Pathophysiology Chapter 1-28 – Flashcards

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A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called:
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ischemia
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When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as:
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infarction
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A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an)
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syndrome
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Rigorous weight lifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells undergoing
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hypertrophy
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To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
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Preprogrammed cell self-destruction Correct
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Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as
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certain food additives
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Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology
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The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of disease
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Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology
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Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.
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A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called
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dysplasia.
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Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals
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To develop preventive measures
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Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by
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osteopaths
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A medical history should include all: 1. legally prescribed drugs. 2. vitamin or mineral supplements. 3. any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items). 4. herbal treatments.
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1, 2, 3, 4
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The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as
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physiotherapy
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Antagonistic drugs may be used to
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act as an antidote when necessary.
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Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is likely lost before reaching the site of action
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Oral
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A drug that binds with selected specific cell receptors may: 1. stimulate activity in those cells. 2. inhibit activity in those cells. 3. change specificity and attach to other cells. 4. be disabled by macrophages
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1, 2
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Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to:
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prevent gastric irritation
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After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the:
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kidneys
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Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify
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those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.
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The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent:
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development of resistant microbes
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When many excess hydrogen ions accumulate in the blood, what happens to serum pH? The pH:
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decreases
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Which statements apply to atrial natriuretic peptide? 1. It is secreted by heart muscle cells. 2. It is a hormone secreted by the kidneys. 3. It helps to control water and sodium balance. 4. It is released in response to low blood pressure.
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1 and 3
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In which of the following processes is phosphate ion NOT a major component?
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Blood clotting
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In the blood and extracellular fluids, hypernatremia refers to:
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an excess sodium level
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Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by:
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increasing the permeability of nerve membranes
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The bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH. The balance of the carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels are controlled by the:
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lungs and kidneys
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Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia?
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Cardiac arrhythmias
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What is the slowest but most effective control for acid-base balance?
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Kidneys
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Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
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Third-spacing
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What is the effect on blood serum when excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body?
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Bicarbonate ion levels decrease
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Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and is particularly useful in treating:
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pain caused by inflammation
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A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred as a/an:
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intracranial headache
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Cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of a coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and:
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pain associated with the treatment of disease
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Which of the following statement is TRUE?
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Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pain?
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It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain
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In which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?
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Spinothalamic tract
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Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain but not of chronic pain?
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Severe but short term
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A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.
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migraine
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What is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual takes action?
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Pain tolerance
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Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of:
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referred pain
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The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to:
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any tissue injury
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How does scar tissue usually cause obstructions to develop in tube-like structures?
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Scar tissue does not stretch, but rather shrinks in time, causing narrowing.
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Nonspecific agents that protect uninfected cells against viruses are called:
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interferons
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Identify the proper sequence in the healing process?
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A blood clot forms; phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight, strong scar
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The advantages of applying a biosynthetic skin substitute to a large area of full-thickness burn include: 1. reduced risk of infection. 2. decreased loss of plasma protein and fluid. 3. developing stronger fibrous scar tissue. 4. more rapid healing. 5. regeneration of all glands, nerves, and hair follicles.
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1, 2, and 4
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Chemicals mediators released during the inflammatory response include:
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histamine and prostaglandins
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A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as:
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deep partial-thickness
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Why is an application of cold recommended as part of the RICE first aid measures immediately following an inflammatory response due to injury?
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It causes local vasoconstriction to reduce loca edema
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Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:
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sexual intercourse
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A serous exudate is best described as a:
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thin, watery, colorless exudate
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The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:
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increased blood flow into the area
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Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level include:
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general cutaneous vasodilation
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What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
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To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
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The presence of the bacterial capsule:
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Protects the microbe from phagocytosis
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Which of the following is a characteristic of rickettsia?
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It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe
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Which of the following is a function of interferons?
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The increase host cell resistance to viral invasion
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Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the:
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Balance of species in the resident flora is upset
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Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe?
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Production of interferons
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When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate?
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Viral infection
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All of the following are mechanisms of antiviral drug action EXCEPT:
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Interference with mitosis
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What is the cause of oral ulcerations and delayed healing occurring with any severe anemia?
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Deficit of oxygen for epithelial cell mitosis and metabolism
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Chronic blood loss causes anemia because of the:
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smaller amount of recycled iron available
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What are the common early signs of aplastic anemia?
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Excessive bleeding and recurrent infections
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Predisposing factors to leukemia commonly include:
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exposure to radiation
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Multiple opportunistic infections develop with acute leukemia primarily because:
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many circulating leukocytes are immature
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Why do abnormally low hemoglobin values develop with pernicious anemia?
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Shorter life span f erythrocytes
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Why is pernicious anemia treated with injections of vitamin B12?
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The ingested vitamin would not be absorbe into the blood
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Which of the following is present with pernicious anemia?
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Hypochlorhydria
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What term is used described a deficit of all types of blood cells?
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Pancytopenia
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Which of the following applies to the leukemias?
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Chronic leukemias are ore common in older people.
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Elephantiasis, caused by the obstruction of lymphatic vessels by parasitic worms, is an example of the condition known as:
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lymphedema
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Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are called:
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lymphomas
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One of the reasons non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin's lymphomas is that they:
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involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
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The staging system typically used in determining the stage of the Hodgkin's lymphoma is the:
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Ann Arbor sytem
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The atypical cell that serves as a marker for diagnosing Hodgkin's lymphoma is the:
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Reed-Sternberg cell
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A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is:
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Castleman disease
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Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
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an increase in HIV infections
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Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology occurring in older adults and involving:
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plasma cells
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The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
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hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir
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The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to:
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enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells
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Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
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delayed hypersensitivity
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Humoral immunity is mediated by:
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B lymphocytes (B cells)
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Which of the following characteristics apply to HIV? 1. It contains two strands of DNA. 2. It tends to mutate frequently to form new strains. 3. The incubation period is extremely short. 4. It is inactivated by heat and many disinfectants.
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2 and 4
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What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS?
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Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood
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The most common cause of death in patients who have AIDS is:
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Pheumocystis carinii pneumonia
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The term tolerance refers to:
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the ability of the immune system to ignore "self" cells
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Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmations?
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Western blot test
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Which of the following statements applies to the complement system?
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It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated
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Distinguishing clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus include:
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inflammation in multiple organs
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Tissue transferred between two genetically identical twins is referred to as a/an:
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isograft
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Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive?
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Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others.
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What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate increased secretion of insulin?
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Negative feedback control
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Immediate treatment for insulin shock may include:
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consumption of fruit juice or candy
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What is caused by hyperparathyroidism?
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Bone demineralization
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Diabetic retinopathy results from:
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obstruction or rupture of retinal blood vessels
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Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as:
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cataracts
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Which of the following is an effect of Addison's disease?
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Poor stress response
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Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
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Deficit of T3 and T4
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Which of the following is an effect of long-tern glucocorticoid therapy?
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Decreased secretion from the adrenal cortex gland
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Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock? 1. If conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar. 2. If unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%). 3. Treat immediately with insulin. 4. Give large quantity of clear fluids for shock.
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1 and 2
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Which of the following are typical early signs of Alzheimer's disease? 1. Behavioral changes 2. Reduced ability to reason and problem solve 3. Decreased verbal responses 4. Urinary incontinence
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1 and 2
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Following a spinal injury at C5, what is the expected effect during the period of spinal shock?
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Possible periods of apnea
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What is the probable source of an embolus causing a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
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Common carotid artery
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What does the term otorrhea mean?
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CSF leaking from the ear
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Which of the following does NOT apply to Reye's syndrome?
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There is no permanent damage in the body
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Which statement applies to Huntington's disease?
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It presents with choreiform movements in the upper body and decreased ability to concentrate.
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Collateral circulation is most likely to be present when a CVA results from:
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atherosclerosis
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The stroke scale used to rapidly diagnose a stroke includes:
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capacity for speech, level of consciousness, motor skills, eye movements
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What is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular activity?
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Systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate
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Which of the following is NOT considered to be a common contributing factor to AIDS dementia?
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Development of arteriosclerosis
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Typical signs of a TIA include:
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transient muscle weakness in a hand or leg
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Trachoma is indicated by the presence of
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corneal abrasions by the infected eyelids
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Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens?
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Astigmatism
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Herpes simplex virus is a common cause of:
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corneal ulceration and scarring
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Which term refers to near sightedness?
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Myopia
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An infection that damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of hearing loss?
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Sensorineural
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Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
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cataract
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The involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes is referred to as:
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nystagmus
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What is the basic pathological change with macular degeneration?
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Degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis
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Which of the following is a sign of a detached retina?
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No pain, development of a dark area in the visual filed
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Which of the following causes increased heart rate?
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Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.
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A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:
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ventricular filling is reduced
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More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is caused by:
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an embolus
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The term premature ventricular contraction refers to the condition where:
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additional contractions arise from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle.
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Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
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Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle
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Excessive fluid in the pericardial space causes
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reduced venous return
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Neurogenic (vasogenic) shock results from systemic vasodilation due to:
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increased capacity of the vascular system and reduced venous return.
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Which of the following drugs improves cardiac efficiency by slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of cardiac contractions?
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Digoxin
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What happens in the lungs when the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax?
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Air is forced out of the lungs
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What does carbaminoheoglobin refer to?
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Carbon dioxide attached to an amino group on the hemoglobin molecule
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Which of the following is likely to cause pneumothorax or hemothorax in a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma?
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The tumor causes inflammation and erosion of the pleural membranes
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Mediastinal flutter associated with chest injury is likely to:
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decreased venous return to the heart.
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Rust- colored sputum in a patient with pneumonia usually indicates:
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Streptococcus pneumonia is the infecting agent.
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Which of the following drugs is usually prescribed for prophylaxis in persons in close contact with a patient with active tuberculosis?
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Isoniazid
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What is caused by frequent inhalation of irritating particles such as silica?
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Fibrosis and loss of complaince
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A compensation for shock would include:
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increased heart rate and oliguria
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Pericarditis causes a reduction in cardiac output as a result of which of the following?
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Excess fluis in the pericardial cavity, which decreases ventricular filling
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Why does anaphylactic shock cause severe hypoxia very quickly?
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Bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema reduce airflow
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Shock develops in patients with severe burns as a result of:
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pain and loss of plasma
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Cardiac output refers to:
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the volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute
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What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?
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Occult blood in the stool
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Which of the following statement(s) about jaundice is/are true? 1. It is often the first manifestation of hepatitis. 2. Jaundice indicates permanent liver damage. 3. Individuals with hepatitis are always jaundiced. 4. Jaundice usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.
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4 only
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Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?
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it is transmitted by the fecal oral route
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The pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease may involve any of the following EXCEPT:
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increased stimulation of mucus- producing glands
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Which of the following is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus?
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severe steady abdominal pain
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Why does mild hyperbilirubinemia occur in newborns?
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Immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly enough
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Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves:
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periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus.
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What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?
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Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis
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What does hydronephrosis lead to?
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Ischemia and necrosis in the compressed area
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Pyelonephritis may be distinguished from cystitis by the presence in pyelonephritis of:
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Urinary casts and flank pain
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What is the first indicator in the arterial blood gases of acidosis caused by glomerulonephritis?
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Decreased bicarbonate ion
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Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure?
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Very low GFR and increased serum urea
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The micturition reflex is initiated by:
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increased pressure distending the bladder
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Which of the following should be present in the filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule?
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Sodium ions
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Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
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Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases
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A viral infection of the parotid gland is commonly known as:
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mumps
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What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve?
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Hypertrophy of smooth muscle in the pylorus
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Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?
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Esophageal varices
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With severe kidney disease, either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause:
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cardiac arrhytmias
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Which of the following does NOT usually result from nephrosclerosis?
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Acute renal failure
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Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
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destroy any micrometastases
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Specific genetic links have been shown for: 1. cervical cancer. 2. testicular cancer. 3. breast cancer. 4. prostatic cancer.
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2, 3 and 4
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Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?
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Noninvasive severe dysplasia
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years?
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It does not contain any cells
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Which of the following refers to fibrocystic breast disease?
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Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue
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Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina with a copious yellow discharge and foul odor?
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Trichomoniasis
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A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of:
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prostatic cancer
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Structural abnormalities of the uterus may lead to dyspareunia, which is
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painful intercourse
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What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?
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infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV)
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Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
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Bone
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Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy induced hypertension?
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Persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
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During which time period do teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
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First 2 months
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What is the usual time period between the first day of the last menstrual period and the time of birth?
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Termed the gestation period
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Which of the following statement applies to eclampsia?
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Blood pressure is very high and seizures may occur
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What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
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the mother's blood is RH negative and the fetus is RH positive
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Infertility in women may result from:
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endometriosis and hormonal imbalances
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Which sexually transmitted infection(s) is/are usually considered asymptomatic in women?
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Chlamydia, Gonorrhead and Syphilis
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With pelvic inflammatory disease, why does infection spread easily into the peritoneal cavity?
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The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into the uterus
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scent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
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inadequate prenatal care. poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements. iron deficiency anemia.
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Common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:
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low blood pressure
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