question

stages in the helping relationship

answer

beginning, middle, and ending phases; contact, contract, action, termination

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problem-solving process

answer

engaging, assessing, planning, intervening, evaluating, terminating

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referral process

answer

clarifying need or purpose; researching resources; discussing and selecting options with client; planning for initial contact; initial contact between client and referral source; follow-up to see if need was met

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social worker/client relationship

answer

connecting bond of feeling between interviewer and interviewee that gives a sense of alliance; creation of warm, accepting, trustworthy, dependable relationship; sense of respect for client's individuality and self-determination; empathic understanding; most consistent factor associated with positive outcome of helping relationship = positive relationship between social worker and client

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the helping process

answer

The purpose is to assist an individual to develop new skills. The worker must be interested, genuinely concerned and encouraging, and at the same time, objective but neither condemning nor praising. Expression is through interaction, both verbal and nonverbal. Clarification and definition of objectives important in this process. In the final analysis, it is the receiver of the help who has the most power as his/her actions determine whether advice is really followed or if behavior is changed. Conformity to helpers' demands is of a surface nature and does not strengthen receiver's capacity to deal with problems nor is it likely to be of enduring effect.

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barriers to receiving help

answer

difficulty in admitting having difficulties; perceived uniqueness of difficulties; distrust of others; may be looking for sympathy, support, empathy rather than searching for a new way to solve difficulties; thought of depending on or receiving help from another seems to violate something within self (defending against sense of weakness due to possible struggle towards becoming independent) and does not see that change must occur; some also have strong needs to lean on someone else

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difficulties in giving help

answer

falling into a telling role without finding out whether advice is appropriate; insensitivity to other person's resistance; confuse the situation and hinder clarification of the problem through over-praise or failure to confront person being helped with the reality that person must look at his/her own role in the situation to recognize his/her own limitations

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requirements of the helping situation

answer

trust; recognition that the helping situation is a joint exploration (willingness to examine problems, attitudes, and feelings on both sides); listening and accepting in a non-judgmental manner; confidentiality/privacy

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beginning phase of helping

answer

engagement, assessment, and planning; limits to confidentiality discussed; information on insurance procedures obtained; biopsychosocial assessment; inclusion of strengths; consideration of how client feels about coming for help (especially if involuntary); establishment of therapeutic alliance; working alliance; expression of hopefulness that change can occur; working through resistance (by clarifying process or specifying what will happen to discuss ambivalence); contract/service plan completion

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biopsychosocial assessment

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current or presenting issues; client's past and present physical health, including developmental milestones; clients' emotional functioning; educational/vocational background; cultural issues; spiritual and religious beliefs; environmental issues and social functioning

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biopsychosocial assessment - biological

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medical/developmental history; current meds; substance abuse history; family history; referrals made to address concerns not being treated; care coordination concerning medications

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biopsychosocial assessment - pschological

answer

present illness or symptoms, history of psychiatric illness; past/current psychosocial stressors and mental status; how problem was treated in the past; past medications; family history of psychiatric and substance-related issues

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biopsychosocial assessment social

answer

client systems; unique client context; identification of strengths/resources useful for treatment planning (spirituality, cultural factors, sexual identity issues/concerns, personal history, family of origin history, support system, abuse history, education, legal history, marital/relationship, work history, and risk assessment)

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therapeutic alliance

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client views self as ally of worker in seeking to modify part of client or aspect of environment that is troubling

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working alliance

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willingness by client to work with worker should be established; sometimes referred to as treatment alliance

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contract (service/treatment plan)

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includes problem(s) to be worked on, goals to reduce problem(s), client's and worker's roles in process, interventions or techniques to be employed, means of monitoring progress, stipulations for renegotiating contract, and time, place, fee, and frequency of meetings

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middle phase of helping

answer

implementation of change plan; modifications as necessary; change includes self, groups, families, or systems in larger environment; allowing clients to ventilate feelings; change strategies include modifying thoughts (problem solving, altering self concepts, modifying self-defeating statements, making interpretations to increase client's understanding about relationship between events in life, feedback from others), modifying actions (using behavior modification techniques, including reinforcement, punishment, modeling, role playing, task assignments; modeling and role modeling effective, modification through actions of others in a system), and system interventions; advocating for client and seeking to secure change in system on client's behalf; being a mediator by helping client and another individual or system to negotiate with each other

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universalization (social work intervention)

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generalization or normalization of behavior

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clarification (social work intervention)

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reformulate problem in client's words to make sure that you ar eon the same wave length

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confrontation (social work intervention)

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calling attention to something

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interpretation (social work intervention)

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pulling together patterns of behavior to get a new understanding

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reframing and relabeling (social work intervention)

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stating problem in a different way so client can see possible solutions

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ending phase of helping

answer

readiness for termination evaluated and may be marked when meetings between the social worker and client seem tranquil and the tone becomes one closer to cordiality rather than challenge and when no new ground has been discovered for several sessions in a row; discharge planning; must always have a method to evaluate effectiveness of services received; assist clients cope with termination feelings; identifying changes accomplished and planning how client is going to cope with challenges in the future = helping client maintain changes

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termination

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evaluation of the degree to which the client's goals have been attained; coping with a series of issues related to the ending of the relationship; planning for subsequent steps the client may take relevant to the problem that do not involve the social worker (such as seeking out new services, if necessary)

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discharge planning

answer

involve clients and families when appropriate in making own decisions about aftercare including discussion of client and family preferences; responsible for coordination of clients' discharge plans; return of clients to services may suggest that they did not receive needed follow-up services or that these services were inadequate (premature termination possible); follow-up assessment after discharge needed for high risk clients to determine whether aftercare plan is being implemented as planned

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empathy

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establishing rapport; starting where client is; accurate assessment where high levels of empathic responding increases level at which clients explore themselves and their problems; responding to client's nonverbal messages; facilitates confrontation by blending it with empathic responses; using empathic responses to defuse anger and to modify strong emotions that represent obstacles to progress (empathic response least likely of all interventions to cause harm to client)

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acceptance (communication theory/terms)

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acknowledgement of "what is"; forgoes judgment; allows client to let go of frustration and disappointment, stress, anxiety, regret, false hopes; recognizing limits of one's control; not giving up or excusing other people's behavior and allowing it to continue; not about giving in to circumstances that are unhealthy or uncomfortable; main barrier towards acceptance is wanting to be in control

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active listening skills (communication theory/terms)

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essential to building relationships and trust between two person; active part in whole process achieved by showing interest in client's words; communication more open once client notices you are understanding what is said and really taking an interest

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cognitive dissonance (communication theory/terms)

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choosing between two contradictory attitudes and beliefs; arises when two options are equally attractive; three ways of reducing these are: reducing importance of conflicting beliefs, acquiring new beliefs that change balance, or removing conflicting attitude or behavior

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congruence (communication theory/terms)

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matching of awareness, experience, and communication (essential for vitality of relationship)

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context (communication theory/terms)

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circumstances surrounding human exchanges of information

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double bind (communication theory/terms)

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offering two contradictory messages and prohibiting recipient from noticing the contradiction

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feedback (communication theory/terms)

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how one's behavior has affected his or her internal states and surroundings; perceive what follows actions and evaluate perceptions as feedback

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information (communication theory/terms)

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anything people perceive from their environments or from within themselves; people act in response to information

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information processing (communication theory/terms)

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responses to information that are mediated through one's perception and evaluation of knowledge received

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information processing block (communication theory/terms)

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failure to perceive and evaluate potentially useful new information

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limit setting (communication theory/terms)

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clients of all ages frequently desperate for an environment with consistent boundaries; facilitative as clients do not feel safe or accepted in a completely permissive environment

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metacommunication (communication theory/terms)

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the context within which to interpret the content of the message (nonverbal communication, body language, vocalizations)

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metacomplementary relationship (communication theory/terms)

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one person lets the other have control or forces him to take it

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nonverbal communications (communication theory/terms)

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facial expression, gesture, posture can be potent forms of communication

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objective feedback (communication theory/terms)

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social worker communication is not burdened with emotional investment and is interested, genuinely concerned and encouraging, and neither condemning nor praising

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paradox (communication theory/terms)

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prescribing the symptom; if client obeys, they give up control, symptoms are no longer serving purpose and can disappear

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relationships (communication theory/terms)

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defined by messages implicit or explicit in communication

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symmetrical relationships (communication theory/terms)

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two have equal power

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complementary relationship (communication theory/terms)

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one-up/one-down position; unequal power

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rules for information processing (communication theory/terms)

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rules by which potentially available information is perceived and evaluated

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symmetrical escalation (communication theory/terms)

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power struggle; trying to be one-up at the same time

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verbal barriers to communication

answer

using "shoulds" and "oughts" may be perceived as moralizing or semonizing and elicit feelings of resentment, guilt, or obligation; giving untimely advice or solutions prematurely before thorough explanation of problem and may cause client to become resistant; using logical arguments, lecturing, or arguing to convince client to take another viewpoint (better way is helping client explore options for informed decision-making); judging, criticizing, and blaming are detrimental; making glib or dogmatic interpretations of client's behavior; talking to client in professional jargon leading to client viewing himself/herself in the same way (as "sick"); providing reassurance prematurely or without genuine basis (must explore and acknowledge client's feelings no matter how painful); sarcasm used with caution, and humor too; a defensive response; using questions inappropriately (stacking questions, leading questions); ill-timed or frequent interruptions (should be well-timed); domineering and authoritarian behaviors (avoid: monopolizing, pressuring clients, arguing, offering frequent advice, showing disrespect for client's point of view); counterproductive to permit excessive social chit chat that fosters safe social interactions rather than productive therapeutic interactions; must provide structure and direction; use of frequent phrases or cliches or even parroting clients' words could be irritating to client; focusing on the past might permit client to avoid dealing with something painful in the present; "going fishing" to obtain information that be of interest to worker but is not relevant to client's concerns, safety, or legal mandate (FOR EXAM: NASW Code of Ethics states that social worker should only solicit information essential for providing services...minimum necessary to achieve services)

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axioms of human communication

answer

one cannot not communicate (silence is still informative); all communication has context and relationship aspect such that latter classifies former and is therefore a metacommunication ("communicating about the communication") and involves nonverbal communication; relationship contingent upon punctuation of communicational sequences between communicants; people communicate digitally (words to indicate content) and analogically (relationship aspect of communication to indicate context and nonverbal communication like body language, speech patterns, facial expressions, voice inflections, etc.); all communicational interchanges are symmetrical or complementary

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silence

answer

effective with client who is experiencing high degree of emotion as it may indicate acceptance of feelings; cold also indicate reluctance to discuss a subject; worker should probe further with client who is like this for an unusually long period of time

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SOAP note

answer

method of documentation employed by health care providers to write notes in client charts (subjective, objective, assessment, plan)

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systems theory

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concept of system as greater than sum of parts; systems purposeful and have goals/objectives; basis is dynamic interaction of components; focus is on interaction among parts; what affects one part affects whole system

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homeostasis (system theory)

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stead state order necessary for movement

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input (system theory)

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accept input from environment

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output (system theory)

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produce output to environment

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throughput (system theory)

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processing the input/using (input-->throughput-->output)

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entropy (system theory)

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no energy from outside; using up own energy and expiring (closed system)

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negative entropy (system theory)

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counteracting entropy; successful use of available energy

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equifinality (system theory)

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capacity to receive identical results from different initial condition

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feedback (system theory)

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when output from systems if put back into system

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systems theory implications for practice

answer

problems defined in transactional terms so responsibility for change does not rest on identified client alone; humans viewed as active, purposeful, goal-seeking organisms whose development and functioning are outcomes of transactions between genetic potential and their environment; reorienting interventions toward growth, adaptive transactions, and improved environments

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ecological/life systems model

answer

focuses on interrelatedness between people and environment; emphasized adaptation of person to environment but also "degree of fit" between person and environment holistic and transactional (person involved in ongoing circular exchange with environment in which both are acted upon and influenced by other in ongoing relationship); problems arise as consequences of maladaptive transactions

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ecological/life systems model intervention

answer

focus = interface between client and client's environment; aim = make environment more responsive to needs and to release client's adaptive potential by altering transactions

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adaptedness (ecological/life systems model terms)

answer

goodness of fit with environment; adaptive balance of individual's rights, needs, capabilities, and goals with his/her social and physical environment all within a particular culture and a specified time period; adaptation as a continuous process

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niche (ecological/life systems model terms)

answer

status occupied by individual or group within a given social system; associated with power and oppression

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habitat (ecological/life systems model terms)

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individual's physical and social setting within a cultural context

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positive stress (ecological/life systems model terms)

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environmental demand and capacity for coping with it and associated with negative feelings

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coping (ecological/life systems model terms)

answer

psychological, physiological, and behavioral response that is set in motion as a result of the experience of emotional stress; effective ones lead to elimination of stress

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functional approach

answer

based on psychology of growth with center of change residing in client, not in the worker; emphasis on releasing client's power for choice and growth; helping rather than treating; worker and client enter relationship with lack of knowledge regarding how it will turn out; client and worker discover it together

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principles of functional approach

answer

time phases (beginning, middle, ending); use of structure; de-emphasize diagnosis; function of agency; use of relationship

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planned short-term or task-centered treatment

answer

restricting duration of treatment at outset and using interventions from learning theory and behavior modification to promote completion of a well-defined task (assess, set goals, define tasks); quickly engages clients in problem-solving process and to maximize responsibility for treatment outcome; problem is partialized into clear tasks; client must be able to identify precise psychosocial problem and solution confined to specific change in behavior or change of circumstances; assessment focuses on helping client identify primary problem and explore circumstances surrounding problem; specific tasks expected to evolve from process and consideration given to how client would ideally like to see problem solved

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problem solving approach

answer

assumes that...all human living is _ process and ego is seen as mechanism for solving problems; translates ego psychology into principles of helping action; inability to cope due to lack of motivation, capacity, or opportunity to solve in appropriate way; clients are people whose usual _ capacities or resources have broken down, are impaired, or are maladaptive; relationship with worker is reality-based

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goals of action of problem solving approach

answer

to release, energize, and give direction to client's motivation by minimizing disabling anxiety and fears, promoting support and safety that encourage lowering of disabling defenses, heightening of reward expectation, and freeing of ego energies for investment in task at hand; to release and repeatedly exercise client's mental, emotional, and action capacities for coping with problem; to make accessible to client the opportunities and resources necessary to solution of the problem; four P's: person, problem, place (agency), process (therapeutic relationship)

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psychosocial approach

answer

considers client in context of interactions or transactions with external world; diagnosis based on medical, psychological, and social history; treatment differentiated according to needs of client and result in modification of person/environment/both and of exhcange between them (incorporates system approach)

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psychoanalytic theory

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man seen as product of his past and treatment involves dealing with repressed material in the unconscious; id, ego, superego viewed as stable structures in anatomy of personality

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id - psychoanalytic theroy - personality structures

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unconscious source of motives and drives; pleasure principle; seeks immediate gratification

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ego - psychoanalytic theroy - personality structures

answer

emerges at about 6 months and represents logic and reason; mediates between id, superego, and reality; reality principle; job is to determine the best course of action based on information from id, reality, and superego; when ego is comfortable with is conclusions and behaviors, one is said to be ego-syntonic (behaviors "insync" with ego [no guilt]), but if one is bothered by some of his/her behaviors, one would be ego-dystonic (ego alien, behavior "dis-n-sync" with ego [guilt])

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superego - psychoanalytic theroy - personality structures

answer

incorporates parental and societal values and standards into personality; develops between ages of four and five

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ego strength

answer

ability of ego to effectively deal with demands of the id, superego, and reality; those with little __ may feel torn between these competing demands while those with too much can become too unyielding and rigid; helps us maintain emotional stability and cope with internal/external stress

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concepts of psychoanalytic theory

answer

unresolved conflict is basis for psyhopathology where inability of ego to reconcile demands of the id, superego, and reality produces conflict which leads to state of psychic distress known as anxiety; fixation is failure to resolve a conflict at any stage of development

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assumptions of of psychoanalytic theory

answer

determinism, structural model, dynamic principle, and genetic principle

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determinism (assumptions of psychoanalytic theory)

answer

functioning of mind and ordering of ideas are not random; all thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are believed to be related to prior experiences and events

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structural model (assumptions of psychoanalytic theory)

answer

mind has three layers of mental activity: unconscious, preconscious, and conscious (thoughts and feelings currently in awareness)

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dynamic principle (assumptions of psychoanalytic theory)

answer

psychoanalytic theory attempts to understand individual in terms of the conflicts between id, ego, and superego; unresolved conflict = anxiety

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genetic principle (assumptions of psychoanalytic theory)

answer

early years of childhood extremely important in personality development

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stages of psychosexual development

answer

libidinal energy is invested in a different organ system at each stage (cathexis=investment of energy): oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital

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psychoanalytic psychotheory involves four processes

answer

clarification, confrontation, interpretation, and working through goal to resolve intrapsychic conflict; primary technique used is analysis (of dreams, resistances, transferences, free associations)

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transference

answer

redirection of client's feelings for a significant person to the worker; "inappropriate repetition in the present of a relationship that was important in a person's childhood"; redirection of feelings and desires and especially of those unconsciously retained from childhood toward a new object"; often manifested as an erotic attraction towards a social worker but can be seen in many other forms such as rage, hatred, mistrust, parentification, extreme dependence, or even placing social worker in a god-like or guru status; transference = work that needed to be done and focus in large part is recognizing transference relationship and exploring the relationship's meaning; used to reveal unresolved conflicts with childhood figures

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countertransference

answer

redirection of worker's feelings toward a client or social worker's emotional entanglement with a client; understanding it helps worker regulate emotions and gives valuable insight into what client is attempting to elicit in them; example: social worker who is sexually attracted to client must understand it as countertransference and look at how client may be eliciting this reaction so that, upon identification, worker can ask client what feelings are towards worker and explore how they relate to unconscious motivations, desires, or fears

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ego psychology

answer

focuses on the rational, conscious processes of the ego; Erik Erikson viewed personality as an open system in which there was a progressive development of the personality throughout the life cycle (Freud considered personality fixed in childhood)

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ego psychology in therapy

answer

based on assessment of person as presented to us in the present (here and now); treatment focuses on ego functioning of individual (healthy behavior is under control of ego): how person behaves in relation to situation he finds himself in, reality testing (situation, person's perception of situation), coping abilities (ego strengths), capacity for relating to workers

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ego support

answer

support the functions of the ego (strengths, defenses, reality testing)

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ego defensive functions

answer

unconscious; involved in resolving conflicts

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ego autonomous functions

answer

conscious; conflict-free, adaptive functions

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goal of ego psychology

answer

to maintain and enhance ego's control and management of reality stress and its effects

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individual psychology

answer

FOR EXAM: Alfred Adler developed a holistic theory of personality development and psychotherapy. Individuals have a single drive or motivation behind all their behavior, and that motivation is "striving for perfection". In that respect, a person is always drawn towards the future to reach fulfillment and perfection.

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feelings of inferiority (individual psychology, Alfred Adler)

answer

When children experience sense of perceived or real weakness, they develop feelings of inferiority for which they compensate adaptively (work hard and become good at something else) or maladaptively (overcompensate by striving for superiority and power over others)

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lifestyle (individual psychology, Alfred Adler)

answer

the way that individuals live and cope with their lives; style of life is determined early in life by factors such as birth order and whether or not an individual was pampered or neglected by his/her parents

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social interest or community feeling (individual psychology, Alfred Adler)

answer

healthy individuals have broad social concern and want to contribute to the welfare of others; unhealthy people, those who are overwhelmed by feelings of inferiority (inaccurately labeled inferiority complex), overcompensate by striving for superiority and power over others and become very self-centered

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aim of therapy (individual psychology, Alfred Adler)

answer

to develop a more adaptive life style by overcoming feelings of inferiority and self-centeredness and to contribute more towards the welfare of others

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self psychology

answer

defines self as the central organizing and motivating force in personality; as a result of receiving empathic responses from early caretakers (self-objects), child's needs are met, and child develops strong sense of selfhood; "empathic failures" by caretakers results in a self disorder or lack of self-cohesion; object of this type of therapy is to help individual develop greater sense of self cohesion and through therapeutic regression, client reexperiences frustrated selfobject needs

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three selfobject needs of self psychology

answer

mirroring, idealization, twinship/twinning

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mirroring (1/3 selfobject needs of self psychology)

answer

validates the child's sense of a perfect self

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idealization (1/3 selfobject needs of self psychology)

answer

child borrows strength from others; identifies with someone more capable

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twinship/twinning (1/3 selfobject needs of self psychology)

answer

child needs an alter ego for a sense of belonging or humaneness

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Rogerian counseling/person- or client-centered therapy

answer

nondirective or "client-centred" therapy; human beings basically good; all indiviauls have single force in life" or motivation (actualizing tendency) to develop to fullest potential; personality must remain organized and unified; incongruity between concept of self and experience (the evaluation of others), self becomes disorganized, feels anxiety, and behaves maladaptively; anxiety dealt with by denying, selectively perceiving, or distorting the external information

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core conditions of therapist utilizing Rogerian counseling/person- or client-centered therapy

answer

unconditional positive regard, empathic understanding or accurate empathy, therapeutic genuineness or congruence

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conditions that must be met by client in Rogerian counseling/person- or client-centered therapy

answer

client incongruence (aware of hurting and wants to do something about it); client's perception of social worker's condition (able to recognize and accept social worker's efforts to reach client); client's self exploration (basic activity of engaging in self-exploration or intrapersonal exploration through self-disclosure, exploration of the self, and self-awareness

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Gestalt therapy

answer

process oriented approach which focuses on awareness, wholeness, contact, and self-regulation; integration of mind, body, thoughts, action are central to approach; seeks heightened awareness through dramatization of split-off parts of the self; attention paid to patterns involving all layers of organismic function, including thought, feeling, and activity; formation of patterns considered part of lawfulness of nature; organism has drive to pull self together and done through expanding consciousness by putting person in touch with current immediate organismic needs

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emphasis in Gestalt therapy

answer

to fully experience what is unfolding in present moment (here and now focus); worker deals directly what whatever is observed and helps client to become more aware of experiences, grow through experiential learning, develop good contact skills, and take responsibility for his/her thoughts, feelings, actions; contraindicated for clients who have problems with maintaining brief control; pays attention to the obvious; doesn't believe in repression; group process of workshop where therapeutic sessions are part of total living experiences; dramatization is key to the approach (psychodrama, role plays, empty chair technique); everything dealt with in the here and now (directed awareness)

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transactional analysis

answer

each person has three ego states: parent, adult, and child; interactions between persons are transacted between certain ego states of one individual with certain states of another individual; each child writes life script based on who is O.K.; script acted out throughout individual's life unless script is recognized and changed

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four life positions (transactional analysis)

answer

(1) I'm OK. You're OK. (2) I'm not OK. You're not OK. (3) I'm OK. You're not OK. (4) I'm not OK and You're okay.

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game analysis (transactional analysis)

answer

client is made aware of habitual defective interactions through psychodrama or direct confrontation

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script treatment (transactional analysis)

answer

worker clarifies client's life script and gives counter injunction to bring about script reversal

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strokes (transactional analysis)

answer

physical contact between people; lets people know they are okay and valued

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contracting (transactional analysis)

answer

change defined by treatment contract that is made between adult and adult ego states; client and worker also make agreement about goals and methods of treatment

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postmodern movement

answer

based on premise that truth is not absolute; movement arose in reaction to modernism, a movement committed to using scientific inquiry in search for universal laws and truths that would explain all natural phenomena

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narrative therapy

answer

no objective reality; people construct knowledge about themselves out of conversation and social interaction; meaning or interpretation of events/experiences involves constructing a "story" to make sense out of life experiences; individuals create stories that incorporate sociocultural influences as ell as personal interactions and organize life/world around these stories; goal of narrative therapy is to help clients "deconstruct" their story lines (to understand stories around which they have organized their lives) and change stories so they can discover new realities and truths for themselves; collaborative approach in which client is recognized as expert on his/her life

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key concepts of narrative therapy

answer

externalizing the problem; problem-saturated stories; mapping the problems domain, unique outcomes; spreading the news

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externalizing the problem (narrative therapy)

answer

separating client from the problem

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problem-saturated stories (narrative therapy)

answer

stories client has co-constructed in interactions with others

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mapping the problems domain (narrative therapy)

answer

effect of the problem over time and domains

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unique outcomes (narrative therapy)

answer

uncovering new truths or strengths

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spreading the news (narrative therapy)

answer

letting others know when clients start experiencing positive change; involve public acknowledgement of success (celebrations, awards, etc.)

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behavior modification

answer

theories represent systematic application of principles of learning to analysis and treatment of behaviors; goal is to modify behavior as behaviors determine feelings; focus is on observable behavior (all behavior that is pertinent, thought and affect as well as motor action), provided that it is discernible through observer's senses and can be denoted reliably; focus is on target symptom, problem behavior, or environmental condition rather than on personality of the client

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two fundamental classes of behavior (behavior modification)

answer

respondent and operant

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respondent (behavior modification)

answer

involuntary behavior (anxiety, sexual response) that is automatically elicited by a certain behavior; stimulus elicits a response

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operant (behavior modification)

answer

voluntary behavior (walking, talking) that is controlled by its consequences in the environment

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symptoms (behavior modification)

answer

no different from other behavioral responses; involve respondent or operant behavior or both; learned through process of conditioning; obey same laws of learning and conditioning as so called normal behavior; amenable to change through careful application of what is known about learning and behavioral modification

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applications of behavior modification

answer

sexual dysfunction, phobic disorders, compulsive behaviors (overeating, smoking, etc.), and training of persons with intellectual disabilities and autism; behaviorists specify behaviors that define problems and become targets of change

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client self-monitoring (behavior modification)

answer

pros: practical, inexpensive, usually therapeutic; cons: inadequate and inaccurate information or resist collecting any at all

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respondent or classical conditioning (behavior modification)

answer

stimulus-response approach to behavior (Pavlov); connecting of existing responses to new stimulus; learning occurs as a result of pairing previously neutral (conditioned) stimulus with unconditioned (involuntary) stimulus so that conditioned stimulus eventually elicits response normally elicited by unconditioned stimulus unconditioned stimulus-->unconditioned response unconditioned stimulus+conditioned stimulus-->unconditioned response conditioned stimulus-->conditioned response

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operant condition (behavior modification)

answer

antecedent events or stimuli precede behaviors which, in turn, are followed by consequences (B. F. Skinner); consequences that increase occurrence of behavior referred to as reinforcing consequences (child eats dinner to get dessert); consequences that decrease occurrence of behavior referred to as punishing consequences (employee finishes work on time to avoid being fired) antecedent-->response/behavior-->consequence

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modeling or observational learning (behavior modification)

answer

learning by observing others

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operant techniques (behavior modification)

answer

positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, positive punishment, negative punishment, chain, fading, extinction, prescriptions

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positive reinforcement (operant techniques, behavior modification)

answer

increases probability that behavior will occur (worker praises, gives tokens, or otherwise rewards positive behavior)

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negative reinforcement (operant techniques, behavior modification)

answer

behavior increases because negative aversive stimulus is removed (remove shock)

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positive punishment (operant techniques, behavior modification)

answer

presentation of undesirable stimulus following behavior for purpose of decreasing or eliminating that behavior (hitting, shocking)

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negative punishment (operant techniques, behavior modification)

answer

removal of a desirable stimulus following behavior for purpose of decreasing or eliminating that behavior (removing something positive, such as a token or dessert)

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chain (operant techniques, behavior modification)

answer

said to exist when one performance produces the conditions that make the next one possible

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fading (operant techniques, behavior modification)

answer

term used to describe procedure for gradually changing one stimulus controlling a behavior to another stimulus

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extinction (operant techniques, behavior modification)

answer

withholding a reinforcer that normally follows a behavior with a consequent decline in the behavior; behavior that fails to produce reinforcement will eventually cease

question

prescriptions (operant techniques, behavior modification)

answer

tells client specifically how to behave in certain situations and expects client to behave in that way

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assertiveness training (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

used to teach people how to express positive and negative feelings and to stand up for their rights in ways that will not alienate others

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aversion therapy (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

treatment aimed at reducing attractiveness of a stimulus or behavior by repeated pairing of it with an aversive stimulation of a real or imaginal (covert) nature (FOR EXAM: example of this is treating alcoholism with antabuse)

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biofeedback (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

behavior training program that teaches person how to control certain functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, temperature, and muscular tension; often used for ADHD and panic/anxiety disorders

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contingency contract (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

agreement between two or more individuals that specifies a behavior change that is to take place in one or more of the individuals, and the positive and negative consequences that will result if the agreement is not honored

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flooding (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

treatment procedure in which an individual's anxiety is distinguished by prolonged real or imagined exposure to high-intensity feared stimuli

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in vivo desensitization (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

pairing and movement through anxiety hierarchy from least to most anxiety provoking situation; takes place in "real" setting

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modeling (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

method of instruction that involves an individual (the model) demonstrating the behavior to be acquired by the observer

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rational emotive therapy or RET (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

cognitively oriented therapy in which social worker seeks to change client's irrational belief by argument, persuasion, and rational evaluation and by teaching the client to counter self-defeating thinking with new, nondistressing self-statements

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self-instructional training (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

cognitive behavior modification procedure in which client learns to covertly emit a set of task-relevant self-instructions that guide behavior and that can help reduce anxiety and increase problem-solving ability

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sensate focus (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

an invo desensitization and communication enhancement procedure used in sex therapy (FOR EXAM: Masters and Johnson) that involves a couple providing each other with pleasurable sensory stimulation through a structured body message; also known as "pleasuring"; pleasure and relaxation paired with graded sexual contact; used to desensitize couples to performance anxiety

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shaping (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

method used to train a new behavior by prompting and reinforcing successive approximations of the desired behavior

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squeeze technique (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

procedure for delaying ejaculation

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systematic desensitization (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

anxiety-inhibiting cannot occur at the same time as the anxiety response; anxiety-producing stimulus is paired with relaxing producing response so that eventually anxiety-producing stimulus produces a relaxation response; fear of dreaded object, person, or situation is gradually approached; at each step, client's reaction of fear or dread is overcome by pleasant feelings engendered as the new behavior is reinforced by receiving a reward; reward could be a compliment, gift, or relaxation

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time out (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

time-out from positive reinforcement; removal of opportunity to obtain positive reinforcement

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token economy (specific behavioral procedures, behavioral modification)

answer

intervention environment in which individual or individuals receive tokens for performing specified behaviors; tokens function as currency within environment and can be exchanged for desired goods, services, or privileges

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cognitive therapy

answer

human functioning seen as product of reciprocal interactions between personal and environmental variables; emphasis placed on cognitive skills for problem-solving; what client tells self (cognitions/perceptions) influences behavior and responses to problematic situations; knowledge about how person thinks is critical to understanding and influencing behavior change

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treatment in cognitive therapy

answer

emotional/behavioral dysfunction result of mistaken beliefs and faulty patterns of thought; helps clients identify, evaluate, and change dysfunctional thinking patterns and mistaken beliefs (cognitive restructuring) that impair ability to effectively function and problem solve; change in thinking is central to approach, but changes in behavior, environment, or physical functioning may be required; approach is active, collaborative, structured, time-limited, goal-oriented, and problem-focused

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basic tenets of cognitive therapies

answer

thinking is basic determinant of behavior; focus of therapy on the present as present thinking motivates behavior; recognition that there is a connection between problems and misconceptions/faulty thinking and must be responsible for changing their misconceptions and cognitions

question

steps in cognitive restructuring

answer

accepting that self-statements, assumptions, and beliefs determine or govern emotional reaction to life's events; identifying dysfunctional beliefs and patterns of thoughts that underlie their problems; identifying situations that evoke dysfunctional cognitions (triggers); substituting functional self-statements in place of self-defeating thoughts; rewarding themselves for successful coping efforts

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Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy

answer

draw from a variety of behavioral techniques like problem-solving, assertiveness and relaxation training, desensitization or exposure techniques, etc.; approach lends itself to the requirements posed by managed care companies: brief treatment, well-delineated techniques, goal- and problem-oriented, empirically-supported evidence of its effectiveness; foundational to treatment is client self-monitoring to pay attention to subtle shift in feelings

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CBT thought or emotion logs

answer

include disturbing emotional states; exact behavior engaged in at time of emotional state; and thoughts that occurred when emotion emerged

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Ellis (Rational Emotive Therapy)

answer

Albert Ellis focuses on irrational beliefs and the chain of events. external event (A) --> irrational belief (B) --> emotion/behavior (C)

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Beck (Cognitive Therapy of Depression)

answer

three specific concepts to explain depression: (1) cognitive triad: negative view of self, negative interpretation of ongoing experiences, and negative view of the future; (2) schemas (stable cognitive patterns); (3) cognitive errors or faulty information processing

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brief therapy

answer

systematic, focused process that relies on assessment, client engagement, and rapid implementation of change strategies; during of brief therapy typically between 6-20 sessions; goal of therapy to provide clients with tools to change basic attitudes and behaviors and to handle a variety of underlying problems rather than long-scale or pervasive change; focus of therapy is on the present

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common characteristics of brief therapy

answer

problem or solution-focused; target symptoms, not cause; clearly defined goals related to specific change; produce immediate results; approaches understandable to both client and worker; easily influenced by personality and counseling style of social worker; rapid establishment of strong working relationship between worker and client; therapeutic style highly active, empathic, and sometimes directive; client responsible for change; focus is enhancing client's sense of self-efficacy and sense of hope that change is possible; termination discussed from beginning; outcomes measurable

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family therapy

answer

treats family as a unified whole, a system of interacting parts in which change in any part affects functioning of the whole; family is unit of attention for diagnosis and treatment; social roles and interpersonal interaction are the focus; goal is to interrupt circular pattern of pathological communication and behaviors and replace it with new pattern that will sustain itself without the dysfunctional aspects of the original pattern

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characteristics of a healthy family

answer

flexibility, consistent structure, effective exchange of information

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issues in family therapy

answer

establishing contract with family; examining alliances and groupings within the family; identifying where power resides; relationship of each family member to the problem; how family relates to outside world; influence of family history on current family interactions; communication patterns (complementarity or symmetrical); family rules that regulate patterns of interaction; meaning of presenting symptom in family homeostasis; flexibility of structure and accessibility of alternative action patterns; family's developmental stage; sources of external stress and support; family homeostasis

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family therapy interventions

answer

defining family stages and tasks through explanation of normal family development and life cycle crises and relating it to family's current problem; re-establishing contact with enmeshed family member who wants to break all emotional ties in order to assist developing successful techniques for disengaging emotionally from family members; pointing out how family members talk, by words or behaviors, through others and encourages direct communication (to tackle triangulation); coaching where young adults/adults guided in efforts to differentiate themselves from families of origin; explicitly defining rules by which family operates as they have not been consciously recognized previously; genogram; restructuring roles through establishment of generational boundaries with parents in charge and modifying pattenrs in alcoholic, violent, incestuous, and other dysfunctional family systems by shifting family interaction within the interview, assigning homework tasks, defining interactional patterns, and sculpting or using other psychodrama techniques

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multigenerational/intergenerational approach (family therapy approaches)

answer

pathology in current family relationships seen as unfinished business in family of origin relationships; problems result of fusion among family members due to inadequate individuation; tension resolved by triangulating a third party into the interaction; because of lack of direct/clear communication among members, people tend to talk through other people (triangulate) and social worker becomes coach who teaches effective interactional patterns; goal = increasing differentiation of individuals within family (unfuse with emotional system of family of origin) and avoid need for triangulation

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triangulation (multigenerational/interenerational approach, family therapy)

answer

formation of triangles within the family; two people triangling a third into their relationship; usually serves to lessen difficulties in the initial dyad; collusion of two in relation to the third that defines the triangle

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structural family therapy (family therapy approaches)

answer

stresses importance of family organization for functioning of group and well-being of its members; worker "joins" (engages) family in an effort to restructure; structured defined as invisible set of functional demands organizing interaction among family members enactment of situations: enacting problem situation during interview

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boundaries in structural family therapy

answer

(1) interpersonal boundaries define individual family members and promote differentiation and autonomous yet interdependent functioning; dysfunctional families characterized by pattern or rigid enmeshment or disengagement; (2) boundaries with the outside world define family unit, but boundaries must be permeable enough to maintain well-functioning open system allowing contact and reciprocal exchanges with social world; (3) hierarchical organization in families of all cultures maintained by generational boundaries, rules differentiating parent and child roles, and rights and obligations

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communication/interaction family therapy (family therapy approaches)

answer

uses communication theory to examine dysfunctional family patterns; implicit family values made explicit; worker develops working alliance with family, teaches family members how system is dysfunctional through "in vivo" therapeutic experiences, and helps family members overcome fear of change; Satir identified family roles based on communication patterns that become established and fixed in families; roles are: placater, blamer, leveler, and distracter

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strategic family therapy (family therapy approaches)

answer

presenting problem viewed as symptom of and response to current dysfunction in family interaction; goal is to solve it; symptom is regarded as communicative act that is part of a repetitive sequence of behaviors among family members, serving a function in the interactional network; therapy focuses on problem resolution by altering feedback cycle that maintains symptomatic behavior; worker's task is to formulate problem in solvable, behavioral terms and to design intervention plan to change dysfunctional family pattern; techniques of relabeling (to alter meaning of behavior or redefine situations so perceived meaning of behavior is less negative); reframing, directives, and paradoxical instructions used to achieve specific behaviorally defined objectives paradoxical instruction: prescribe symptomatic behavior so client realizes they can control it; uses strength of resistance to change in order to move them toward goals

question

psychodynamic family therapy (family therapy approaches)

answer

integrates ideas from psychoanalytic and object relations theory with principles of family systems; family dynamics are reflection of interactions between intrapsychic factors and societal, cultural, and environmental factors; worker tries to develop empathic working alliance to help clients achieve greater harmony between individual and family needs

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behavioral family therapy (family therapy approaches)

answer

based on social learning theory and exchange theory; behavior learned and maintained by contingencies in individual's social environment; goal is to teach more effective ways of dealing with one another by changing consequences of the behavior/altering the reinforcements

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group therapy

answer

goal to help individuals maximize own social functioning (ways individuals carry out social roles) and enhance social function; worker focuses on helping member change environment through interpersonal experiences; emphasis on conscious components rather than unconscious experience; members help each other change or learn social roles in particular positions they hold or would like to occupy in the social environment; developmental and interactionist approaches to social group work emphasize social functionality rather than pathology, abnormality, or illness

question

common group goal (group therapy)

answer

worker comes to agreement with group regarding purpose, function, and structure of group; group is major helping agent as common social tasks in a particular situation observed by members and leaders, management of self in such a way as to cope with as to cope with social relations and tasks, and socially functional behavior is emphasized via effectiveness of task performance, responsibility to others, and satisfaction of self

question

individual self-actualization occurs through (group therapy)

answer

release of feelings that block social performance, support from others (not alone), orientation to reality/check out own reality with others, reappraisal of self

question

types of groups

answer

groups centered on a shared problem; counseling groups; activity groups; action groups; self-help groups; natural groups; closed vs. open groups; structured groups; crisis groups; reference groups (similar values)

question

psychodrama

answer

treatment approach in which roles are enacted in a group context; members of the group re-create their problems in living and devote themselves to the role dilemmas of each member

question

group psychotherapy

answer

provides unique microcosm in which members, through process of interacting with one another; gain more knowledge and insight into themselves for purpose of making changes in their lives; many kinds of therapeutic groups that differ in purpose and orientation dependent on the setting in which they are conducted or the orientation of the group leader; goal of group may be a major or minor change in personality structure or changing a specific emotional or behavioral problem; FOR EXAM: focus of group psychotherapy is treatment of pathology or illness

question

stages of group development (group psychotherapy)

answer

(1) pre-affiliation: development of trust; (2) power and control: struggles for individual autonomy and group identification; (3) intimacy: utilizing self in service of the group; (4) differentiation: acceptance of each other as distinct individuals; (5) separation/termination: independence forming, storming, forming, norming, performing, and adjourning

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curative universal factors/how groups help (group psychotherapy)

answer

instillation of hope; universality; altruism; interpersonal learning; self-understanding and insight; existential learning

question

factors in group cohesion

answer

optimal group size is 5 to 10; homogeneity: similarity of group members; participation in goal and norm setting for group; interdependence: dependent on one another for achievement of common goals; external threat: increases cohesiveness; member stability: frequent change in membership results in less cohesiveness

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contraindications for groups

answer

client in crisis, suicidal, compulsive need for attention, actively psychotic, paranoid

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group polarization (might be on EXAM)

answer

process that occurs during group decision-making when discussion strengthens dominant point of view and results in shift to more extreme position than any of the members would adopt on his/her own

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groupthink (might be on EXAM)

answer

when high group cohesion and loyalty to group and group members seriously undermines decision-making in order to maintain sense of "we-ness"; group members fail to consider all alternatives and options (critical thinking) possibly resulting in a poor decision; group leader can counteract this by placing a positive value on open inquiry

question

crisis intervention

answer

state of crisis is time-limited; brief intervention during crisis usually provides maximum therapeutic effect; process is one of actively influencing psychosocial functioning of individuals during a period of disequilibirum or crisis; goals are to alleviate stress and mobilize psychological capabilities and social resources

question

crisis

answer

upset in a stead state; feelings of mounting vulnerability, anxiety, tension, and disequilibrium; client may be overtaxed, hopeless, and incapable of effective functioning or making good choices and decisions; ego patterns may be more open to influence and correction; person or family is at "critical turning point" of either adaptively or maladaptively coping

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goals of crisis intervention

answer

to relieve impact of stress with emotional and social resources; to return a person to a previous level of functioning (regain equilibrium); and to help strengthen coping mechanisms during crisis period and develop adaptive coping strategies

question

crisis intervention foci

answer

focus on the here-and-now; is time-limited (most crises last 4-6 weeks), directive, and requires high levels of activity and involvement from worker; worker sets specific goals and tasks in order to increase client's sense of mastery and control

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anticipatory guidance (crisis intervention)

answer

preventive measure that helps prepare clients for dealing with future stresses and crises by planning coping strategies to use in those situations

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precipitating event of crisis

answer

does not have to be major event; usually the "last straw" in a series of events that exceed the client's ability to cope

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role (social role theory)

answer

behavior prescribed for an individual occupying a designated status

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role behavior (social role theory)

answer

how the status occupant shoulld act toward an individual with whom his status rights and obligations put him in contact; basic script for behavior,which is learned in the process of socialization

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status (social role theory)

answer

generally implies a relationship to another person; set of rights and obligations that regulate transactions with individuals of other statuses, i.e., mother, middle class

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social and individual determinants of role behavior (social role theory)

answer

person's needs; person's ideas of mutual obligations and expectations that have been invested in the particular status he undertakes; compatibility or conflicts between persons's conception of obligations and expectations and those held by the other person with whom he is in a reciprocal relationship (Perlman)

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role ambiguity (social role theory)

answer

roles for which no place has been made in the social system; lacks regularized expectations

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role complementarity (social role theory)

answer

exists when reciprocal role of a role partner is carried out in the expected way, i.e., parent-child; social-worker-client

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role discomplementarity (social role theory)

answer

results when different roles conflict or when the role expectations assigned by others differs from one's own

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role reversal (social role theory)

answer

roles are opposite to that which is appropriate

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failure in role complementarity (social role theory)

answer

cognitive discrepancy; discrepancy of roles; allocative discrepancy; absence of instrumental means; discrepancy in cultural value orientation

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role allocation (social role theory)

answer

ascribed - automatically by age, sex, etc. achieved - by occupation adopted - satisfy some need of the individual assumed - "let's pretend"

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explicit roles (social role theory)

answer

conscious and exposed to observation

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implicit role (social role theory)

answer

unconscious (client acting like dependent child)

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role conflict (social role theory)

answer

incompatible or conflicting expectations

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prescription (social role theory)

answer

behavior that should or ought to be performed (social worker prescribes client behavior; if not congruent with client expectations --> strain)

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sanctioning (social role theory)

answer

behavior with the intent of modifying another's behavior, usually toward conformity

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locus of control (social role theory)

answer

extent to which an individual believes that life events are under his own control (internal locus of control) or under control of external forces (external locus of control)

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coercive (bases of social power - KNOW FOR EXAM)

answer

power from control of punishments

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reward (bases of social power - KNOW FOR EXAM)

answer

power from control of rewards

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expert (bases of social power - KNOW FOR EXAM)

answer

power from superior ability or knowledge

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referent (bases of social power - KNOW FOR EXAM)

answer

power from acceptance as standard for self-evaluation; likeability; attracted to or identifies with person with power

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legitimate (bases of social power - KNOW FOR EXAM)

answer

power from having legitimate authority

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informational (bases of social power - KNOW FOR EXAM)

answer

content of message leads to new cognitions

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strength perspective

answer

people have: capacity to grow, change, and adapt (humanistic approach); knowledge that is important in defining and solving problems (clients/families experts about own lives and situations); have resilient qualities and survive and thrive despite difficulties

question

strength

answer

any ability that helps individual (or family) confront and deal with stressful life situation or encounters with environment and to use challenging situation as a stimulus for growth; general categories include: cognitive abilities, coping mechanisms, personal attributes, interpersonal skills, or external resources; families may have others such as kinship bonds, community supports, religious connections, flexible roles, ethnic heritage, etc.; vary from one situation to another, contextual; what may be appropriate strength/coping mechanism in one may not be appropriate in another; person ideally selects appropriate way to cope by drawing from a repertoire of coping mechanisms or strengths; appropriateness of particular coping mechanism may vary according to life cycle stage, developmental tasks, kinds of stressors, situation, etc.; having variety of coping mechanisms and resources enables flexibility in the way one copes with stresses

question

focus in strength perspective

answer

understanding clients (or families) on basis of their strengths and resources (internal and external) and mobilizing the resources to improve client's situation; focus on strengths and active collaboration equalizes power balance between client and worker

question

methods to enhance strenghts

answer

collaboration and partnership; creating opportunities for learning or displaying competencies; environmental modification (environment as resource and target of intervention); advocacy

question

advocacy

answer

process for affecting or initiating change either with or on behalf of client groups to (1) obtain services or resources that would not otherwise be provided; (2) modify or influence policies or practices that adversely affect groups or communities; and (3) promote legislation or policies that will result in provision of requisite resources or services

question

resilience

answer

defined as ability to withstand rebound from adversity or human capacity to transform and change, no matter what the risk; an innate 'self-righting mechanism'; emerges once effects of adversity are buffered by having basic needs (love, connectedness, respect, challenge, belonging, meaning) met; concepts have closes ties to ecological approach, models of human development, strength approach; developed naturally but can also be learned, simulated, and enhanced; most important aspect of process aimed at enhancing this is the process, not the content; creating opportunities to experience connection, belonging, trust, meaning, etc., should be the focus of the program; at the level of relationships, beliefs, and participation that resilience is enhanced

question

traits associated with resiliency

answer

social competence (ability to form close relationships); autonomy (sense of self-identity and self-efficacy); problem-solving (ability to think critically and creatively); sense of purpose and belief in the future: aspirations, goals, optimism, spiritual connectedness

question

three protective factors important in eliciting and fostering resilience

answer

(1) caring relationships that establish safety and basic trust; presence of one caring and supportive person can determine whether or not child overcomes and adverse circumstance (love, trust, and connectedness); (2) high expectations that convey a belief that a person can rise to a challenge (respect, challenge, structure); opportunities to participate and contribute (belonging, power, meaning)

question

exploratory research study

answer

purpose to gain familiarity with phenomenon or to achieve new insights into it, often in order to formulate a more precise research problem or to develop hypotheses; used when very little is known about the subject being studied; intent is to gather facts; example: research who wishes to know more about a community that has never been studied before and ends up visiting community to secure basic facts about type of people who live there and where they came from

question

decriptive research study

answer

purpose to describe accurately the characteristics of a particular individual, situation, or group (narrative case studies for example); example: researcher seeks to learn more specifically what proportions of the members of the community are from each ethnic background, how many are men and women, and what their ages are etc.

question

correlational research study

answer

purpose to determine the way in which something is associated with something else (correlation implies association, not causation)

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testing causal hypotheses

answer

purpose to test a hypothesis about a causal relationship between variables; hypothesis is a conjectural statement (prediction) of the relation between to or more variables

question

experimental studies

answer

study in which investigator manipulates and controls at least one independent variable and observes the way that this manipulation affects a dependent variable; most effective method of testing a hypothesis that one variable causally influences another variable; comparison of experimental condition with control condition

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non-experimental studies

answer

non-experimental study does not allow one to rule out in advance, with any confidence, the possibility that the effect was created by some other factor that is associated (correlated) with the presumed causal factor

question

independent variable

answer

manipulated or controlled by experimenter; presumed cause of changes in the dependent variable, the presumed effect; usually the treatment in studies where a treatment program is tested

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dependent variable

answer

affected by independent variable; usually the outcome in studies where a treatment program is tested

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experimental group designs

answer

consists of a comparison of control group with an experimental group; most common common group is "no treatment" group; experimental group receives experimental treatment; comparison of experimental and control group before and after treatment

question

single subject designs

answer

allow experimental study of single individual; involve careful specification of the intervention and of the goal to be achieved, the use of an instrument to measure states of goal attainment, a determination of the state of the problem related to the goal before the intervention is applied, and regular observations (that is, securing measurements) throughout the course of the change effort to see if and how the problem condition changes

question

pre-post AB design (single subject designs)

answer

comparison of some variable before and after treatment before treatment = pre-treatment = baseline = A after treatment = post-treatment = B difficulty in ruling out alternative causes of change

question

reversal design (single subject designs)

answer

baseline --> treatment --> withdrawal of treatment Does dependent variable return to baseline level (pre-treatment)? FOR EXAM: In some cases, it would be unethical to withdraw treatment if client were at risk for harm. Also, in a crisis, you would not delay treatment in order to obtain baseline data.

question

reliability (KNOW THIS)

answer

dependability, stability, consistency, predictability, accuracy; can you get the same answer repeatedly? are the measures obtained "true" measures of what you are measuring?

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validity (KNOW THIS)

answer

extent to which differences in scores on it reflect true differences in the characteristic it seeks to measure, or true differences in the subject being measured (are we measuring what we think we are measuring or something else?)

question

external validity

answer

Can the results be generalized to other groups, settings, or times or from one measure to another?

question

internal validity

answer

Did the experimental treatments make a difference in this specific instance?

question

content validity

answer

Is the content of this measure representative of the content of the property being measured? (How well does the Beck Depression Inventory measure depression) It is obvious when what is asked is a direct question that means exactly what it says. If we wish to know whether clients believe a certain service will be useful in their community and we ask the question in precisely that way, it will have content validity.

question

construct validity

answer

To what extent do certain explanatory concepts or qualities account for performance to the test? Must be established when we seek to study phenomena such as people's feelings, the emotional climate of a group, the morale of an organization, and so forth, that cannot be directly observed, but must be inferred from other measures and are chosen because a theoretical framework describes them as signs that the thing we wish to study is actually present or absent.

question

predictive validity

answer

To what degree does variation in test scores predict variation on some other measure? (Does IQ predict academic success?)

question

face validity

answer

Does the test focus directly on the behavior of the kind in which we are interested? (testing reading speed by timing how long it takes a child to read a passage of known length)

question

statistics

answer

collection of theory and methods applied for the purpose of understanding data

question

descriptive statistics

answer

describe data; helps research portray info in a manner easier to digest than flooding reader with many small items of info

question

inferential statistics

answer

generalizations made about population by studying a subset, or sample, of that population (we infer characteristics of the population from characteristics of the sample); used to determine what the relationship is likely to be among several variables tests include: ANOVA, t-test, chi square

question

nominal scale

answer

classifies objects into categories based upon some defined characteristic, i.e., sex, race, color, classifies without order, categories mutually exclusive

question

ordinal scale

answer

logical ordering of categories; ordering of cities in Illinois according to population, ordering of football teams according to number of games won, arranging students according to height; categories have logical order and are scaled according to the amount of the particular characteristic they possess

question

interval scale

answer

differences between various levels of the categories on any part of the scale reflect equal size differences of the characteristic measured (equal intervals), i.e., temperature in degrees Fahrenheit or Centigrade. Equal intervals, zero is just another point on the scale and does not reflect an absolute absence of the quality being measured.

question

ratio scale

answer

equal differences in the characteristic are represented by equal differences in the number assigned to the categories (equal intervals) and the point zero reflects an absence of the characteristic, i.e, speed in miles per hour, weight, length

question

random sampling

answer

Each individual within a population has an equal chance of being selected for study, and all members of the sample are selected independently of one another.

question

random assignment

answer

occurs when individuals selected for study are assigned to experimental or control groups according to chance (i.e., by flipping a coin, table of random numbers) (separate issue from sampling)

question

mode

answer

most frequent score that appears in a distribution of values

question

median

answer

the point below which one-half of 50% of the scores lie; 50th percentile; often the best measure of central tendency in highly skewed distribution (i.e., mean size of city in Illinois, yearly income)

question

mean

answer

arithmetic average of scores; most strongly affected by extreme scores, i.e., mean size of city in Illinois, yearly income; usually varies less from sample to sample drawn from the same population

question

bias

answer

results from the collection of evidence in such a way that one alternative to a question is favored over another; in sampling, occurs when one subject is more likely to be selected than another (because they're more verbal, ore attractive, etc.); in assignment, occurs when subjects are not equally likely to be assigned to experimental or control groups (i. e., more severely ill clients assigned to experimental group); in test administration, occurs when different experimenters administer the test differently

question

null hypothesis

answer

statement of no difference or no relationship, i.e., no relationship between the variables tested, no difference between the control group and the experimental group

question

level of significance, statistical significance

answer

probablity that difference is due to chance; typically, p<.05 (probability less than 5/100 that difference is due to chance) or p<.01 (probability that difference is due to chance is less than 1/100) are used in behavioral scientific research

question

developmental research

answer

single most appropriate model of research for social worker because it consists of methods directed explicitly toward the analysis, development, and evaluation of the very technical means by which social work objectives are achieved

question

problem formulation (stages of the research process)

answer

determination of the problem that the research should help to solve; whether or not a particular approach is effective or about the causes of a situation or even whether some conditions are present or absent in the situation; important to define concepts; specification of hypothesis; statement of assumptions; relate it to a theory (essentially a statement that links a number of hypotheses that have received empirical support with an explanation of why these findings occur as they do) to guide in developing and testing new hypotheses that support, modify, or negate it

question

problem statement

answer

tells worker whether study will be relevant or not to his or her interest

question

specification of hypotheses

answer

statements framed in such a way that information can be collected to support or refute them; guide collection of data and open to public scrutiny the biases of the investigators; latter statement meaning that if investigator has a hunch about what is true, there may be a tendency to only see what supports the hunch

question

statement of assumptions

answer

conditions that are thought to be present in the situation to be investigated but believes that will not affect the results of the research in unpredictable ways; not normally tested but should be identified and rationale given for accepting them

question

research measurement design

answer

decide how data is collected (remembering to assure validity and reliability); how often and under what circumstances each instrument will be administered; how data will be coded and analyzed; and how the data relate to the original problem formulation so as to answer the questions posed at that point and determine whether the hypotheses have been supported or not

question

concurrent validity

answer

determined when a measure of unknown validity produces results to those whose validity is known

question

quantitative research

answer

person who supplies the data does so in numerical form or in which the date are converted into numerical form by the investigator; singles out specific aspects of reality

question

qualitative research

answer

seeks to be descriptive of actual events as they occur; how actual participants perceive these events and how they feel about them; relies more so on observations and/or interviews; more likely to present things as they occur in much of their complexit

question

group design

answer

studies of a number of people, usually because they have experienced a similar event, such as having lived in the same community or having had the same type of treatment; example is investigator who wished to help a number of groups to have more positive feelings among members so he selected the groups and gave members a questionnaire to determine how much they felt about each other then helped each group to plan a party after when he administered the questionnaire again to see how members felt about each other; hypothesis was that they would feel better in this way after the party

question

explanatory design

answer

experiment; carefully laid-out independent variable (usually an intervention); ensure that other variables that may have an effect on outcomes are measured so that effects can be accounted for (experimental control); ensure that subjects selected randomly; task of research for all experimental designs is to select one appropriate for hypotheses that have been proposed and that ensures that the results occur as a result of experimental manipulation, rather than as a result of other events

question

t-test

answer

test of statistical significance difference between sample means

question

chi square

answer

test of significance that measures the difference between observed frequencies and expected frequencies due to chance; values less than 0.05 are statistically significant

question

random error

answer

assessed by instrument reliability

question

community organizing

answer

method of intervention whereby individuals, groups, and organizations engage in planned action to influence social problems; concerned with the enrichment, development, and/or change of social institutions; involves two processes: planning and organizing

question

planning (community organizing process)

answer

identifying problem areas, diagnosing causes, and formulation solutions

question

organizing (community organizing process

answer

developing constiuencies and deriving strategies necessary to affect action

question

characteristics of community organizing

answer

focus on social, not psychological needs; developing resources in response to needs; enhancement of participatory skills of citizens by working with them and not for them; development of leadership especially with the ability to conceptualize and act on problems, especially of indigenous, local people; strengthening communities so they can better deal with future problems and develop capacity to resolve problems; redistribution of resources to increases resources of disadvantaged; planned changes (systematic steps taken in a planned way); problem-solving process (rational approach of studying and defining a problem, considering possible solutions, creating/implementing/evaluating a plan); advancing interests of disadvantaged so they can have a say about the distribution of resources

question

assumptions underlying community organization practice

answer

community members can develop capacity to resolve problems; members want to improve situations; members must participate in change efforts rather than have change imposed; systems approach taking social community into consideration is more effective; participation must be in a democratic format, and community member must learn the appropriate skills of democratic functioning; members can gain from organizer's skills in dealing with problems they cannot resolve themselves

question

community development

answer

locality development, social planning, social action, social reform

question

locality development

answer

neighborhood work aimed at improving quality of community life through the participation of a broad spectrum of people at the local level; associated with democratic procedures, participation of all, and majority rule determining decisions (those in power need education about community problems)

question

social planning

answer

emphasizes rational study of a community's problem as the basis of determining a solution; power elite in community not considered the enemy but often part of the process of solving the problem (power elite can be sponsor or employer)

question

social action

answer

enemy are those in the community who control community resources; victims are disadvantaged and oppressed who possess little or no resources; community cannot solve problem through discussion or fact-gathering but only through direct action (rent strike) against power elite; direct action only way to force those in power to relinquish some resources and power; best known practitioner was Saul Alinsky

question

cooaptation

answer

include those who oppose development or change in your group

question

social reform

answer

work with other organizations on behalf of the disadvantaged; worker's role is to develop coalitions of various groups to pressure for change; by changing laws, workers may be able to overcome community resistance to local programs (residence for the homeless)

question

prevention (KNOW FOR EXAM)

answer

primary prevention, secondary prevention, tertiary prevention

question

primary prevention (KNOW for community organizing)

answer

to prevent a problem before its initial onset; aimed at reducing prevalence of a problem by reducing incidence of new cases; creating environments that promote mental health

question

secondary prevention (KNOW for community organizing)

answer

to treat symptoms; reduce prevalence by reducing duration through early detection and intervention; to prevent recurrence or exacerbation of an already diagnosed problem or disorder

question

tertiary prevention (KNOW for community organizing)

answer

to reduce disability in chronic problems; reduce duration of problems by reducing negative after effects (drug rehabs)

question

problem-solving process (community organizing)

answer

acknowledge problem; analyze/define problem; generate possible solutions ("brainstorm"); evaluate option; implement choice option; evaluate outcome of problem-solving process

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collaboration (community organizing)

answer

learned skill; one plan for client with many people owning plan and taking responsibility for it; such teams more likeley to develop important new and innovative approaches to dealing with intractable problems; professional commitment to working with other professionals to deal with service issues related to client/client group (resolve issues of communication among themselves); includes improving professional skills at fostering partnerships and empowering clients to become effective members of the team; goes beyond time people actually sitting at table and include pre-meeting worker (making calls), how case managers conduct themselves (being friendly), and how the meeting proceeds (choosing to ignore minor irritations in order to get on with the agenda); first step in collaboration starts with analysis of own style (are you :collaboratable"?) and focusing on own behavior and less on how you want to change others; involves interpersonal communication, group process skills, and empathy; can be discrete or continuous

question

beginning phase of community intervention

answer

involves problem recognition, problem definition, and assessment of information pertaining to a problem

question

problem recognition (beginning phase of community intervention)

answer

occurs on many levels; may have to redefine what community identifies as problem ("nobody knows each other around here" redefined as problem of community cohesion); increasing effort spent on problem recognition as intervention develops

question

problem definition (beginning phase of community intervention)

answer

seeks to focus and identify causes of particular community problems

question

information gathering (beginning phase of community intervention)

answer

puts factual information together based on problem definition; facts may or may not bear out causal assumptions implicit in the problem definition

question

needs assessment (beginning phase of community intervention)

answer

done first sometimes to provide basis for problem recognition; range from simple (from informal discussions) to more detailed/factual (statistics to provide set of specific empirical bases for community discussions); may link with university researches or others to approach actual sample of community; serves a dual purpose of generating facts and involving community members in activities that concern community with community members volunteering time to develop community statistics and to serve in advisory capacity; worker is sensitive to process needs of any activity as the task needs and recognizes importance of involving community members in assessing community needs in order to avoid efforts from going awry and from having a limited impact

question

middle phase of community intervention

answer

emphasis on goal selection, prioritization, and goal achievement; selection usually happens by very process of goal alternatives that portray clear selection of desirability of one over others; worker needs to continue process of interaction and encouragement, attendance at large number of community meetings; issues involved are considered, feelings and perspectives of group are brought out, and as many community members are possible involved in review process; community decision instrument set-up (what person or group should make a decision for the community--important specify who and with mechanism by which decision is made); worker helps decision to occur and raises questions and concerns to continually help understand impact; questions raised about implementation steps and takes care not to become a fallback decision maker or become over-involved with respect to goal operationalization in lieu of volunteer efforts of community members who must take primary responsibility in carrying out community's goal

question

ending phase of community intervention

answer

operation and termination, involves implementation of actual activities decided on, and evaluation of actions

question

operation (ending phase of community intervention)

answer

implementation of actual activities decided on in goal selection; technical aspects of community planning occur; change activity worker joins with, but does not replace, community effort; achievement of goal usually result of community change effort and represents a high point for community but process is not over and evaluation issues must be addressed; worker must initiate thinking about evaluation during implementation stage because certain activities of evaluation need to go on simultaneously with implementation; working through evaluation phase good way of initiating recycling which focuses on channeling energy developed by one successful community intervention onto the next community intervention that is needed

question

termination (ending phase of community intervention)

answer

once cycle completed, community will be able to continue on its own with leadership that has been developed ; worker discusses community member the worker's need to move to other communities where needs are present; sometimes involves factors other than the specific cycle (such as funding or end of school year if worker is student); worker seeks engagement with client system and works to help system set up mechanisms for its own continued involvement and development

question

informal or natural support systems

answer

family, friends, neighbors, co-workers, bartenders, and other helpers

question

formal/support resource systems

answer

membership organizations or formal associations which promote the interest of their members; may provide services directly or influence other providers or societal systems to provide service to members; include labor unions, parents or parent-teacher associations, churches, professional associations, cooperatives, welfare rights groups, neighborhood associations, etc.

question

societal resource systems

answer

get established through individual initiative, public activities, and voluntary citizen action; may be for profit or non-profit service organization

question

inadequacy in informal, formal, societal resource systems due to...

answer

needed resource system not existing or not providing appropriate help;lack of knowledge about existence of resource system or resistance to turn to it for help; policies of resource system may create new problems; several resource systems may be working at cross purposes; internal conflicts in resource systems; people needing services feeling overwhelmed by physical, emotional, economic, or social concerns

question

purpose of social work (in community)

answer

enhance problem-solving and coping capacity of people; link people with systems that provide them with resources, services, and opportunities; promote effective and human operation of these systems; and contribute to the development and improvement of social policy

question

Dorothea Dix

answer

A reformer and pioneer in the movement to treat the insane as mentally ill, beginning in the 1820's, she was responsible for improving conditions in jails, poorhouses and insane asylums throughout the U.S. and Canada. She succeeded in persuading many states to assume responsibility for the care of the mentally ill. She served as the Superintendant of Nurses for the Union Army during the Civil War.

question

deinstitionalization

answer

1950's and 60's: the movement to treat people with psychological disorders in the community rather than in psychiatric hospitals

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Community Mental Health Centers Act

answer

1963; gave teeth to the belief that all citizens should be provided mental health care in their own communities and that persons with cognitive impairments should be treated in the least restrictive environment possible; created a national system of CMHCs

question

Community Support System model

answer

essential "components": special outreach to ensure that individuals with intellectual disabilities and mental illness were aware of services and encouraged to use them; providing assistance in meeting basic needs for income, housing, work, and socialization; crisis services to respond to period episodes of acting out or other distress; support for family nd friends; training in skills of daily living as well as other forms of mental health intervention; assistance in accessing needed services and support; services which were responsible and flexible; "case management in form of a single person or team responsible for helping client make informed choices, assuring timely access to needed assistance, providing opportunities and encouragement for self-help activities, and coordinating all services to meet client's goals"

question

Title VI of Civil Rights Act of 1964

answer

desegregated schools and public buildings; termination of discriminatory hiring practices on the grounds of race, color, or national origin

question

Older Americans Act (OAA)

answer

1965; established the AoA, advocacy agency for older Americans which educates public about needs of older adults but also works with Regional, State, and Area Agencies on Aging

question

Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act of 1974

answer

key federal legislation for child abuse/neglect; established National Center on Child Abuse and Neglect which requires states to create agency to investigate allegations of child abuse, create a reporting system, and pass a law protecting children from abuse

question

Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)

answer

protect privacy of educational records; applies to schools receiving federal funds; gives parents/students the right to inspect and review all educational records maintained by school and request that inaccurate records record; school must have written consent from parent or student to release any information from the student's record except for certain specified reasons

question

Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978 (ICWA)

answer

gives American Indian nations or organizations juridiction over child welfare cases that involve Native American child in order to protect the integrity of Native Indian families; specifies hierarchical procedure: verifying ethnic and tribal identity of child, allow tribal jurisdiction over cases, if tribe rejects jurisdiction, placement with family member, or if impossible, placement with family of same tribe; last resorts are placing child with Indian or non-Indian foster home

question

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 (OBRA)

answer

created Community Service Block Grant (CSBG) Funds which were passed directly to states for distribution and regulation; fifty-seven social services were incorporated into seven bock grants: social services, community services, alcohol, drug abuse, and mental health services, maternal and child health services, community development services, primary health care, and preventive health services

question

Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRG's)

answer

included in 1983 amendments to Social Security Act for Medicare and Medicaid clients; by considering commonalities between clients' medical diagnoses and other clinical variables such as medical treatment, course of treatment, and lengths of stay, it wold be possible to predict average length of stay for a client in a specific diagnostic group as well as determine a fixed rate for treating each DRG; hospital paid a predetermined amount on a discharge basis regardless of actual length of stay or cost of treatment; prospective payment system (PPS) that provided incentive to shorten length of stays and contain treatment costs; worked well if client had simple diagnosis and uncomplicated course of treatment but worked less well for client with complex illness that required prolonged hospitalization and over-utilization of hospital resources; meant greater focus on discharge planning and less time to address psychosocial issues of clients

question

capitation

answer

receiving a fixed rate for a designated number of sessions or clients

question

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990

answer

"...the Nation's proper goals regarding individuals with disabilities are to assure equality of opportunity, full participation, independent living, and economic self-sufficiency for individuals"; protection in four areas: employment, access to public services, access to public and private transportation, and telecommunication; specifies reasonable accommodations must be made in these areas to allow persons with disabilities the same access offered to general public; provides legal recourse in event of act of discrimination; employers with 15 or more employees must comply along with public facilities

question

Patient Self-Determination act (PSDA) of 1991

answer

implement advance directive policies at all healthcare facilities that receive federal funding through Medicaid and Medicare; must inform clients of their rights to make decisions concerning their own health care, ask and document whether a client has an advance directive, and provide education for staff and community

question

advanced directives

answer

legal way of indicating that a person has given the legal rights to a designated person to make decisions on his/her behalf about continuation of support measures should they become particularly important in the light of the increased number of people who experience permanent vegetative conditions and are being sustained on life supports or through other artificial means; purpose to respond to judicial decisions that have been indicating that if a person has not told someone of his/her wishes, the decision to remove person from life supports or to place person on life supports cannot be made; has become increasingly imperative; have been paired with the Living Will to give people control over what happens to them in a severe illness or injury

question

living will

answer

allows an individual to retain some control over what happens at the end of his or her life even if individual is then no longer competent to make personal choices for terminal care while they are still health and at a time when there is no doubt of their mental competence; alleviates some of the guilt and anxiety on the part of relatives and health professionals who will later attempt to determine what types of life-supporting measures are appropriate

question

Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993

answer

requires employers to provide up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave to eligible (one year, 1240 hours, and if at least 50 employees within 75 miles) employees for certain family and medical reasons; granted for employee's child after birth, adoption, or foster care; serious illness of self or spouse, child, or parent; medical certification must be provided to support a request and 30 days advance notice needed; health coverage must be maintained, full restoration of original or equivalent position, benefits, and employment terms on return from leave

question

Multiethnic Placement Act of 1994 (MEPA) and 1996 provision on Removal of Barriers to Interethnic Adoption

answer

passed to increase adoption rates of children of color and decrease amount of time spent in foster care; past adoptions focused on delays until child matched to parents of same racial/ethnic group

question

permanency planning

answer

systematic process of carrying out (within a brief, time-limited period) a set of goal-directed activities designed too help children live in permanent families; goal of providing child continuity of relationships with nurturing parents or caretakers and opportunity to establish lifetime family relationships

question

Violence Against Women Act (VAWA) of 1994 as Title IV of the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act (P.L. 103-322)

answer

passed to address on federal level the extent and seriousness of violence against women; provides grants aimed at fighting violent crimes against women at state and local level by providing assistance to develop and strengthen law enforcement and prosecution strategies; provided for developing and strengthening services for women victims of violent crimes; grants are known as STOP (services, training, officers, prosecutors) Violence Against Women grants program

question

Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996 (PRWORA)

answer

shifted both method and goal of federal cash assistance to the poor; added a workforce development component to welfare legislation, encouraging employment among the poor; instituted Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) which replaced Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC) and supplanted the Job Opportunities and Basic Skills Training (JOBS) program of 1988; TANF was reauthorized in the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005

question

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996

answer

provides minimum legal standard with regard to transmission of electronic health records; protects health insurance coverage for workers and families when they change or lose jobs; Title II of HIPAA known as Administrative Simplification (AS) provisions, requires establishment of national standards for electronic health care transactions and national identifiers for providers, health insurance plans, and employers; AS address security and privacy of health data; standards meant to improve efficiency and effectiveness of nation's health care system by encouraging widespread use of electronic data interchange in the U.S. health care system

question

Public La 94-142 / Education for Handicapped Children Act

answer

guarantees free, appropriate public education emphasizing special education and related services to meet all handicapped children between ages of 3 and 21; handicapped children defined as "mentally retarded, hard of hearing, deaf,speech impaired, visually handicapped, seriously emotionally disturbed, orthopedically impaired, other health impaired, deaf-blind, multi-handicapped, or as having specific learning disabilities, who because of these impairments, need special education and related services; children provided with an Individual Educational Program provided at no extra cost to family consistent with principle that society should assume responsibility for education of ALL children; related services such as speech therapy and counseling must be provided; impact activities of school social workers

question

Individual Education Program

answer

social worker, teacher, administrator, and other relevant school personnel devises program; parent and child participate too; statement of goals, means of attaining goals, ways of evaluating goal attainment; handled by systems-oriented social worker as a kind of network therapy; children must be educated in "least restrictive environment" meaning that child should spend all or part of time in regular classroom while still leading to the attainment of the educational goals

question

adult daycare

answer

provides recreational and therapeutic groups, vocational training, counseling, and education; helps with aging issues

question

Employee Assistance Program

answer

counseling service for employees and their families who need help with personal problems, including marriage, family, alcohol, drugs, weight control, depression, tension, interpersonal relations, gambling, stress, finances, and job relocation; worker must review whether client information during services will be shared with employer; services may be part of a wellness program (stress reduction/burnout) while others may be directed at employment-related problem (employee disputes, downsizing, substance abuse impacting performance, etc.); services are free to employee regardless of whether he/she has medical insurance through company

question

Food Stamps

answer

administered in Florida by Department of Health and Rehabilitative Services; received by most income assistance recipients as do working people whose combination of income, family size, living arrangements, and so forth make them eligible; those receive Veteran's Benefits, Unemployment Insurance, and other assistance programs may be eligible for food stamps as well; formula for these is based on net income level using variables as family size, expenses for dependent care, and medical experiences; no requirement for fixed residence which means homeless people can apply through shelters; certain categories of non-citizens are eligible;

question

Homemaker and Chore Services

answer

house cleaning, meal preparation, shopping, laundry, and other services that client cannot do for self are provided; source of funding is Title XX of Social Security Act

question

Hospice Care

answer

offered to terminally ill clients and families so that equality of life can be maintained while client remains in his or her own home; basic purpose is to enable clients to live their remaining days in as comfortable a manner as possible in the family context most meaningful to them; multidisciplinary nature; keeping client pain-free; may also help family with grieving process; may be paid by Medicare as provided by 1983 legislation

question

In-home Health Services

answer

include nursing, rehabilitation, and personal care services as offered by visiting nurses associations, privately owned agencies, public agencies, and private individuals; primarily provided by nurses, social workers, and home health aides; reimbursable by Medicare if client requires skilled nursing care or speech or physical therapy and if services are supervised and reviewed by physician who certifies their necessity; Medicare only reimburses if need for skilled nursing care and only if client is home-bound

question

Medicaid

answer

eligiblity based on means test; aka Medical Assistance Program; provides free medical and hospital care for those too poor or disabled to provide for such care themselves; federal-state program financed mostly through federal funds, but administered by states under federal rules and supervision; reimbursement based on complex formula which generally amounts to no more than half of actual cost of the program; not a nationally uniform program because it is administered by states; SSI recipients automatically receive Medicaid; coverage based on disability criteria provided by Social Security Act and depends on income, assets, and medical expenses; pays for hospital coverage and outpatient medical coverage

question

Medicare

answer

eligibility based on age or disability; nationally uniform program administered by federal level through Health Care Financing Administration; designed for those >64 years old and who qualify for Social Security retirement benefits; other people who qualify include those with end-stage renal failure and SSD recipients who have received disability checks for 24 months; two part program that provides for hospital and medical insurance; in-hospital portion provides partial payment of all medically necessary inpatient care and partially for inpatient care in skilled nursing facility, home health care, or hospice care; medical insurance portion pays for medically necessary doctor's care, outpatient services, home health care, physical therapy, speech pathology, and medications/supplies; due to deductibles and co-payments, on average, Medicare recipient must pay about 45% of his or her health care costs out of pocket

question

Social Security Disability

answer

applicants must have a disability and earned a specific amount of Social Security coverage before disability began so person who has never worked may receive SSI but not SSD; no income limits for SSD; factors associated with size of household and resources are considered in SSI cases but not for SSD applicants but other income sources may be included in calculation of amount of SSD award; not automatically eligible for Medicaid or Food stamps; frequently, amount of SSD award substantially higher than an award for SSI since it is based on average of applicant's lifetime earnings

question

Social Security Retirement Benefits

answer

intended to replace a portion of wages lost through retirement; jobs covered by SS earns employment credits toward retirement benefits; worker must have earned a certain amount of credits under SS and may earn a max of 4 credits each year; self-employed workers can earn it as well; amount of benefits dependent on average of earnings over individual's life time; application should be three months before anticipated date of retirement or on applicant's birthday; benefits begin one month after approval of application usually; members of worker's family may also be entitled to benefits depending on age and marital status at time of award; amount adjusted if worker returns to work after retirement or if worker delays retirement until after 70th birthday

question

Social Security Survivors Benefit

answer

benefits to certain members of a deceased worker's family; provides source of income to widow or widower, the extent of which depends on surviving spouse's age and physical health; also provides support for unmarried minor children and children who have been disabled before age 22; divorced surviving spouses may be eligible depending on age, length of marriage, and whether they support dependent children; also a one-time lump-sum death payment available to surviving spouse or entitled children; payable to families of those who earned sufficient credits to qualify prior to the time of their death; award determined by lifetime earnings of the covered worker and is affected by income earned by surviviors

question

Supplemental Security Income

answer

intended for people in financial need who are 65 or older, or who are blind or disabled at any age; disability defined by inability to engage in any substantial gain activity by reason of any medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or which has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than twelve months and are of such severity that he is not only unable to do his previous work but cannot, considering his age, education and work experience, engage in any other kind of substantial gainful work which exists in the economy; income determination also made based on financial considerations; disabled or blind individual can apply at any age; each state is responsible for determining medical eligibility of applicants based on established criteria; important source of income for psychiatrically impaired providing a resource to maintain community living arrangements rather than institutional care

question

supervisor

answer

agency administrative-staff member to whom authority is delegated to direct, coordinate, enhance, and evaluate the on-the-job performance of the supervisee for whose work he is accountable; functions (KNOW for EXAM) are administrative, educational, and supportive; ultimate objective is to assure delivery of most effective and efficient client services

question

administrative supervision

answer

staff recruitment and selection; worker orientation and placement; work planning; work assignment/delegation/evaluation; coordination; communication; advocacy; administrative buffer; change agent and community liaison; power and authority; disciplinary actions

question

educational supervision

answer

distinguished from in-service training and staff development; content of educational supervision (people, place, process, problems, and personnel); supervisory conference (just one tool); principles of adult learning; supervisor-supervisee relationship; educational supervision is never therapy If a supervisor needs to talk with a supervisee about a problem situation, he/she should meet privately with the supervisee to find out his/her perception of the problem and what needs to be done to address it.

question

"Games" played in supervision - supervisees' side

answer

manipulating demand levels; redefining relationship; reducing power disparity; controlling the situation

question

"Games" played in supervision - supervisors' side

answer

reframing honest differences as psychological resistance; abdication; control of supervisory agenda; selective enforcement of agency policies; misuse of power

question

stress for supervisors

answer

transition from worker to supervisor; age, race, and gender factors; sexual harassment; hierarchical position

question

evaluation (supervision)

answer

value and objectives for worker, client, agency and supervisor; retrospective and prospective; process is continuous, mutual and shared, focused on the work and not the worker, includes both strengths and weaknesses, set against clear criteria and standards, written, and clearly establishes future direction, expectations and indicators of progress

question

halo effect (common error in evaluation - supervision)

answer

all aspects of performance based on one outstanding aspect of performance

question

leniency bias (common error in evaluation - supervision)

answer

hesitancy to evaluate negative performance honestly and fairly

question

central tendency error (common error in evaluation - supervision)

answer

rate all work as "average" or "fair"

question

recency error (common error in evaluation - supervision)

answer

only considers most recent performance instead of performance over a specific period of time

question

contrast errors (common error in evaluation - supervision)

answer

standard of comparison is the supervisor or a poorly performing group

question

negativity effect (common error in evaluation - supervision)

answer

total performance biased by deficiency in one aspect of work

question

group supervision advantages

answer

economy of administrative time and effort; richer choices of learning and teaching models and methods; source of group member support; develops peer teaching skills; sharing of knowledge and information; strengthens group members to challenge supervisor; supports specialization of function; use of group norms to reinforce or modify worker behavior; tends to foster worker independence; facilitates communication and strengthens the informal network; sensitizes workers to wider agency

question

group supervision disadvantages

answer

reduces attention individual may expect at any given time; can stimulate rivalry and peer competition; more difficult to incorporate new workers; individual workers can evade attention or learning; more complex communication dynamics; requires a specialized set of supervisor skills; may not be able to address individual worker learning rates or needs; may be anxiety-producing for some workers; difficulty in forming suitable groups in some agencies; not well suited for dealing with emergencies; can compromise confidentiality

question

peer supervision

answer

all staff participate equally; staff members take responsibility for their own work; no regular supervision sessions between a supervisor and supervisee; regular case conferences for all staff members and a collegial consultation is common; supervision encourages staff to be more open and caring to the difficulties experienced by others and creates an atmosphere of mutual help and sharing; may increase accountability, responsibility, and authority; major determinant of the model's success is the worker's experience

question

current trends and issues in supervision

answer

live supervision; problem of interminable supervision; problems of bureaucracies for professionals; ethical dilemmas in emergent and "gray" areas

question

professional development

answer

skills and knowledge attained for both personal development and career advancement; encompasses all types of facilitated learning opportunities, ranging from formal coursework, conferences and informal learning opportunities situated in practice; has been described as intensive and collaborative, ideally incorporating an evaluative stage; variety of approaches, including consultation, coaching, communities of practice, lesson study, mentoring, reflective supervision, and technical assistance

question

supervisees' various stages of professional development

answer

orientation and job induction; autonomous worker; member of the service team (independence to interdependence); development of specialization; and preparation to be mentor or supervisor

question

social work management

answer

objective is enhancement of service resources and service effectiveness

question

social welfare administration

answer

purpose is goal attainment and organizational maintenance activities; essentially a political process that is concerned with when, why, how, and to whom services are allocated

question

scientific management theory (social work management and administration)

answer

utilizes approaches to optimize efficiency and effectiveness (productivity) through application of scientifically based principles; Frederick Taylor; employees motivated by economic self-interest; pay is most effective motivator; emphasized importance of matching skills of worker to demands of job; "Theory X" managers believe employees dislike work and avoid it.

question

human relations theory (social work management and administration)

answer

emphasizes importance of cohesive work groups, participatory leadership, and open communication; "Theory Y" managers view work as being "as natural as play" and assume employees are self-directed; McGregor identified two types of management beliefs, theory X and Y, and Y approach is more likely to lead to effective organization

question

structural functional theories (social work management and administration)

answer

focus on application of goals, power, and centralization; utilize informal relations, interdependence, adaptation, participation, and assume that bureaucratization is an ever-changing process

question

systems theory (social work management and administration)

answer

synthesizes the structuralist and human relations approach; bureaucracies viewed as social systems with subsystems whose functions are management, adaptation, and maintenance

question

current trends of social worker management and administration

answer

major restructuring of organizations since 1980 due to decrease in economic resources, stringent controls on expenditures by legislature, decreasing administrative flexibility, increasing reliance on private sector, and pressure for program evluation

question

administrative functions and tasks - maintenance - be familiar with for EXAM

answer

efficiency issues, problem-solving, maintenance of resources, standardization of procedures, controlling agency functions

question

administrative functions and tasks - service - be familiar with for EXAM

answer

quality of service, goal-setting, staff development, evaluation: program/staff, public relations

question

policy phases

answer

problem, proposal, decision, planning, program, evaluation

question

social welfare policy

answer

includes almost all decisions of a government that affect the quality of life and impact welfare of its citizens; involves direct involvement in the formulation and implementation of ideas throughout the policy procedures; planning of policy essentially involves relating current practice conditions to desired conditions

question

problems associated with policy implementation

answer

obstacles of unclear directives and communication; negative attitudes of service personnel; lack of resources to carry out the policy; previously established procedures or structures

question

zero-based budgeting (budgeting techniques: performance based)

answer

each component of a program must begin each year with a "zero" budget allocation

question

program planning budget system (budgeting techniques: performance based)

answer

each item on budget must be an aspect or component of a program that carries stated objectives so that expenditure can be justified in terms of how activities contribute to objectives

question

cost effectiveness and cost benefit analysis (budgeting techniques: performance based)

answer

What are the costs of a program approach and what are the benefits? Cost-benefit ratio determined.

question

Management by Objectives - MBO (budgeting techniques: performance based)

answer

All activities in an organization aimed toward achievement of specified, agreed-upon objectives.

question

Program Evaluation (PE)

answer

key to optimizing organizational effectiveness; tool for satisfying social and professional demands for accountability

question

Program Evaluation (PE) obstacles

answer

negative evaluation, staff resistance, lack of funds, lack of interest

question

Criteria for Program Evaluation

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effort: evaluation of resources used to reach objective; impact: examination of effect on broad social change; effectiveness: determines how well objectives of program were met in terms of client change; efficiency: determined economics of program-to-program accomplishments; quality: examines professional competence and standards of service

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Program Evaluation Process

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Should it be done? Sufficient resources: Identify program's objectives for client service/outcomes. Collection, classification, and measurement of data. Formative evaluations vs. summative evaluations most often used by social welfare agencies. Formative evaluations evaluate a program as it is being developed and result in modification of programs rather than termination. Summative evaluations are done on existing programs.

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outcome model (Approaches to Program Evaluation)

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emphasizes the evaluation of expected results

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goal attainment (Approaches to Program Evaluation)

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focuses on only those outcomes specified in program objectives

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systems analysis (Approaches to Program Evaluation)

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studies impact of other organizations and environment related to program changes

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analytic model (Approaches to Program Evaluation)

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uses costs as independent variables to evaluate program effectiveness

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quality assurance model (Approaches to Program Evaluation)

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monitors adherence to standards

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staff development with existing staff

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goal to increase organization's resources and improve service through increasing staff skill and technology; methods include continuing education (focused on ongoing awareness of and response to new technological development in area of human services), performance appraisal (evaluation of worker's job performance essentially concerned with assessing how well he or she performs a job over a period of time); supervision (which has the ultimate objective of improving quality of an organization's service through more effective work by staff members), and consultation (utilization of a specialist in a specific area to assist with a current work-related function)

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appraisal criteria

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should be based on previously agreed to, standardized professional criteria so that they are not perceived as based on workers' personality factors, value choice, or political mechanisms; focus should be on attainment of specific outcome criteria (includes both quality and quantity of output); include ability to demonstrate use of social work knowledge and skill, understanding of agency objectives, policies and procedures, ability to develop staff and community relationships, ability to develop and maintain effective and professional relationships with clients, ability to use supervision, ability to demonstrate professional attributes and attitudes, and ability to manage work requirements

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appraisal techniques

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direct measures of job performance include quantitative measures of outcome and may be biased by situational factors; subjective measures utilize judgments and opinions of raters

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consultation role principles

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purpose of consultation, nature of problem, and overall process voluntary process, meaning an agency does not need to follow a consultant's advice

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recruiting of staff

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methods include interviews, biographical data, tests, work samples, assessment centers, and letters of recommendation

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staff training

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on-the-job (internship, coaching) and off-the-job: lectures, audio visual techniques, programmed instruction, computer-assisted instruction, vestibule training (simulated job training), T-groups, case studies, role playing, behavior modeling, and business games

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interorganizational relations

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services to enhance service delivery and produces greater specificity regarding expectation and resource exchanges; formal or contractual interactions increase predictability and stability for organizaitons

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public relations

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education, advocacy, and outreach

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education (public relations)

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educate public about social problems in which it is involved and services provided; stressing human aspects of social problems and treatment rather than statistics and program details; also helps bring organization's services to attention of the public and can improve its standing in the community

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outreach (public relations)

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specific kind of educative task where education and information is directed not at the general public but at potential clients; emphasis should be less on general social problem and more on specific problems related to individual and successful treatment of problems; also should provide potential clients with realistic expectations of agency services

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advocacy (public relations)

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important public relations task in human service management; done to persuade public that something needs to be done; means by which administrators gain professional support for their view of how the community should develop; may result in acquisition of needed resources

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interpersonal aspects of management

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maximization of worker satisfaction (extent to which workers hold positive attitudes and feelings about their work) and performance (includes factors such as productivity, efficiency, and quality and effectiveness of services provided)

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determinants of job satisfaction

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worker: age, occupational level, intelligence, education, race, gender, personality factors; work: job characteristics, supervision, and pay

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effects of job satisfaction

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job performance, turnover and absenteeism, counterproductive, attitudes, health

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staff motivation

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refers to the physical and mental energy an individual exerts in order to achieve a goal

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need-hierarchy theory (theories of motivation)

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Maslow's needs: physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization

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ERG Theory (theories of motivation)

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Alderfer reduced Maslow's five to existence, relatedness, and growth

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Needs for Achievement (nACH), Power (nPOW), and Affiliation (nAFF) - theories of motivation

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McClelland (1961, 1965) suggested that three needs often act as motivators within organizational settings: need for achievement, need for power, and need for affiliation.

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Two-Factor Theory (theories of motivation)

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Herzberg (1966) identified lower-level needs which correspond to Maslow's physiological, safety, and belongingness needs have little effect on job satisfaction and motivation but produce job dissatisfaction when they are unfulfilled.

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Equity Theory (theories of motivation)

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Adam's (1963) equity theory, employees compare the ratio of their inputs (skills, experience, education, etc.) to outcomes (financial and nonfinancial rewards) to the input/output ratios of others performing similar jobs

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Goal-Setting Theory (theories of motivation)

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Locke's (1968) theory where individuals are motivated to achieve goals they have consciously decided to pursue

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Expectancy Theory (theories of motivation)

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Porter and Lawler, 1968; Vroom, 1964; worker will be highly motivated when he/she perceives that successful performance and valued rewards are contingent on high levels of effort

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reinforcement theory (theories of motivation)

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applies principles of operant conditioning to organizational settings and predicts that when behaviors are followed by reinforcement, they will be likely to occur again

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effective leadership

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studies have shown that effective leadership requires high levels of both consideration and initiating structure

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contingency theory (theories of leadership)

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Fiedler, 1967; effectiveness is result of interaction between leader's style and "favorableness" of the situation; assumes that leader's style is fixed and that it's the environment that needs to adjust, not the leader

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path-goal theory (theories of leadership)

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House, 1971; can be used to predict how a leader's style will affect his or her subordinates' motivation and satisfaction; proposes that most effective leader is one who helps carve a path for his subordinates that will allow them to achieve personal goals through achieveent of group and organizational goals

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participative leadership (theories of leadership)

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higher motivation, satisfaction, and group identification result when members share in decision-making; decentralization of authority and involvement of subordinates in decision-makig

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managing tasks groups

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essential means by which goals of a social welfare agency are accomplished; provide forum for staff members to exchange information and give and receive feedback, for distribution of tasks, for agency-planning, decision-making, and problem-solving; used for provision of needed support to agency personnel; two fundamental tasks: task accomplishment (emphasizes group's productivity and requires that groups be well-organized and goal-oriented) and group maintenance (refers to members' satisfaction with group and includes both emotional and social components)

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conflict resulotion

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four steps: 1 - recognition of existing or potential conflict 2 - assessment of the conflict situation 3 - selection of an appropriate strategy 4 - intervention

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structural methods (conflict resolution intervention methods)

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include reorganizing and clarifying work assignments, modifying or establishing appropriate procedures, and addressing the inequities in pay or status that led to the conflict

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interpersonal methods (conflict resolution intervention methods)

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(face to face) include bargaining, negotiation, and a variety of problem-solving methods involving arriving at a mutual definition of a solution to the conflict

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persuasion (conflict resolution intervention methods)

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one party may attempt to persuade other party to change his or her position by providing factual information that is relevant to the conflict; works only when receiving individual is willing to consider information

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superordinate goals (conflict resolution intervention methods)

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conflicts defused by deemphasizing the current conflict and focusing on overriding goals that parties can achieve only through cooperation with one another

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bargaining (conflict resolution intervention methods)

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involves exchanging concessions until an agreement is reached; useful only when there are several acceptable alternative solutions that parties are willing to consider

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problem-solving (conflict resolution intervention methods)

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involves more flexible and open approach than bargaining and requires that both parties have a minimum level of mutual trust and a willingness to consider other party's point of view; most effective when there is at least one solution to the conflict that is equally beneficial to both parties

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structuring the interaction (conflict resolution intervention methods)

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when previous attempts to resolve have only escalated the conflict, useful technique is to structure interactions between parties; include: decreasing amount of contact between parties in early stages of conflict resolution, decreasing amount of time between problem-solving sessions, decreasing formality of problem-solving sessions, limiting the scope of issues that can be discussed, and using a third-party mediator

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organizational redesign (conflict resolution intervention methods)

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most useful when conflicts are due to problems related to the coordination of work among different departments of the agency; one method involves creating self-contained work groups that have resources to achieve own goals; communication and coordination between departments can be facilitated by providing a "liaison"; agencies avoid future conflicts by training workers in conflict-resolution skills and establishing rules and procedures that are designed to reduce conflicts

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teammwork

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done by a group of people who possess individual expertise, who are responsible for making independent decisions, who hold a common purpose, and who meet together to communicate, share, and consolidate knowledge, from which plans are made, future decisions are influenced, and actions are determined

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(processes that facilitate necessary relationships between consultation specializations in human services)

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asking and receiving expert advice or information

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referral (processes that facilitate necessary relationships between specializations in human services)

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process which enables a person to move on to use another resource

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collaboration (processes that facilitate necessary relationships between specializations in human services)

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two or more individuals labor together, involving join responsibility for planning and carrying out an agreed-upon action

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powers of board of directors in public agencies

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no broad powers or responsibilities; perform advisory and/or administrative role

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powers of board of directors in private or voluntary organizations

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general control and direction of organization; responsibility for fiscal and programmatic aspects is collectively shared; accountable to funding sources, community, regulatory bodies (governmental and private), and consumers of agency

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functions of board of directors

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agency charters and by-laws specify obligations and responsibilities of board members; board of directors of agency is ultimately responsible for the functioning of agency and performance of staff

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policy development (classification of board functions)

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general direction and control of agency; develop and establish policies that guide agency; staff implement policies conveyed to them through administrative staff

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program development (classification of board functions)

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short-term and long-term planning

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personnel (classification of board functions)

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authority to hire/fire administrative staff; executive (administrative staff) is employee of the board

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finance (classification of board functions)

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facilitates access to resources

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public relations (classification of board functions)

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responsible for interpreting agency to the community

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accountability (classification of board functions)

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regular evaluation of agency's operations, finances, and administrator; holds administrator and staff accountable for implementing and achieving board policies; staff is encouraged to discuss concerns about policies with board members (ultimately responsible for quality of staff's services) even though administrators or supervisors evaluate staff members

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board of directors (FOR EXAM)

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important to delineate and maintain clear boundaries between board of directors and agency staff; would be a boundary violation and conflict of interest for a member of the board to become a paid employee (or consultant) of the agency for which she/he serves on the board

Helping Relationship, Problem-Solving & Referral Processes

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