Dental Hygiene Local Anesthesia Study Boards – Flashcards

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pain perception
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fear of pain, keeps seeking dental care
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What are 2 ways we control pain in dentistry?
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1. Behavioral Method 2. Pharmacological Method
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What is behavioral Method?
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breathing exercise, meditation, acupuncture
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What are some pharmacological methods?
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1. LA 2. Inhalation (nitrous) 3. sedation oral premedication (valium) 4. conscious sedation 5. IV sedation 6. general anesthesia
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Local anesthesia is for?
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pain control
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Inhalation sedation is for ?
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help control fear
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what is armamentarium and the components?
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equipment to administer LA 1. syringe 2. needle 3. cartridge 4. topical
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type of syringes?
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1.non disposable 2. disposable 3. safety 4. intraosseous systems 5. computer controlled LA delivery system
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What are the 5 types of NON DISPOSABLE SYRINGES?
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1. breech loading metallic cartridge, aspirating 2. Breech loading, plastic cartridge, aspirating 3. breech loading metallic cartridge, self aspirating 4. pressure 5. jet injector
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in SCCC we use which type of syringe?
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breech loading metallic cart. aspirating
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breech loading means?
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cartridge isolated from the side
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there are 5 components of a syringe what are they?
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1. Needle adapter 2. syringe barrel 3. piston and harpoon 4. finger grip 5. thumb ring
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The thumb ring traps and controls the syringe as well as ?
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move the piston
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the finger grip is for what?
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grasp and control syringe
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the piston connects what two things?
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thumb ring and harpoon
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The harpoon allows for what kind of pressure within cartridge? to check what?>
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negative pressure to check location of lumen of needle
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5 advantages of breech loading metallic cart. aspirating syringe?
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1. visible cart 2. one hand aspirating 3. autoclavable 4. rust resistant 5. long lasting
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what are disadvantage of breech loading metallic cart, aspirating syringe?
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1. weight 2. too big 3. infection if improper care
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should a non aspirating syringe be used?
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never
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a non aspirating syringe has risk for?
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intravascular drug administration
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what type of syringe is the standard of care?
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aspirating
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what are the type of needle lengths in dentistry? 3 types and mm length?
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LONG which is 32mm Short 25mm and ultrashort is 12 mm only in 30 gauge
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5 parts to a needle?? draw and label
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Bevel shaft hub syringe adapter cart penetration end
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2 factors to consider about shaft?
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diameter lumen length from point to hub
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what is a gauge?
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diameter of lumen. smaller greater diameter
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colors of needles? 25? 27? 30? which is largest lumen?
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25 red is the largest 27 yellow 30 blue
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which needle is recommended for inj posing high risk positive aspiration?
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red 25 gauge
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which needle recommended for injection where positive aspiration is low and tissue penetration is minimal?
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yellow 27 guage
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4 advantage of using larger gauge?
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1. less deflection 2. greater accuracy 3. less chance breakage 4. aspiration easier and more reliable
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what is deflection?
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needle deflects away target area, from bevel larger needles less deflection more accuracy
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change the needle after how many penetrations?
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3-4
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draw and name parts of cartridge?
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cylindrical glass tube plunger Aluminum cap neck diaphragm
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which component of cart is made of latex?
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diaphragm
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what are the components of a cartridge?
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local anesthetic drug Vasoconstrictor Preservative for vaso sodium chloride distilled water
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each cart is made of how much soln?
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1.8ml or 1.8cc
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packaging of cart can come in 2 types and number in each?
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vacuum sealed*50 sealed blister 10
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cart should store in light or dark place? why?
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dark cause deterioration mainly vaso. decrease duration of anesth
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can you immerse cart in disinfectant? why?
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never, contamination and corrode cap
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topical effective into how much tissue?
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2-3 mm not deep or hard tissue
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what causes leakage during injection?
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off center perforation of diaphragm
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what causes broken cart?
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worn syringe, bent harpoon excess force needle bend not engaged
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what causes disengagement of harpoon?
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dull harpoon excess force during aspiration
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what happens if piston doesn't move?
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at syringe end, needle no perforated to diaphragm
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pain on insertion due to?
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dull needle change 3-4 times
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pain on withdraw due to?
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fishhook barbs caused by manufacturing, or contact bone
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what causes injury to pt or operator?
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sudden unexpected movement pt
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There is a small bubble in cartridge. What is the bubble made of and result of it? can we use?
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nitrogen gas manufacturing process yes
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What do large bubbles in cart indicate? can we use and why?
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was frozen can't use, not sterile
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what does a extruded stopper with large bubbles indicate?
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soln frozen, soln not sterile
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what does extruded stopper without bubbles indicate?
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contaminated in disinfectant soln
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what does a corroded cap indicate?
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immersion in disinfectant soln that contain ammonium salts
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what does rust on cap indicate?
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one of carp leaked
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sticky stoppers were common when manufactures used what to lubricate stopper? and now we use what?
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paraffin wax silicone
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what are 4 reason it may burn on inj?
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1. normal response pH 2. contain sterilizing soln 3. over heart cart 4. vaso
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how to position pt at an inj?
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head and heart parallel to floor, feet slt. elevated
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supine position helps prevent ______. which is also the most common medical emergency with injections
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syncope (or fainting)
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local infiltration is?
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small nerve endings, interproximal papilla
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field block is an injection of where? also called two other names?
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is injection above apex also called infiltration and supraperiosteal inj
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A nerve block, anesthetizes what?
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main nerve trunk
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Draw and name the nerve origin starting from the Central nerve?
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CN V : trigeminal opthalmic maxilary mand PSA pterygpalatine IO GP NP MSA ASA
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the maxillary division of central nerve #?
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5 trigeminal
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CN V then exits through the _______ _____ which is located in the _______ _______ of ________ bone
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foramen rotundum greater wing of sphenoid bone
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supraperiosteal or field block .. numbs the region innervated by the terminal branches of the _____ _____ including: (what does it anesthetize?)
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dental plexus including: pulp and root area of specific tooth, buccal periodontium tissues, mucous membrane
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when to use field block?
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1-2 teeth
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contraindications for field block?
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inflammation or infection dense bone over apex
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what is site of deposition for field block?
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apex tooth, height muccobuccal fold, tip at apex
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ASA innervates? (what it anesthetizes)
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pulp max central, lateral, and canine buccal periodontium PDL and overlying bone upper lip and lower nose
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can ASA cross the midline and innvervate opposite side?
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yes
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what % of population can ASA originate premolars and MB root of max 1st molar. but not be numbed in those teeth
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72%
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contraindication of ASA?
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infection or acute inflammation
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what gauge use for ASA and area to inject?
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27 short or 25 short in canine fossa between lateral and canine height muccobuccal fold needle parallel to long axis of canine, follow contour maxilla bone
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depth of insertion of ASA?
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3-6mm
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Site of deposition of ASA?
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well above apex canine in canine fossa
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deposit how much for ASA?
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0.9-1.2 ml soln
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The IO inj anesthetizes which nerves?
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ASA MSA
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MSA anesthetizes?
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pulp 1st and 2nd premolar and MB root first molar buccal periodontium overlying bone
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MSA use what gauge and area of injection?
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27 short or 25 short above 2nd premolar at height muccobuccal fold
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If patient has 1 premolar where do u do a MSA?
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apex of that premolar
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depth of insertion for MSA?
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5-8mm
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Deposit how much for MSA?
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0.9-1.2ml
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Amides metabolizes in what?
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liver
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Esters metabolizes in the ?
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plasma
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what are the 5 types of amide LA? and which is gold standard?
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articane bupivacaine Lidocaine** gold standard Mepivacaine Prilocaine
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what are the 2 esters of LA? no longer used
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procaine (novocane) and propoxycaine
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what is important to know about LA agents prior to administer them to patient?
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duration of action MRD contrindications
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short duration lasts how many min? and which LA are included?
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less than 30 pulpal Lido 2% Mepivacaine 3% Prilocaine 4% (infiltration) all plain.. no epi
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Intermediate duartion is __min pulpal?
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60
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long duration is how many min pulpal? which LA?
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90 + Bupivacaine .5% 1:200,000 epi
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when a lot of s0ft tissue must be penetrated to get to the nerve it is harder to maintain accuracy of deposition which can INCREASE OR DECREASE the duration??
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decrease
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inflammation, infection or pain INCREASES OR DECREASES duration anest.?
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decreases
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increased vascularity decreases the duration because?
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drug absorbed rapidly
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Lidocaine onset of action
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2-3 min
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duration of lido plain..pulpal and soft tissue
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5-10 min pulpal 1-2 hrs soft tissue
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duartion lido 2% 1:50,000 epi
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60 min pulap 3-5 hrs soft tissue
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duration lido 2% 1:100,000 epi
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60 min pulpal 3-5 hrs soft tissue
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mepivacaine 3% plain onset? duartion?
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onset 1.5-2 min 20-40 in pulpal 2-3 hrs soft tissue
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which anesth recc for pt when a vaso is not indicated? and the least vasodialating
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mepivacaine
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prilocaine plain onset?
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2-4 min
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prilocaine plain duration for field block?
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10-15 min pulpal 1.5-2hrs soft tissue
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prilocaine plain duration nerve block ?
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40-60 min pulpal 2-4 hrs soft tissue
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prilocaine 1:200,000 epi duration?
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60-90 min pulpal 3-8 hr soft tissue
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Which LA does metabolism occur in both the plasma and liver?
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Articaine
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Articaine onset?
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1-3 min
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articaine 4% 1:200,000 epi duration?
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45-60 min pulpal 2-5 hr soft tissue
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articaine 4% 1:100,000 epi duration?
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60-75 min pulpal 3-6 hr soft tissue
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DO NOT use articaine on patients with what kind of sensitivities?
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SULFITE
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Bupivacaine .5% 1:200,000 onset and duration?
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onset 6-10 min 90-180 min pulpal 4-9 hr soft tissue
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which LA is the most toxic and most vasodialating of the amides???
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bupivacaine
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For palatine injection place topical for a full __ min?
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2
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for palatine injections do you use pressure anesth. before or during injection?
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both
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The GP anesth which areas?
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posterior hard palate overlying soft tissues premolar region medial to midline palate
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what are contraindications of GP?
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inflammation or infection smaller areas of therapy
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What gauge do you use for GP? and area to insert?
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27 short palatal soft tissue anterior greater palatal foramen
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What is path of insertion for GP?
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syringe from opposite side of mouth at right angle target area
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the GP foramen is usually located distal to the ?
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max 2nd molar
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what is the depth of insertion and amount of LA for a GP?
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4-6mm and .45-.6 ml
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true or false? in order to give an accurate injection of GP you need to enter th GP foramen?
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false. very painful
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Gp has what % success rate?
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95%
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with a GP anesthesia of the palatal area of the ___ ____ may be inadeq. due to the NP fibers overlapping
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1st premolar
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what are some complications with a GP?
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ischemia ( lack blood supply) causing necrosis when highly concentrated vasoconstrictors are used over long period * necrosis. will look like ulceration heal in 2 wks
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Nasopalatine area to anesthetize?
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anterior hard palate and overlying tissues, mesial of right 1st premolar and mesial left 1st premolar
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yes or no NP has pulpal anesth?
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no
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yes or no hemostasis for np?
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no
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NP gauge? and area of insertion?
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27 short palatal mucosa lateral incisive papilla
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how much deposit on a NP?
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0.45 ml
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Local anesthesia is the ____ of _______ in an area of the body caused by a ______ of _______ in nerve endings or an inhibition of the conduction of a nerves ________
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loss of sensation depression of excitation impulse
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neurophysiology is a roadblock of the source of the impulse and the _____, preventing the ________ of ______
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brain, interpretation of pain
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A nerve impulse or neuron carries messages from one part of the body to ____? These messages are called?
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to another called, electrical action protentials or impulses
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A neuron or nerve cell are??
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the structural unit of the neuron system
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There are 2 basic neurons that are present. Name the 2 types:
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sensory or afferent neurons motor or efferent neurons
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The sensory or afferent neuron conduct impulses from the ____ to the ______
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periphery to the CNS
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The motor neuron conducts impulses from the ____ to the _____
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CNS periphery
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Draw and label the structure of a sensory neuron
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dendritic zone in the periphery axon cell body or soma terminal arborization for the synapse with the CNS
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Draw and label parts of the motor or effect neuron
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cell body axon dendritic zone
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true or false.. sensory nerves are afferent, going from the CNS to periphery
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false. periphery to CNS
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Peripheral nerves are made up of many axons bundled together in groups called??
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fasciculi
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The outer region of the nerve is called?
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mantle
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the fasciculi in the mantle are called the?
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mantle bundles
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the center portion of the nerve is called? which contains the ____ _____ of the fasciculi
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core core bundles
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peripheral nerve anatomy: the fibers of the mantle innervate areas _____ to them while the fibers of core innervate sites _____ _____
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close further away
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A nerve that carries messages from one part of the body to another in form of impulses are called??
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action potential
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action potential: depolarization of the nerve membrane results from a _____ in the membrane permeability to ___ and ____
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increase potassium and sodium
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what 4 stimuli initiates a IMPULSE?
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chemical stimuli thermal stimuli mechanical electrical
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What are the 3 phases of a nerve conduction?
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resting state depolarization repolorization
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which phase of the nerve conduction is the non conducting nerve occur?
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resting state
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which phase of nerve conduction does the membrane excitation occur?
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depolorization
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Name 2 parts of the repolarization phase
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absolute refractory period relative refractory period
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A negative electrical potential ___mv exits across the nerve membrane . this is produced by differing concentrations of ions on either side of membrane
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-70mv
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the interior of the is ____ relative to the exterior. negative or positive??
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negative
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during the resting state the nerve membrane is slightly permeable to _____ freely permeable to ___ and ___
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sodium potassium and chloride
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DEPOLORIZATION: stimulus excites the nerve causing more permeability to ___ *influx of ___ causes nerve to undergo depolarization depolarization results in initiation and spread of an impulse along the nerve to the _____
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Na Na CNS
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depolarization begin slow/fast?
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slowly
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depolarization: ______ ______ occurs when the nerve membrane changes by 15mv then ____ _____ is now -50 to -60mV
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firing potential membrane potential
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depolarization: In a normal nerve the ____ ____ remains constant?
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firing thershold
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exposure to a local anesthetic raises/lowers? a nerves firing thershold
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raises because a lot Na+ pass membrane to decrease to a level where depolarization occurs
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depolarization: firing potential is reached, nerve is more freely permeable to? * ___ begin to diffuse out *the influx of Na ions cause the nerve to undergo ____ _____ * at the end of depolarization the transmembrane electrical potential is ___mv
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Na K+ rapid depolarization +40
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which phase? action potential is terminated when the membrane ______ caused by an inactivation to sodium *nerve returns to resting state
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repolarization
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repolarization: SODIUM PUMP the ____ ions remain in axoplasm (inside cell) the ____ ions remain in extracellular fluid *metabolic activity begins: sodium pump moves remaining __ out of nerve sodium pump moves __ from the outside to inside cell
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Na K+ Na k
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what period of repolarization phase? nerve is unable to respond to a stimulus regardless of its strength? time when a new impulse can be initiated but only by a stronger than normal stimulus ?
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absolute refractory period relative refractory period
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sensory neurons are myelinated, not unmyelinated. t/f?
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false they are both
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myelinated neurons are what type of delta fibers? is it a sharp, bright pain or slow burning pain?
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A delta fiber sharp bright pain
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unmyelinated neurons are what type fiber? sharp, bright pain or slow burning pain?
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c fibers slow burning pain
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A delta fibers and C fibers are responsible for transmitting ____ input from the dental and periodontal tissues. Both are in pump, there is more __ fibers than _ fibers
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sensory c a
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what are nodes of ranvier?
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allow nerve impulse to go much faster in comparison to unmyelinated nerve
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In a myelinated nerve the impulse leaps from node to node. What is this called?
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salutatory conduction
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When the nerve is myelinated, conduction more rapid and energy efficient. Greater the ____ of the axon, thicker the myelin sheath. therefore salutatory conduction occurs more rapidly in thicker axon
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diameter
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______ fiber which is myelinated. transmit a sharp stabbing type pain while the unmyelinated ___ fiber transmit slow, burning pain
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A delta C
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Local anesthesia is a ___ of sensation in a circumscribed area of the body caused by a _________ of excitation in nerve endings.
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Loss Depression
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What is is called when local anesthetics achieve their effects by binding to specific receptors within the sodium channels of a nerve thereby altering nerve condution.
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Conduction blockage
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How much of the nerve should local anesthetic cover to ensure its effects?
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8-10mm
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In a myelinated nerve, the anesthetic must block the action potential in at least how many nodes of ranvier?
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2-3 consecutive nodes
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What are some properties of an ideal anesthetic?
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Sterile Non-irritating to tissues Reversible (it will wear off) Low systemic toxicity Effective when injected as well as topically Quick onset Sufficient duration Non-Allergenic Readily metabolized Adequate potency without use of harmful concentrations
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What is the composition of an anesthetic carpule?
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Vasoconstrictor (optional) -Epinephrine -Levonordefrin Antioxidant/preservative (sodium sulfite) -only present when there's a vasoconstrictor Alkalining agent- adjusts the pH & makes solution more basic Sodium chloride- makes solution isotonic for surrounding tissue Sterile water- provides volume to solution (main component)
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What are the two categories of local anesthetics?
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Esters (mainly used as topical) Amides
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Why aren't esters used as an injectable drug in the US?
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They are associated with a higher risk for allergies
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The three components of local anesthetics are:
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Lipophilic Intermediate chain Hydrophilic
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True/False: local anesthetics either have a liphophilic component or a hydrophilic component, but not both.
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False- Local anesthetics contain both lipophilic and hydrophilic components.
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Esters and amides are classified according to its __________.
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Chemical linkage
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____________ ________ determines the classification.
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Intermediate chain
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Local anesthetics must diffuse through ______ __________ and ________.
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Nerve Membrane Tissue
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True/False: Local anesthetics can either be lipid or water soluble.
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False- it must be both. Lipid soluble- gets through the membrane Water soluble- gets through the tissues
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Lipophilic component contains a _________ _____ which enables penetration of lipid-rich nerve sheath and is responsible for lipid solubility.
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Benzene ring
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Lipid solubility of the local anesthetic is determined by __________.
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it's potency
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Hydrophilic component, when combined with __________ _____, allows anesthetic to diffuse through _________ _______ in the tissues to reach the nerve.
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Hydrochloric acid (HCl) Interstitial fluid
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What is an esters mode of biotransformation?
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Metabolized in the plasma
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What is an amides mode of biotransformation?
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Metabolized in the liver
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Esters were developed first but mainly used as _________ and it's name is _________.
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topical Benzocaine
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Amides are commonly used in dentistry. What are the names of anesthetics that contain amides?
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Lidocaine Mepivacaine Prilocaine Bupivacaine Etidocaine Articaine
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In their original form, local anestetics are basic compounds that are poorly ________ in water, ________ to air, and not clinically valuable. When combined with ___________ _____, they form local anesthetic salts that are ________ in water (sterile saline). This makes anesthetic stable and clinically effective.
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soluble unstable Hydrocholic acid soluble
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How many ionic forms does local anesthetic salts have and what are they?
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2 RN RNH+
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The RN ionic form is the _____ and is uncharged. It is ______-soluble and enables diffusion through the nerve sheath. The RNH+ ionic form is the _______ and is charged. It _____ to receptors sites in _______ channels, blocking nerve conduction.
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base lipid cation binds sodium
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Each ionic form of local anesthetic is dependent on the _____ and ____ of the solution or surrounding enviornment.
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pKa pH
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What is pKa?
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dissociation constant. It's the molecule's affinity for hydrogen atoms. Drug with high pKa has affinity for hydrogen atoms & water soluble Drug with low pKa does not have affinity for hydrogen atoms & fat soluble
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In order for a drug to be both water and fat soluble, it must have two separate forms. What are they?
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RN (base) fat soluble form RNH+ (cation) water soluble form
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For the amount of RN and RNH+ to balance, what does it depend on?
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pH
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What is the pH of normal tissue
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pH 7.4
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Why are anesthetics more acidic than normal tissue?
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In order for anesthetics to get through soft tissue, there's a need for more RNH+ (water solubility).
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At the nerve sheath, only ___ molecules go through the lipid membrane. Inside the neuron, the ___ molecules change to the ____ for; the _____ ions block the sodium channels. Gradually, most of the ____ form outside the nerve changes to the ___ form allowing passage through the nerve sheath.
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RN RN RNH+ RNH+ RNH+ RN
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What is the pH of inflamed tissue?
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pH 5-6
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Inflammation makes the tissues have a lower pH than normal. the LA solution will have less available RN base form to go through the nerve sheath. Will the anesthetic solution penetrate the nerve membrane and why?
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Because inflamed tissues are more acidic, the RNH+ does not convert into RN which is why there isn't much RN available to penetrate the nerve membrane.
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Inflamed tissue has more ______ blood vessels causing absorption and uptake of the LA.
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dilated
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What are some characteristics of local anesthetics with epinephrine?
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Have low pH (anything with a vasoconstrictor) Makes it burn on injection Slower onset (more acidic, basic LAs work faster)
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What causes inadequate concentrations of LA in nerve fibers?
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Inaccurate site of deposition Rapid absorption of solution in blood stream (due to inflammation) Decreased pH of tissues surrounding the nerve (due to inflammation)
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What are factors that influence blood levels of LA?
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Uptake Distribution and redistribution Metabolism of ester linked anesthetics Metabolism of amide linked anesthetics Excretion
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The rate of LA is related to __________ of tissues. Route of administration ______ rate of absorption. Absorption is governed by _________ injected regardless of concentration.
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Vascularity alters quantity
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Once absorbed into the blood, LA is distributed to all body tissues such as:
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brain lung liver kidney muscle fat bone tissues with higher blood content have higher blood levels of LA
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Blood levels of anesthetic reflects:
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The rate at which the drug is absorbed in the CVS The rate at which the drug is distributed to the tissue and The elimination of the drug through metabolism or excretion
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The rate that the drug is removed from the blood is the ___________ _____-______. It tells you how long a drug stays in your system.
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Elimination half-life
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________ binding may prolong the time that the drug is in the blood.
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Protein (other drugs a person may be taking)
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Metabolism of an ester and hydrolysis occurs in the plasma through _________________.
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Pseudocholinesterase
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True/False: Allergy of esters are related to para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) which is why ester injectable anesthetics are no longer common.
answer
True
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Metabolism of an amide is primarily metabolized by ________ _________.
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Microsomal enzymes
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True/False: Both prilocaine and articaine are metabolized in the liver and lungs.
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False: Prilocaine is metabolized in the liver and lungs Articaine is metabolized in the liver and blood
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Hepatic dysfunction or hepatic disease cause the inability to metabolize _______ at a normal rate.
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Amides
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Which organ is a primary excretory organ of both esters and amides?
answer
Kidney
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What are patients with kidney problems at risk for when given LA?
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Toxicity because the drug is not excreted as effectively and the drug stays in the blood longer.
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True/False: Both esters and amides cross the placenta in significant quantity.
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True Be careful with pregnant patients
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What are some factors that influence toxicity?
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Type of drug Concentration Route of administration Vascularity of tissue Vasoconstrictor Weight of patient Rate of metabolism and excretion
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What are some adverse effects of LA?
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Administration into vascular tissue (injecting into a blood vessel) Giving too high a dosage Giving the anesthetic too quickly Poor drug clearance from the body (people with poor liver/kidney problems)
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Why is it important to aspirate?
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The higher the blood level, the greater the chance for systemic toxicity.
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At toxic levels, the CNS pharmacological action is __________ and things slow down.
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depression
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True/False: Toxic or overdose levels of LA present CNS depression and tonic-clonic episodes.
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True Seizures are primary clinical manifestation
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What can happen to the CVS when toxicity occurs?
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Decrease electrical excitability of myocardium and electrical conduction rate and form of contraction. Hypotension at overdose levels Complete collapse of cardiovascular system at lethal levels (stops heart)
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Allergic reactions are rare with LA that contain amides, but what are signs of an allergy? What causes the reaction?
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Mild rash to anaphylaxis Sulfites
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How deep into the tissue can topical take its effects and aids in comfortable needle penetration?
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2-3mm into tissue
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Topical anesthetics aid in a _________ injection.
answer
comfortable
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Topical gel contains what kind of anesthetic?
answer
Benzocaine
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True/False: Topical anesthetic anesthetizes deep tissue or hard tissues.
answer
False- it only anesthetizes 2-3 mm of tissues
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Topical anesthetics come in ______ concentration thatn local anesthetic to facilitate _________ of the drug.
answer
Higher Diffusion
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True/False: Topical anesthetics have a greater chance for toxicity than injectable anesthetics and cause most cases of toxicity.
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First statement is true, Second statement is false. Though topical anesthetics have a greater chance for toxicity, it is poorly absorbed in the CVS in topical forms.
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Topical anesthetics do not contain _____________ and are rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream and have vasodilating properties.
answer
vasoconstrictors
question
True/False: It's okay to administer topical gel to patients with ester allergies because it's not absorbed systemically and doesn't cause any reaction.
answer
False: it is not okay to administer topical anesthetic to patients who have ester allergies. It causes a localized allergic response such as blister/hive at the spot applied.
question
What types of topical are available?
answer
Gel Ointment Liquid Spray Bioadhesive Matrix
question
Topical anesthetic sprays should be metered spray dose. If the spray is unmetered, the risk of _________ is much greater. A problem with sprays is keeping the nozzle _______.
answer
overdose sterile
question
Topical anesthetic bioadhesive matrix contains 46.1mg of __________ and last for ___ mins. It helps prevent ______ by keeping blood concentrations very low.
answer
lidocaine 30 toxicity
question
What are some precautions to topical anesthetics?
answer
Place topical at injection site only Apply to no more than 3 teeth at a time Full quadrant application not indicated and could lead to an overdose Spray forms doses cannot be monitored
question
What is the procedure for placing topical?
answer
Explain what and why Dry site Apply to site and do not rub (causes sloughing and higher dosage) Wipe off excess after 1-2 mins
question
What are the major differences between benzocaine and lidocaine as topical anesthetics?
answer
Benzocaine: Higher incidence of localized allergy, not suitable for injection
question
True/False: Most undesirable reactions to LA are a response to the drugs itself and not the act of getting an injection.
answer
False- Most undesirable reactions to LA are response to the ACT of getting an injection and not the drug itself.
question
What are the two common undesirable reactions to LA?
answer
Vasodepressor syncope Hyperventilation
question
What should be done prior to treatment?
answer
Determine patients tolerance Make modifications as necessary Review medical history Take vital signs Review dental questionnaire
question
A medical/dental questionnaire should be done. What are some things that should be known about a patient?
answer
Presence of pain Anxiety Past dental experiences Hospitalization Under care of physician History of bleeding History/presence of medical condition Allergic reactions to medication Allergic reaction to other substances Medications or drugs taking now or previously
question
A patients ____ status determine any modifications to treatment. _____ status I-III may receive vasoconstrictors in LA.
answer
ASA ASA
question
True/False: ASA IV Cardiovascular risk patient are good candidates for elective dental treatment.
answer
False- ASA IV and beyond are not good candidates for dental treatment. They are too compromised.
question
Patients who are ASA III-IV with congestive heart failure (choose all that apply): a) have decreased liver perfusion b) do not metabolize the anesthetic as readily c) increase the half-life of amide anesthetics d) increased risk of overdose e) should not have a medical consult f) stress reduction protocol with nitrous oxide g) modification of positioning- risk of orthopnea
answer
All EXCEPT E. The patient SHOULD have a medical consult.
question
Myocardial infarction during the past 6 months is considered ASA ___. Elective dental treatment is ___________. After 6 months, ASA status is considered ASA ____. Vasoconstrictors are ______ after 6 month period.
answer
IV contraindicated III limited
question
Vasoconstrictors are ok when angina is ______. Anxiety may precipitate an attack. Unstable angina represents ASA ____ and cannot be treated. Medical consult may be ________.
answer
stable IV indicated
question
Blood pressure should be take at _______ appointment. With mild to moderate elevated BP, clinician should ________ vasoconstrictors.
answer
Every limit
question
Patients with heart operation, heart murmur, congenital heart lesion, rheumatic fever, and scarlet fever should all get what before dental treatment?
answer
Medical consultation- determination of antibiotic premedication
question
Guidelines say that these cases still need antibiotic premedication. Which are they: a) artificial heart valves b) history of infective endocarditis c) mitral valve prolapse d) certain, specific, serious congenital heart conditions e) cardiac transplant that develops a problem in a heart valve d) bicuspid valve disease
answer
a, b, d, e Mitral valve prolapse bicuspid valve disease rheumatic heart disease calcified aortic stenosis heart pacemakers congenital heart conditions such as ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy no longer need antibiotic premedication
question
Cardiovascular- compromised patient can have ____mg of epinephrine per appointment. The maximum catridges of 4ml of a 1:100,000 is ___ or 8ml of a 1:200,000 is ___.
answer
.04mg 2 cartridges 4 cartridges
question
Acetaminophen can _______ methemoglobin levels and is a relative contraindication to what type of anesthetic?
answer
elevate Articaine (lower amount)
question
Cimetidine (Tagamet and Peptol) increase the ____-____ of amide anesthetics. It is only an issue if a patient is ASA ____ and has congestive heart failure. __________ dose of amides should be used.
answer
half-life III Minimal
question
What should be done with non-selective beta blockers
answer
Monitor heart rate, rhythm and BP Strictly limit vasoconstrictors Limit usage of lidocaine
question
Patients taking Tricyclic Antidepressants, avoid ____________: tricyclics can increase the vasoconstricting properties by 5-10 times. Limit _____________: tricyclics can increase vasopressor effects by 2x.
answer
levenordefrin epinephrine
question
Phenothiazines can decrease vasopressor effects and create hypotension if injected intravascularly. Limit usage of ____________.
answer
Vasoconstrictors
question
If a patient is using cocaine, what can it do?
answer
CNS & CVS stimulant If vasoconstrictor is given, can cause significant dysrhythmias, myocardial infarction, or cardiac arrest Reschedule if taken within 24 hours
question
If a patient is using methamphetamine, what can it do?
answer
If vasoconstrictor is given, it can cause heart attack, stroke, hypertensive crisis. Reschedule if taken within 24 hours
question
If a patient is using marijuana, what may happen when given LA?
answer
It will be harder for the patient to receive the benefits of anesthetic.
question
True/False: Giving a patient with a sodium bisulfite or metabisulfite allergy a carpule of lidocaine with epinephrine is the best decision.
answer
False: Epinephrine is the vasoconstrictor. Anesthetics with vasoconstrictors contain sulfite as its preservative. Patients with sulfite allergies can only receive plain anesthetics.
question
A patient who is allergic to methylparaben (PABA) should ________ the use of an ester topical.
answer
Avoid
question
True/False: Patients with latex allergies should not be given anesthetics because of the latex diaphragms.
answer
False: Theoretically is it a contraindication, but there are no cases reported of an allergic reaction due to the latex diaphragm.
question
Where does the Mental Nerve Exit?
answer
Mental Foramen
question
Where is the Incisive nerve located and what does it innervate?
answer
Continues a long in the Mandibular Canal and innervates the premolars and anteriors.
question
TRUE/FALSE :Incisive nerve block is a bilateral injection.
answer
FALSE: It is a unilateral injection meaning that it will only anesthetize the area being injected.
question
What teeth are anesthetized with the Incisive nerve block?
answer
-Mandibular 1st and 2nd premolar, canine, lateral incisor, and central incisor.
question
What area of the Gingiva is anesthetized with Incisive nerve block?
answer
Mandibular buccal gingiva from the mental foramen to the midline.
question
What other areas are anesthetized with Incisive nerve block?
answer
-PDL from 2nd premolar to central incisor -bone overlying these teeth -Mandibular Buccal Mucosa -lower lip and skin of chin to midline.
question
What is being anesthetized in a Incisive nerve block? (Nerves)
answer
-Incisive and Mental nerve
question
TRUE/FALSE: The lingual tissue will not get numb with the Incisive block.
answer
TRUE: only the IABL anesthetizes the lingual nerve.
question
What are contraindicatoins with Incisive nerve block?
answer
-Infection or Inflammation
question
What are some advantages/disadvantages for the Incisive Nerve block?
answer
Advantages: Highly Successful -Provides pulpal and hard tissue without having the tongue numb Disadvantages: -No lingual anesthesia
question
What is the percentage aspiration for the Incisive nerve block?
answer
5.7 %
question
What are some complications with this injection?
answer
-Hematoma -Trauma to the nerves if the needle enters the foramen
question
What are reasons why the Incisive nerve block will lack pulpal anesthesia?
answer
-Inadequate solution in the mental foramen -Not enough extra oral pressure
question
What is needed to provide pulapal anesthesia?
answer
Anesthetic needs to enter the foramen, by achieving this pressure must be applied to the area for 2 minutes. Do not rub the area.
question
Where is the mental foramen Located?
answer
-Can visually be seen in radiographs in between the 1st and 2nd premolar.
question
How can you locate the mental foramen?
answer
Palpation
question
What gauge is used for the Incisive nerve block and what area?
answer
25 or 27 gauge short Muccobuccal fold in the area between the 1st and 2nd premolar.
question
Depth of Penetration?
answer
5-6mm
question
deposit of solution for incisive?
answer
0.6-0.9ml
question
What happens if pressure is not provided after the injection?
answer
You will only give a mental nerve block and will only get soft tissue numb.
question
What nerve is the largest of the Trigeminal Nerve?
answer
Mandibular Nerve
question
TRUE/FALSE: Mandibular nerve only has sensory roots.
answer
FALSE: Mandibular nerve consist of both sensory and motor roots
question
Where does the mandibular nerve exit?
answer
Foramen Ovale
question
What are the muscles of the anterior division (motor branches) that innervate the muscles of mastication?
answer
Masseter Temporalis Lateral Pterygoid
question
What are the sensory nerves of the posterior division?
answer
Auriculotemporal nerve Lingual nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Incisive and mental nerve
question
What nerve is the largest branch of the mandibular nerve?
answer
Inferior Alveolar Nerve
question
TRUE/FALSE: The IA is the most used injection in dentistry.
answer
TRUE
question
What other nerve are also Anesthetized besides the IA?
answer
Lingual and Buccal Nerve
question
What is the clinical failure rate for the IABL?
answer
15-20%
question
Teeth anesthetized for IABL?
answer
From the mandibular molars to the midline anteriors
question
Structures that are anesthetized for IA/Lingual?
answer
Anterior 2/3 of tongue Lingual soft tissue from molar to midline Buccal gingiva anterior to 1st molar
question
What are indication for the IABL?
answer
Dental procedure requiring multiple teeth in one quadrant Lingual soft tissue anesthesia is required
question
What are some contraindications for IABL?
answer
Infection or inflammation of tissue Hemophiliacs Patient at risk for self injury Hemostasis, rather than pain control, is needed
question
disadvantages for IABL?
answer
Anatomy is not consistent High failure rate 15-20%
question
What is the percentage of positive aspiration?
answer
10-15% highest of all injections
question
What are complication associated with the IABL?
answer
Trismus Hematoma Transient Facial Paralysis Electric Shock due to contact with lingual nerve
question
What is Trasient Facial Paralysis and why does it occur?
answer
Occurs when the needle is over inserted and solution is deposited in the parotid gland which causes numbness of the facial nerve. This happens when bone is not contacted and the solution is deposited.
question
Alternative techniqes for IABL?
answer
Gow Gates Nerve block Mental/Incisive Nerve block
question
What gauge is used?
answer
25 gauge long
question
Anatomical landmarks for the IABL?
answer
Coronoid Notch Pterygomandibular Raphe
question
What is the Coronoid Notch?
answer
Where the external oblique ridge begins to curve upward. Also lined up with the mandibular foramen. Allow operator to inert at a site higher than the foramen which will anesthetize around the nerve before entering the foramen.
question
What is the pterygomandibular raphe?
answer
Band of attachment of the buccinator muscle to the superior constrictor muscle of the pharynx
question
Where is the height of the injection?
answer
Slightly superior to the apex of the raphe triangle or 2 to 3 mm higher than the level of the coronoid notch. 6-10 mm above the occlusal plane of the mandibular molars 1/2 to 2/3 of the raphe
question
Where is the syringe placed?
answer
At the corner of the mouth on the opposite side that is being injected over the contralateral premolars.
question
Depth of Penetration and how much of needle should be visible?
answer
20-25mm depth of penetration 7-12 mm of needle should be showing
question
How much solution should be administered for the IA, Lingual, and Buccal?
answer
IA: 1.5mL Lingual: 0.2 cc Buccal: 0.2-0.3 cc
question
What happens when you are too shallow and how do you correct it?
answer
You hit bone too early and the needle is located too anteriorly on the ramus. To correct move the syringe more anterior over the canine. Once depth has been reach move syringe back over premolars.
question
How do you correct if you are too deep?
answer
Withdraw the needle slightly and leave about 5mm of needle in tisssue and reposition barrel over the molar and continue until bone is contacted.
question
After the IA has been given, the Lingual block is given next. How many mm of the needle is withdrawed from the tissue?
answer
About half way 8-10 mm of the needle should be left in tissue.
question
TRUE/FALSE: When giving anesthetic to the lingual, no need to aspirate since the injection site is the still the same.
answer
FALSE: Aspiration is always done even with slight movement.
question
What areas does the buccal nerve anesthetize?
answer
Buccal gingiva and periosteum of the mandibular molars Skin of the cheek Mucosal membranes in the area of the mandibular molars
question
Syringe alignment for the Buccal nerve?
answer
Parallel to the occlussal plane Distal and buccal to the last molar
question
Depth of penetration for the buccal nerve?
answer
3-4mm
question
What are complications for this injections?
answer
Minimal positive aspiration Hematoma may occur
question
Should topical be placed at different times?
answer
No, topical should be placed at the same time for both injections since recapping is not necessarry to give both the IA/L and buccal
question
What are some useful tips for pediatric anesthesia?
answer
-Never lie to the child -Tell them what to expect -Make sure child know you are in charge -Use topical -Do not show needle -Avoid palatal injections -Give slow injections
question
TRUE/FALSE: The depth of penetration is not less in children.
answer
FALSE: The depth of penetration is less since the bone in less dense and more porous. *Short needles should be used for both arches
question
Why are PDL injections contraindicated in primary teeth?
answer
Enamel Hypolplasia can be caused on the underlying permanent teeth.
question
What can help prevent Toxicity?
answer
Use LA with vasoconstrictor when treating more than one quadrant. LA without vaso can be used if appointments are short and confined
question
Why is the PSA not necessary?
answer
Zygomatic process closer to maxilla in children ( a risk for hematoma) Infiltration will be very effective
question
When is the ASA necessary?
answer
Multiple restorations are needed The depth of penetration is just slightly deeper than infiltration
question
TRUE/FALSE: Is the Nasopalatine done the same way as an adult
answer
TRUE, but palatal injections not recommended unless necessary
question
Where is the Greater Palatine located?
answer
Visualize imaginary line from most posterior erupted tooth to the midline. If 1st permanent molar is not erupted penetrate 10 mm behind the last primary molar.
question
How are papillary injections done in children?
answer
Similar to adults, insert horizontally into buccal papilla and advance needle towards palatal side
question
Why are infiltrations effective in mandible?
answer
Less dense and more porous. When child gets older the bone becomes dense.
question
What makes the Inferior Alveolar very successful in children?
answer
The mandibular foramen lies distal and inferior to the occlusal plane.
question
When the child ages, about how much does the foramen move?
answer
About 7mm
question
Where is the syringe barrel placed for the IA in children?
answer
Over the primary molars on the opposite side of the mouth.
question
IA depth penetration and needle used for kids?
answer
Depth: 15 mm Needle: 25 or 27 gauge short Don't forget to evaluate the size of the child and mandible Buccal is done the same as adults
question
What will the mental/incisive anesthetize?
answer
All 5 primary teeth in a quadrant
question
Where is the mental foramen located in children?
answer
In between the two primary molars
question
What are sign and symptoms of overdose toxicity?
answer
-Restleness -Tremors -Sweating -V omitting -Decrease in BP and cardiac output -CNS and CVS depression
question
How to prevent Overdose?
answer
-Inject slowly -Aspirate -a needle that reliably aspirates -use LA with vaso
question
Clarks Rule
answer
Child Weight in lbs x Adult MRD = Child Dose ------------------------------------------- 150
question
How many carpules of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine can safely be administered to a 50 lb child?
answer
2.5 carpules
question
How many carpules of 3% Mepivicaine without a vasoconstrictor can safely be administered to a 50 lb child?
answer
1.5 carpules
question
How to avoid injuries?
answer
-Watch for cheek biting -select appropriate anesthetic for duration procedures -advise patient and guardian -put a warning sticker on forehead or hand -use cotton roll to protect lip
question
When discovered nitrous oxide?
answer
Joseph Priestly in 1772
question
What year was it first used in dentistry?
answer
1844
question
In _________ it was combined with __________ for use in pain control.
answer
1868 oxygen
question
What are the reasons for use?
answer
Helps patients relax Provides pain control for procedures that are slightly moderate to painful.
question
Nitrous Oxide is a ________ anesthetic but _________ analgesic.
answer
weak strong
question
TRUE/FALSE: Nitrous oxide does not raise a person's threshold.
answer
FALSE
question
What are the goals of N2O Sedation?
answer
-Relieves anxiety and fear -Stress reduction -Reduce pain Perception -Amnesia and analgesia effects -Light sedation and mood alteration -Patient remains conscious with protective reflexes intact
question
What are the advantages of N2O?
answer
-Simple and Safe -No allergies -Reduction in gag reflex -Onset & recover are fast -Time and perception can be altered
question
What are the disadvantages of N2O?
answer
-Vertigo, nausea, vomitting -Extreme behavior problems -Equipment is cubersome -Mask gets in the way -Long term exposure may cause health problems
question
What are some indications for patients?
answer
-Asthma -Epilepsy -Cardiovascular or cerebrovascular disease -Parkinson's disease Cerebral palsy, Multiple Sclerosis, Muscular dystrophy -Fainting Spells
question
What are some contraindications?
answer
- Communication and cooperation difficulty -COPD (Emphysema, Bronchitis) -Nasal Obstruction (cold, allergies, sinus infection) -Patient don't want N2O -Middle ear disturbances (increase pressure on tympanic membrane) -Pregnancy (N2O crosses the Placenta, avoid 1st trimester) -Personality disorder and emotional instability -Claustrophobia -Sever behavior problems -May need a medical consultant with physician to determine whethere there is a sensitivity to N2O.
question
Can you use Nitrous on a patient with a cold?
answer
No, obstruction not able to breath in and out.
question
Your patient had a stroke 12 months ago. Can you safely administer Nirtous Oxide?
answer
Yes
question
Does Nitrous Oxide lower a patient's threshold for pain?
answer
No, it raises it.
question
Will nitrous help reduce gagging?
answer
Yes
question
Nitrous is stored as a ____________ and is delivered as a ___________. Oxygen is strored as a Gas.
answer
Liquid Gas
question
TRUE/FALSE: Both oxygen and nitrous are colorless and odorless.
answer
FALSE Nitrous is colorless, but it has a sweet odor.
question
Nitrous is stored in a __________cylinder and oxygen is stored in a _________ cylinder.
answer
Blue Green
question
Full tank is nitrous is at ______ psi and oxygen is at _______psi.
answer
750 2100
question
Nitrous is relatively ________ in blood and is rapidly eliminated from blood to __________.
answer
insoluble lungs
question
Will nitrous have an effect on blood pressure, hear rate, liver or kidney function?
answer
No, it will not just as long as there is an adequate amount of oxygen that is administered at the same time.
question
Nitrous has affects on sensations as ________, _________, ____________, and _____________.
answer
hearing, touch, pain, warmth
question
Nitrous is a ________ depressant. It affects the _________, __________, __________, and ____________.
answer
cerebral cortex, thalamus, hypothalamus, reticular activating system.
question
TRUE/FALSE: Pain perception is blocked, LA is not needed to manage pain
answer
FALSE, anesthetic is needed to help reduce pain.
question
What happens when there is too much nitrous oxide and not following up with proper oxygenation?
answer
Diffusion Hypoxia
question
TRUE/FALSE: Nitrous oxide administration can increase a patient's blood pressure.
answer
FALSE, it does not have an effect
question
What is stage I?
answer
Analgesia/Sedation: Patient feels pain but does not care
question
What is stage II?
answer
Excitement/Delirium: Hyper responsive to stimuli, exaggerated response, loss of conciousness
question
What is stage III?
answer
Surgical Anesthesia: Oral Surgery
question
What is stage IV?
answer
Medullary Paralysis/Death: Major surgery in a hospital setting
question
What are sign and symptoms of early to ideal sedation?
answer
-Facial muscl relax -light- headedness -Tingling/numbness -light or floating feeling -mouth remains opened -Vital signs are normal -Regular Breathing -Skin has a slight flush
question
What are sign and symptoms of heavy sedation to slight overdose?
answer
-Hearing acute -Visual images confused -Sleepiness -Laughing, crying, dreaming -Nausea -Mouth tends to close -Less likely to respond
question
What are signs and symptoms of over sedation?
answer
-Nausea/vomiting -Mouth breathing -Patient is uncomfortable -Uncooperative -Uncoordinated movements -Patients responds irrationally
question
What are the management of over sedation?
answer
reduce N2O by 1 lpm. Use 100% of O2 flush if necessary, turn off N2O, use basic life support and call 911 if needed.
question
What to do when a patient vomits?
answer
Turn the patients head to the side to help clear the pharynx, turn off nitrous, and give 100% oxygen for 5 minutes.
question
Concentration of ____ to ____ % will have a response of body warmth, tingling of hands, and feet.
answer
10 to 20%
question
Concentration of _____ to ____% will have a response of cummoral numbness and numbness of the thighs.
answer
20 to 30 %
question
What is the ideal level of sedation (% percentage) and the responses?
answer
20 to 40 % Numbness of tongue, hands and feet Mild sleepiness Analgesia Euphoria Feeling of heaviness or lightness of body
question
What are adverse reactions and side effects to N2O?
answer
-Diffusion Hypoxia -Nausea and Vomiting -Corneal Irritation -Behavioral Problems
question
What causes Corneal Irritation?
answer
Leakage of gas from mask, causes dry eyes. If patient has contact lenses ask them to remove or keep their eyes clothes.
question
What will cause equipment malfunction?
answer
-ill-fitting mask -faulty conduction tube -poor scavenger system -inadequate ventilation
question
What have studies have shown of hazards to personnel?
answer
-spontaneous abortions -birth defects -bone marrow suppression -anemia -hepatic and renal diseases -cancer
question
How to reduce N2O concentration?
answer
-use a well fitting mask -discourage talking -use a fan -have proper ventilation -open a window -wear a badge
question
What is scavengin?
answer
Removes excess nitrous oxide and minimizes the trace amounts of nitrous before, during, and after use.
question
What happens when the patient does not breath through their nose?
answer
Nitrous is not getting into their system and nitrous ends up in the atmosphere where it is unscavenged.
question
What are indications that your patient has reached an undesirable level of nitrous oxide sedation include which of the following: a) flushing of the skin b) slight dizziness c) uncontrollable laughing d) mild perspiration
answer
C) uncontrollable laughing
question
Patient was on N2O for 45 minutes. At the end of the appointment, the patient complains of headache and nausea. What is the cause of this? a) received nitrous too long b) did not receive 100% O2 for sufficient time after nitrous c) received too much 100% oxygen after nitrous d) it has nothing to do with administration of N2O
answer
b) did not receive 100% O2 for sufficient time after nirtous
question
The ideal stage of sedation for dental hygiene care is : a) stage I b) stage II c) stage III d) stage IV
answer
a) stage I
question
Your patient complains of a " hung over" feeling following of N2O administration. What is the cause? a) nausea b) corneal irritation c) diffusion hypoxia d) scavenger system
answer
c) diffusion hypoxia
question
What are the 5 parts of the equipment?
answer
-Flow meter -Pressure gauge -Yoke - Gas Hole - Reservoir Bag
question
What is needed to in order to prevent leakage of nitrous?
answer
Appropriate mask size
question
The sterilized nose mask connects to two hoses. The larger adaptor connects to the __________ and the smaller adaptor connects to the the _______________.
answer
Gas hose high-speed suction system
question
TRUE/FALSE: The clinician should always check and record health history, blood pressure, and pulse of the patients before proceeding.
answer
TRUE
question
TRUE/ FALSE: If a patients has been on substance for the past 48 hours a clinician can give nitrous to the patient.
answer
FALSE
question
What is the total tidal volume?
answer
6 L/min
question
When should you place a gauze on the area?
answer
-If the mask is too big -when mask is impinging on a sensitive area of the face
question
If patient feels that he/she is short of breath ______ the volume of oxygen. If patient feels that there is too much air coming into the mask ________ the oxygen volume.
answer
Increase Decrease
question
What is the average adult tidal volume?
answer
6-8 liters
question
When should you check with the patient after adjusting the tidal volume?
answer
Every 90 seconds
question
TRUE/ FALSE: If nitrous volumes goes up, oxygen volume must go down.
answer
TRUE
question
If patient is not at ideal sedation after 90 seconds, how much should you adjust?
answer
1/2 a liter after every 90 seconds
question
What is titration?
answer
When the flow of nitrous has reached the patients ideal sedation.
question
At what level should a clinician never reduce oxygen below while in use?
answer
2-3 Liters
question
What is the ideal level of sedation for 70% of people?
answer
30 to 40 %
question
What is the maximum level of Nitrous should not go over?
answer
42%
question
How long should the patient be on 100% oxygen after their treatment?
answer
For every 15 minutes on N2O the patient should receive 5 minutes of oxygen.
question
TRUE/FALSE: After treatment nitrous oxide needs to be turned off and oxygen needs to be turned back up to 6 lpm.
answer
TRUE
question
Why is it important to administer oxygen for at least 5 minutes to a patient following N2O sedation?
answer
To prevent diffusion hypoxia
question
What is the percentage of N2O if N2O is 1.5 lpm and O2 is 4.5 lpm?
answer
25% 1.5 /6 = 25% N2O
question
What properties does all injectable local anesthetic have?
answer
Vasodilating properties
question
Which LA have the least vasodilation?
answer
Mepivacain plain
question
What are the benefits for vasoconstrictors?
answer
1. Decrease blood flow to site of injection (vasoconstrict vessels) 2. Slows absorption of local anesthetic into CVS 3. Decreases blood level = lower toxcicity 4. LA remains around nerve longer (prolongs) 5. Smaller amount of LA can be used 6. Provides hemostasis (controls bleeding)
question
Vasoconstrictors are what kind of drugs?
answer
Sympathomimetic or Adrenergic Drugs (it "mimics" the action of "sympathetic" nervous system mediators)
question
What are sympathomimetic drugs termed?
answer
CATECHOLAMINES
question
What are the two vasoconstrictors currently used?
answer
Epinephrine and Levonordefrin
question
Epinephrine is a synthetic drug, Levonordefin is a natural drug. True or false?
answer
Both are false
question
What are the two main receptors for LA
answer
Alpha and Beta (B1 and B2)
question
Alpha receptors produces _____ through ______ of smooth muscle in blood vessles. It helps ______.
answer
1. Vasoconstrictors 2. Contractions 3. Hemostasis
question
B2 receptors produces what through smooth muscle relaxation?
answer
Vasodilation and bronchodilation
question
B2 produces what?
answer
Cardiac stimulation (increases heart rate and strength of contraction)
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