotaxis
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Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by A immunological surveillance. B fever. C specific immunity. D skin defenses. E nonspecific immunity.
answer
C specific immunity
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Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity. A auto B natural passive C passive D innate E naturally acquired active
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E naturally acquired active
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Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity. A passive B auto C innate D naturally acquired passive E active
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D naturally acquired passive
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________ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time.
answer
memory
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Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only A during infections. B when plasma cells are releasing antibodies. C in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes. D when cytotoxic T cells are inhibited. E when NK cells are activated.
answer
C in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes.
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The cells responsible for antibody-mediated immunity are the ________ cells. A helper T B NK C suppressor T D cytotoxic T E B
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E B
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When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell. A plasma B helper T C cytotoxic T D B E NK
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C cytotoxic T
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The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells. A liver B thymus C NK D helper T E plasma
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E plasma
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Cells that help regulate the antibody-mediated immune response are ________ cells. A B B helper T C cytotoxic T D plasma E NK
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B helper T
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Helper T cells do all of the following, except A destroy target cells using perforins. B activate sensitized B cells by costimulation. C secrete cytokines to stimulate production of plasma cells. D enhance cell-mediated immunity. E enhance antibody-mediated immunity.
answer
A destroy target cells using perforins.
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What forms the base of the antibody molecule? A hapten B constant segments of the heavy chain C variable segments of the light chain D antigen-binding sites
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B constant segments of the heavy chain
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Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as saliva and tears are A IgG. B IgD. C IgA. D IgE. E IgM.
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C IgA
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The most abundant type of antibody is A IgD. B IgA. C IgE. D IgM. E IgG.
answer
E IgG
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During a primary immune response, the A IgM titer and the IgG titer rise in parallel. B IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer. C IgG titer is initially higher than the IgM titer.
answer
B IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer.
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A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably A tears. B interstitial. C lymph. D blood. E serum.
answer
A Tears
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The process by which antigens combine with antibodies to form immune complexes is called ________.
answer
agglutination
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The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called ________.
answer
opsonization
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The binding of an antigen to an antibody can result in A neutralization of the antigen. B agglutination or precipitation. C complement activation and opsonization. D all of the above E none of the above
answer
D all of the above
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Choose the correct statement pertaining to allergies. A Sensitization to an allergen during the initial exposure leads to the production of large quantities of IgE. B The tendency to produce IgG antibodies in response to specific allergens may be genetically determined. C An example of localized allergic reactions is anaphylaxis. D Allergic rhinitis is an example of systemic allergic reactions.
answer
A Sensitization to an allergen during the initial exposure leads to the production of large quantities of IgE.
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Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are A the result of stress. B allergies. C signs of a weak system. D immunodeficiency diseases. E autoimmune diseases.
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B allergies
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Antigens that trigger allergic reactions are called ________.
answer
Allergens
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In viral infections, what occurs after helper T cells are activated? A activation of cytotoxic T cells B activation of B cells C opsonization and phagocyte attraction D stimulation of NK cells
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B activation of B cells
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Which specific defense cells, produced as a result of the activation of Class II MHC proteins, await the reappearance of the antigen? A NK cells B memory TH cells C memory TC cells D helper T cells
answer
B memory TH cells
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Destruction of antigens or cell lysis can be caused by all of the following except by A complement system. B cytotoxic T cells. C macrophages. D antibody actions. E helper T cells.
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E helper T cells
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Autoantibodies A are produced by activated T cells. B are produced during an allergic reaction. C are the first step in immunological competence. D are directed against the body's own antigens. E are important in tissue rejection reactions.
answer
D are directed against the body's own antigens.
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The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ cells. A plasma B cytotoxic T C suppressor T D B E helper T
answer
E helper T
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Rheumatoid arthritis: A occurs when T cells are activated by contact with MHC proteins on plasma membranes. B is an autoimmune disorder. C is an immunodeficiency disease. D occurs when a virus binds to CD4 proteins and infects helper T cells.
answer
B is an autoimmune disorder
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Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system? A adaptive defenses B innate external defenses C innate internal defenses
answer
B innate external defenses
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Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system? A adaptive defenses B innate internal defenses C innate external defenses
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B innate internal defenses
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What cells make antibodies? A memory T cells B cytotoxic T cells C memory B cells D plasma B cells
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D plasma B cells
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What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to? A antibody B antigen C an antigenic determinant D pathogen
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C an antigenic determinant
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What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient? A humoral immunity B antibody mediated immunity C cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
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A humoral immunity
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If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated? A humoral immunity B antibody-mediated immunity C cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
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C cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
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Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells? A Cytotoxic T cells B macrophages C B cells
answer
A Cytotoxic T cells
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Which of the following is part of a nonspecific defense that might prevent an influenza virus in your respiratory passages from causing an infection? A The presence of bodily hair B The mucus coat C The antibodies against influenza virus D The tough keratinized cells
answer
B the mucous coat
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Though the symptom is unpleasant, some doctors recommend allowing fever to continue for a short period without medication, because A A higher body temperature results in sweat that prevents influenza virus infection of skin cells B A higher body temperature causes us to use less energy and require less food C C A higher body temperature increase the rate of repair of tissues D A higher body temperature kills most bacteria and viruses
answer
C A higher body temperature increases the rate of repair of tissues
question
Our bodily defenses can take advantage of the presence of viral hemagglutinins by A Creating an allergic reaction based on the hemagglutinins B Creating white blood cells that seek out the hemagglutinins C Creating complement proteins specific to antigens on the hemagglutinins D Creating antigens to recognize and combat the hemagglutinins
answer
B Creating white blood cells that seek out the hemagglutinins
question
Which type of epithelium lines the inferior portions of the pharynx? A stratified squamous epithelium B simple squamous epithelium C simple cuboidal epithelium D pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
answer
A stratified squamous epithelium
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The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of A surfactant cells. B pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. C ciliated squamous epithelium. D simple squamous epithelium. E moist cuboidal epithelium.
answer
B pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
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The openings to the nostrils are the A vestibules. B nasal apertures. C conchae. D external nares. E internal nares.
answer
D external nares.
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Which of the following is a cartilaginous structure that surrounds and protects the glottis? A laryngopharynx B larynx C hard palate D trachea
answer
B larynx
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The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the A nasopharynx. B oropharynx. C nasal cavity. D larynx. E laryngopharynx.
answer
B oropharynx.
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The nasal cavities are divided from one another by the A soft palate. B hard palate. C internal nares. D cribriform plate. E nasal septum.
answer
E nasal septum.
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Breathing through the nose rather than the mouth is advantageous because A air is warmed on inhalation. B air is humidified on inhalation. C heat loss is reduced on exhalation. D water loss is reduced on exhalation. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
The laryngeal cartilage composed of elastic cartilage that prevents entry of solids or liquids into the laryngopharynx when swallowing is the A thyroid. B corniculate. C epiglottis. D cricoid. E arytenoid.
answer
C epiglottis.
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A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the A extrinsic ligaments. B intrinsic ligaments. C vocal folds. D intrinsic laryngeal muscles. E ventricular folds.
answer
C vocal folds
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Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the A movement of the arytenoid cartilages. B extrinsic ligaments. C contraction of laryngeal muscles. D movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles. E none of the above
answer
D movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles
question
The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage. A corniculate B cricoid C arytenoid D epiglottis E cuneiform
answer
B cricoid
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What branches from the trachea? A secondary bronchi B terminal bronchioles C tertiary bronchi D primary bronchi E alveolar ducts
answer
D primary bronchi
question
During a choking episode, most foreign objects are more likely to become lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle. A right primary B left primary C right secondary D left secondary E None of the above are more likely.
answer
A right primary
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Which is greater? A the number of lobes in the right lung B the number of lobes in the left lung C Neither; the number of lobes is usually equal.
answer
A the number of lobes in the right lung
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The process of air traveling through the body
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1. Air enters throught the nose or mouth 2. Air travels down the trachea and then enters the bronchi 3. Air travels down smaller and smaller bronchioles 4. Air reaches small sacs called alveoli
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Which structure is located most superior at the hilum of the left lung? A primary bronchus B oblique fissure C pulmonary artery D pulmonary veins
answer
C pulmonary artery
question
Gas exchange between air and circulating blood takes place within ________.
answer
Alveoli
question
Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in A a loss of surfactant. B a decreased rate of gas exchange. C increased surface tension in the alveoli. D increased tendency to alveolar collapse. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
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The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of A ciliated squamous epithelium. B pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. C surfactant cells. D simple squamous epithelium. E moist cuboidal epithelium.
answer
D simple squamous epithelium
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The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are A terminal bronchioles. B alveoli. C pleural spaces. D interlobular septa. E bronchioles.
answer
B alveoli
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The process Carbon dioxide is released through the body
answer
1. CO2 is released from the mitochondria 2. CO2 diffuses into a capillary 3. CO2 is carried to the lungs 4. CO2 diffuses into alveolus 5. Air exits through nose or the mouth
question
During inhalation, A the diaphragm and rib muscles contract. B the diaphragm relaxes. C air moves up the trachea. D oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs. E the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
answer
A the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.
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From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood? A Alveoli BTrachea C Bronchi D Bronchioles E Nose
answer
A Alveoli
question
Which statement is correct? A Oxygen is released from the mitochondria as a product of cellular respiration. B Oxygen diffuses from large blood vessels into the body's cells. C As oxygen diffuses from the lungs into capillaries, blood becomes deoxygenated. D Carbon dioxide diffuses from the alveoli into surrounding capillaries. E In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.
answer
E In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.
question
After blood becomes oxygenated, A it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to the lungs. B it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to capillaries that supply the body's cells with oxygen. C it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to the lungs. D it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells. E it does not return to the heart, but goes to the nose and mouth
answer
D it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.
question
Hemoglobin A has five subunits. B is the site of cellular respiration. C is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen. D is found in blood plasma. E uses ATP to move oxygen from blood to body cells
answer
C is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.
question
Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system? A oropharynx B alveoli C bronchioles D bronchi E larynx
answer
A oropharynx
question
Boyle's law states that gas volume is A directly proportional to temperature. B directly proportional to pressure. C inversely proportional to temperature. D inversely proportional to pressure. E both directly proportional to pressure and directly proportional to temperature.
answer
D inversely proportional to pressure.
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The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is A mm Hg. B torr. C cm H20 D all of the above E none of the above
answer
B torr
question
Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled "1"? Mechanics of Ventilation Diagram A rectus abdominis B internal intercostals C external intercostals D Diaphragm Eboth rectus abdominis and external intercostals
answer
C external intercostals
question
Which of the following pulmonary characteristics is calculated by adding the vital capacity and the residual volume? A total lung capacity B inspiratory capacity C functional residual capacity Dtidal volume
answer
A total lung capacity
question
The vital capacity is: A the maximum amount of air that one can move into or out of the lungs in a single respiratory cycle. B the total volume of the lungs C the amount of air remaining in the lungs after one has completed a quiet respiratory cycle. D the amount of air that one can draw into the lungs after having completed a quiet respiratory cycle.
answer
A the maximum amount of air that one can move into or out of the lungs in a single respiratory cycle.
question
During a single quiet respiratory cycle, inhaling more vigorously and exhaling more completely can increase which of the following? A Residual volume B inspiratory reserve volume Ctidal volume Dminimal volume
answer
C tidal volume
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Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired volume? Asternocleidomastoid B pectoralis minor C scalenes D serratus anterior E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle(s). A diaphragm B external intercostal C internal intercostal D scalene E serratus anterior
answer
C internal intercostal
question
If a patient being tested inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's A inspiratory reserve volume. B reserve volume. C expiratory reserve volume. D vital capacity. E tidal volume.
answer
D vital capacity
question
Alveolar ventilation refers to the A movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. B movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. C amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute. D utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism. E movement of air into and out of the lungs.
answer
C amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute.
question
________ equals the respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space). A Respiratory minute volume B External respiration rate C Alveolar ventilation rate D Pulmonary ventilation rate E Vital capacity
answer
C Alveolar ventilation rate
question
Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known? A respiratory minute volume B inspiratory reserve volume C expiratory reserve volume D forced vital capacity E anatomical dead space
answer
A respiratory minute volume
question
Dalton's law states that A gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. C gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume. D the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. E gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
answer
C in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
question
Henry's law states that A the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas. B gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. D in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.
answer
A the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas.
question
In inhaled dry air, which of the following is found in the highest concentration? A oxygen (O2) B water vapor (H2O) C carbon dioxide (CO2) D nitrogen (N2)
answer
D nitrogen (N2)
question
The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately A 50 mm Hg. B 70 mm Hg. C 45 mm Hg. D 95 mm Hg.
answer
D 95 mm Hg
question
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately A 45 mm Hg. B 70 mm Hg. C 100 mm Hg. D 50 mm Hg.
answer
A 45 mm Hg
question
The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A 70 mm Hg. B 40 mm Hg. C 100 mm Hg. D 45 mm Hg. E 50 mm Hg.
answer
B 40 mm Hg
question
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A 55 mm Hg. B 100 mm Hg. C 70 mm Hg. D 45 mm Hg. E 35 mm Hg.
answer
D 45 mm Hg
question
The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is A external respiration. B cellular respiration. C breathing. D pulmonary ventilation. E internal respiration.
answer
E internal respiration
question
Which of the following is greatest? A the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveolar air B the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood C the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in inspired air D the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in expired air E the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood
answer
B the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood
question
Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen. A 20 B 30 C 10 D 50 E 75
answer
A 20
question
Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of A acid-base balance. B carbon dioxide transport. C hemoglobin synthesis. D external respiration. E internal respiration.
answer
E internal respiration
question
Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues? A decreased temperature B decreased pH C increased tissue PO2 D decreased amounts of BPG E none of the above
answer
B decreased pH
question
Carbonic anhydrase Ais in RBCs. B is an enzyme. C can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma. D can convert carbon dioxide into carbonic acid. E all of the above
answer
E all of above
question
Which statement about the chloride shift is false? A involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs B depends on the chloride-bicarbonate counter-transporter C involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma D causes RBCs to swell E is driven by a rise in PCO2
answer
D causes RBCs to swell
question
Most of the carbon dioxide that is absorbed by blood: A undergoes chloride shift. B is converted to carbaminohemoglobin. C is converted to carbonic acid. D functions as pH buffers.
answer
C is converted to carbonic acid
question
The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is A anoxia. B COPD. C respiratory distress syndrome. D pulmonary embolism. E pneumothorax.
answer
C respiratory distress syndrome.
question
Asthma is A caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B a collapsed lung. C an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways. D characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli. E an obstructive tumor.
answer
B an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways.
question
The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to collapse of alveoli and bronchioles, is called A emphysema. B tuberculosis. C pneumonia. D bronchitis. E asthma.
answer
A emphysema.
question
A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time you would expect to observe A increased cardiac output from the left ventricle. B increased cardiac output from the right ventricle. C no appreciable changes in heart structure or function. D distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung. E increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
answer
E increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
question
The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ . A pneumotaxic center B inspiratory center of DRG C expiratory centers D apneustic center
answer
B inspiratory center of DRG
question
Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in A increased respiratory rate. B more intense inhalation. C decreased vital capacity. D less activity in the DRG center. E a shorter respiratory cycle.
answer
B more intense inhalation.
question
If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally, A alveolar ventilation would increase. B tidal volumes would increase. C pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly. D a person would stop breathing. E the respiratory minute volume would increase.
answer
D a person would stop breathing.
question
The most important chemical regulator of respiration is A oxygen. B hemoglobin. C bicarbonate ion. D carbon dioxide. E sodium ion.
answer
D carbon dioxide
question
Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to A changes in pH. B changes in PCO2. C changes in blood pressure. D changes in PO2.
answer
B changes in PCO2.
question
The term hypercapnia refers to A the cessation of breathing. B elevated PCO2. C labored breathing. D an increase in pH. E elevated PO2.
answer
B elevated PCO2.
question
Which statement regarding lung cancer is correct? A Before about 1970, this disease affected primarily elderly women. B About 40-55 percent of all lung cancers are the direct result of cigarette smoking. C Lung cancers now account for 75 percent of new cancer cases in both men and women. D Since 1992, the incidence of lung cancer among women has been increasing.
answer
D Since 1992, the incidence of lung cancer among women has been increasing.
question
Evan's friends have become increasingly concerned about his health these days. He has always been a very active and outgoing person, but these days, simple activities like mowing the lawn or taking out the trash tire Evan out. He dismisses the problem, saying that anyone would expect to slow down a bit at the age of 50. But Evan's friends have noticed other symptoms that they find troubling. He complains of a tight chest and he appears to spend a lot of effort breathing, even when he is at rest. Evan has smoked cigarettes as long as his friends can remember, and despite his inability to do any exercise, he has remained very thin. Sometimes it looks like Evan is puffing his chest out, and Evan often jokes, "My lungs must be a nice place to hang out, because sometimes it seems like the darn air just doesn't want to go out!" 1. Evan is most likely suffering from A Atelectasis B Emphysema C Asthma D Chronic bronchitis 2. Evan complains that the air in his lungs sometimes "doesn't want to go out." At these times, which of the following muscles is likely working harder than normal? A Transversus thoracis B Diaphragm C External intercostals D Pectoralis minor Evan's lungs probably have an abnormally large A Tidal volume B Expiratory reserve volume C Residual volume D Inspiratory reserve volume
answer
A Emphysema B Transversus thoracis C Residual Volume
question
Know the layers of the digestive tract
answer
...
question
Which of these descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus? A loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels B sensory neural network C secretes a watery fluid D component of mucosa E coordinates activity of muscularis externa
answer
E coordinates activity of muscularis externa
question
The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels. A fibrosa B serosa C lamina propria D mesenteries E adventitia
answer
D mesenteries
question
A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would A increase intestinal motility. B decrease gastric secretion. C decrease intestinal motility. D increase gastric secretion. E interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion.
answer
C decrease intestinal motility.
question
The ability to function over a wide range of lengths is called A elasticity. B spasticity. C extensibility. D plasticity. E compaction.
answer
D plasticity.
question
What type muscle cells are arranged in sheets or layers, with adjacent muscle cells electrically connected by gap junctions and mechanically connected by dense bodies? A multi-unit smooth muscles B skeletal muscles C cardiac muscles D visceral smooth muscles
answer
D visceral smooth muscles
question
The movement of materials along the digestive tract, as well as many secretory functions, is primarily controlled by which of the following? A parasympathetic motor fibers in the glossopharyngeal, vagus, or pelvic nerves B local factors C villi D enteroendocrine cells
answer
B local factors
question
Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called A peristalsis. B segmentation. C churning movements. D pendular movements. E mastication.
answer
A peristalsis
question
The activities of the digestive system are regulated by A hormones. B parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons. C the contents of the digestive tract. D intrinsic nerve plexuses. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following, except A absorption of monosaccharides. B mechanical processing of food. C digestion of carbohydrates. D analysis of material before swallowing. E lubrication.
answer
A absorption of monosaccharides.
question
The connection of the anterior portion of the tongue to the underlying epithelium is the A glossal septum. B fauces. C uvula. D lingual frenulum. E labial frenulum.
answer
D lingual frenulum.
question
The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the A faux. B vestibule. C gingiva. D uvula. E alveolus.
answer
C gingiva
question
The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called A cementum. B enamel. C periodontium. D dentin. E pulp.
answer
D dentin
question
The root of a tooth is covered by A enamel. B pulp. C the root canal. D dentin. E cementum.
answer
E cementum
question
________ are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and slashing. A Bicuspids B Cuspids C Incisors D Molars E Premolars
answer
B Cuspids
question
Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of the pharyngeal phase of swallowing? A It begins as the contraction of pharyngeal muscles forces the bolus through the entrance to the esophagus. B It begins with the compression of the bolus against the hard palate. C Motor commands from the swallowing center in the pons direct a coordinated pattern of muscle contraction in the pharyngeal muscles. D It begins when tactile receptors on the palatal arches and uvula are stimulated.
answer
D It begins when tactile receptors on the palatal arches and uvula are stimulated.
question
The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of the gut tube. These include A epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar. B muscularis externa may be striated muscle. C epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous. D epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous, and muscularis externa may be striated muscle. E epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar, and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.
answer
D epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous, and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.
question
Which structure is the remnant of the ventral mesentery between the liver and the anterior wall of the peritoneal cavity? A mesentery proper B lesser omentum C greater omentum D falciform ligament
answer
D falciform ligament
question
The ________ supports most of the small intestine and provides stability and limited movement. A greater omentum B diaphragm C falciform ligament D lesser omentum E mesentery proper
answer
E mesentery proper
question
The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity A secretes peritoneal fluid. B decreases friction. C lubricates the cavity. D prevents irritation. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called A ascites. B the dorsal and ventral frenulums. C the diaphragm. D mesenteries. E peritoneal sheets.
answer
D mesenteries
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Lacteals A secrete digestive enzymes. B increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine. C carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system. D produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine. E produce milk.
answer
C carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system.
question
Which structure controls the contraction of the muscularis externa? A. Muscularis Mucosae B. Submucosal plexus C. Circular layer of smooth muscle D. Myentric plexus E. Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle
answer
D Myentric plexus
question
Contraction of the muscle layer labeled "9" causes the digestive tract to A constrict. B shorten. C dilate. D fold for increased surface area. E secrete enzymes.
answer
A constrict
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Parietal cells secrete A enteropeptidase. B gastrin. C pepsinogen. D hydrochloric acid. E mucus.
answer
C hydrochloric acid
question
Chief cells secrete A hydrochloric acid. B intrinsic factor. C mucus. D gastrin. E pepsinogen.
answer
E pepsinogen
question
The enzyme pepsin digests A nucleic acids. B carbohydrates. C proteins. D vitamins. E lipids.
answer
C protein
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A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in A decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells. B increased protein digestion in the stomach. C a higher pH during gastric digestion. D decreased gastrin production. E a lower pH during gastric digestion.
answer
a higher pH during gastric digestion.
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The greater omentum is A important in the digestion of fats. B the entrance to the stomach. C attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature. D a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera. E a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.
answer
D a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
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Which structure helps the stomach to stretch as it fills with food? A Cardia B Body C Lesser curvature D Greater curvature E Rugae
answer
E Rugae
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Identify the structure labeled "10." A longitudinal muscle layer B circular muscle layer C oblique muscle layer D rugae E submucosa
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C oblique muscle layer
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The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the A pylorus. B fundus. C cardia. D body. E antrum.
answer
A pylorus
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The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the A pylorus. B fundus. C antrum. D body. E cardia.
answer
D body
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After food and gastric juices combine, the gastric contents are referred to as ________.
answer
chyme
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The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the A ileum. B haustrum. C duodenum. D jejunum. E appendix.
answer
A ileum.
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The part of the digestive tract that plays the primary role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients is the A cecum. B colon. C stomach. D duodenum. E jejunum.
answer
E jejunum
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The villi are most developed in the A gall bladder. B duodenum. C cecum. D jejunum. E stomach.
answer
D jejunum
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An intestinal hormone that stimulates mucus secretion by the submucosal duodenal glands and dilation of intestinal capillaries is A vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). B GIP. C secretin. D gastrin. E cholecystokinin.
answer
A vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP).
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The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid is A vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). B gastrin. C GIP. D cholecystokinin. E secretin.
answer
E secretin.
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An intestinal hormone that stimulates contraction of the gallbladder to release bile is A cholecystokinin. B secretin. C GIP. D gastrin. E enteropeptidase.
answer
A cholecystokinin.
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The hormone that stimulates secretion and contraction by the stomach is A CCK. B gastrin. C enteropeptidase. D secretin. E cholecystokinin.
answer
B gastrin.
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In response to the arrival of acid chyme in the duodenum, the A blood levels of secretin rise. B blood levels of cholecystokinin fall. C blood levels of gastrin rise. D blood levels of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) fall. E blood levels of gastrin rise and blood levels of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) fall
answer
A blood levels of secretin rise.
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During which phase in the control of the digestive system would bicarbonate and bile be stimulated? A gastric phase B cephalic phase C intestinal phase
answer
C intestinal phase
question
Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released by which fibers? A both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic fibers B interneurons of the enteric nervous system C sympathetic postganglionic fibers D parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
answer
C sympathetic postganglionic fibers
question
Enteric interneurons that are inhibitory to smooth muscle use which of the following neurotransmitters? A ACh (acetylcholine) B VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide) C norepinephrine D substance P
answer
B VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)
question
Which of the following intestinal hormones stimulates bile from the gall bladder? A motilin B GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) C CCK (cholecystokinin) D gastrin
answer
C CCK (cholecystokinin)
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Which of the following GI hormones promotes a pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions? A GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) B motilin C gastrin D secretin
answer
D secretin
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The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the A entry of chyme into the small intestine. B entry of chyme into the large intestine. C release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine. D sight, thought, or smell of food. E entry of food into the stomach.
answer
E entry of food into the stomach.
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During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, A there is an increased flow of action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach. B the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying. C the stomach responds to distention. D production of gastric juice slows down. E secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells
answer
A there is an increased flow of action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach.
question
The gastroileal reflex A decreases peristaltic activity. B empties the duodenum. C moves some chyme to the colon. D promotes gastric secretion. E is relayed through the CNS.
answer
C moves some chyme to the colon.
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Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is the A anus. B anal canal. C rectum. D sigmoid colon. E rectal column.
answer
C rectum
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A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the A pancreas. B appendix. C haustra. D gallbladder. E ileum.
answer
B appendix
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This organ is primarily responsible for water absorption. A anus B stomach C large intestine D esophagus E small intestine
answer
C large intestine
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Which is true regarding the defecation reflex? A Stimulation of sympathetic motor neurons in the sacral spinal cord results in stimulation of somatic motor neurons. B Stimulation of the myenteric plexus in the sigmoid colon and rectum results in decreased local peristalsis. C The short reflex stimulates mass movements that push feces toward the rectum from the descending colon and sigmoid colon. D It involves two positive feedback loops.
answer
D It involves two positive feedback loops.
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Movements unique to the large intestine are ________ movements. A mass B segmentation C writhing D peristaltic E pendular
answer
A mass
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Functions of the large intestine include A storage of fecal material prior to defection. B absorption of vitamins. C reabsorption of water and compaction of feces. D all of the above E none of the above
answer
D all of the above
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A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would A reduce delivery of saliva. B cause mumps-like swelling of the face. C interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. D all of the above E none of the above
answer
D all of the above
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The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar. A parotid B submaxillary C sublingual D submandibular E vestibular
answer
A parotid
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The ________ salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane in the floor of the mouth. A lingual B sublingual C submandibular D mandibular E parotid
answer
B sublingual
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Each of the following is a function of the liver, except A antibody production. B synthesis of plasma proteins. C storage of glycogen and iron reserves. D synthesis and secretion of bile. E inactivation of toxins.
answer
A antibody production.
question
Identify the salivary gland that secretes a watery mixture rich in salivary amylase and buffers. A lingual B parotid C mandibular D sublingual E submandibular
answer
B parotid
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Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of the A duodenum. B jejunum. C ileum. D pancreas. E liver.
answer
B duodenum.
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Gastrin secretion in response to elevated luminal pH is an example of A neural stimulation. B local stimulation. C muscular stimulation. D hormone stimulation. E none of the above
answer
B local stimulation.
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The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the A falciform ligament. B ligamentum teres. C hepatic ligament. D lesser omentum. E greater omentum.
answer
A falciform ligament
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Which of the following is a remnant of the fetal umbilical vein? A mesentery proper B round ligament C greater omentum D diaphragm E lesser omentum
answer
B round ligament
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The human liver is composed of ________ lobe(s). A one B two C four D three E two large, four small
answer
C four
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The basic functional unit of the liver is the A Kupffer cell. B lobule. C portal area. D hepatocyte. E bile canaliculus.
answer
B lobule
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Which of the following is not a component of the portal triad found at the edges of a liver lobule? A hepatic artery B bile duct C central vein D hepatic portal vein E None of the above - all are present in the portal triad.
answer
C central vein
question
In the center of a liver lobule there is a A portal vein. B sinusoid. C central vein. D hepatic duct. E portal area.
answer
C central vein
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________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of plates converging toward a central vein. A Hepatocytes B Portal areas C Hepatic ducts D Bile canaliculi E Kupffer cells
answer
A Hepatocytes
question
Salivation is controlled almost entirely by the nervous system. Which of the following stimuli would inhibit salivation? A nausea B fear C a lemon D the thought of food
answer
B fear
question
HCl secretions convert pepsinogen to the active hormone pepsin. What cells in the gastric pits produce pepsinogen? A parietal B chief C paracrine (also known as enteroendocrine cells) D G cells
answer
B chief
question
In response to a steak dinner, certain secretions are needed to aid digestion. What cells in the pancreas would provide these secretions? A duct cells B islet of Langerhans cells C acinar cells
answer
C acinar cells
question
An increase in HCl (hydrochloric acid) secretion in the duodenum would stimulate which hormone that would help to counteract the effects of HCl? A GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) B secretin C gastrin D CCK (cholecystokinin)
answer
B secretin
question
The secretion in the large intestine consists of which of the following? A bile B bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus C intrinsic factor D digestive enzymes such as CCK and secretin
answer
B bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus
question
The common bile duct: A is the duct that immediately empties the gallbladder. B is formed by the union of the right and left hepatic ducts. C produces digestive enzymes and buffers. D is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct.
answer
D is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct.
question
The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the A duodenum and the jejunum. B common bile duct and the pancreatic duct. C duodenum and the bile duct. D duodenum and the pylorus. E duodenum and the pancreatic duct.
answer
B common bile duct and the pancreatic duct.
question
Enzymes secreted by the pancreas include A trypsin (as trypsinogen). B amylase. C nuclease. D chymotrypsinogen. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with digestion of A complex carbohydrates. B fats. C disaccharides. D vitamins. E proteins.
answer
B fats
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Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom? A elevated levels of blood glucose B blood in the feces C overproduction of blood plasma albumin D jaundice E impaired digestion of protein
answer
D jaundice
question
A viral infection that often involves the parotid glands, which swell noticeably, is ________.
answer
mumps
question
Which characteristic of H. pylori is most likely an adaptation to deal with the stomach's powerful muscle contractions that churn its contents? A Its surface adhesins B Its ability to sense chemical gradients C Its stimulation of G cells D Its preference for the pyloric antrum
answer
A Its surface adhesins
question
H. pylori probably prefers the pyloric antrum, because A More pepsinogen can be found in that region B Gastrin is produced in the antrum C The environment is slightly less acidic D Fewer immune system cells that could kill the bacteria reside there
answer
C The environment is slightly less acidic
question
Why might the positive feedback loop described above potentially cause damage to digestive organs? A It will result in very high gastrin concentrations, which are toxic to the body B It will cause the stomach pH to get lower and lower C It will diminish the activity of parietal cells D It will lead to indigestion and constipation
answer
B It will cause the stomach pH to get lower and lower
question
The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time is called A anabolism. B metabolism. C oxidative phosphorylation. D catabolism. E glycolysis.
answer
B metabolism
question
The carbon dioxide of respiration is formed during A the citric acid cycle. B glycolysis. C the formation of water. D electron transport. E the formation of pyruvic acid.
answer
A the citric acid cycle
question
Reactions within ________ provide most of the energy needed by a typical cell. A cytoplasm B the plasma membrane C the mitochondria D the endoplasmic reticulum E none of the above
answer
C the mitochondria
question
The function of the citric acid cycle is to A hydrolize glucose. B produce carbon dioxide. C produce water. D transfer the acetyl group. E remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes
answer
E remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes
question
Catabolism of all of the following is fairly common for energy production, except A protein. B carbohydrates. C glucose. D lipids.
answer
A protein
question
Glycogenolysis is: A the synthesis of glycogen from glucose. B the release of glucose from glycogen. C glucose synthesis from smaller carbon chains. D the breakdown of glucose into two three-carbon molecules/chains
answer
B the release of glucose from glycogen.
question
The synthesis of glucose from smaller carbon chains is which of the following processes? A glycolysis B gluconeogenesis C glycogenolysis D glycogenesis
answer
B gluconeogenesis
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question
Which statement is most accurate regarding immunological escape? A Daughter cells that display tumor-specific antigens will not be attacked by NK cells. B Cancer cells often mutate and can sometimes avoid detection by NK cells. C Once immunological escape has occurred, cancer cells remain stationary. D If a primary tumor has a surrounding capsule, the cells within absolutely cannot provoke a massive response by NK cells.
answer
B Cancer cells often mutate and can sometimes avoid detection by NK cells.
question
The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells. A suppressor T B plasma C helper T D NK E B
answer
D NK
question
Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify the processes and the structural components involved when a body cell becomes infected by a pathogen.
answer
...
question
When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell. A helper T B cytotoxic T C suppressor T D NK E plasma
answer
A helper T
question
Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells. A plasma B suppressor T C helper T D B E cytotoxic T
answer
E cytotoxic T
question
Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of these chemical weapons? A secrete mutant proteins B activate genes that trigger apoptosis C secrete free radicals D secrete organic solvent E secrete strong acid
answer
B activate genes that trigger apoptosis
question
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells? A NK cells induce the target cell to undergo "apoptosis" (cell suicide). B NK cells attack transplanted organs. C NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells. D NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane
answer
D NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.
question
Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication? A phagocytes B interferons C T lymphocytes D complement proteins
answer
B interferons
question
How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria? A The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells. B The phagocytes look for the absence of "self" proteins. C Phagocytes recognize a specific antigen on the cell surface. D All the foreign cells or bacteria are marked with opsonins that the phagocytes recognize.
answer
A The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.
question
Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis? A natural killer (NK) cells B cytokines C interferons D complement proteins
answer
D complement proteins
question
Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis? A T cells B antibodies and complement proteins C interferons D natural killer (NK) cells
answer
B antibodies and complement proteins
question
The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would A activate antibodies. B opsonize pathogens. C produce a fever. D activate complement. E cause inflammation.
answer
C produce a fever
question
Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation, except A heat of the inflamed tissue. B chemotaxis of phagocytes. C swelling of the inflamed tissue. D redness of the inflamed tissue. E movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space.
answer
B chemotaxis
question
Inflammation produces localized A swelling. B redness. C heat. D pain. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
Which nonspecific defense mechanism increases the resistance of cells to viral infection and slows the spread of disease? A interferons B immunological surveillance C pyrogens D complement system
answer
A interferons
question
Which of the following are secreted by T cells and NK cells, and stimulate macrophage activity? A beta interferons B gamma interferons C complement proteins D alpha interferons
answer
B gamma interferons
question
Plasma contains ________ special complement proteins that form the complement system. A 9 B 3 C 11 D 5 E 7
answer
C 11
question
The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following, except A enhanced phagocytosis. B destruction of target cell plasma membranes. C histamine release. D inhibition of the immune response. E stimulation of inflammation.
answer
D inhibition of the immune response.
question
Which of the following are abundant, mobile, and quick to phagocytize cellular debris or invading bacteria? A fixed macrophages B neutrophils C eosinophils D free macrophages
answer
B neutrophils
question
Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection, except A body hair. B basement membranes. C epithelium. D secretions. E complement.
answer
E complement
question
The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the A phagocytes. B T cells. C B cells. D plasma cells. E NK cells.
answer
A phagocytes
question
The attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment is called ________.
answer
chemotaxis
question
Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by A immunological surveillance. B fever. C specific immunity. D skin defenses. E nonspecific immunity.
answer
C specific immunity
question
Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity. A auto B natural passive C passive D innate E naturally acquired active
answer
E naturally acquired active
question
Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity. A passive B auto C innate D naturally acquired passive E active
answer
D naturally acquired passive
question
________ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time.
answer
memory
question
Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only A during infections. B when plasma cells are releasing antibodies. C in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes. D when cytotoxic T cells are inhibited. E when NK cells are activated.
answer
C in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes.
question
The cells responsible for antibody-mediated immunity are the ________ cells. A helper T B NK C suppressor T D cytotoxic T E B
answer
E B
question
When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell. A plasma B helper T C cytotoxic T D B E NK
answer
C cytotoxic T
question
The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells. A liver B thymus C NK D helper T E plasma
answer
E plasma
question
Cells that help regulate the antibody-mediated immune response are ________ cells. A B B helper T C cytotoxic T D plasma E NK
answer
B helper T
question
Helper T cells do all of the following, except A destroy target cells using perforins. B activate sensitized B cells by costimulation. C secrete cytokines to stimulate production of plasma cells. D enhance cell-mediated immunity. E enhance antibody-mediated immunity.
answer
A destroy target cells using perforins.
question
What forms the base of the antibody molecule? A hapten B constant segments of the heavy chain C variable segments of the light chain D antigen-binding sites
answer
B constant segments of the heavy chain
question
Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as saliva and tears are A IgG. B IgD. C IgA. D IgE. E IgM.
answer
C IgA
question
The most abundant type of antibody is A IgD. B IgA. C IgE. D IgM. E IgG.
answer
E IgG
question
During a primary immune response, the A IgM titer and the IgG titer rise in parallel. B IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer. C IgG titer is initially higher than the IgM titer.
answer
B IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer.
question
A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably A tears. B interstitial. C lymph. D blood. E serum.
answer
A Tears
question
The process by which antigens combine with antibodies to form immune complexes is called ________.
answer
agglutination
question
The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called ________.
answer
opsonization
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The binding of an antigen to an antibody can result in A neutralization of the antigen. B agglutination or precipitation. C complement activation and opsonization. D all of the above E none of the above
answer
D all of the above
question
Choose the correct statement pertaining to allergies. A Sensitization to an allergen during the initial exposure leads to the production of large quantities of IgE. B The tendency to produce IgG antibodies in response to specific allergens may be genetically determined. C An example of localized allergic reactions is anaphylaxis. D Allergic rhinitis is an example of systemic allergic reactions.
answer
A Sensitization to an allergen during the initial exposure leads to the production of large quantities of IgE.
question
Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are A the result of stress. B allergies. C signs of a weak system. D immunodeficiency diseases. E autoimmune diseases.
answer
B allergies
question
Antigens that trigger allergic reactions are called ________.
answer
Allergens
question
In viral infections, what occurs after helper T cells are activated? A activation of cytotoxic T cells B activation of B cells C opsonization and phagocyte attraction D stimulation of NK cells
answer
B activation of B cells
question
Which specific defense cells, produced as a result of the activation of Class II MHC proteins, await the reappearance of the antigen? A NK cells B memory TH cells C memory TC cells D helper T cells
answer
B memory TH cells
question
Destruction of antigens or cell lysis can be caused by all of the following except by A complement system. B cytotoxic T cells. C macrophages. D antibody actions. E helper T cells.
answer
E helper T cells
question
Autoantibodies A are produced by activated T cells. B are produced during an allergic reaction. C are the first step in immunological competence. D are directed against the body's own antigens. E are important in tissue rejection reactions.
answer
D are directed against the body's own antigens.
question
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ cells. A plasma B cytotoxic T C suppressor T D B E helper T
answer
E helper T
question
Rheumatoid arthritis: A occurs when T cells are activated by contact with MHC proteins on plasma membranes. B is an autoimmune disorder. C is an immunodeficiency disease. D occurs when a virus binds to CD4 proteins and infects helper T cells.
answer
B is an autoimmune disorder
question
Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system? A adaptive defenses B innate external defenses C innate internal defenses
answer
B innate external defenses
question
Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system? A adaptive defenses B innate internal defenses C innate external defenses
answer
B innate internal defenses
question
What cells make antibodies? A memory T cells B cytotoxic T cells C memory B cells D plasma B cells
answer
D plasma B cells
question
What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to? A antibody B antigen C an antigenic determinant D pathogen
answer
C an antigenic determinant
question
What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient? A humoral immunity B antibody mediated immunity C cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
answer
A humoral immunity
question
If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated? A humoral immunity B antibody-mediated immunity C cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
answer
C cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
question
Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells? A Cytotoxic T cells B macrophages C B cells
answer
A Cytotoxic T cells
question
Which of the following is part of a nonspecific defense that might prevent an influenza virus in your respiratory passages from causing an infection? A The presence of bodily hair B The mucus coat C The antibodies against influenza virus D The tough keratinized cells
answer
B the mucous coat
question
Though the symptom is unpleasant, some doctors recommend allowing fever to continue for a short period without medication, because A A higher body temperature results in sweat that prevents influenza virus infection of skin cells B A higher body temperature causes us to use less energy and require less food C C A higher body temperature increase the rate of repair of tissues D A higher body temperature kills most bacteria and viruses
answer
C A higher body temperature increases the rate of repair of tissues
question
Our bodily defenses can take advantage of the presence of viral hemagglutinins by A Creating an allergic reaction based on the hemagglutinins B Creating white blood cells that seek out the hemagglutinins C Creating complement proteins specific to antigens on the hemagglutinins D Creating antigens to recognize and combat the hemagglutinins
answer
B Creating white blood cells that seek out the hemagglutinins
question
Which type of epithelium lines the inferior portions of the pharynx? A stratified squamous epithelium B simple squamous epithelium C simple cuboidal epithelium D pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
answer
A stratified squamous epithelium
question
The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of A surfactant cells. B pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. C ciliated squamous epithelium. D simple squamous epithelium. E moist cuboidal epithelium.
answer
B pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
question
The openings to the nostrils are the A vestibules. B nasal apertures. C conchae. D external nares. E internal nares.
answer
D external nares.
question
Which of the following is a cartilaginous structure that surrounds and protects the glottis? A laryngopharynx B larynx C hard palate D trachea
answer
B larynx
question
The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the A nasopharynx. B oropharynx. C nasal cavity. D larynx. E laryngopharynx.
answer
B oropharynx.
question
The nasal cavities are divided from one another by the A soft palate. B hard palate. C internal nares. D cribriform plate. E nasal septum.
answer
E nasal septum.
question
Breathing through the nose rather than the mouth is advantageous because A air is warmed on inhalation. B air is humidified on inhalation. C heat loss is reduced on exhalation. D water loss is reduced on exhalation. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
The laryngeal cartilage composed of elastic cartilage that prevents entry of solids or liquids into the laryngopharynx when swallowing is the A thyroid. B corniculate. C epiglottis. D cricoid. E arytenoid.
answer
C epiglottis.
question
A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the A extrinsic ligaments. B intrinsic ligaments. C vocal folds. D intrinsic laryngeal muscles. E ventricular folds.
answer
C vocal folds
question
Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the A movement of the arytenoid cartilages. B extrinsic ligaments. C contraction of laryngeal muscles. D movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles. E none of the above
answer
D movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles
question
The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage. A corniculate B cricoid C arytenoid D epiglottis E cuneiform
answer
B cricoid
question
What branches from the trachea? A secondary bronchi B terminal bronchioles C tertiary bronchi D primary bronchi E alveolar ducts
answer
D primary bronchi
question
During a choking episode, most foreign objects are more likely to become lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle. A right primary B left primary C right secondary D left secondary E None of the above are more likely.
answer
A right primary
question
Which is greater? A the number of lobes in the right lung B the number of lobes in the left lung C Neither; the number of lobes is usually equal.
answer
A the number of lobes in the right lung
question
The process of air traveling through the body
answer
1. Air enters throught the nose or mouth 2. Air travels down the trachea and then enters the bronchi 3. Air travels down smaller and smaller bronchioles 4. Air reaches small sacs called alveoli
question
Which structure is located most superior at the hilum of the left lung? A primary bronchus B oblique fissure C pulmonary artery D pulmonary veins
answer
C pulmonary artery
question
Gas exchange between air and circulating blood takes place within ________.
answer
Alveoli
question
Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in A a loss of surfactant. B a decreased rate of gas exchange. C increased surface tension in the alveoli. D increased tendency to alveolar collapse. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of A ciliated squamous epithelium. B pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. C surfactant cells. D simple squamous epithelium. E moist cuboidal epithelium.
answer
D simple squamous epithelium
question
The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are A terminal bronchioles. B alveoli. C pleural spaces. D interlobular septa. E bronchioles.
answer
B alveoli
question
The process Carbon dioxide is released through the body
answer
1. CO2 is released from the mitochondria 2. CO2 diffuses into a capillary 3. CO2 is carried to the lungs 4. CO2 diffuses into alveolus 5. Air exits through nose or the mouth
question
During inhalation, A the diaphragm and rib muscles contract. B the diaphragm relaxes. C air moves up the trachea. D oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs. E the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
answer
A the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.
question
From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood? A Alveoli BTrachea C Bronchi D Bronchioles E Nose
answer
A Alveoli
question
Which statement is correct? A Oxygen is released from the mitochondria as a product of cellular respiration. B Oxygen diffuses from large blood vessels into the body's cells. C As oxygen diffuses from the lungs into capillaries, blood becomes deoxygenated. D Carbon dioxide diffuses from the alveoli into surrounding capillaries. E In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.
answer
E In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.
question
After blood becomes oxygenated, A it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to the lungs. B it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to capillaries that supply the body's cells with oxygen. C it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to the lungs. D it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells. E it does not return to the heart, but goes to the nose and mouth
answer
D it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.
question
Hemoglobin A has five subunits. B is the site of cellular respiration. C is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen. D is found in blood plasma. E uses ATP to move oxygen from blood to body cells
answer
C is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.
question
Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system? A oropharynx B alveoli C bronchioles D bronchi E larynx
answer
A oropharynx
question
Boyle's law states that gas volume is A directly proportional to temperature. B directly proportional to pressure. C inversely proportional to temperature. D inversely proportional to pressure. E both directly proportional to pressure and directly proportional to temperature.
answer
D inversely proportional to pressure.
question
The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is A mm Hg. B torr. C cm H20 D all of the above E none of the above
answer
B torr
question
Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled "1"? Mechanics of Ventilation Diagram A rectus abdominis B internal intercostals C external intercostals D Diaphragm Eboth rectus abdominis and external intercostals
answer
C external intercostals
question
Which of the following pulmonary characteristics is calculated by adding the vital capacity and the residual volume? A total lung capacity B inspiratory capacity C functional residual capacity Dtidal volume
answer
A total lung capacity
question
The vital capacity is: A the maximum amount of air that one can move into or out of the lungs in a single respiratory cycle. B the total volume of the lungs C the amount of air remaining in the lungs after one has completed a quiet respiratory cycle. D the amount of air that one can draw into the lungs after having completed a quiet respiratory cycle.
answer
A the maximum amount of air that one can move into or out of the lungs in a single respiratory cycle.
question
During a single quiet respiratory cycle, inhaling more vigorously and exhaling more completely can increase which of the following? A Residual volume B inspiratory reserve volume Ctidal volume Dminimal volume
answer
C tidal volume
question
Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired volume? Asternocleidomastoid B pectoralis minor C scalenes D serratus anterior E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle(s). A diaphragm B external intercostal C internal intercostal D scalene E serratus anterior
answer
C internal intercostal
question
If a patient being tested inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's A inspiratory reserve volume. B reserve volume. C expiratory reserve volume. D vital capacity. E tidal volume.
answer
D vital capacity
question
Alveolar ventilation refers to the A movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. B movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. C amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute. D utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism. E movement of air into and out of the lungs.
answer
C amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute.
question
________ equals the respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space). A Respiratory minute volume B External respiration rate C Alveolar ventilation rate D Pulmonary ventilation rate E Vital capacity
answer
C Alveolar ventilation rate
question
Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known? A respiratory minute volume B inspiratory reserve volume C expiratory reserve volume D forced vital capacity E anatomical dead space
answer
A respiratory minute volume
question
Dalton's law states that A gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. C gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume. D the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. E gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
answer
C in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
question
Henry's law states that A the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas. B gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. D in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.
answer
A the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas.
question
In inhaled dry air, which of the following is found in the highest concentration? A oxygen (O2) B water vapor (H2O) C carbon dioxide (CO2) D nitrogen (N2)
answer
D nitrogen (N2)
question
The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately A 50 mm Hg. B 70 mm Hg. C 45 mm Hg. D 95 mm Hg.
answer
D 95 mm Hg
question
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately A 45 mm Hg. B 70 mm Hg. C 100 mm Hg. D 50 mm Hg.
answer
A 45 mm Hg
question
The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A 70 mm Hg. B 40 mm Hg. C 100 mm Hg. D 45 mm Hg. E 50 mm Hg.
answer
B 40 mm Hg
question
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A 55 mm Hg. B 100 mm Hg. C 70 mm Hg. D 45 mm Hg. E 35 mm Hg.
answer
D 45 mm Hg
question
The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is A external respiration. B cellular respiration. C breathing. D pulmonary ventilation. E internal respiration.
answer
E internal respiration
question
Which of the following is greatest? A the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveolar air B the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood C the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in inspired air D the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in expired air E the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood
answer
B the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood
question
Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen. A 20 B 30 C 10 D 50 E 75
answer
A 20
question
Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of A acid-base balance. B carbon dioxide transport. C hemoglobin synthesis. D external respiration. E internal respiration.
answer
E internal respiration
question
Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues? A decreased temperature B decreased pH C increased tissue PO2 D decreased amounts of BPG E none of the above
answer
B decreased pH
question
Carbonic anhydrase Ais in RBCs. B is an enzyme. C can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma. D can convert carbon dioxide into carbonic acid. E all of the above
answer
E all of above
question
Which statement about the chloride shift is false? A involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs B depends on the chloride-bicarbonate counter-transporter C involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma D causes RBCs to swell E is driven by a rise in PCO2
answer
D causes RBCs to swell
question
Most of the carbon dioxide that is absorbed by blood: A undergoes chloride shift. B is converted to carbaminohemoglobin. C is converted to carbonic acid. D functions as pH buffers.
answer
C is converted to carbonic acid
question
The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is A anoxia. B COPD. C respiratory distress syndrome. D pulmonary embolism. E pneumothorax.
answer
C respiratory distress syndrome.
question
Asthma is A caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B a collapsed lung. C an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways. D characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli. E an obstructive tumor.
answer
B an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways.
question
The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to collapse of alveoli and bronchioles, is called A emphysema. B tuberculosis. C pneumonia. D bronchitis. E asthma.
answer
A emphysema.
question
A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time you would expect to observe A increased cardiac output from the left ventricle. B increased cardiac output from the right ventricle. C no appreciable changes in heart structure or function. D distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung. E increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
answer
E increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
question
The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ . A pneumotaxic center B inspiratory center of DRG C expiratory centers D apneustic center
answer
B inspiratory center of DRG
question
Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in A increased respiratory rate. B more intense inhalation. C decreased vital capacity. D less activity in the DRG center. E a shorter respiratory cycle.
answer
B more intense inhalation.
question
If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally, A alveolar ventilation would increase. B tidal volumes would increase. C pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly. D a person would stop breathing. E the respiratory minute volume would increase.
answer
D a person would stop breathing.
question
The most important chemical regulator of respiration is A oxygen. B hemoglobin. C bicarbonate ion. D carbon dioxide. E sodium ion.
answer
D carbon dioxide
question
Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to A changes in pH. B changes in PCO2. C changes in blood pressure. D changes in PO2.
answer
B changes in PCO2.
question
The term hypercapnia refers to A the cessation of breathing. B elevated PCO2. C labored breathing. D an increase in pH. E elevated PO2.
answer
B elevated PCO2.
question
Which statement regarding lung cancer is correct? A Before about 1970, this disease affected primarily elderly women. B About 40-55 percent of all lung cancers are the direct result of cigarette smoking. C Lung cancers now account for 75 percent of new cancer cases in both men and women. D Since 1992, the incidence of lung cancer among women has been increasing.
answer
D Since 1992, the incidence of lung cancer among women has been increasing.
question
Evan's friends have become increasingly concerned about his health these days. He has always been a very active and outgoing person, but these days, simple activities like mowing the lawn or taking out the trash tire Evan out. He dismisses the problem, saying that anyone would expect to slow down a bit at the age of 50. But Evan's friends have noticed other symptoms that they find troubling. He complains of a tight chest and he appears to spend a lot of effort breathing, even when he is at rest. Evan has smoked cigarettes as long as his friends can remember, and despite his inability to do any exercise, he has remained very thin. Sometimes it looks like Evan is puffing his chest out, and Evan often jokes, "My lungs must be a nice place to hang out, because sometimes it seems like the darn air just doesn't want to go out!" 1. Evan is most likely suffering from A Atelectasis B Emphysema C Asthma D Chronic bronchitis 2. Evan complains that the air in his lungs sometimes "doesn't want to go out." At these times, which of the following muscles is likely working harder than normal? A Transversus thoracis B Diaphragm C External intercostals D Pectoralis minor Evan's lungs probably have an abnormally large A Tidal volume B Expiratory reserve volume C Residual volume D Inspiratory reserve volume
answer
A Emphysema B Transversus thoracis C Residual Volume
question
Know the layers of the digestive tract
answer
...
question
Which of these descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus? A loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels B sensory neural network C secretes a watery fluid D component of mucosa E coordinates activity of muscularis externa
answer
E coordinates activity of muscularis externa
question
The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels. A fibrosa B serosa C lamina propria D mesenteries E adventitia
answer
D mesenteries
question
A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would A increase intestinal motility. B decrease gastric secretion. C decrease intestinal motility. D increase gastric secretion. E interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion.
answer
C decrease intestinal motility.
question
The ability to function over a wide range of lengths is called A elasticity. B spasticity. C extensibility. D plasticity. E compaction.
answer
D plasticity.
question
What type muscle cells are arranged in sheets or layers, with adjacent muscle cells electrically connected by gap junctions and mechanically connected by dense bodies? A multi-unit smooth muscles B skeletal muscles C cardiac muscles D visceral smooth muscles
answer
D visceral smooth muscles
question
The movement of materials along the digestive tract, as well as many secretory functions, is primarily controlled by which of the following? A parasympathetic motor fibers in the glossopharyngeal, vagus, or pelvic nerves B local factors C villi D enteroendocrine cells
answer
B local factors
question
Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called A peristalsis. B segmentation. C churning movements. D pendular movements. E mastication.
answer
A peristalsis
question
The activities of the digestive system are regulated by A hormones. B parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons. C the contents of the digestive tract. D intrinsic nerve plexuses. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following, except A absorption of monosaccharides. B mechanical processing of food. C digestion of carbohydrates. D analysis of material before swallowing. E lubrication.
answer
A absorption of monosaccharides.
question
The connection of the anterior portion of the tongue to the underlying epithelium is the A glossal septum. B fauces. C uvula. D lingual frenulum. E labial frenulum.
answer
D lingual frenulum.
question
The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the A faux. B vestibule. C gingiva. D uvula. E alveolus.
answer
C gingiva
question
The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called A cementum. B enamel. C periodontium. D dentin. E pulp.
answer
D dentin
question
The root of a tooth is covered by A enamel. B pulp. C the root canal. D dentin. E cementum.
answer
E cementum
question
________ are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and slashing. A Bicuspids B Cuspids C Incisors D Molars E Premolars
answer
B Cuspids
question
Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of the pharyngeal phase of swallowing? A It begins as the contraction of pharyngeal muscles forces the bolus through the entrance to the esophagus. B It begins with the compression of the bolus against the hard palate. C Motor commands from the swallowing center in the pons direct a coordinated pattern of muscle contraction in the pharyngeal muscles. D It begins when tactile receptors on the palatal arches and uvula are stimulated.
answer
D It begins when tactile receptors on the palatal arches and uvula are stimulated.
question
The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of the gut tube. These include A epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar. B muscularis externa may be striated muscle. C epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous. D epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous, and muscularis externa may be striated muscle. E epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar, and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.
answer
D epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous, and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.
question
Which structure is the remnant of the ventral mesentery between the liver and the anterior wall of the peritoneal cavity? A mesentery proper B lesser omentum C greater omentum D falciform ligament
answer
D falciform ligament
question
The ________ supports most of the small intestine and provides stability and limited movement. A greater omentum B diaphragm C falciform ligament D lesser omentum E mesentery proper
answer
E mesentery proper
question
The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity A secretes peritoneal fluid. B decreases friction. C lubricates the cavity. D prevents irritation. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called A ascites. B the dorsal and ventral frenulums. C the diaphragm. D mesenteries. E peritoneal sheets.
answer
D mesenteries
question
Lacteals A secrete digestive enzymes. B increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine. C carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system. D produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine. E produce milk.
answer
C carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system.
question
Which structure controls the contraction of the muscularis externa? A. Muscularis Mucosae B. Submucosal plexus C. Circular layer of smooth muscle D. Myentric plexus E. Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle
answer
D Myentric plexus
question
Contraction of the muscle layer labeled "9" causes the digestive tract to A constrict. B shorten. C dilate. D fold for increased surface area. E secrete enzymes.
answer
A constrict
question
Parietal cells secrete A enteropeptidase. B gastrin. C pepsinogen. D hydrochloric acid. E mucus.
answer
C hydrochloric acid
question
Chief cells secrete A hydrochloric acid. B intrinsic factor. C mucus. D gastrin. E pepsinogen.
answer
E pepsinogen
question
The enzyme pepsin digests A nucleic acids. B carbohydrates. C proteins. D vitamins. E lipids.
answer
C protein
question
A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in A decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells. B increased protein digestion in the stomach. C a higher pH during gastric digestion. D decreased gastrin production. E a lower pH during gastric digestion.
answer
a higher pH during gastric digestion.
question
The greater omentum is A important in the digestion of fats. B the entrance to the stomach. C attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature. D a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera. E a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.
answer
D a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
question
Which structure helps the stomach to stretch as it fills with food? A Cardia B Body C Lesser curvature D Greater curvature E Rugae
answer
E Rugae
question
Identify the structure labeled "10." A longitudinal muscle layer B circular muscle layer C oblique muscle layer D rugae E submucosa
answer
C oblique muscle layer
question
The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the A pylorus. B fundus. C cardia. D body. E antrum.
answer
A pylorus
question
The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the A pylorus. B fundus. C antrum. D body. E cardia.
answer
D body
question
After food and gastric juices combine, the gastric contents are referred to as ________.
answer
chyme
question
The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the A ileum. B haustrum. C duodenum. D jejunum. E appendix.
answer
A ileum.
question
The part of the digestive tract that plays the primary role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients is the A cecum. B colon. C stomach. D duodenum. E jejunum.
answer
E jejunum
question
The villi are most developed in the A gall bladder. B duodenum. C cecum. D jejunum. E stomach.
answer
D jejunum
question
An intestinal hormone that stimulates mucus secretion by the submucosal duodenal glands and dilation of intestinal capillaries is A vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). B GIP. C secretin. D gastrin. E cholecystokinin.
answer
A vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP).
question
The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid is A vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). B gastrin. C GIP. D cholecystokinin. E secretin.
answer
E secretin.
question
An intestinal hormone that stimulates contraction of the gallbladder to release bile is A cholecystokinin. B secretin. C GIP. D gastrin. E enteropeptidase.
answer
A cholecystokinin.
question
The hormone that stimulates secretion and contraction by the stomach is A CCK. B gastrin. C enteropeptidase. D secretin. E cholecystokinin.
answer
B gastrin.
question
In response to the arrival of acid chyme in the duodenum, the A blood levels of secretin rise. B blood levels of cholecystokinin fall. C blood levels of gastrin rise. D blood levels of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) fall. E blood levels of gastrin rise and blood levels of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) fall
answer
A blood levels of secretin rise.
question
During which phase in the control of the digestive system would bicarbonate and bile be stimulated? A gastric phase B cephalic phase C intestinal phase
answer
C intestinal phase
question
Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released by which fibers? A both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic fibers B interneurons of the enteric nervous system C sympathetic postganglionic fibers D parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
answer
C sympathetic postganglionic fibers
question
Enteric interneurons that are inhibitory to smooth muscle use which of the following neurotransmitters? A ACh (acetylcholine) B VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide) C norepinephrine D substance P
answer
B VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)
question
Which of the following intestinal hormones stimulates bile from the gall bladder? A motilin B GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) C CCK (cholecystokinin) D gastrin
answer
C CCK (cholecystokinin)
question
Which of the following GI hormones promotes a pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions? A GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) B motilin C gastrin D secretin
answer
D secretin
question
The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the A entry of chyme into the small intestine. B entry of chyme into the large intestine. C release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine. D sight, thought, or smell of food. E entry of food into the stomach.
answer
E entry of food into the stomach.
question
During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, A there is an increased flow of action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach. B the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying. C the stomach responds to distention. D production of gastric juice slows down. E secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells
answer
A there is an increased flow of action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach.
question
The gastroileal reflex A decreases peristaltic activity. B empties the duodenum. C moves some chyme to the colon. D promotes gastric secretion. E is relayed through the CNS.
answer
C moves some chyme to the colon.
question
Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is the A anus. B anal canal. C rectum. D sigmoid colon. E rectal column.
answer
C rectum
question
A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the A pancreas. B appendix. C haustra. D gallbladder. E ileum.
answer
B appendix
question
This organ is primarily responsible for water absorption. A anus B stomach C large intestine D esophagus E small intestine
answer
C large intestine
question
Which is true regarding the defecation reflex? A Stimulation of sympathetic motor neurons in the sacral spinal cord results in stimulation of somatic motor neurons. B Stimulation of the myenteric plexus in the sigmoid colon and rectum results in decreased local peristalsis. C The short reflex stimulates mass movements that push feces toward the rectum from the descending colon and sigmoid colon. D It involves two positive feedback loops.
answer
D It involves two positive feedback loops.
question
Movements unique to the large intestine are ________ movements. A mass B segmentation C writhing D peristaltic E pendular
answer
A mass
question
Functions of the large intestine include A storage of fecal material prior to defection. B absorption of vitamins. C reabsorption of water and compaction of feces. D all of the above E none of the above
answer
D all of the above
question
A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would A reduce delivery of saliva. B cause mumps-like swelling of the face. C interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. D all of the above E none of the above
answer
D all of the above
question
The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar. A parotid B submaxillary C sublingual D submandibular E vestibular
answer
A parotid
question
The ________ salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane in the floor of the mouth. A lingual B sublingual C submandibular D mandibular E parotid
answer
B sublingual
question
Each of the following is a function of the liver, except A antibody production. B synthesis of plasma proteins. C storage of glycogen and iron reserves. D synthesis and secretion of bile. E inactivation of toxins.
answer
A antibody production.
question
Identify the salivary gland that secretes a watery mixture rich in salivary amylase and buffers. A lingual B parotid C mandibular D sublingual E submandibular
answer
B parotid
question
Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of the A duodenum. B jejunum. C ileum. D pancreas. E liver.
answer
B duodenum.
question
Gastrin secretion in response to elevated luminal pH is an example of A neural stimulation. B local stimulation. C muscular stimulation. D hormone stimulation. E none of the above
answer
B local stimulation.
question
The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the A falciform ligament. B ligamentum teres. C hepatic ligament. D lesser omentum. E greater omentum.
answer
A falciform ligament
question
Which of the following is a remnant of the fetal umbilical vein? A mesentery proper B round ligament C greater omentum D diaphragm E lesser omentum
answer
B round ligament
question
The human liver is composed of ________ lobe(s). A one B two C four D three E two large, four small
answer
C four
question
The basic functional unit of the liver is the A Kupffer cell. B lobule. C portal area. D hepatocyte. E bile canaliculus.
answer
B lobule
question
Which of the following is not a component of the portal triad found at the edges of a liver lobule? A hepatic artery B bile duct C central vein D hepatic portal vein E None of the above - all are present in the portal triad.
answer
C central vein
question
In the center of a liver lobule there is a A portal vein. B sinusoid. C central vein. D hepatic duct. E portal area.
answer
C central vein
question
________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of plates converging toward a central vein. A Hepatocytes B Portal areas C Hepatic ducts D Bile canaliculi E Kupffer cells
answer
A Hepatocytes
question
Salivation is controlled almost entirely by the nervous system. Which of the following stimuli would inhibit salivation? A nausea B fear C a lemon D the thought of food
answer
B fear
question
HCl secretions convert pepsinogen to the active hormone pepsin. What cells in the gastric pits produce pepsinogen? A parietal B chief C paracrine (also known as enteroendocrine cells) D G cells
answer
B chief
question
In response to a steak dinner, certain secretions are needed to aid digestion. What cells in the pancreas would provide these secretions? A duct cells B islet of Langerhans cells C acinar cells
answer
C acinar cells
question
An increase in HCl (hydrochloric acid) secretion in the duodenum would stimulate which hormone that would help to counteract the effects of HCl? A GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) B secretin C gastrin D CCK (cholecystokinin)
answer
B secretin
question
The secretion in the large intestine consists of which of the following? A bile B bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus C intrinsic factor D digestive enzymes such as CCK and secretin
answer
B bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus
question
The common bile duct: A is the duct that immediately empties the gallbladder. B is formed by the union of the right and left hepatic ducts. C produces digestive enzymes and buffers. D is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct.
answer
D is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct.
question
The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the A duodenum and the jejunum. B common bile duct and the pancreatic duct. C duodenum and the bile duct. D duodenum and the pylorus. E duodenum and the pancreatic duct.
answer
B common bile duct and the pancreatic duct.
question
Enzymes secreted by the pancreas include A trypsin (as trypsinogen). B amylase. C nuclease. D chymotrypsinogen. E all of the above
answer
E all of the above
question
Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with digestion of A complex carbohydrates. B fats. C disaccharides. D vitamins. E proteins.
answer
B fats
question
Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom? A elevated levels of blood glucose B blood in the feces C overproduction of blood plasma albumin D jaundice E impaired digestion of protein
answer
D jaundice
question
A viral infection that often involves the parotid glands, which swell noticeably, is ________.
answer
mumps
question
Which characteristic of H. pylori is most likely an adaptation to deal with the stomach's powerful muscle contractions that churn its contents? A Its surface adhesins B Its ability to sense chemical gradients C Its stimulation of G cells D Its preference for the pyloric antrum
answer
A Its surface adhesins
question
H. pylori probably prefers the pyloric antrum, because A More pepsinogen can be found in that region B Gastrin is produced in the antrum C The environment is slightly less acidic D Fewer immune system cells that could kill the bacteria reside there
answer
C The environment is slightly less acidic
question
Why might the positive feedback loop described above potentially cause damage to digestive organs? A It will result in very high gastrin concentrations, which are toxic to the body B It will cause the stomach pH to get lower and lower C It will diminish the activity of parietal cells D It will lead to indigestion and constipation
answer
B It will cause the stomach pH to get lower and lower
question
The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time is called A anabolism. B metabolism. C oxidative phosphorylation. D catabolism. E glycolysis.
answer
B metabolism
question
The carbon dioxide of respiration is formed during A the citric acid cycle. B glycolysis. C the formation of water. D electron transport. E the formation of pyruvic acid.
answer
A the citric acid cycle
question
Reactions within ________ provide most of the energy needed by a typical cell. A cytoplasm B the plasma membrane C the mitochondria D the endoplasmic reticulum E none of the above
answer
C the mitochondria
question
The function of the citric acid cycle is to A hydrolize glucose. B produce carbon dioxide. C produce water. D transfer the acetyl group. E remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes
answer
E remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes
question
Catabolism of all of the following is fairly common for energy production, except A protein. B carbohydrates. C glucose. D lipids.
answer
A protein
question
Glycogenolysis is: A the synthesis of glycogen from glucose. B the release of glucose from glycogen. C glucose synthesis from smaller carbon chains. D the breakdown of glucose into two three-carbon molecules/chains
answer
B the release of glucose from glycogen.
question
The synthesis of glucose from smaller carbon chains is which of the following processes? A glycolysis B gluconeogenesis C glycogenolysis D glycogenesis
answer
B gluconeogenesis