E-Man Chapter 16 – Flashcards
103 test answers
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5. According to Frederick Herzberg, things related to the work environment are satisfier factors.
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False
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6. According to Herzberg, improving the hygiene factors increases job satisfaction and motivation.
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False
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7. High need achievers prefer achievable but challenging goals and expect feedback on performance.
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True
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8. McClelland believes that the need for personal power is essential to managerial leadership.
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False
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9. In McClelland's view, the successful executive is likely to possess a high need for social power that is greater than an otherwise strong need for affiliation.
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True
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10. The equity theory states that people who are treated unfairly will be motivated to act in ways that reduce the perceived inequity.
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True
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11. Under-reward inequity occurs when an individual perceives that his or her outcomes-to-inputs ratio is greater than that of his or her referent.
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False
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12. According to Stacy Adams, to deal with negative inequity, people change their work inputs by putting less effort into their jobs.
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True
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13. Benevolents are people who have a desire to be over-rewarded.
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False
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14. Performance-outcome expectancy refers to a person's belief that successful performance will be followed by rewards and other work related outcomes.
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True
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15. Expectancy theory predicts that high expectancy, instrumentality, and valence will result in zero motivation.
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False
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16. Managers can create positive instrumentalities by rewarding people on a performance-contingent basis.
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True
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17. Locke's goal-setting theory states that task goals can be motivating when they are set through participatory means.
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True
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18. Verbal persuasion is a way of enhancing self-efficacy by praising the efforts of a person performing a job.
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True
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19. Extinction strategies are employed to strengthen or increase the frequency of desirable behavior.
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False
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20. An intermittent reinforcement schedule works best to draw forth a desired behavior.
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False
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21. Punishment strategies can be effective when the managers focus on the undesirable behavior rather than the characteristics of the person.
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True
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22. Job enrichment works best when people have appropriate knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the job.
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True
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23. Job rotation makes jobs vertically bigger by expanding the job depth.
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False
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24. Flexible working hours help to reduce stress and also provide greater autonomy to employees.
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True
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25. Employees receive two consecutive days off from work each week in a compressed workweek schedule.
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False
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26. Which of the following is regarded as a lower-order need in Maslow's hierarchy? A. Esteem B. Freedom C. Safety D. Self-actualization concern E. Identity
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C
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27. According to Maslow's theory of human needs, ________ is a higher-order need. A. existence B. physical comfort C. safety D. social concern E. esteem
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E
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28. In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, lower-order needs differ from higher-order needs as higher-order needs: A. focus on desires for good-interpersonal relationships. B. are addressed by things such as physical comfort on the job and reasonable work hours. C. focus on desires for psychological development and growth. D. are served by job security and adequate compensation and benefits. E. focus on desires for physical and social well-being.
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C
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29. The ________ states that a satisfied need is not a motivator of behavior. A. expectancy theory B. progression principle C. self-efficacy theory D. deficit principle E. frustration-regression principle
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D
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30. The ________ states that a need does not become activated until the next-lower-level need is already satisfied. A. expectancy theory B. deficit principle C. self-efficacy theory D. frustration-regression principle E. progression principle
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E
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31. ________ satisfies the self-actualization needs. A. Praise and recognition from boss B. Participation in decision making C. Safe working conditions D. Promotion to higher status job E. Pleasant supervisor
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B
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32. Esteem needs are satisfied by ________. A. promotion to higher status job B. a pleasant supervisor C. adequate compensation and benefits D. participation in decision making E. safe working conditions
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A
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33. Creative and challenging work, and job autonomy satisfy ________ needs. A. physiological B. esteem C. self-actualization D. social E. safety
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C
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34. Which of the following satisfies social needs? A. Adequate compensation and benefits B. Physical comfort on the job C. Safe working conditions D. Pleasant supervisor E. Promotion to higher status job
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D
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35. ________ needs are served by job security and adequate compensation and benefits. A. Social B. Safety C. Self-actualization D. Esteem E. Physiological
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B
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36. ________ satisfies esteem needs. A. Physical comfort on the job B. Praise and recognition from boss C. Adequate compensation and benefits D. Interaction with customers E. Reasonable work hours
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B
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37. ________ satisfies lower-order physiological needs. A. Adequate compensation and benefits B. Physical comfort on the job C. Safe working conditions D. Friendly coworkers E. Creative and challenging work
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B
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38. According to the ERG theory, ________ needs are desires for physical well-being. A. growth B. safety C. relatedness D. existence E. power
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D
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39. According to the ERG theory proposed by Clayton Alderfer, relatedness needs are desires for: A. physiological and material well-being. B. recognition, responsibility, and job autonomy. C. psychological growth and development. D. personal growth and development. E. satisfying interpersonal relationships.
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E
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40. ________ needs described by Clayton Alderfer are essentially the same as the higher-order needs in Maslow's hierarchy. A. Esteem B. Relatedness C. Growth D. Existence E. Social
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C
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41. Which of the following states that an already satisfied need can become reactivated when a higher-level need is blocked? A. Progression principle B. Self-efficacy theory C. Deficit principle D. Frustration-regression principle E. Expectancy theory
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D
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42. According to Frederick Herzberg's two-factor theory, a satisfier factor is found in the job content, such as ________. A. working conditions B. advancement opportunities C. organizational policies D. interpersonal relations E. compensation
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B
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43. In Herzberg's two-factor theory, interpersonal relations are regarded as ________ factors. A. satisfier B. equity C. valence D. hygiene E. compensation
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D
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44. According to McClelland's theory, ________ is the desire to do something better, to solve problems, or to master complex tasks. A. need for power B. need for autonomy C. need for achievement D. need for affiliation E. need for participation
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C
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45. Acquired needs theory states that people with a high need for achievement: A. seek satisfying interpersonal relationships. B. prefer collective responsibility for results. C. tend to like jobs that involve working with people. D. take moderate risks in competitive situations. E. behave in ways that have a clear impact on other people.
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D
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46. According to McClelland, people with a high need for power: A. put their competencies to work. B. seek satisfying interpersonal relationships. C. must be able to master complex tasks. D. take moderate risks in competitive situations. E. behave in ways that have a clear impact on other people.
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E
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47. According to the acquired needs theory, the need for ________ is the desire to control other people, to influence their behavior, or be responsible for them. A. power B. achievement C. participation D. affiliation E. accomplishment
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A
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48. Need for ________ is the desire to establish and maintain friendly and warm relations with other people. A. accomplishment B. achievement C. power D. autonomy E. affiliation
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E
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49. According to the acquired needs theory, people with a high need for ________ seek companionship, social approval, and satisfying interpersonal relationships. A. autonomy B. affiliation C. accomplishment D. achievement E. power
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B
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50. ________ theory suggests that being treated unfairly makes people uncomfortable and motivates them to eliminate the discomfort. A. Acquired needs B. Two-factor C. Equity D. Hierarchy of needs E. ERG
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C
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51. According to equity theory, ________ is an outcome. A. quality of work B. education C. experience D. special skills E. job security
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E
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52. ________ occur(s) whenever people feel that the rewards they receive for their work contributions are unfair in comparison to the rewards received by someone else. A. Frustration-regression B. Continuous reinforcements C. Extinction D. Perceived inequities E. Negative reinforcement
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D
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53. Over-reward inequity occurs when an individual perceives that: A. his outcomes-to-inputs ratio is lower than that of his referent. B. the reward he has received for his work is not matching his inputs. C. he is receiving less than he should in comparison to somebody else. D. his outcomes-to-inputs ratio is greater than that of his referent. E. the reward he has received for his efforts is fair.
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D
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54. The concept of ________ proposes that people have different preferences for equity and thus react differently to perceptions of inequity. A. positive reinforcement B. instrumentality C. equity sensitivity D. perceived inequities E. negative reinforcement
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C
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55. People who are less concerned about being under-rewarded are called ________. A. referents B. benevolents C. influencers D. sensitives E. entitleds
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B
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56. ________ are those who have a strong preference for rewards to be distributed equitably, so they react as the basic equity theory proposes. A. Influencers B. Altruists C. Sensitives D. Benevolents E. Entitleds
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C
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57. ________ are people who try to create situations of positive inequity for themselves and react very negatively to any situations of negative inequity that they experience. A. Altruists B. Sensitives C. Affiliates D. Benevolents E. Entitleds
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E
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58. Benevolents differ from entitleds as benevolents ________. A. create situations of positive inequity for themselves B. have a strong preference for rewards to be distributed equitably C. have a desire to be over-rewarded D. more readily accept situations of negative inequity E. are very concerned about being under-rewarded
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D
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59. Which of the following is true about sensitives and entitleds? A. Both are less concerned about being under-rewarded. B. Both readily accept situations of negative inequity. C. Both have a strong preference for rewards. D. Both create situations of positive inequity for themselves. E. Both have a strong preference for rewards to be distributed equitably.
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C
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60. ________ is a person's belief that working hard will result in high task performance. A. Instrumentality B. Expectancy C. Resiliency D. Equity E. Efficacy
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B
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61. According to Vroom's theory of motivation, if a person believes that he or she can achieve the performance level necessary to get promoted, the person is said to have ________. A. high benevolence B. positive expectancy C. positive instrumentality D. high need for affiliation E. positive valence
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B
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62. A person's belief that successful performance will be followed by rewards and other work-related outcomes is known as ________. A. resiliency B. competency C. efficacy D. instrumentality E. valence
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D
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63. According to expectancy theory, if a person has high instrumentality, he will: A. not value the rewards being offered. B. lack the confidence that he will be promoted if he improves his performance. C. believe that he can meet the performance expectations through hard work. D. be able to link high performance and available rewards. E. perceive himself to be under-rewarded for his efforts compared to other coworkers.
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D
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64. Which of the following is true about valence? A. It is sometimes called performance-outcome expectancy. B. It is the desire to establish good relations with coworkers. C. It refers to a person's belief that working hard will result in a desired level of task performance being achieved. D. It indicates that successful performance will be followed by rewards. E. It is the value a person assigns to the possible rewards and other work-related outcomes.
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E
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65. According to Vroom's expectancy theory, managers can build positive expectancies by: A. setting challenging goals and making people work hard to achieve those goals even though they lack the ability and resources to complete the tasks. B. clarifying the rewards for high performance. C. selecting workers with the right abilities for the jobs to be done and providing them with the best training and development. D. increasing the communication with the subordinates to help identify important employee needs and benefits. E. allotting rewards fairly on a performance-contingent basis.
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C
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66. Which of the following measures when employed will help managers to create positive instrumentalities among employees? A. Providing employees with the best training and development B. Linking the needs and desires of employees with the rewards that can be earned through high performance C. Increasing communication with subordinates to help identify important employee needs and desires D. Clarifying the possible rewards on high performance and allocating those rewards fairly on a performance-contingent basis E. Selecting workers with the right abilities for the jobs to be done
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D
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67. Managers can effectively obtain the motivational benefits of goal setting by: A. encouraging the employees to do their best instead of mentioning what is expected of them. B. setting goals that are easily attainable so that the employees do not have the fear of failure in performing a task. C. providing feedback on the performance related to the assigned goal and rewarding people on the accomplishment of those goals. D. letting the employees decide the goals they want to accomplish rather than making them aware of management's expectations. E. giving challenging goals to the employees and pressurizing them to meet the expectations.
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C
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68. ________ is a person's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. A. Expectancy B. Self-efficacy C. Instrumentality D. Credibility E. Competency
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B
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69. According to Albert Bandura, if a person gains confidence through positive experience, it is referred to as ________. A. emotional arousal B. vicarious modeling C. social persuasion D. verbal persuasion E. enactive mastery
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E
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70. Which of the following sources helps to enhance self-efficacy through learning by observing others succeed at a task? A. Social persuasion B. Verbal persuasion C. Emotional arousal D. Vicarious modeling E. Enactive mastery
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D
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71. ________ is a way of enhancing self-efficacy of a person by telling the person that she or he can, or by encouraging the person to perform a task. A. Emotional arousal B. Vicarious modeling C. Verbal persuasion D. Enactive mastery E. Moral disengagement
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C
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72. The ________ states that behavior that results in a positive outcome is likely to be repeated, and the behavior that results in a negative outcome is not likely to be repeated. A. law of contingent reinforcement B. progression principle C. law of effect D. deficit principle E. law of immediate reinforcement
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C
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73. ________ is the control of behavior by manipulating its consequences. A. Relative benchmarking B. Verbal persuasion C. Vicarious modeling D. Operant conditioning E. Concurrent control
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D
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74. ________ strengthens behavior by making a desirable consequence contingent on its occurrence. A. Vicarious modeling B. Extinction C. Punishment D. Job rotation E. Positive reinforcement
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E
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75. Natalie encourages her employees by recognizing and immediately rewarding a good performance, so that it motivates the employee as well as others to consistently perform well. This type of strategy to increase the frequency of desirable behavior is known as ________. A. vicarious modeling B. job rotation C. positive reinforcement D. extinction E. punishment
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C
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76. ________ strengthens behavior by making the avoidance of an undesirable consequence contingent on its occurrence. A. Punishment B. Negative reinforcement C. Extinction D. Job rotation E. Vicarious modeling
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B
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77. Martin encourages the employees who have not been meeting the expectations of the job by ignoring minor issues when they meet his expectations. This type of strategy used to strengthen the desirable behavior is called ________. A. extinction B. intermittent reinforcement C. positive reinforcement D. punishment E. negative reinforcement
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E
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78. ________ is a strategy of reinforcement that discourages behavior by making an unpleasant consequence contingent on its occurrence. A. Positive reinforcement B. Extinction C. Punishment D. Negative reinforcement E. Vicarious modeling
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C
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79. ________ is a reinforcement strategy that discourages behavior by making the removal of a desirable consequence contingent on its occurrence. A. Negative reinforcement B. Vicarious modeling C. Positive reinforcement D. Extinction E. Punishment
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D
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80. Justin notices that one of his employees has been coming late to work and his team members have been shielding him. Justin counsels the coworkers to stop shielding him and to not encourage him to be late to work. This type of reinforcement strategy is known as ________. A. negative reinforcement B. extinction C. intermittent reinforcement D. positive reinforcement E. punishment
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B
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81. Which of the following is true about punishment and extinction strategies? A. Both of these strategies weaken or eliminate undesirable behaviors. B. Both of these strategies strengthen desirable behavior by making a desirable consequence contingent on its occurrence. C. Both of these strategies make the removal of a pleasant consequence contingent on its performance. D. Both of these strategies strengthen desirable behavior when it occurs. E. Both of these strategies make an unpleasant consequence contingent on its occurrence.
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A
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82. ________ is positive reinforcement of successive approximations to the desired behavior. A. Chaining B. Horizontal loading C. Job rotation D. Vertical loading E. Shaping
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E
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83. A(n) ________ reinforcement schedule administers a reward each time a desired behavior occurs. A. conditioned B. continuous C. immediate D. intermittent E. annual
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B
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84. A schedule that rewards desired behavior only periodically is known as a(n) ________ reinforcement schedule. A. ongoing B. unconditioned C. intermittent D. continuous E. immediate
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C
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85. The ________ states that for a reward to have maximum enhancement value, it must be delivered only if the desired behavior is exhibited. A. law of effect B. deficit principle C. law of immediate reinforcement D. frustration-regression principle E. law of contingent reinforcement
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E
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86. The law of immediate reinforcement states that: A. a punishment should be administered in private. B. a behavior that results in a pleasant outcome is likely to be repeated. C. a satisfied need does not motivate behavior. D. an instant delivery of a reward after the occurrence of a desirable behavior enhances the motivation value of the reward. E. a satisfied need can become activated when a higher level need is blocked.
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D
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87. ________ is a process of arranging work tasks for individuals and groups. A. Task analysis B. Operant conditioning C. Work scope D. Resource management E. Job design
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E
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88. ________ employs people in clearly defined and specialized tasks with narrow job scope. A. Job enlargement B. Job simplification C. Vertical loading D. Job enrichment E. Job rotation
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B
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89. One way to eliminate problems associated with job simplification by total mechanization of a job is ________. A. job sharing B. job enrichment C. automation D. job enlargement E. shaping
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C
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90. ________ helps in eliminating the problems associated with job simplification by increasing the task variety by periodically shifting workers between different jobs. A. Job enrichment B. Vertical loading C. Job enlargement D. Job rotation E. Automation
answer
D
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91. ________ increases task variety by combining into one job two or more tasks previously done by separate workers. A. Vertical loading B. Job enlargement C. Job enrichment D. Job rotation E. Automation
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B
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92. Nathan, a supervisor in a tea manufacturing firm, observes that the employees are not happy with their jobs as they find it monotonous. They get bored of doing the same thing everyday. Nathan tries to deal with this problem by combining two or three tasks that were previously done by different employees and allotting a single person to perform the task. The method employed by Nathan to increase the task variety is called job ________. A. sharing B. rotation C. simplification D. enrichment E. enlargement
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E
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93. Job ________ increases job depth by adding work planning and evaluating duties normally performed by the supervisor. A. rotation B. simplification C. enrichment D. sharing E. enlargement
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C
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94. A job that requires a variety of activities to be carried out and involves the use of varied expertise and talent of the employee is high on ________. A. task identity B. skill variety C. autonomy D. task significance E. task analysis
answer
B
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95. If a job is redesigned to involve a major part of the work to be completed by a single person in order to produce a visible outcome, then it is high on ________. A. job enlargement B. task significance C. task identity D. skill variety E. task analysis
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C
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96. A job that provides a person the complete authority to schedule the work and choose the course of action is high in ________. A. task significance B. task identity C. skill variety D. autonomy E. task analysis
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D
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97. A work schedule that allows a full-time job to be completed in less than the standard five days of 8-hour shifts is referred to as ________. A. seasonal employment B. temp job C. compressed workweek D. flextime E. weekend work schedule
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C
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98. Which of the following helps in providing flexibility to workers by splitting a full-time job between two or more people? A. Flextime B. Telecommuting C. Office sharing D. Co-working E. Job sharing
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E
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99. ________ is an arrangement that allows at least a portion of scheduled work hours to be completed outside the office. A. Compressed workweek B. Automation C. Job sharing D. Telecommuting E. Contingency
answer
D
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100. The workers who are employed on a part-time and temporary basis to supplement the regular workforce are called ________. A. overtime workers B. permatemps C. flextime workers D. virtual workers E. contingency workers
answer
E
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101. How does the Alderfer's ERG theory differ from Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory?
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Answer: Maslow's theory classifies human needs as lower-order needs and higher-order needs. It states that a satisfied need is not a motivator of behavior. It states that five needs exist in a hierarchy and that a need does not become activated until the next-lower-level need is already satisfied. People are expected to advance step by step up the hierarchy in their attempt to satisfy the lowest-level need that is currently unfulfilled. In contrast, Alderfer's ERG theory groups human needs into three categories. This theory suggests that any or all needs can influence individual behavior at a given time. ERG theory does not assume that certain needs must be satisfied before other needs become activated. Alderfer also believes that satisfied needs do not lose their motivational impact and that they can become reactivated and influence behavior when a higher-level need cannot be satisfied.
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102. How can managers effectively use positive reinforcement to increase the frequency of desirable behavior?
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Answer: Positive reinforcement can be effective when managers: • clearly identify desired work behaviors. • maintain a diverse inventory of rewards. • inform everyone what must be done to get rewards. • recognize individual differences when allocating rewards. • follow the laws of immediate and contingent reinforcement.
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103. What are the advantages and disadvantages of telecommuting?
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Answer: The advantages of telecommuting are: • Increased productivity • Fewer distractions • Less time spent on commuting to and from work • Freedom to schedule work timings The disadvantages of telecommuting are: • Spending more time on work • Difficulty in separating work and personal life • Devoting less time for family
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