ECON 201 Chapter 1 – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
1. The word that comes from the Greek word for "one who manages a household" is a. market. b. consumer. c. producer. d. economy.
answer
D
question
2. The word "economy" comes from the Greek word oikonomos, which means a. "environment." b. "production." c. "one who manages a household." d. "one who makes decisions."
answer
C
question
3. Resources are a. scarce for households but plentiful for economies. b. plentiful for households but scarce for economies. c. scarce for households and scarce for economies. d. plentiful for households and plentiful for economies.
answer
C
question
4. Economics deals primarily with the concept of a. scarcity. b. poverty. c. change. d. power.
answer
A
question
5. Which of the following questions is not answered by the decisions that every society must make? a. What determines consumer preferences? b. What goods will be produced? c. Who will produce the goods? d. Who will consume the goods?
answer
A
question
6. The overriding reason as to why households and societies face many decisions is that a. resources are scarce. b. goods and services are not scarce. c. incomes fluctuate with business cycles. d. people, by nature, tend to disagree.
answer
A
question
7. The phenomenon of scarcity stems from the fact that a. most economies' production methods are not very good. b. in most economies, wealthy people consume disproportionate quantities of goods and services. c. governments restricts production of too many goods and services. d. resources are limited.
answer
D
question
8. Approximately what percentage of the world's economies experience scarcity? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%
answer
D
question
9. When a society cannot produce all the goods and services people wish to have, it is said that the economy is experiencing a. scarcity. b. shortages. c. inefficiencies. d. inequities.
answer
A
question
10. For society, a good is not scarce if a. at least one individual in society can obtain all he or she wants of the good. b. firms are producing the good at full capacity. c. all members of society can have all they want of the good. d. those who have enough income can buy all they want of the good.
answer
C
question
11. Which of the following products would be considered scarce? a. golf clubs b. Picasso paintings c. apples d. All of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
12. Economics is the study of a. production methods. b. how society manages its scarce resources. c. how households decide who performs which tasks. d. the interaction of business and government.
answer
B
question
13. Economics is the study of a. how society manages its scarce resources. b. the government's role in society. c. how a market system functions. d. how to increase production.
answer
A
question
14. In most societies, resources are allocated by a. a single central planner. b. a small number of central planners. c. those firms that use resources to provide goods and services. d. the combined actions of millions of households and firms.
answer
D
question
15. The adage, "There is no such thing as a free lunch," is used to illustrate the principle that a. goods are scarce. b. people face tradeoffs. c. income must be earned. d. households face many decisions.
answer
B
question
16. The adage, "There is no such thing as a free lunch," means a. even people on welfare have to pay for food. b. the cost of living is always increasing. c. to get something we like, we usually have to give up another thing we like. d. all costs are included in the price of a product.
answer
C
question
17. Economists use the phrase "There is no such thing as a free lunch," to illustrate the principle that a. inflation almost always results in higher prices over time. b. nothing is free in a market economy. c. making decisions requires trading off one goal against another. d. if something looks too good to be true, it probably is not worth pursuing.
answer
C
question
18. Which of the following statements best represents the principle represented by the adage, "There is no such thing as a free lunch"? a. Melissa can attend the concert only if she takes her sister with her. b. Greg is hungry and homeless. c. Brian must repair the tire on his bike before he can ride it to class. d. Kendra must decide between going to Colorado or Cancun for spring break.
answer
D
question
19. The principle that "people face tradeoffs" applies to a. individuals. b. families. c. societies. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
20. A typical society strives to get the most it can from its scarce resources. At the same time, the society attempts to distribute the benefits of those resources to the members of the society in a fair manner. In other words, the society faces a tradeoff between a. guns and butter. b. efficiency and equity. c. inflation and unemployment. d. work and leisure.
answer
B
question
21. Guns and butter are used to represent the classic societal tradeoff between spending on a. durable and nondurable goods. b. imports and exports. c. national defense and consumer goods. d. law enforcement and agriculture.
answer
C
question
22. When society requires that firms reduce pollution, there is a. a tradeoff because of reduced incomes to the firms' owners and workers. b. a tradeoff only if some firms are forced to close. c. no tradeoff, since the cost of reducing pollution falls only on the firms affected by the requirements. d. no tradeoff, since everyone benefits from reduced pollution.
answer
A
question
23. A tradeoff exists between a clean environment and a higher level of income in that a. studies show that individuals with higher levels of income actually pollute less than low-income individuals. b. efforts to reduce pollution typically are not completely successful. c. laws that reduce pollution raise costs of production and reduce incomes. d. by employing individuals to clean up pollution, employment and income both rise.
answer
C
question
24. Which of the following phrases best captures the notion of efficiency? a. absolute fairness b. equal distribution c. minimum waste d. equitable outcome
answer
C
question
25. Which of the following is true? a. Efficiency refers to the size of the economic pie; equity refers to how the pie is divided. b. Government policies usually improve upon both equity and efficiency. c. As long as the economic pie continually gets larger, no one will have to go hungry. d. Efficiency and equity can both be achieved if the economic pie is cut into equal pieces.
answer
A
question
26. Efficiency means that a. society is conserving resources in order to save them for the future. b. society's goods and services are distributed equally among society's members. c. society's goods and services are distributed fairly, though not necessarily equally, among society's members. d. society is getting the maximum benefits from its scarce resources.
answer
D
question
27. Economists use the word equity to describe a situation in which a. each member of society has the same income. b. each member of society has access to abundant quantities of goods and services, regardless of his or her income. c. society is getting the maximum benefits from its scarce resources. d. the benefits of society's resources are distributed fairly among society's members.
answer
D
question
28. Senator Smith wants to increase taxes on people with high incomes and use the money to help the poor. Senator Jones argues that such a tax will discourage successful people from working and will therefore make society worse off. An economist would say that a. we should agree with Senator Smith. b. we should agree with Senator Jones. c. a good decision requires that we recognize both viewpoints. d. there are no tradeoffs between equity and efficiency.
answer
C
question
29. Which of the following words and phrases best captures the notion of equity? a. minimum waste b. maximum benefit c. sameness d. fairness
answer
D
question
30. When government policies are enacted, a. equity can usually be enhanced without an efficiency loss, but efficiency can never be enhanced without an equity loss. b. efficiency can usually be enhanced without an equity loss, but equity can never be enhanced without an efficiency loss. . it is always the case that either efficiency and fairness are both enhanced, or efficiency and equity are both diminished. d. None of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
31. A likely effect of government policies that redistribute income and wealth from the wealthy to the poor is that those policies a. enhance equity. b. reduce efficiency. c. reduce the reward for working hard. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
32. When the government implements programs such as progressive income tax rates, which of the following is likely to occur? a. Equity is increased and efficiency is increased. b. Equity is increased and efficiency is decreased. c. Equity is decreased and efficiency is increased. d. Equity is decreased and efficiency is decreased.
answer
B
question
33. As a result of a successful attempt by government to cut the economic pie into more equal slices, a. it is easier to cut the pie, and therefore the economy can produce a larger pie. b. the government can more easily allocate the pie to those most in need. c. the pie gets smaller, and there will be less pie overall. d. government will spend too much time cutting and it causes the economy to lose the ability to produce enough pie for everyone.
answer
C
question
34. When the government attempts to improve equity in an economy the result is often a. an increase in overall output in the economy. b. additional government revenue since overall income will increase. c. a reduction in equity. d. a reduction in efficiency.
answer
D
question
35. When the government redistributes income from the wealthy to the poor, a. efficiency is improved, but equity is not. b. both wealthy people and poor people benefit directly. c. people work less and produce fewer goods and services. d. wealthy people consume fewer goods, but poor people consume more goods, resulting in no real change.
answer
C
question
36. In economics, the cost of something is a. the dollar amount of obtaining it. b. always measured in units of time given up to get it. c. what you give up to get it. d. often impossible to quantify, even in principle.
answer
C
question
37. What you give up to obtain an item is called your a. opportunity cost. b. explicit cost. c. true cost. d. direct cost.
answer
A
question
38. The opportunity cost of going to college is a. the total spent on food, clothing, books, transportation, tuition, lodging, and other expenses. b. the value of the best opportunity a student gives up to attend college. c. zero for students who are fortunate enough to have all of their college expenses paid by someone else. d. zero, since a college education will allow a student to earn a larger income after graduation.
answer
B
question
39. Maurice receives $100 as a birthday gift. In deciding how to spend the money, he narrows his options down to four choices: Option A, Option B, Option C, and Option D. Each option costs $100. Finally he decides on Option B. The opportunity cost of this decision is a. the value to Maurice of the option he would have chosen had Option B not been available. b. the value to Maurice of Options A, C and D combined. c. $100. d. $300.
answer
A
question
40. A furniture maker currently produces 100 tables per week and sells them for a profit. She is considering expanding her operation in order to make more tables. Should she expand? a. Yes, because making tables is profitable. b. No, because she may not be able to sell the additional tables. c. It depends on the marginal cost of producing more tables and the marginal revenue she will earn from selling more tables. d. It depends on the average cost of producing more tables and the average revenue she will earn from selling more tables.
answer
C
question
41. For most students, the largest single cost of a college education is a. the wages given up to attend school. b. tuition, fees, and books. c. room and board. d. transportation, parking, and entertainment.
answer
A
question
42. For a college student who wishes to calculate the true costs of going to college, the costs of room and board a. should be counted in full, regardless of the costs of eating and sleeping elsewhere. b. should be counted only to the extent that they are more expensive at college than elsewhere. c. usually exceed the opportunity cost of going to college. d. plus the cost of tuition, equals the opportunity cost of going to college.
answer
B
question
43. For which of the following individuals would the opportunity cost of going to college be highest? a. a promising young mathematician who will command a high salary once she earns her college degree b. a student with average grades who has never held a job c. a famous, highly-paid actor who wants to take time away from show business to finish college and earn a degree d. a student who is the best player on his college basketball team, but who lacks the skills necessary to play professional basketball
answer
C
question
44. When you calculate your true costs of going to college, what portion of your room-and-board expenses should be included? a. Your full room-and-board expenses should always be included. b. None of your room-and-board expenses should ever be included. c. You should include only the amount by which your room-and-board expenses exceed the income you earn while attending college. d. You should include only the amount by which your room-and-board expenses exceed the expenses for rent and food if you were not in college.
answer
D
question
45. The opportunity cost of an item is a. the number of hours needed to earn money to buy the item. b. what you give up to get that item. c. usually less than the dollar value of the item. d. the dollar value of the item.
answer
B
question
46. Mallory decides to spend three hours working overtime rather than watching a video with her friends. She earns $8 an hour. Her opportunity cost of working is a. the $24 she earns working. b. the $24 minus the enjoyment she would have received from watching the video. c. the enjoyment she would have received had she watched the video. d. nothing, since she would have received less than $24 of enjoyment from the video.
answer
C
question
47. Russell spends an hour studying instead of playing tennis. The opportunity cost to him of studying is a. the improvement in his grades from studying for the hour. b. the improvement in his grades from studying minus the enjoyment of playing tennis. c. the enjoyment and exercise he would have received had he played tennis. d. zero. Since Russell chose to study rather than to play tennis, the value of studying must have been greater than the value of playing tennis.
answer
C
question
48. College-age athletes who drop out of college to play professional sports a. are not rational decision makers. b. are well aware that their opportunity cost of attending college is very high. c. are concerned more about present circumstances than their future. d. underestimate the value of a college education.
answer
B
question
49. A rational decision maker a. ignores marginal changes and focuses instead on "the big picture." b. ignores the likely effects of government policies when he or she makes choices. c. takes an action only if the marginal benefit of that action exceeds the marginal cost of that action. d. takes an action only if the combined benefits of that action and previous actions exceed the combined costs of that action and previous actions.
answer
C
question
50. Rational people make decisions at the margin by a. following marginal traditions. b. behaving in a random fashion. c. thinking in black-and-white terms. d. comparing marginal costs and marginal benefits.
answer
D
question
51. The word "margin" means a. edge. b. distance. c. space. d. measure.
answer
A
question
52. Making rational decisions "at the margin" means that people a. make those decisions that do not impose a marginal cost. b. evaluate how easily a decision can be reversed if problems arise. c. compare the marginal costs and marginal benefits of each decision. d. always calculate the marginal dollar costs for each decision.
answer
C
question
53. A person's willingness to pay for a good is based on a. the availability of the good. b. the marginal benefit that an extra unit of the good would provide for that person. c. the marginal cost of producing an extra unit of the good. d. esoteric factors, the study of which lies beyond the boundaries of economics.
answer
B
question
54. To say that "people respond to incentives" is to say that a. changes in costs (but not changes in benefits) influence people's decisions and their behavior. b. changes in benefits (but not changes in costs) influence people's decisions and their behavior. c. changes in benefits or changes in costs influence people's decisions and their behavior. d. tradeoffs can be eliminated by rational people who think at the margin.
answer
C
question
55. A marginal change is a a. change that involves little, if anything, that is important. b. large, significant adjustment. c. change for the worse, and so it is usually a short-term change. d. small, incremental adjustment.
answer
D
question
56. Which of the following is the best example of a marginal change? a. After graduating college, Audrey's income increases from $500 per month to $3,000 per month. b. Morgan gets a raise at her part-time job and is now paid $7.25 per hour instead of $7.00. c. Housing prices in an area increase by 40 percent when a new interstate is built that passes nearby. d. A hard freeze wipes out half of the orange crop in Florida and the price of orange juice doubles.
answer
B
question
57. Which of the following is the best example of a marginal change? a. The price of housing in Denver increased by 6 percent last year. b. Kim gets a big promotion at work. She also gets a raise from $35,000 per year to $55,000 per year. c. Mark graduates from college and takes a job. His income increases from $10,000 per year to $35,000 per year. d. A drought hits the upper Midwest and the price of wheat increases from $4.00 per bushel to $6.50 per bushel.
answer
A
question
58. A marginal change is best illustrated by which of the following? a. Nancy retires and takes a part-time job. She was working 40 hours per week and now works 15 hours per week. b. A large, state-supported university has announced that due to state budget deficits, tuition must rise by 20 percent next year. c. Ryan moved to a new apartment and now pays 40 percent more rent than before. d. Arizona, which usually receives 10 inches of rain per year, received 11 inches last year.
answer
D
question
59. Teresa eats three oranges during a particular day. The marginal benefit she enjoys from eating the third orange a. can be thought of as the total benefit Teresa enjoys by eating three oranges minus the total benefit she would have enjoyed by eating just the first two oranges. b. determines Teresa's willingness to pay for the first, second, and third oranges. c. does not depend on how many oranges Teresa has already eaten. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
A
question
60. A rational decisionmaker takes an action if and only if a. the marginal benefit of the action exceeds the marginal cost of the action. b. the marginal cost of the action exceeds the marginal benefit of the action. c. the marginal cost of the action is zero. d. the opportunity cost of the action is zero.
answer
A
question
61. After much consideration, you have chosen Cancun over Ft. Lauderdale as your Spring Break destination this year. However, Spring Break is still months away, and you may reverse this decision. Which of the following events would prompt you to reverse this decision? a. The marginal benefit of going to Cancun increases. b. The marginal cost of going to Cancun decreases. c. The marginal benefit of going to Ft. Lauderdale decreases. d. The marginal cost of going to Ft. Lauderdale decreases.
answer
D
question
62. The average cost per seat on the 50-passenger Floating-On-Air Bus company's trip from Kansas City to St. Louis, on which no refreshments are served, is $45. In advance of a particular trip, three seats remain unsold. The bus company could increase its profit only if it a. charged any ticket price above $0 for the three remaining seats. b. charged at least $15 for each of the three remaining seats. c. charged at least $45 for each of the three remaining seats. d. paid three people to occupy the three remaining seats.
answer
A
question
63. Warren drinks four cups of coffee during a particular day. The marginal benefit he enjoys from drinking the fourth cup a. can be thought of as the total benefit Warren enjoys by drinking four cups minus the total benefit he would have enjoyed by drinking just three cups. b. determines Warren's willingness to pay for the fourth cup. c. is likely different from the marginal benefit provided to Warren by the third cup. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
64. A rational decision maker takes an action only if the a. marginal benefit is less than the marginal cost. b. marginal benefit is greater than the marginal cost. c. average benefit is greater than the average cost. d. marginal benefit is greater than both the average cost and the marginal cost.
answer
B
question
65. A construction company has built 50 houses so far this year at a total cost to the company of $8 million. If the company builds a 51st house, its total cost will increase to $8.18 million. Which of the following statements is correct? a. For the first 50 houses, the average cost per house was $160,000. b. The marginal cost of the 51st house, if it is built, will be $180,000. c. If the company can experience a marginal benefit of $190,000 by building the 51st house, then the company should build it. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
66. Mike has spent $500 purchasing and repairing an old fishing boat, which he expects to sell for $800 once the repairs are complete. Mike discovers that, in addition to the $500 he has already spent, he needs to make an additional repair, which will cost another $400, in order to make the boat worth $800 to potential buyers. He can sell the boat as it is now for $300. What should he do? a. He should sell the boat as it is now for $300. b. He should keep the boat since it would not be rational to spend $900 on repairs and then sell the boat for $800. c. He should complete the repairs and sell the boat for $800. d. It does not matter which action he takes; the outcome is the same either way.
answer
C
question
67. A donut shop sells fresh baked donuts from 5 a.m. until 3 p.m. every day. The shop does not sell day-old donuts, so all unsold donuts are thrown away at 3 p.m. each day. The cost of making and selling a dozen donuts is $1.50; there are no costs associated with throwing donuts away. If the manager has 10 dozen donuts left at 2:30 p.m. on a particular day, which of the following alternatives is most attractive? a. Lower the price of the remaining donuts, even if the price falls below $1.50 per dozen. b. Lower the price of the remaining donuts, but under no circumstances should the price fall below $1.50 per dozen. c. Throw the donuts away and produce 10 fewer dozen donuts tomorrow. d. Starting tomorrow, lower the price on all donuts so they will all be sold earlier in the day.
answer
A
question
68. Stan buys a 1966 Mustang for $2,000, planning to restore and sell the car. He goes on to spend $8,000 restoring the car. At this point he can sell the car for $9,000. As an alternative, he can spend an additional $3,000 replacing the engine. With a new engine the car would sell for $12,000. Stan should a. complete the repairs and sell the car for $12,000. b. sell the car now for $9, 000. c. never try such an expensive project again. d. be indifferent between (i) selling the car now and (ii) replacing the engine and then selling it.
answer
D
question
69. Sarah buys and sells real estate. Two weeks ago, she paid $140,000 for a house on Oak Street, intending to spend $20,000 on repairs sell the house for $175,000. Last week, the city government announced a plan to build a "halfway house" for convicted criminals on Oak Street. As a result of the city's announced plan, Sarah is weighing two alternatives: She can go ahead with the $20,000 in repairs and then sell the house for $135,000, or she can forgo the repairs and sell the house as it is for $120,000. Sarah should a. keep the house and live in it. b. go ahead with the $20,000 in repairs and sell the house for $135,000. c. forgo the repairs and sell the house as it is for $120,000. d. move the house from Oak Street to a more desirable location, irrespective of the cost of doing so.
answer
C
question
70. People are willing to pay more for a diamond than for a bottle of water because a. the marginal cost of producing an extra diamond far exceeds the marginal cost of producing an extra bottle of water. b. the marginal benefit of an extra diamond far exceeds the marginal benefit of an extra bottle of water. c. producers of diamonds have a much greater ability to manipulate diamond prices than producers of water have to manipulate water prices. d. water prices are held artificially low by governments, since water is necessary for life.
answer
B
question
71. Economists are particularly adept at understanding that people respond to a. laws. b. incentives. c. punishments more than rewards. d. rewards more than punishments.
answer
B
question
95. Which of the following statements about markets is most accurate? a. Markets are usually a good way to organize economic activity. b. Markets are usually inferior to central planning as a way to organize economic activity. c. Markets fail and are therefore not an acceptable way to organize economic activity. d. Markets are a good way to organize economic activity in developed nations, but not in less developed nations.
answer
A
question
96. Which of the following statements does not apply to a market economy? a. Firms decide whom to hire and what to produce. b. No one is looking out for the economic well-being of society as a whole. c. Households decide which firms to work for and what to buy with their incomes. d. Government policies are the primary forces that guide the decisions of firms and households.
answer
D
question
97. In a market economy, who makes the decisions that guide most economic activity? a. firms only b. households only c. firms and households d. government
answer
C
question
98. The decisions of firms and households are guided by prices and self-interest in a a. command economy. b. centrally-planned economy. c. market economy. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
C
question
99. In a market economy, economic activity is guided by a. the government. b. corporations. c. central planners. d. self-interest and prices.
answer
D
question
100. The term used to describe a situation in which markets fail to allocate resources efficiently is called a. economic meltdown. b. market failure. c. disequilibrium. d. the effect of the invisible hand.
answer
B
question
101. In an economy in which decisions are guided by prices and individual self-interest, there is a. the potential to achieve efficiency in production. b. a strong need for government intervention in the market. c. less efficiency than would be observed in a centrally-planned economy. d. more need for a strong legal system to control individual greed than would be needed in a centrally-planned economy.
answer
A
question
102. Prices direct economic activity in a market economy by a. influencing the actions of buyers and sellers. b. reducing scarcity of the goods and services produced. c. eliminating the need for government intervention. d. allocating goods and services in the most equitable way.
answer
A
question
103. A friend of yours asks you why market prices are better than government-determined prices. Because you understand economic principles, you say that market-determined prices are better because they generally reflect a. the value of a good to society, but not the cost of making it. b. the cost of making a good to society, but not its value. c. both the value of a good to society and the cost of making it. d. neither the value of a good to society nor the cost of making it.
answer
C
question
104. Which of the following firms is most likely to have market power? a. a fast food restaurant in a college town b. a wheat farm in Kansas c. the last gas station in New Mexico for 100 miles d. a shoe store in Kentucky
answer
C
question
105. An example of a firm with market power is a a. delicatessen in New York. b. cable TV provider in St. Louis. c. clothing store in Los Angeles. d. family farm in Illinois.
answer
B
question
106. One advantage market economies have over centrally-planned economies is that market economies a. provide an equal distribution of goods and services to households. b. establish a significant role for government in the allocation of resources. c. solve the problem of scarcity. d. are more efficient.
answer
D
question
107. Which of the following statements best characterizes a basic difference between market economies and centrally planned economies? a. Society relies more upon prices to allocate resources when the economy is centrally-planned than when it is market-based. b. The self-interest of households is reflected more fully in the outcome of a centrally-planned economy than in the outcome of a market economy. c. Government plays a larger role in the economic affairs of a market economy than in the economic affairs of a centrally-planned economy. d. None of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
108. The collapse of communism in the Soviet Union and Eastern Europe took place mainly in the a. 1960s. b. 1970s. c. 1980s. d. 1990s.
answer
C
question
109. The economy of the former Soviet Union is best described as a a. primitive economy. b. market economy. c. hybrid economy. d. centrally-planned economy.
answer
D
question
110. Prior to the collapse of communism, communist countries worked on the premise that economic well-being could be best attained by a. a market economy. b. a strong reliance on prices and individuals' self-interests. c. a system of large, government-operated, privately-owned firms. d. the actions of government central planners.
answer
D
question
111. Which of the following observations was made famous by Adam Smith in his book The Wealth of Nations? a. There is no such thing as a free lunch. b. People buy more when prices are low than when prices are high. c. No matter how much people earn, they tend to spend more than they earn. d. Households and firms interacting in markets are guided by an "invisible hand" that leads them to desirable market outcomes.
answer
D
question
112. The term "invisible hand" was coined by a. Adam Smith. b. David Ricardo. c. Karl Marx. d. Benjamin Franklin.
answer
A
question
113. The "invisible hand" directs economic activity through a. advertising. b. prices. c. central planning. d. government regulations.
answer
B
question
114. The idea that only the government can organize economic activity in a way that promotes economic well-being for a country as a whole a. is a basic principle regarding individual decision making. b. amounts to a denial of one of the basic principles regarding interactions among people. c. supports the idea that the "invisible hand" should guide economic activity. d. was promoted by the economist Adam Smith in a well-known 1776 book.
answer
B
question
115. Adam Smith argued that in a market system, when people act in their own self-interest, they typically a. help only themselves. b. harm others. c. help others, but not as much as they would have if they were not self-interested. d. help others even more than when they deliberately try to help others.
answer
D
question
116. The invisible hand's ability to coordinate the decisions of the firms and households in the economy can be hindered by a. government actions that distort prices. b. increased competition in markets. c. enforcement of property rights. d. too much attention paid to efficiency.
answer
A
question
117. When the "invisible hand" guides economic activity, prices of products reflect a. only the values that society places on those products. b. only the costs to society of producing those products. c. both the values that society places on those products and the costs to society of producing those products. d. none of the above; when the "invisible hand" guides economic activity, prices of products are set by the government in a manner that is thought to be "fair."
answer
C
question
118. Adam Smith's book The Wealth of Nations was published in a. 1692. b. 1776. c. 1816. d. 1936.
answer
B
question
119. Both The Wealth of Nations and the Declaration of Independence share the point of view that a. every person is entitled to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. b. individuals are best left to their own devices without the government guiding their actions. c. the government plays a central role in organizing a market economy. d. because of human nature a strong legal system is necessary for a market system to survive.
answer
B
question
120. The invisible hand works to promote general well-being in the economy primarily through a. government intervention. b. the political process. c. people's pursuit of self-interest. d. altruism.
answer
C
question
121. Taxes adversely affect the allocation of resources in society because a. they do not always fall more heavily on the rich than on the poor. b. the taxes collected are not enough to finance government spending. c. not everyone pays taxes. d. they distort prices and thus distort the decisions of households and firms.
answer
D
question
122. A primary function of prices in a market economy is to provide participants with a. relevant economic information. b. relevant spending limits. c. an equitable distribution of goods and services. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
A
question
123. When the government prevents prices from adjusting naturally to supply and demand, a. it stabilizes the economy by reducing market uncertainties. b. it adversely affects the allocation of resources. c. the improvement in equity justifies the reduction in efficiency. d. the improvement in efficiency justifies the reduction in equity.
answer
B
question
124. With respect to the attainment of an efficient allocation of resources, which of the following statements is correct? a. Markets are always a good way to organize economic activity. b. Markets are often a good way to organize economic activity. c. Markets are seldom a good way to organize economic activity. d. Markets are never a good way to organize economic activity.
answer
B
question
125. For markets to work well, there must be a. market power. b. a central planner. c. property rights. d. abundant, not scarce, resources.
answer
C
question
126. One reason we need government, even in a market economy, is that a. there are insufficient quantities of externalities in the absence of government. b. property rights become too entrenched in the absence of government. c. the invisible hand seldom leads to an efficient allocation of resources in any market. d. the invisible hand, while powerful, is not perfect.
answer
D
question
127. The basic principles of economics suggest that a. markets are seldom, if ever, a good way to organize economic activity. b. government should become involved in markets when trade between countries is involved. c. government should become involved in markets when those markets fail to produce efficient or equitable outcomes. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
C
question
128. One necessary role of government in a market economy is to a. impose taxes on those goods and services that are most desired by consumers. b. maintain welfare programs for the poor. c. provide services such as mail delivery and garbage collection. d. enforce property rights.
answer
D
question
129. The government enforces property rights by a. requiring property owners to pay property taxes. b. providing police and courts. c. forcing people to own property. d. providing public parks and recreation facilities.
answer
B
question
130. To say that government intervenes in the economy to promote efficiency is to say that government is attempting to a. create a more fair distribution of income. b. change the way in which the economic pie is divided. c. enlarge the economic pie. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
C
question
131. A company that formerly produced software went out of business because too many potential customers bought illegally-produced copies of the software instead of buying the product directly from the company. This instance serves as an example of a. market power. b. market failure. c. inadequate enforcement of property rights. d. the invisible hand at work.
answer
C
question
132. A rationale for government involvement in a market economy is as follows: a. Markets sometimes fail to produce a fair distribution of economic well-being. b. Markets sometimes fail to produce an efficient allocation of resources. c. Property rights have to be enforced. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
133. The term market failure refers to a. a situation in which the market on its own fails to allocate resources efficiently. b. an unsuccessful advertising campaign which reduces demand for a product. c. a situation in which competition among firms becomes ruthless. d. a firm which is forced out of business because of losses.
answer
A
question
134. Which of the following is not generally regarded as a legitimate reason for the government to intervene in a market? a. to promote efficiency b. to promote equity c. to enforce property rights d. to protect an industry from foreign competition
answer
D
question
135. Causes of market failure include a. externalities and market power. b. market power and incorrect forecasts of consumer demand. c. externalities and foreign competition. d. incorrect forecasts of consumer demand and foreign competition.
answer
A
question
136. Which of the following statements is not true? a. In the presence of a market failure, government action will always improve on the market outcome. b. In the presence of a market failure, government action can sometimes improve on the market outcome. c. In the presence of a market failure, government action might not improve on the market outcome because some leaders are not fully informed about the effects of their actions. d. In the presence of a market failure, government action might not improve on the market outcome because sometimes public policies simply reward the politically powerful.
answer
A
question
137. Market failure can be caused by a. low consumer demand. b. government intervention and price controls. c. externalities and market power. d. high prices and foreign competition.
answer
C
question
138. The term "market failure" a. means the same thing as "market power." b. refers to the dissolution of a market when firms decide to quit producing a certain product. c. refers to the failure of a market to produce an efficient allocation of resources. d. refers to government's failure to enforce the property rights of households or firms that participate in a certain market.
answer
C
question
139. An example of an externality is the impact of a. John's actions on Jane's well-being. b. John's actions on John's own well-being. c. society's decisions on society's well-being. d. society's decisions on John's well-being.
answer
A
question
140. An example of an externality is the impact of a. bad weather on the income of farmers. b. the personal income tax on a person's ability to purchase goods and services. c. pollution from a factory on the health of people in the vicinity of the factory. d. increases in health care costs on the health of individuals in society.
answer
C
question
141. If an externality is present in a market, economic efficiency may be enhanced by a. government intervention. b. increased competition. c. better informed market participants. d. weaker property rights.
answer
A
question
142. Which of these statements concerning externalities is correct? a. There would be no justification for government involvement in the economy if it were not for externalities. b. An externality can only arise when one person (or a small group of persons) has the ability to unduly influence market prices. c. An externality can arise only when two or more countries are engaged in trade with one another. d. An externality arises when one person's actions have an impact on the well-being of others.
answer
D
question
143. If a copper refinery does not bear the entire cost of the smoke it emits, it will a. not emit any smoke so as to avoid the entire cost of the smoke. b. emit lower levels of smoke. c. emit an acceptable level of smoke. d. emit too much smoke.
answer
D
question
144. Laws that restrict the smoking of cigarettes in public places are examples of government intervention that is intended to reduce a. the influence of the invisible hand. b. trade. c. externalities. d. market power.
answer
C
question
145. A market economy rewards people according to their a. need for goods and services. b. willingness to work. c. ability to produce things that other people are willing to pay for. d. ability to produce things of cultural importance.
answer
C
question
146. Market economies are distinguished from other types of economies largely on the basis of a. the political affiliations of government officials. b. the process by which government officials are elected or appointed. c. the ways in which scarce resources are allocated. d. the number of retail outlets available to consumers.
answer
C
question
147. Which of these consumption activities will most likely impose an external cost? a. An executive plays a vigorous game of golf. b. A student in a dorm plays her CDs at 120 decibels late at night. c. A young mother exercises to an aerobics video. d. A construction worker eats a sandwich during his lunch break.
answer
B
question
148. Which of these activities will most likely result in an external benefit? a. A college student buys a deck of cards to play solitaire in her dorm room. b. An elderly woman plants a flower garden on the vacant lot next to her house. c. An executive purchases a book to read on a business trip. d. A ten-year-old uses his allowance to buy new Nike shoes.
answer
B
question
149. If education produces external benefits for society, which of the following might NOT be an appropriate policy for society to adopt regarding education? a. tax incentives for schooling b. mandatory minimum levels of education c. programs which promote the hiring of high school dropouts d. public subsidies of education
answer
C
question
150. When a single person (or small group) has the ability to influence market prices, there is a. competition. b. market power. c. an externality. d. a lack of property rights.
answer
B
question
151. Market power refers to the a. power of a single person or small group to influence market prices. b. ability of a person or small group to successfully market new products. c. power of the government to regulate a market. d. importance of a certain market in relation to the overall economy.
answer
A
question
152. Which is the most correct statement about the invisible hand? a. The invisible hand always ensures both equity and efficiency. b. The invisible hand is more effective at ensuring equity than it is at ensuring efficiency. c. The invisible hand is more effective at ensuring efficiency than it is at ensuring equity. d. Market power is the instrument with which the invisible hand directs economic activity.
answer
C
question
153. According to Adam Smith, the success of decentralized market economies is primarily due to a. the basic benevolence of society. b. society's legal system. c. individuals' pursuit of self-interest. d. partnerships that are forged between business and government.
answer
C
question
154. The self-interest of the participants in an economy is guided into promoting general economic self-interest by a. the invisible hand. b. market power. c. government intervention. d. oikonomos.
answer
A
question
155. In the United States, higher income tax rates on rich people could be justified on the basis of a. superior decision-making by market participants. b. superior resource allocation. c. enhanced market efficiency. d. enhanced equity for society.
answer
D
question
156. The basic principles of economics imply that policymakers should a. rely on markets to guide economic activity, except when markets produce inefficient or inequitable outcomes. b. enact policies that discourage people from specializing in particular economic activities. c. enact policies that lead to high rates of growth of the quantity of money. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
A
question
157. The primary determinant of a country's standard of living is a. the country's ability to prevail over foreign competition. b. the country's ability to produce goods and services. c. the total supply of money in the economy. d. the average age of the country's labor force.
answer
B
question
160. The income of a typical worker in a country is most closely linked to which of the following? a. population b. productivity c. market power d. government policies
answer
B
question
161. The term "productivity" a. means the same thing as "efficiency." b. is seldom used by economists, as its meaning is not precise. c. refers to the quantity of goods and services produced from each hour of a worker's time. d. refers to the variety of goods and services from which households can choose when they shop.
answer
C
question
162. If the average income of an Australian is higher than the average income of a Russian, it is most likely because a. productivity is higher in Australia than in Russia. b. Australia has a more industrial economy than Russia. c. there is more competition in Australia than in Russia. d. labor unions are more powerful in Australia than in Russia.
answer
A
question
163. Suppose that the average income of a Kenyan is higher than the average income of a South African. You might conclude that a. South African firms are faced with stricter government regulations than Kenyan firms. b. total income is divided among fewer workers in Kenya since it has a smaller labor force than South Africa. c. Kenya's climate allows for longer growing seasons and therefore Kenya can produce large quantities of grain and other crops. d. productivity in Kenya is higher than in South Africa.
answer
D
question
164. A typical worker in Italy can produce 24 units of product in an eight-hour day, while a typical worker in Poland can produce 25 units of product in a 10-hour day. We can conclude that a. worker productivity in Poland is higher than in Italy. b. the standard of living will likely be higher in Italy than in Poland. c. productivity is 3 units per hour for the Polish worker and 21/2 units per hour for the Italian worker. d. there will be no difference between the standard of living in Italy and Poland.
answer
B
question
165. A worker in Bangladesh can earn $1 per day making cotton cloth on a hand loom. A worker in the United States can earn $100 per day making cotton cloth with a mechanical loom. What accounts for the difference in wages? a. U.S. textile workers belong to a union. b. There is little demand for cotton cloth in Bangladesh and great demand in the U.S. c. Labor is more productive making cotton cloth with a mechanical loom than with a hand loom. d. Bangladesh has a low-wage policy to make its textile industry more competitive in world markets.
answer
C
question
168. Almost all variation in living standards is attributable to differences in countries' a. population growth rates. b. productivity. c. systems of public education. d. taxes.
answer
B
question
169. Productivity is defined as the a. amount of goods and services produced from each hour of a worker's time. b. number of workers required to produce a given amount of goods and services. c. amount of labor which can be saved by replacing workers with machines. d. actual amount of effort workers put into an hour of working time.
answer
A
question
170. The amount of goods and services produced from each hour of a worker's time is called a. total output. b. productivity. c. marginal product. d. efficiency.
answer
B
question
171. A direct or positive relationship exists between a country's a. productivity and its standard of living. b. amount of government spending and its productivity. c. total population and its average citizen's income. d. rate of population growth and the extent of its trade with other countries.
answer
A
question
172. The historical rise in living standards of American workers is primarily a result of a. the influence of labor unions in America. b. tariff protection imposed by the American government. c. the enactment of minimum-wage laws in America. d. the rise in American productivity.
answer
D
question
173. The fact that different countries experience different standards of living is largely explained by differences in those countries' a. populations. b. productivity levels. c. locations. d. none of the above; economists are puzzled by differences in standards of living around the world.
answer
B
question
176. To improve living standards, policymakers should a. impose restriction on foreign competition. b. formulate policies designed to increase productivity. c. impose tougher immigration policies. d. provide tax breaks for the middle class.
answer
B
question
177. Policies to enhance living standards should be designed to ensure that workers a. have access to the best available methods of producing goods and services. b. have the appropriate equipment to produce goods and services. c. receive good educations. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
178. To increase living standards, public policy should a. ensure that workers are well educated and have the necessary tools and technology. b. make unemployment benefits more generous. c. move workers into jobs directly from high school. d. ensure a greater degree of equity, taking all income-earners into account.
answer
A
question
179. To raise productivity, policymakers could a. increase spending on education. b. provide tax credits to firms for capital improvements. c. fund research and development. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
D
question
180. An increase in the overall level of prices in an economy is referred to as a. economic growth. b. inflation. c. the price effect. d. the demand effect.
answer
B
question
181. Inflation is defined as a. a period of rising productivity in the economy. b. a period of rising income in the economy. c. an increase in the overall level of output in the economy. d. an increase in the overall level of prices in the economy.
answer
D
question
200. To promote good economic outcomes, policymakers should strive to enact policies that a. enhance productivity. b. enhance individuals' market power. c. result in a rapidly-growing quantity of money. d. All of the above are correct.
answer
A
question
206. In a particular country in 1995, the average worker needed to work 25 hours to produce 40 units of output. In that same country in 2005, the average worker needed to work 40 hours to produce 68 units of output. In that country, the productivity of the average worker a. decreased by 1.7 percent between 1995 and 2005. b. remained unchanged between 1995 and 2005. c. increased by 4.75 percent between 1995 and 2005. d. increased by 6.25 percent between 1995 and 2005.
answer
D
question
207. In a particular country in 1995, the average worker needed to work 30 hours to produce 40 units of output. In that same country in 2005, the average worker needed to work 20 hours to produce 29 units of output. In that country, the productivity of the average worker a. decreased between 1995 and 2005, so we would expect the standard of living to have decreased accordingly. b. increased between 1995 and 2005, so we would expect the standard of living to have increased accordingly. c. decreased between 1995 and 2005, so we would expect inflation to have decreased accordingly. d. increased between 1995 and 2005, so we would expect inflation to have increased accordingly.
answer
B
question
208. In the imaginary country of Countriana, in 1996, the average worker had to work 10 hours to produce 20 units of output. In that same country in 2006, the average worker needed to work 18 hours to produce 36 units of output. In that country, the productivity of the average worker a. increased by 2 percent between 1996 and 2006. b. increased by 5 percent between 1996 and 2006. c. remained unchanged between 1996 and 2006. d. decreased by 3 percent between 1996 and 2006.
answer
C
question
1. Scarcity means that there is less of a good or resource available than people wish to have.
answer
T
question
2. Economics is the study of how fairly goods and services are distributed within society.
answer
F
question
3. With careful planning, we can usually get something that we like without having to give up something else that we like.
answer
F
question
4. Equity means everyone in the economy should receive an equal share of the goods and services produced.
answer
F
question
5. Equity refers to how the pie is divided, and efficiency refers to the size of the economic pie.
answer
T
question
6. Tuition is the single-largest cost of attending college for most students.
answer
F
question
7. The cost of an action is measured in terms of foregone opportunities.
answer
T
question
8. A marginal change is a small incremental adjustment to an existing plan of action.
answer
T
question
9. If the average cost of transporting a passenger on the train from Chicago to St. Louis is $75, it would be irrational for the railroad to allow any passenger to ride for less than $75.
answer
F
question
10. A rational decisionmaker takes an action if and only if the marginal cost exceeds the marginal benefit.
answer
F
question
13. A market economy cannot produce a socially desirable outcome because individuals are motivated by their own selfish interests.
answer
F
question
14. The government can potentially improve market outcomes if market inequalities or market failure exists.
answer
T
question
15. Market failure refers to a situation in which the market does not allocate resources efficiently.
answer
T
question
16. Since taxes affect only the price paid by the buyer, they cannot have an adverse impact on the allocation of society's resources.
answer
F
question
17. Productivity is defined as the quantity of goods and services produced from each hour of a worker's time.
answer
T
question
18. Productivity is the primary determinant of a country's living standards.
answer
T
question
19. Inflation increases the value of money.
answer
F
question
1. How does the study of economics depend upon the phenomenon of scarcity?
answer
Since economics is the study of how society allocates its scarce resources, if there were no scarcity, there would be no need for economics. Everyone could have all the goods and services they wanted. No one would have to make decisions based on tradeoffs, because there would be no opportunity cost associated with the decision. (It is difficult to conceive of a situation where time is not scarce, however).
question
2. One tradeoff society faces is between efficiency and equity. Define each term. If the U.S. government redistributes income from the rich to the poor, explain how this action affects equity as well as efficiency in the economy.
answer
Efficiency is the property of society getting the most it can from its scarce resources. Equity is defined as the property of distributing economic prosperity fairly among the members of society. Often, these two goals conflict. When the government redistributes income from the rich to the poor, it reduces the reward for working hard. Fewer goods and services are produced and the economic pie gets smaller. When the government tries to cut the economic pie into more equal slices, the pie gets smaller. Policies aimed at achieving a more equal distribution of economic well-being, such as the welfare system, try to help those members of society who are most in need. The individual income tax asks the financially successful to contribute more than others to support the government.
question
3. Define opportunity cost. What is the opportunity cost to you of attending college? What was your opportunity cost of coming to class today?
answer
Whatever must be given up to obtain some item it its opportunity cost. Basically, this would be a person's second choice. The opportunity cost of a person attending college is the value of the best alternative use of that person's time. For most students this would be the income the student gives up by not working. A student's opportunity cost of coming to class was the value of the best opportunity the student gave up. (For most students, that seems to be sleep.)
question
4. With the understanding that people respond to incentives, outline the possible outcome for teachers if the K-12 school year is extended to 11 months per year instead of the existing 9 months per year.
answer
The concept of working longer per year would be perceived by many teachers as a definite increase in the cost of teaching. Even with additional compensation, many teachers look at summers off as a major benefit of the education profession. If this benefit were eliminated or diminished, some teachers may perceive that the marginal cost of teaching would now be greater than the marginal benefit and would choose to leave teaching.
question
5. Under what conditions might government intervention in a market economy improve the economy's performance?
answer
If there is a market failure, such as an externality or monopoly, government regulation might improve the well-being of society by promoting efficiency. If the distribution of income or wealth is considered to be unfair by society, government intervention might achieve a more equitable distribution of economic well-being.
question
6. Explain how an attempt by the government to lower inflation could cause unemployment to increase in the shortrun.
answer
To lower inflation, the government may choose to reduce the money supply in the economy. When the money supply is reduced, prices don't adjust immediately. Lower spending, combined with prices that are too high, reduces sales and causes workers to be laid off. Hence, the lower price level is associated with higher unemployment.
Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New