CONC – Flashcard
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1. Name 3 benefits of networking communications systems. ST #2
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Sharing Information Information Availability Access information from a distance
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2. What provides long haul data, voice, video, transport networks, services and is referred to as the backbone of the GIG? ST #3
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Defense Information System network (DISN)
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3. What resides on a Motherboard? ST 37-12
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Microprocessor, buses, memory, BIOS
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4. What computer bus allows hot-swappable peripheral connections? ST #9
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Universal Serial Bus (USB)
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5. What type of computer memory has the goal to reduce data access time? ST #11
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Cache memory
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6. What RAID level only increases access speed and does not provide redundancy? ST #13
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RAID 0 (zero)
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7. What is the conceptual model that describes how information from one computer moves across a network to another computer system? ST #18
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Open System Interconnection (OSI) model.
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8. What are the seven layers of the OSI model? ST #18
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Application -7, Presentation-6, Session-5, Transport-4, Network-4, Data Link-4, Physical-1
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9. What are the two sections that the seven layer OSI model can be divided into? ST #18
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Application (5-7) and Data Transport (1-4)
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10. What OSI layer is responsible for end-to-end connections? ST #18, CCNA #14&16
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Transport
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11. What OSI layer uses logical IP addressing and makes best path determination? ST #18, CCNA #20-21.
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Network
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12. What OSI layer uses Media Access Control (MAC) addresses and combines packets into frames? CCNA #23, 50-51
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Data Link
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13. What OSI layer actually puts the binary bits on the transmission media? ST #18, CCNA #26
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Physical
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14. List the 3 layers of the Cisco hierarchical model and briefly describe each. CCNA #64-67
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Core: Backbone Distribution: Routing Access: Switching
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15. When a router or a switch first boots up, what operation takes place first? CCNA #210
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Power on Self Test (POST)
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16. What metrics does EIGRP use to select the best possible path, and what is the default metric? CCNA #435
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Bandwidth, Delay, Load, Reliability
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17. What switch or router command would display the information in the running configurations? CCNA #2246
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Show running-config
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18. Router WAN connections are usually associated with what type of connection/transmission? CCNA 754
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Serial Transmission
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19. What is the type of encapsulation that needs to be considered/selected when preparing a router WAN connection? CCNA #754
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Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) Encapsulation
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20. If you want to configure PPP authentication on a Cisco router WAN connection, what configuration steps must be set? CCNA 760
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Hostname, Username, Password
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21. What is the Cisco default WAN encapsulation? CCNA 756
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High Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
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22. What non-proprietary WAN encapsulation supports authentication? CCNA 757
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Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
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23. What OSI layer uses data encryption, compression and transmission services to define data representation? CCNA #15
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Presentation
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24. What device connects multiple single segment Ethernet segments together so they act like a single segment (one collision domain)? ST #19, CCNA #27
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Hub
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25. What device maintains MAC address tables and uses these physical addresses to transmit data across a network? ST #20, CCNA #509
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Switch
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26. Switches speed up a LAN by implementing full-duplex operations. Can a switch connect to a hub using full duplex? CCNA #45
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NO
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27. What are the three types of RJ-45 connector cables we've talked about, and what connections do they make in our LAN? CCNA #57-58
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Straight-through: Different Crossover: Same Rolled: Console port
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28. What device works at the network layer to forward data using logical IP addresses? ST #20, CCNA #20-21
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Router
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29. In a Cisco device, what command lets you advance from user mode to privileged mode? ST #28
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Enable or EN
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30. From user mode (>), what command string would allow you to set a router's hostname to Keesler? (assume no passwords are set)? ST #33
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Enable Config t Hostname Keesler
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31. When setting a message of the day (MOTD) banner, what must precede and follow the MOTD statement that you want displayed? ST #33
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Delimitating character
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32. In a router lab environment often there are no DCE devices, so when two routers are connected via a serial connection, one router acts as a DCE device while the other router remains a DTE device. What special commands are applied to the DCE serial interface? ST #34, CCNA #242-243, 755
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Bandwidth, Clockrate
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33. What does the Cisco Discovery Protocol command: CDP timer 90 do? ST #35, CCNA #304
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set rate in seconds at which CDP packets are sent
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34. What Cisco switch command are required to enable inter-VLAN trunking on interface FAO/23? ST #61
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(config) FA0/23 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
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35. What Cisco proprietary routing protocol is classless and will support VLSM networks? CCNA #428-429.
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Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
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36. What router configuration technique supports inter-VLAN routing by allowing multiple IP addresses to be assigned to a single physical interface? CCNA #582
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Sub-interfacing
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37. What routing option ensures that routing information is not advertised out the same port it was received? CCNA #391
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Split Horizon
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38. What router options implements a list of conditions that will categorize and control network traffic? CCNA #609
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Access Lists
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39. Give an example of a standard access list that would only permit 172.30.100.34 access and deny all other network traffic? CCNA #619
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access-list 10 permit 172.30.100.34
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40. What are the three layer-2 switch functions? CCNA #509
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Address Learning, Forward/Filter Decisions, Loop Avoidance
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41. Redundant switching topologies increase reliably, but what three problems can such a topology cause? CCNA #514
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Broadcast Storms, MAC Address Table Instability, Multiple Frame Copies
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42. What switching protocol prevents network switching loops? CCNA #515
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Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
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43. With security concerns being paramount, what should you configure first in a Cisco Device? CCNA #???
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Password
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44. Being able to identify the Cisco device is important, so after you configure the passwords, you should now name the device using what command? CCNA #???
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Hostname
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45. To make global changes to your router's configuration, what command must be entered from the privileged mode prompt? CCNA #214
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config t
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46. What switch commands would be necessary to allow remote management through an application such as telnet? CCNA #529
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Setting IP information (Int vlan 1- IP address, default Gateway)
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47. What is the term that describes: When all ports on a switch have transitions to either the forwarding or blocking modes/states? CCNA #521
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Convergence
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48. What kind of firewall is a Sidewinder? ST #88
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Proxy firewall
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49. When configuring Sidewinder, why is Secure Shell preferred over talent? ST #85
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Telnet is unsecure
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50. What protocol is designed to enable network administrators to manage performance, solve problems, and plan for growth? ST #94
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Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
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51. What protocol allows managed devices to collect and store information and forward the data to Network Management Systems? ST #94
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Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
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52. What standard specification enables network monitors and console systems to exchange network monitoring data? ST #97
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Remote Monitoring (RMON)
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53. You find that an intruder has accessed your router via telnet what should you do to prevent future access, while not impeding traffic through your busy network? CCNA #609
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Create or modify access lists
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54. What type of access list would be best to implement if a worker needs to be denied access into the accounting LAN or if you to deny entire TCP or UDP protocol like all ICMP traffic? CCNA #620
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IP Extended Access List
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55. What does CITS use as its standard trouble ticketing software? ST #104
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Remedy
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56. What technology does HP Openview use to ease configuration and display the network in a graphical manner? ST #101
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Graphical User Interface (GUI)
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57. HO Openview addresses which specific levels of FCAPS? ST #101
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Fault Management, Configuration, Performance
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58. What command would be best to check if a computer can send and receive data? ST #108
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Packet Internet Groper (PING)
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59. Which command would you use from a command prompt to view the AMC address of a computer? ST #110
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ipconfig /all
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60. What program running within a Windows domain controller will assign network devices dynamic IP addresses? ST #145
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Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
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61. What type of devices are commonly configured to be DHCP clients? ST #145
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Windows clients and servers who don't require static addresses
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62. What allows you to issue more IP addressed than you have available in your subnet? ST #150
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Superscope
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63. For your DHCP server to be valid in your network, the server must be ________________ by the active directory service? ST #146
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Authorized
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64. What allows a DHCP configuration option allow a device to always get the same dynamic IP address? ST #149
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Reservation
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65. The range of allowed DHCP addresses a server can distribute is otherwise referred to as a DHCP____________________. ST #146
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Scope
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66. What are the two primary goals of network management systems? ST #101
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Reduce cost, Provide reliable/consistent service
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67. The CORE layer of the CITS model is designed to provide a _________________________. ST #167
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High-speed switching backbone
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68. Using class-full ideology and given IP address 172.20.101.67, which part is network and which part is host?
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172.20 (network) 101.67 (host)
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69. Using full-class ideology and given IP address 125.2.10.7, which part is network and which part is host?
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125 (network) 2.10.7 (host)
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70. Using full-class ideology and given IP address 193.15.1.88, which part is network and which part is host?
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193.15.1 (network) 88 (host)
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71. How many subnets are possible with a Class C address with a subnet of mask?
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62
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72. How many hosts are possible with a Class C address with a subnet of mask 255.255.255.252?
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2
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73. How many subnets are possible with a Class B address with a subnet of mask 255.255.248.0?
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30
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74. How many hosts are possible with a Class C address with a subnet of mask 255.255.255.248.0?
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2
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75. What is the class of the following IP addresses?
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172.50.30.1 - B 195.60.21.3 - C 20.69.1.1 - A
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76. Given IP address 191.243.36.43 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.224, what is the subnet?
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191.243.36.32
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77. Given IP address 171.23.30.43 and the subnet mask 255.255.248.0, what is the subnet address?
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171.23.24.0
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78. Given IP address 91.27.57.43 and the subnet mask 255.252.0.0, what is the subnet address?
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91.24.0.0
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79. How many bits is an IPV6 address and what common format is used to represent the binary number? CCNA 78-719
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128 bits, 8 groups of hexadecimal code
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80. What type of IPv6 addresses are not meant to be routed and serve the purpose as IPv4 private or reserved addresses?
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Link-local and unique local addresses
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81. What type IPV6 address is self assigned using the neighbor discovery protocol? Slideshow
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Link-local addresses
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82. How many IPV6 64-bit Extended Unique Identifier (EUI-64) employ the devices MAC address in its IPV6 address? CCNA #724
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Padding the device MAC address by inserting FFFE between the MAC organizational identified and the manufacturer's serial number and then adding it to the network prefix
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83. What type of IPV6 address types is publically routable across the World Wide Web, and using prefix notation? What is the address range? CCNA #721
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Global unicast address, 2000::/3
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84. What services do local communications commonly include? ST #2
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SIPRNet, NIPRNet, e-mail, telephone networks, LANS, & VTC
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85. What are the three main advantages of wireless networking? ST #71
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Mobility, Ease of Installation, Lower Cost
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86. Wireless LAN authentication can be provided by what 802.1 protocol? ST #76
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IEEE 802.1X
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87. What wireless LAN signaling characteristic distinguishes one wireless LAN from another wireless LAN? ST #79
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Service Set Identified (SSID)
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88. What countermeasures can you use to secure your home wireless network? ST #80
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Change default password, change SSID, disable SSID broadcast, use WPA encryption,& Enable MAC Filtering
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89. What does TELNET allow a user to do? CCNA #87-88
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It allows a user on a remote client machine (Telnet client) to access resources of another machine (Telnet )server
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90. What is the name of the contention media that allow all hosts on a network to share the same bandwidth? CCNA #43
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Ethernet
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91. What cable would you use to connect a switch to a switch? CCNA #57
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Crossover
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92. The _____________ layer using switching to control user and workgroup access to internetwork resources? CCNA #67
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Access
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93. If a router boots up with no startup configuration in NVRAM, what mode does the router enter? CCNA #212
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Setup Mode
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94. What can be used to display a security notice to people logging into your Cisco device?
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MOTD Banner
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95. What command would set your devices encrypted password to J3""y, and what mode does this password protect? CCNA #228
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Enable Secret J3^^y (privileged/enable mode)
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96. When showing an interface, is it possible for the line be down and the protocol to be up? CCNA #252
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NO, the condition is not possible
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97. How does spanning tree protocol (STP) keep track of switches? CCNA #516
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Bridge ID
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98. What are the three VLAN trunking protocol (VTP) modes? CCNA #576
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Client, Server& Transparent
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99. Where is trunking enabled (command: switchport mode trunk) when setting up inter-VLAN routing CCNA # 583
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Layer 2 switch
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100. What are the three ways to gain management access to a router? CCNA # 208
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Console Auxillary Telnet
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101. In order, what are the four STP port states? CCNA page 520
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Blocking Listening Learning Forwarding
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102. What digital service is designed to run over existing phone lines? CCNA # 746
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Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
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103. What command would you use to set a router interface to the clock rate of 64Kbps? CCNA 243-244
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Clockrate 64000
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104. When developing an access list, how should you order your entries? CCNA # 611
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Place most specific tests entries at the beginning and broad tests entries at the end
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105. What management software enables automation and management of internal and external service and support processes? ST # 105
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Remedy
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106. How does HPOV test connectivity? ST # 107
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Ping Status poll SNMPWalk Trace Route Poll node Capability Poll
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107. What tool helps diagnose network problems by allowing you to track the number of hops necessary for a packet to get to its destination? CCNA # 191-192
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Trace Route
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108. What defines a collection of one or more domain that share common schema/global catalog
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Forest
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109. Why do we define sites in active directory? ST page 125
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Control Replication Traffic Make Authentication Faster Locate the nearest server providing directory enable services
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110. What can be used to stipulate how long users can use a computer after they logon?
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Service Agreement
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111. What ensures every active duty and reserve base has an infrastructure to link future voice, data, video, imagery, and sensory systems via high capacity transport media? ST # 168
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Information Transport System (ITS)
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112. When configuring a Cisco device, what are 3 different types of passwords are used to control access? SW #s 31-32
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Enable Secret Password Console Password Virtual Terminal Password
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113. When initially configuring a router, what cable would you choose to console to a switch or router from your computer's serial port? CCNA # 58
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Rolled
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114. Frame Relay, Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), High-level Data-Link (HDLC) are what kind of protocols? CCNA 746
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WAN Protocols
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115. What are the 4 SNMP communication commands? ST # 95
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Read, Write, Trap, & Traversal operations
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116. What SNMP communication reports managed device events to a Network Management System (NMS)? ST # 95, CCNA # 91
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Trap
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117. What security device prevents unauthorized users from gaining networks access or from monitoring data transfers? ST # 85
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Firewall
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118. What server application resolves names to IP addresses? ST # 135
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Domain Name System (DNS) Server
