What is the cephalic phase?
earliest phase of digestion in which the brain prepares the body in anticipation of food

T/F: Many lactose-intolerant people can digest aged cheese and yogurt with live, active cultures without any gastrointestinal side effects.

T/F: Dietary vitamins and minerals are small enough to be absorbed without chemical digestion by the GI tract.

T/F: Heartburn more than twice a week is a symptom of gastroesophageal reflux (GER).

T/F: The lining of the small intestine is smooth and flat, allowing for increased transit time of food material.

T/F: A bolus is the liquid produced by mechanical digestion in the stomach.

Example of a food that causes intestinal distress for someone with lactose intolerance?

A cell’s boundary is defined by its _________.

Peristalsis that begins in the small intestine and surges upwards results in

Immediately after a meal, ghrelin levels ______; high levels of ghrelin ______ hunger.
decrease; increase

Mechanical digestion begins in the

What is an example of the central nervous system’s role in digestion?
The aroma of grilled foods triggers salivary cells to stimulate the salivary glands.

T/F: It is estimated that up to 70 percent of the world’s population lose some ability to digest lactose as they age.

T/F: Cells are the smallest functional units of life that can grow, reproduce, and perform basic functions.

The gold standard for diagnosing celiac disease is _________.
a biopsy of the small intestine

Cell membranes are primarily composed of

T/F: The presence of the bacterium H. pylori in the GI tract of adults increases the risk of ulcers, stomach cancer, and high blood glucose.

The primary function of mucus in the stomach is to
protect the stomach cells from gastric juices (e.g., HCl).

T/F: Children whose GI tract contains the bacterium H. pylori are more likely to suffer from asthma and allergies.

There are ______ common allergenic foods that must be clearly identified on food labels.

How many daily serving of grains does the MyPlate recommend?
6 ounce-equivalents

Including fiber in your diet is beneficial to your GI tract, but consuming excess amounts of fiber can result in the loss of nutrients. This statement is an example of which of the factors to consider in planning diets?

Which of the following do some experts consider unnecessary to include as much as in the MyPlate recommendations?

The Nutrition Facts Panel does not include information on ________.
toxicity levels

Serving sizes of prepared foods purchased at grocery stores and restaurants are generally
larger than USDA serving-size standards.

The 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends that a healthful diet include proteins that are
lower in solid fats and Calories.

T/F: Food labeling regulations allow manufacturers to omit the footnote of the Nutrition Facts panel on smaller products.

When dining out at a restaurant, what is an example of a healthy appetizer choice?
grilled asparagus

T/F: “Wellness” is a multidimensional process that includes one’s physical, emotional, social, occupational, and spiritual health.

What chronic diseases are strongly associated with dietary choices?
obesity, heart disease, and type 2 diabetes

What is an example of one serving of the USDA Food Patterns’ vegetable group?
2 cups of raw spinach

What is an example of a meal plan that best illustrates the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines?
Chicken sandwich on wheat bread with lettuce and tomato, raisins, and milk

T/F: Most Americans eat outside of the home at least once per week.

At the grocery store, Janice studies the labels on fortified rice milk to find one that is high in calcium. What is an example of a label that would indicate that a particular brand is high in this nutrient?
percent daily value of calcium more than 20%

Jack is a college athlete who requires 2,800 kilocalories a day to support his total energy needs. Even though Jack likes many different foods and makes it a point to try new things, he consumes only approximately 1,600 kilocalories a day. Which characteristic of a healthy diet is Jack missing?

A 1-cup equivalent in the dairy food group based on the MyPlate pattern is:
1 cup yogurt

T/F: Cultural cues that influence eating patterns include advertisements and the types of restaurants available in a neighborhood.

What is an example of a social cue that triggers an appetite?
Eating a hot dog at a ballpark

Mindful eating is a____.
nonjudgmental awareness of sensations while eating

The psychological desire to eat stimulated by the sight, smell, or thought of food is

A good source of prebiotics would be ____.

T/F: The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are dietary standards that should be applied only to healthy individuals.

T/F: Vitamins provide 4 kilocalories per gram.

Phytochemicals are ____ chemicals.

T/F: The National Institutes of Health (NIH) plays a limited role in researching nutrition-related issues.

T/F: Current research suggests that the health benefits of phytochemicals come only in supplement form.

Phytochemicals are naturally occurring compounds believed to protect plants against the _____ they produce.

What is the term for an imitation treatment that has no known physical effect or therapeutic value on the subjects in a research study?

T/F: Researchers have not discovered a link between the GI flora and obesity.

A slice of pumpkin bread contains 5 grams of fat, 40 grams of carbohydrate, and 5 grams of protein. What percent of the bread’s Calories are from fat?

What is the group given a specific treatment or intervention during an experiment called?
the experimental group

Bread enriched with folate is an example of a
functional food.

A good source of probiotics would be_____.

T/F: Macronutrients are nutrients that contain inorganic components.

Students looking to maintain a robust gut flora may plan a breakfast containing_____ .
yogurt and fruit

T/F: Nutrigenomics research has shown that a mother’s food intake can affect the genes expressed by her children.

What is an example of a nutrient that is organic?

T/F: Probiotics make up all of the roughly 100 trillion microorganisms living in the human body.

Which nutrient is the MOST energy dense?

As the study of nutrition evolves, what best reflects the objectives of current nutrition research?
The role of diet in the development of obesity and Type 2 diabetes.

Chemicals used to help retain moisture in foods are called

What are examples of a private sector support for sustainable agriculture?
corporate purchases of produce from small and mid-size local farms, corporate training programs in sustainable farming practices, and venture-capital investments in food start-ups

What is the purpose of the GRAS list?
To identify substances that are deemed safe based on a history of long-term use or expert consensus.

Monosodium glutamate (MSG), iodine in table salt, and the supplemental calcium in orange juice are all examples of

T/F: The primary component of sustainability is attaining a surplus of food crops.

What is an example of an agricultural practice that helps to maintain food diversity?
planting traditional local species of edible plants

What are the assumed benefits of a local food system?
environmental advantages over a global food system, benefit to local economies, and a stronger connection between urban consumers and rural inhabitants

T/F: Certified organic farms must avoid the use of synthetic fertilizers and toxic pesticides.

What is the primary cause of global undernutrition?
unequal distribution of food due to poverty

How does the National Student Campaign Against Hunger and Homelessness work to end food insecurity in the United States?
training students to meet the immediate needs of the hungry

What are the elements of a community (local) food system?
Farmers Markets, hospital cafeterias using local produce, and CSA programs

What would increase the availability of a diverse array of fresh, locally produced foods?
purchasing a share in a CSA, starting a school garden or urban garden, and purchasing fruits and vegetables at the local farmer’s market

What describes a sustainable food system
specify food from farming systems that minimize harm to the environment, Promote health and well-being, and use local, seasonally available ingredients

T/F: Between 2002 and 2007, the number of farms dramatically dropped in the United States.

What term is commonly used to describe foods that are grown without the use of synthetic pesticides?

T/F: Preservatives and colorings are derived from both natural and synthetic sources.

One of the main goals of the fair trade movement is to
improve the rights and working conditions of farm workers.

What are the effects of purchasing Fair Trade Certified products from developing nations?
spread of sustainable agricultural practices, reduction in child labor, and financial assistance to women setting up small businesses

The goals of the recent “food movement” include
protecting the environment and reducing food supply monopolies.

What are the potential benefits of consuming local food?
reduced energy use for food production, enhanced nutrition and freshness of produce, and reduced greenhouse gas emissions from transportation

What are the limitations of the Women’s Health Initiative Randomized Controlled Dietary Modification Trial?
all participants were post-menopausal women, on average, study participants did not reduce fat intake enough, and participants self-reported dietary intake.

What are the effects of a long-term treatment for obesity?
gastroplasty, gastric bypass, and gastric banding

T/F: Lower-body obesity significantly increases one’s risk for chronic disease.

Prescription weight-loss medicines are associated with side effects and a certain level of risk. What is an example in which a physician would MOST likely prescribe these medications?
an adult with a BMI 27 kg/m2 who has an elevated risk for heart disease.

In men, a waist-to-hip ratio higher than what is associated with an increased risk for chronic disease?

T/F: A diagnosis of metabolic syndrome indicates an increased risk for heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and stroke.

Among the common surgical treatments for obesity, a method that is not recommended as a treatment for obesity or morbid obesity is ______.

What result in satiety?
nutrient absorption from the small intestine, the release of PYY into the bloodstream, and expansion of the stomach

What defines a “healthy body weight?”
a weight appropriate for your age and physical development, a weight that is acceptable to you, and a weight compatible with normal blood pressure, lipid levels, and glucose tolerance

Lance would like to lose two pounds a week. If his present energy intake is 4,200 kcal a day and his energy expenditure does not change, how many kilocalories should he consume each day to achieve his goal?

What are the functions of uncoupling proteins?
improve resistance to weight gain and obesity, inhibit ATP formation, and increase energy expenditure and decrease excess energy storage

Waist and hip circumference measurements can determine _______.
fat distribution pattern

What increases basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
higher lean body mass

Which of the following is a limitation of body mass index (BMI)?
BMI has limited consideration of body composition

Which sport is frequently associated with its female athletes being at risk for developing the female athlete triad?

The women who lost the most weight during the Women’s Health Initiative Randomized Controlled Dietary Modification Trial reduced their Calories consumed from

T/F: BMI is calculated by taking an individual’s body weight (in kilograms) divided by their height2 (in meters).

Research studies have shown that the risk for developing type 2 diabetes and hypertension begins to increase at a BMI greater than
30 kg/m2.

The best treatment option for people who are medically unstable or display signs of malnutrition is likely ___.
inpatient hospitalization

Amenorrhea is _________.
absence of menstruation resulting from inadequate energy intake

How does beta-alanine supplementation enhance a person’s ability to perform short-term, high-intensity activities?
It helps increase the levels of muscle carnosine.

What is illegal to sell in the United States?
ephedra-containing supplements

Side effects of anabolic steroids include ____.
renal failure

T/F: Athletes should not take iron supplements unless prescribed by a health care professional.

T/F: Thirst is a relatively poor indicator of dehydration.

What are examples of a common deceptive practice used to market and sell ergogenic aids?
advertising through infomercials and mass-media marketing videos, exercising inappropriate control over study results, and paying celebrities to endorse products

T/F: Aerobic reactions occur in the absence of oxygen.

What are the proven long-term, irreversible harmful effects of anabolic steroid use in women?
enlarged clitoris, outward signs of “masculinization”, and facial hair growth

Time of activity, part of the FITT principle, refers to __________.
how long each session lasts

What are the ways in which regular physical activity can reduce the risks for heart disease, stroke, and high blood pressure?
It raises triglyceride levels in the blood.

Many athletes have higher _______ needs than the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR) or Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) for the general population.

Repeatedly overworking a muscle to increase muscle strength and size is known as

T/F: The target intensity for flexibility is to stretch through a joint’s full range of motion.

T/F: Consuming high-carbohydrate foods during the 24 hours after exercise can enhance glycogen storage.

T/F: Research has shown that supplements containing both ephedra and caffeine can help prolong the time that it takes an athlete to become exhausted during a workout.

There is evidence supporting the health claims of what ergogenic aids?

Moderate _______ consumption is enough to support most activities.

What are the components of physical fitness?
strong muscles and bones, flexibility, and body composition

George plays basketball for his high school team, and he is concerned that he is not consuming enough kilocalories to support his activity.What would MOST likely indicate that he is not consuming adequate kilocalories?
weight loss

T/F: The longer the fatty acid chain, the more ATP can be generated from breakdown.

What are the major classes of dietary lipids?
triglycerides, sterols, and phospholipids

What helps keep saturated fat intake at a healthy level?
keeping cholesterol intake below 300 mg/day

T/F: Trans fatty acids are created during the hydrogenation process.

What is a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
being overweight

What is a rich source of monounsaturated fatty acids, yet neutral in flavor, making it a good choice for cooking oil?
canola oil

Our bodies synthesize cholesterol in the liver and _________.

About 30 to _______ percent of the energy used at rest comes from fat.

T/F: In general, animal-based fats are high in saturated fats.

Yesterday Nadia consumed 250 grams of carbohydrate, 75 grams of protein, and 60 grams of fat. What percentage of Calories of her day’s intake came from fat?

What species of fish would likely contain the highest levels of contaminants?

T/F: Short- and medium-chain fatty acids are absorbed and transported more quickly than long-chain fatty acids.

How many double bonds does a saturated fatty acid contain between carbons?

What is the correct sequence of events in the development of atherosclerosis?
Arterial injury, inflammation, fatty streak, plaque formation

T/F: Saturated fats are typically liquid at room temperature.

What is an example of a fat replacer?

T/F: If an ingredient label indicates a product contains partially hydrogenated oils, it will almost assuredly contain trans fats.

T/F: Saturated fatty acids can occur in either a cis or trans shape.

T/F: In 2006 the Food and Drug Administration issued an optional recommendation to list the amounts of trans fatty acids on the Nutrition Facts panel of food products.

The National Institutes of Health (NIH) recommends a reduction in dietary sodium intake to how many mg per day?
less than 2,300

You would be diagnosed with true hypertension if your systolic blood pressure was greater than or equal to 140 mmHg or your diastolic blood pressure was greater than or equal to
90 mmHg.

Minerals are ________ elements.

Vitamins A, D, E, and K are BEST absorbed with foods that are rich in

The absorption of proteins occurs in the
small intestine.

T/F: Even individuals who eat a variety of healthy foods cannot meet their micronutrient needs from food alone and should take a daily supplement.

T/F: Fat-soluble vitamins should be consumed more frequently than water-soluble vitamins.

T/F: Complementary proteins provide all twenty essential amino acids.

A polypeptide consist of how many strings of amino acids?
ten or more

Water-soluble vitamins need to be consumed _____.

What is the MOST complete protein from a plant source?

What proteins are fundamental to the immune system?

T/F: Sickle cell anemia results from a single change to an amino acid present in hemoglobin.

What is an example of a protein?

T/F: The process in which a protein loses its shape and function when exposed to acids, heat, and heavy metals is deamination.

According to the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), what is responsible for 18% of the gases responsible for global warming?
livestock production

_____ foods are sources of fat-soluble vitamins.

Currently, _____ levels of protein structure have been identified.

The human body can synthesize small amounts of which two fat-soluble vitamins?
vitamin D and vitamin K

T/F: Research shows that smokers benefit from daily supplements of beta carotene.

T/F: Water-soluble vitamins are not toxic; they are harmless even when consumed in megadose amounts.

Minerals can undergo minor modifications and change their _____ structure.

T/F: Overconsumption of simple sugars causes hyperactivity and behavioral problems in children.

What carbohydrate is an end product of photosynthesis?

The term complex carbohydrates refers to

Non-nutritive sweeteners are so-called because they provide little or no _________.

Digestion breaks down most carbohydrates into ___________.

Whole-grain flours are rich sources of fiber because they retain the grains’
bran, endosperm, and germ.

What is a component of metabolic syndrome?
Elevated blood pressure

Mikayla’s doctor has suggested that she increase the fiber content of her diet. What would be good advice for Mikayla?
Avoid excessive amounts of fiber as this could result in bloating and gas, purchase bread and grain products in which the first ingredient listed is “whole grain,” and drink at least eight 8-ounce glasses of fluid a day.

Insulin is synthesized and released by the

If you are physically active, it is especially important to replenish the fuel you burn by eating enough _______.

Gluconeogenesis is the
synthesis of new glucose from amino acids.

The glycemic index shows how foods affect our ______.
blood glucose levels

What type of bread contains the most fiber?
1 slice of white wheat bread

What diet is associated with the development of ketosis?
a diet that contains insufficient carbohydrate

Aspartame cannot be used to prepare cooked foods because
heat destroys its flavor.

T/F: Moderate weight loss can reduce or eliminate symptoms of type 2 diabetes.

A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of
two monosaccharides.

Diabetes is a chronic disease in which the body can no longer regulate _______.

The label on a granola cereal box indicates that it contains 40 grams of total carbohydrate, 13 grams of sugar, and 240 Calories per serving. What percent of Calories in a serving comes from sugar?

A technique employed by some endurance athletes to increase their storage of muscle glycogen is
carbohydrate loading.

T/F: It is unsafe to use food past its “sell by” date.

T/F: The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates the sale, distribution, and disposal of pesticides in the United States.

Potatoes that have turned green likely contain the toxin

Which human organ system is MOST affected by toxic levels of mercury?

T/F: The FDA recommends that pregnant women and young children eat no more than 12 oz of fish per week.

T/F: All additives are synthetic.

Mad cow disease is a fatal brain disorder in cattle caused by a(n)

One of the easiest and most effective ways to prevent foodborne illnesses is to
wash hands before handling food.

T/F: Refrigerating or freezing foods will kill any bacteria present in the food.

Which of the following would NOT help reduce exposure to bisphenol A (BPA)?
microwaving foods in plastics marked with recycling codes 3 or 7

Which of the following is an infectious protein that can lead to mad cow disease?
a prion

Which of the following is NOT a type of fungi?

Two types of fungi are yeasts and ______.

T/F: The only way to be sure that meat is thoroughly cooked is to check the internal temperature with a food thermometer.

T/F: Organically grown foods are just as likely to be contaminated with pesticide residues as conventionally grown foods.

Four factors affecting survival and reproduction of food microorganisms include temperature, humidity, acidity, and _________.
oxygen content

The danger zone is the temperature range between ___.
40° to 140° F

For the 4th of July, Angel is planning a barbeque with her friends at a lakeside park. What practice should she avoid in order to prevent an outbreak of foodborne illness?
Grill hamburgers to medium rare.

What are effects of excessive exposure to lead?
cardiovascular disease in adults, kidney disease in adults, and learning and behavioral disorders in children

The main symptom associated with Clostridium botulinum intoxication is

T/F: The target intensity for flexibility is to stretch through a joint’s full range of motion.