Chapter 12, 13, 14, 16 Test 4 – Flashcards
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A craft union's bargaining power depends greatly on the control it can exercise over the supply of its workers.
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TRUE A labor union whose members all have a particular skill or occupation are known as craft unions. Craft unions are often responsible for training their members through apprenticeships and for supplying craft workers to employers. A craft union's bargaining power depends greatly on its control over the supply of its workers.
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A union steward is a person hired by management to monitor union activity and report violations, if any.
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FALSE A union steward is an employee elected by union members to represent them in ensuring that the terms of the labor contract are enforced.
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Contrary to public perception, services industries such as finance, insurance, and real estate have higher union representation than manufacturing.
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FALSE Services industries such as finance, insurance, and real estate have lower union representation than manufacturing.
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Unlike union membership for workers in businesses, union membership among government workers has remained strong.
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TRUE Unlike union membership for workers in businesses, union membership among government workers has remained strong. Union membership in the public sector grew during the 1960s and 1970s and has remained steady ever since.
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Most studies have found that union workers are more productive than nonunion workers.
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TRUE Although there is evidence that unions have both positive and negative effects on productivity, most studies have found that union workers are more productive than nonunion workers
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In their labor relations, managers prefer to increase wages and benefits and to give maximum control to workers over work rules and schedules.
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FALSE Managers continue to prefer to keep the organization's operations flexible, so they can adjust activities to meet competitive challenges and customer demands. Therefore, in their labor relations managers prefer to limit increases in wages and benefits and to retain as much control as they can over work rules and schedules.
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Under a checkoff provision, a person must be a union member before being hired.
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FALSE Under a checkoff provision, the employer, on behalf of the union, automatically deducts union dues from employees' paychecks.
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Originally, the NLRA did not list any unfair labor practices by unions.
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TRUE Originally, the NLRA did not list any unfair labor practices by unions. In later amendments to the NLRA—the Taft-Hartley Act of 1947 and the Landrum-Griffin Act of 1959—Congress established some restrictions on union practices deemed unfair to employers and union members.
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Right-to-work laws grant both the employee and employer the right to terminate the employment relationship at any time with or without cause or notice.
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FALSE Right-to-work laws are state laws that make union shops, maintenance of membership, and agency shops illegal. The idea behind such laws is that requiring union membership or the payment of union dues restricts the employees' right to freedom of association.
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Associate union membership is linked to an employee's workplace.
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FALSE Associate union membership is not linked to an employee's workplace and does not provide representation in collective bargaining.
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Mediation is the most formal and least used method of conflict resolution.
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FALSE Mediation is a conflict resolution procedure in which a mediator hears the views of both sides and facilitates the negotiation process but has no formal authority to dictate a resolution. It is the least formal and most widely used of these procedures. A mediator hears the views of both sides and facilitates the negotiation process. The mediator has no formal authority to dictate a resolution, so a strike remains a possibility.
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Courts generally avoid reviewing arbitrators' decisions and focus only on whether the grievance involved an issue that is subject to arbitration under the contract.
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TRUE If a grievance reaches arbitration, the arbitrator makes the final ruling in the matter. Based on a series of Supreme Court decisions, courts generally avoid reviewing arbitrators' decisions and focus only on whether the grievance involved an issue that is subject to arbitration under the contract.
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Under the National Labor Relations Act, the union has a duty of fair representation, which means the union must give equal representation to all members of the bargaining unit, whether or not they actually belong to the union.
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TRUE Under the National Labor Relations Act, the union has a duty of fair representation, which means the union must give equal representation to all members of the bargaining unit, whether or not they actually belong to the union.
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Organizations formed for the purpose of representing their members' interests in dealing with employers are known as: A. employee guilds. B. sororities. C. lobbies. D. member clubs. E. labor unions.
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E. labor unions. Labor unions are organizations formed for the purpose of representing their members' interests and resolving conflicts with employers.
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Which of the following defines labor relations? A. It is an association that seeks to advance the shared interests of its member unions at the national level. B. It is the election of an employee by union members to represent them in ensuring that the terms of the labor contract are enforced. C. It is a contract provision under which the employer, on behalf of the union, automatically deducts union dues from employees' paychecks. D. It is the field that emphasizes skills that managers and union leaders can use to minimize costly forms of conflict and seek win-win solutions to disagreements. E. It is an alternative form of union membership in which members receive discounts on insurance and credit cards rather than representation in collective bargaining.
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D. It is the field that emphasizes skills that managers and union leaders can use to minimize costly forms of conflict and seek win-win solutions to disagreements.
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In the context of the three levels of decisions involved in labor relations, which of the following management decisions relates to whether the organization will work with unions or develop (or maintain) nonunion operations? A. Negotiating contracts B. Formulating labor relations strategy C. Engaging in corporate governance D. Administering contracts E. Relationship management
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B. Formulating labor relations strategy For management, the decision pertaining to labor relations strategy involves whether the organization will work with unions or develop (or maintain) nonunion operations. For unions, the decision involves whether to fight changes in how unions relate to the organization or accept new kinds of labor-management relationships.
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Which of the following decisions in labor relations involves day-to-day activities in which union members and the organization's managers may have disagreements? A. Administering contracts B. Formulating labor relations strategy C. Lobbying for labor law changes D. Negotiating contracts E. Implementing labor laws
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A. Administering contracts Decisions regarding administering of contracts involve day-to-day activities in which union members and the organization's managers may have disagreements. Issues include complaints of work rules being violated or workers being treated unfairly in particular situations. A formal grievance procedure is typically used to resolve these issues.
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A labor union all of whose members have a particular skill or occupation is known as a(n) _____ union. A. common B. industrial C. craft D. regional E. employer's
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C. craft Unions may be either craft or industrial unions. The members of a craft union all have a particular skill or occupation. Examples include the International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers for electricians and the United Brotherhood of Carpenters and Joiners of America for carpenters.
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Which of the following is true of craft unions? A. It represents many different occupations. B. Membership in the union is the result of working for a particular employer in the industry. C. Changing employers is not very common. D. It is often responsible for training members through apprenticeships. E. It consists of members who are linked by their work in a particular industry.
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D. It is often responsible for training members through apprenticeships. The members of a craft union all have a particular skill or occupation. Craft unions are often responsible for training their members through apprenticeships and for supplying craft workers to employers.
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John works at a factory of a large manufacturing company and is a member of the local chapter of a national industrial union. He believes his supervisor is not living up to the terms of the recently negotiated contract. In order to seek resolution to his grievance, John should first contact: A. the regional office of his labor union. B. law enforcement officials. C. the AFL-CIO. D. his union steward. E. the local Chamber of Commerce.
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D. his union steward. Most of workers' contact in a local union is with the union steward, an employee elected by union members to represent them in ensuring that the terms of the contract are enforced. The union steward helps to investigate complaints and represents employees to supervisors and other managers when employees file grievances alleging contract violations.
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A union steward: A. influences the way pay and promotions are determined. B. deducts union dues from employees' paychecks. C. is the strongest union security arrangement. D. is employed as an independent contractor. E. represents employees when they file grievances alleging contract violations.
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E. represents employees when they file grievances alleging contract violations. Most of workers' contact in a local union is with the union steward, an employee elected by union members to represent them in ensuring that the terms of the contract are enforced. The union steward helps to investigate complaints and represents employees to supervisors and other managers. When the union deals with several employers, as in the case of a craft union, a business representative performs some of the same functions as a union steward.
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Which of the following is a reason for the decline in union membership in the U.S.? A. Much recent job growth has occurred among men and younger workers, who are less likely than women and middle-aged workers to join unions B. Human resource practices that result in lower pay for unionized than for nonunionized workers C. Management efforts to control costs in response to international competition D. Much recent business growth has been in the North, where workers are less likely to join unions E. Government regulation banning unionization
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C. Management efforts to control costs in response to international competition On average, unionized workers receive higher pay than their nonunionized counterparts, and the pressure to control costs is greater because of international competition, resulting in a steady decline in union membership.
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Which of the following statements is true of trends in union membership in the U.S. in relation to trends in other countries? A. In Western Europe, it is common to have union coverage rates of 80 to 90 percent. B. Coverage rates within the United States are much higher than in most other countries. C. U.S. employees tend to have a larger, more formal role in organizational decision making than in Western European countries. D. Worker representatives on boards of directors are much more common in the United States than in Western European countries. E. The union membership rate in the U.S. is second only to that of Denmark.
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A. In Western Europe, it is common to have union coverage rates of 80 to 90 percent. The percentage of U.S. workers who belong to unions is lower than in many other countries. More dramatic is the difference in coverage—the percentage of employees whose terms and conditions of employment are governed by a union contract, whether or not the employees are technically union members. In Western Europe, it is common to have coverage rates of 80 to 90 percent, so the influence of labor unions far outstrips what membership levels would imply
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Which of the following is true of the goals of labor unions? A. Labor unions try to consider employees as individuals so that pay and promotion decisions relate to performance differences. B. Labor unions have the goals of obtaining pay and working conditions that satisfy the management. C. They try to not have any pay differences based on seniority. D. Where workers are represented by a union, it is common for all employees in a particular job classification to be paid according to their appraisals. E. Unions focus on equal pay for equal work.
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E. Unions focus on equal pay for equal work. Unlike management, which tries to consider employees as individuals so that pay and promotion decisions relate to performance differences, unions try to build group solidarity and avoid possible arbitrary treatment of employees. To do so, unions focus on equal pay for equal work. They try to have any pay differences based on seniority, on the grounds that this measure is more objective than performance evaluations.
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A contract provision under which the employer, on behalf of the union, automatically deducts union dues from employees' paychecks is known as a(n): A. checkoff provision. B. deductible-at-source provision. C. maintenance of membership provision. D. agency shop provision. E. union shop provision.
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A. checkoff provision. Under a checkoff provision, the employer, on behalf of the union, automatically deducts union dues from employees' paychecks.
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(n) _____ is a union security arrangement under which a person must be a union member before being hired. A. agency shop B. union shop C. closed shop D. maintenance of membership provision E. checkoff provision
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C. closed shop The strongest union security arrangement is a closed shop, under which a person must be a union member before being hired. Under the National Labor Relations Act, closed shops are illegal.
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Which of the following is a union security arrangement that requires employees to join the union within a certain amount of time (30 days) after beginning employment? A. Agency shop B. Union shop C. Closed shop D. Maintenance of membership E. Checkoff provision
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B. Union shop A legal membership arrangement that supports the goals of labor unions is the union shop, an arrangement that requires an employee to join the union within a certain time (30 days) after beginning employment.
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Which of the following is a union security arrangement that requires the payment of union dues but not union membership? A. Agency shop B. Union shop C. Closed shop D. Maintenance of membership E. Checkoff provision
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A. Agency shop The agency shop is a union security arrangement which requires the payment of union dues but not union membership.
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_____ rules do not require union membership but do require that employees who join the union remain members for a certain period of time, such as the length of the contract. A. Agency shop B. Union shop C. Closed shop D. Maintenance of membership E. Checkoff provision
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D. Maintenance of membership Maintenance of membership rules do not require union membership but do require that employees who join the union remain members for a certain period of time, such as the length of the contract.
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What is society's goal for unions? A. To ensure that workers have a voice in how they are treated by their employers B. To influence the way pay and promotions are determined C. To make up for the wages the workers lose during a strike D. To retain as much control as they can over work rules and schedules E. To limit individual employees' bargaining power
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A. To ensure that workers have a voice in how they are treated by their employers Society's goal for unions is to ensure that workers have a voice in how they are treated by their employers.
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Which of the following is a federal law passed in 1935 that supports collective bargaining and sets out the rights of employees to form unions? A. The Landrum-Griffin Act B. The Civil Rights Act C. The Wagner Act D. The Taft-Hartley Act E. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act
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C. The Wagner Act Perhaps the most dramatic example of labor laws' influence is the 1935 passage of the Wagner Act (also known as the National Labor Relations Act, or NLRA ), which actively supported collective bargaining.
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Which of the following is covered by the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)? A. A worker employed as a supervisor B. A person working for a parent C. An independent contractor D. An worker employed by an employer subject to the Railway Labor Act E. A worker going out on strike to secure better working conditions
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E. A worker going out on strike to secure better working conditions The following activities are among those protected under the NLRA: union organizing, joining a union, whether recognized by the employer or not, going out on strike to secure better working conditions, refraining from activity on behalf of the union
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Which of the following laws allows the states to pass so-called right-to-work laws? A. The Taft-Hartley Act B. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act C. The Landrum-Griffin D. The Hatch Act E. The Maguire Act
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A. The Taft-Hartley Act The Taft-Hartley Act allows the states to pass so-called right-to-work laws, which make union shops, maintenance of membership, and agency shops illegal. The idea behind such laws is that requiring union membership or the payment of union dues restricts the employees' right to freedom of association.
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Right-to-work laws are: A. federal laws that protect employees' right to lifetime employment. B. state laws that make union shops, maintenance of membership, and agency shops illegal. C. laws that protect the right of unions to insist that the employer hire only union members. D. laws that allow terminating an existing contract and striking for a new one without notifying the employer. E. federal laws that ensure that all union members get pension benefits.
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B. state laws that make union shops, maintenance of membership, and agency shops illegal. The Taft-Hartley Act allows the states to pass so-called right-to-work laws, which make union shops, maintenance of membership, and agency shops illegal. The idea behind such laws is that requiring union membership or the payment of union dues restricts the employees' right to freedom of association.
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The NLRB has two major functions: to prevent unfair labor practices and to: A. conduct periodic onsite inspections of union and company financial records. B. conduct and certify representation elections. C. make rules and regulations for union-management relations. D. levy punitive charges on violators. E. monitor and regulate labor relations in small, local businesses.
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B. conduct and certify representation elections. The NLRB has two major functions: to conduct and certify representation elections and to prevent unfair labor practices. It does not initiate either of these actions but responds to requests for action.
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What is the minimum percent of employees in a bargaining unit who must sign authorization cards for the NLRB to hold a union representation election? A. 30 percent B. 51 percent C. 20 percent D. 10 percent E. 55 percent
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A. 30 percent At the start of an organizing process, union representatives make contact with employees, present their message about the union, and invite them to sign an authorization card. For the organization process to continue, at least 30 percent of the employees must sign an authorization card.
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Which of the following should a supervisor do to discourage unions? A. Promise employees that they will receive favorable terms or conditions of employment if they forgo union activity B. Threaten employees with harsher terms and conditions of employment or employment loss if they engage in union activity C. Limit direct contact with employees D. Interrogate employees about pro-union or anti-union sentiments that they or others may have E. Report any direct or indirect signs of union activity to a core management group
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E. Report any direct or indirect signs of union activity to a core management group In order to discourage unions, supervisors should report any direct or indirect signs of union activity to a core management group.
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In _____ arbitration, the arbitrator must choose either management's or the union's last offer for each issue or for the contract as a whole. A. final-offer B. interest C. rights D. conventional E. vested
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A. final-offer In "final-offer arbitration," the arbitrator must choose either management's or the union's final offer for each issue or for the contract as a whole.
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The process for resolving union-management conflicts over interpretation or violation of a collective bargaining agreement is known as a _____. A. complaint protocol B. chain of command C. grievance procedure D. protest procedure E. corporate campaign
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C. grievance procedure Contract administration includes carrying out the terms of the agreement and resolving conflicts over interpretation or violation of the agreement. Under a labor contract, the process for resolving these conflicts is called a grievance procedure. This procedure has a key influence on success in contract administration.
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What is typically the first step in a grievance procedure initiated by an employee? A. The grievance is put in writing and submitted to a line manager. B. The union steward meets with a management representative. C. Additional local or national union officers are involved. D. Employee discusses problem with supervisor. E. Management puts response to grievance in writing.
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D. Employee discusses problem with supervisor. For grievances launched by an employee, in the first step, the employee talks to his or her supervisor about the problem. If this conversation is unsatisfactory, the employee may involve the union steward in further discussion.
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From the point of view of employees, the grievance procedure is an important means of: A. getting fair treatment in the workplace. B. settling negotiations between unions and government agencies. C. interpreting contract terms. D. facilitating the negotiation process. E. preventing major delays in production.
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A. getting fair treatment in the workplace. From the point of view of employees, the grievance procedure is an important means of getting fair treatment in the workplace. Its success depends on whether it provides for all the kinds of problems that are likely to arise, whether employees feel they can file a grievance without being punished for it, and whether employees believe their union representatives will follow through.
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Since benefits packages are more complex than pay structures, they are harder for employees to understand and appreciate.
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TRUE Benefits packages are more complex than pay structures, so benefits are harder for employees to understand and appreciate.
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Tax laws generally make benefits unfavorable to employees.
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FALSE Tax laws can make benefits favorable to employees.
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The addition of creative benefits packages in the worker's compensation portfolio provides employers a competitive edge in acquiring and retaining talented employees in their organization.
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TRUE Some employers assemble creative benefits packages that set them apart in the competition for talent.
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All U.S. employees, including federal, state, and local government employees, are covered under the Old Age, Survivors, Disability, and Health Insurance program.
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FALSE The Old Age, Survivors, Disability, and Health Insurance (OASDHI) program covers over 90 percent of U.S. employees. The main exceptions are railroad and federal, state, and local government employees, who often have their own plans.
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Social Security benefits are free from federal income taxes and state taxes in all U.S. states.
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FALSE Social Security benefits are free from federal income taxes and free from state taxes in about half the states.
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Under the workers' compensation laws, employees are eligible to receive compensation even if their injuries are self-inflicted.
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FALSE Workers' compensation laws operate under a principle of no-fault liability, meaning that an employee does not need to show that the employer was grossly negligent in order to receive compensation, and the employer is protected from lawsuits. Employees are not eligible if their injuries are self-inflicted or if they result from intoxication or "wilful disregard of safety rules."
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The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 requires organizations with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius to provide as much as 12 weeks of unpaid leave to qualifying employees
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TRUE The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993 requires organizations with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius to provide as much as 12 weeks of unpaid leave after childbirth or adoption; to care for a seriously ill child, spouse, or parent, for an employee's own serious illness; or to take care of urgent needs that arise when a spouse, child, or parent in the National Guard or Reserve is called to active duty.
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Benefits provided to domestic partners of employees have the same tax advantages as benefits provided to their spouses.
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FALSE Benefits provided to domestic partners do not have the same tax advantages as benefits provided to spouses. The partner's benefits are taxed as wages of the employee receiving the benefits.
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For the average employee, the most common type of insurance offered as benefits is the pension program.
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FALSE The most common types of insurance offered as employee benefits are medical, life, and disability insurance. The U.S. government will require medium-sized and large businesses to offer health insurance or pay a penalty beginning in 2014.
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Employees are most likely to benefit from a flexible spending account if they have predictable health care expenses, such as insurance premiums.
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TRUE Employees are most likely to benefit from a flexible spending account if they have predictable health care expenses, such as insurance premiums.
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Disability insurance payments are usually less than 25 percent of the employee's salary.
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FALSE Disability payments are a percentage of the employee's salary—typically 50 to 70 percent.
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According to ERISA, employees whose contributions are vested have met the requirements to receive a pension at retirement age.
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TRUE Employees whose contributions are vested have met the requirements (enrolling and length of service) to receive a pension at retirement age, regardless of whether they remained with the employer until that time.
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Tuition reimbursement programs offered by certain organizations cover the tuition and other education related expenses of their workers' children.
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FALSE To encourage learning and attract the kinds of employees who wish to develop their knowledge and skills, many organizations offer tuition reimbursement programs, which cover tuition and related expenses for courses that are relevant to the employee's current job or future career at the organization.
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According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), employers are required to take care not to discriminate against workers over age 40 in providing pay or benefits.
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FALSE The ADEA requires employers to take care not to discriminate against workers over age 40 in providing pay or benefits. Under the ADA, employees with disabilities must have "equal access to whatever health insurance coverage the employer provides other employees."
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Which of the following is true of benefits? A. They allow employees to buy their own insurance. B. They let employees to contribute to their own savings plans. C. Employees do not pay income taxes on most benefits they receive. D. They give employees greater control over what their compensation buys. E. Laws usually do not require employers to provide benefits.
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C. Employees do not pay income taxes on most benefits they receive. Tax laws can make benefits favorable to employees. For example, employees do not pay income taxes on most benefits they receive, but they pay income taxes on cash compensation
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Which of the following benefits is required by law in the United States? A. Sick leave B. Personal leave C. Medical care D. Social Security E. Paid leave
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D. Social Security This important role of benefits is one reason that benefits are subject to government regulation. Some benefits, such as Social Security, are required by law.
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In general, Social Security provides support for _____. A. laid-off workers B. workers injured on the job C. retired workers D. self-injured workers E. sick workers
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C. retired workers In general, Social Security provides support for retired workers.
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Which of the following legally required employer-provided benefits help workers injured on the job? A. Social Security B. Unemployment insurance C. Group insurance D. Workers' compensation E. Family and medical leave
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D. Workers' compensation Workers' compensation laws help workers with the expenses resulting from job-related accidents and illnesses.
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Which one of the following employer-provided benefits is required by law in the U.S.? A. Floating holidays B. Paid vacation leave C. Unpaid family and medical leave D. Long-term disability insurance E. Long-term care insurance
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C. Unpaid family and medical leave Employers must provide unpaid leave for certain family and medical needs. Because these benefits are required by law, employers cannot gain an advantage in the labor market.
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Social Security is formally known as the _____. A. paid leave program B. New Deal program C. Old Age, Survivors, Disability, and Health Insurance program D. employee wellness program E. noncontributory plan
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C. Old Age, Survivors, Disability, and Health Insurance program If employees elect to begin receiving benefits at full retirement age (which rises with birth year), they can receive full benefits, or if they elect to begin receiving benefits at age 62, they receive benefits at a permanently reduced level.
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Which legal benefit requires employers to pay payroll tax depending on state requirements? A. Long-term disability insurance B. Unemployment insurance C. Workers' compensation D. Unpaid family medical leave E. Health care benefits
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B. Unemployment insurance Most of the funding for unemployment insurance comes from federal and state taxes on employers.
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The unemployment insurance program is financed largely through federal and state taxes on: A. both employees and employers. B. employers only. C. employees only. D. retirees. E. only high income group of citizens.
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B. employers only. Most of the funding for unemployment insurance comes from federal and state taxes on employers.
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The employer's _____ refers to the number of employees the company laid off in the past and the cost of providing them with unemployment benefits. A. attrition B. scalability C. experience rating D. Six Sigma score E. wage drift
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C. experience rating The employer's experience rating refers to the number of employees the company laid off in the past and the cost of providing them with unemployment benefits.
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Workers are eligible for unemployment benefits if they: A. voluntarily quit a job. B. are out of work due to health reasons. C. were discharged for cause. D. are actively seeking work. E. are out of work because of a labor dispute.
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D. are actively seeking work. To receive benefits, workers must meet four conditions. They must meet requirements demonstrating they had been employed. They are available for work. They are actively seeking work. They were not discharged for cause, did not quit voluntarily, and are not out of work because of a labor dispute.
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Which one of the following is true of workers' compensation? A. Employees are covered under the "no-fault" provision even if the injury is self-inflicted. B. Disability income is not covered under this benefit. C. It provides payments to offset lost income during involuntary unemployment. D. Funding for the program comes from the state taxes on employees. E. The benefits provided to the workers are not taxable.
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E. The benefits provided to the workers are not taxable. The amount of income varies from state to state but is typically two-thirds of the worker's earnings before the disability. The benefits are tax free.
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The cost of a worker's compensation insurance depends on: A. the profit earned by the organization during the concerned fiscal. B. the number of years the concerned worker has been working in the organization. C. the total strength of the organization's workforce. D. the number of years for which the organization has been in business. E. the state where the company is located.
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E. the state where the company is located. The cost of the workers' compensation insurance depends on the kinds of occupations involved, the state where the company is located, and the employer's experience rating.
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To take unpaid family leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act, employees must meet which of the following criteria? A. Should be working for an employer with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius B. Should have worked at least 15 hours per week C. Should have worked for the employer for more than 5 years D. Should belong to the top 10 percent of highest paid executives E. Should be working for an employer with at least 100 employees
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A. Should be working for an employer with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius Specifically, the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993 requires organizations with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius to provide as much as 12 weeks of unpaid leave after childbirth or adoption, to care for a seriously ill child, spouse, or parent, for an employee's own serious illness, or to take care of urgent needs that arise when a spouse, child, or parent in the National Guard or Reserve is called to active duty.
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The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers: A. to offer disability plans with pregnancy-related coverage. B. offer disability plans to treat pregnancy as they would any other disability. C. to provide up to six weeks of paid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child. D. to provide up to six weeks of unpaid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child. E. to offer disability leave up to one month to either parent before the birth of a child.
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B. offer disability plans to treat pregnancy as they would any other disability. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers to offer disability plans to treat pregnancy as they would any other disability.
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The _____ is a federal law that requires employers to permit employees or their dependents to extend their health insurance coverage at group rates for up to 36 months following a qualifying event, such as a layoff, reduction in hours, or the employee's death. A. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) B. Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) C. Social Security Act D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
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D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) of 1985 requires employers to permit employees to extend their health insurance coverage at group rates for up to 36 months following a "qualifying event." Qualifying events include termination (except for gross misconduct), a reduction in hours that leads to loss of health insurance, and the employee's death (in which case the surviving spouse or dependent child would extend the coverage).
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Which of the following is true of flexible spending accounts? A. They may be used to cover only employees' and not dependents' health-care expenses. B. They do not permit pretax employee contributions. C. Contributions to the accounts may exceed $5,000 per year but must be designated in advance. D. Funds must be used by the plan's year end or they revert to the employer. E. The money in the flexible spending account is taxed and it reduces an employee's take home pay.
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D. Funds must be used by the plan's year end or they revert to the employer. The money in the account may be spent on health care expenses of the employee and employee's dependents during the plan year. At the end of the year, any remaining funds in the account revert to the employer.
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Which of the following sources do most retirees (65 and older) receive most of their income? A. Social Security B. Private pensions C. Earnings from personal assets D. Disability insurance E. Private investments
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A. Social Security Despite the image of retired people living on their Social Security check shows that those checks amount to less than half of a retired person's income.
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Which of the following is true of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974? A. The act established certain rights related to vesting. B. The act required employers to offer supplemental retirement plans. C. The act barred portability of retirement savings. D. The act reduced the responsibility of pension plan trustees. E. The act guaranteed retirees a pension equivalent to their last drawn salary.
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A. The act established certain rights related to vesting. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974 increased the responsibility of pension plan trustees to protect retirees, established certain rights related to vesting (earning a right to receive the pension) and portability (being able to move retirement savings when changing employers).
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A popular defined-contribution plan whereby employees contribute pretax dollars which are then matched by the employer is known as: A. money purchase plans. B. Section 401(k) plans. C. profit-sharing plans. D. ERISA benefit plans. E. employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs).
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B. Section 401(k) plans. Under the section 401(k) plans, employees contribute a percentage of their earnings, and employers may make matching contributions. The amount employees contribute is not taxed as part of their income until they receive it from the plan.
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Within a 401(k) plan, who has the responsibility for investing? A. The employee B. The PGBC C. The ERISA Fiduciary Advisor D. The financial institution handling the account E. The employer
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A. The employee The defined-contribution plans, including the 401(k) plan, free employers from the risks that investments will not perform as well as expected. They put the responsibility for wise investing squarely on the shoulders of each employee.
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The _____ is a report that describes a pension plan's funding, eligibility requirements, risks, and other details. A. mission statement B. balanced scorecard C. labor law posting D. "top-heavy" plan E. summary plan description
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E. summary plan description The summary plan description is a report that describes the plan's funding, eligibility requirements, risks, and other details.
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Which of the following organizations strictly limits the definition of "independent contractors," so that employers cannot avoid legal obligations by classifying workers as self-employed when the organization receives the benefits of a permanent employee? A. The Internal Revenue Service B. The FBGC C. The ERISA D. Employee Benefit Research Institute E. The Bureau of Labor Statistics
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A. The Internal Revenue Service The Internal Revenue Service strictly limits the definition of "independent contractors," so that employers cannot avoid legal obligations by classifying workers as self-employed when the organization receives the benefits of a permanent employee.
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Which one of the following statements is true of employee benefits? A. Employees generally have a thorough understanding of what benefits they have and what the market value of these benefits is. B. Employees significantly underestimate the cost and value of their benefits. C. Employers do an effective job of communicating the cost and value of benefits to their employees. D. Employees, for the most part, are just not interested in their benefits. E. Employers have very limited options for communicating information about benefits.
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B. Employees significantly underestimate the cost and value of their benefits. Employees and job applicants often have a poor idea of what benefits they have and what the market value of their benefits is. Research asking employees about their benefits has shown that employees significantly underestimate the cost and value of their benefits.
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ESSAY What are the objectives of the unemployment insurance program established by the Social Security Act of 1935. How is this program funded?
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The unemployment insurance program was established under the Social Security Act of 1935. This program has four objectives related to minimizing the hardships of unemployment. 1) It provides payments to offset lost income during involuntary unemployment. 2) It helps unemployed workers find new jobs. 3) The payment of unemployment insurance taxes gives employers an incentive to stabilize employment. 4) It provides workers with income during short-term layoffs to preserve investments in worker skills because workers can afford to wait to return to their employer, rather than start over with another organization. Most of the funding for unemployment insurance comes from federal and state taxes on employers. Some states charge new employers whatever rate is the average for their industry, so the amount of tax paid in those states also depends on the type of business. No state imposes the same tax rate on every employer in the state. The size of the unemployment insurance tax imposed on each employer depends on the employer's experience rating—the number of employees the company laid off in the past and the cost of providing them with unemployment benefits. Employers with a history of laying off a large share of their workforces pay higher taxes than those with few layoffs. In some states, an employer with very few layoffs may pay no state tax.
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ESSAY What are the different types of family-friendly benefits?
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As employers have recognized the significance of employees' need to manage conflicts between their work and family roles many have added "family-friendly" benefits to their employee benefits. These benefits include family leave policies and child care. The following types of benefits are typical: 1) Family leave—Family or parental leave grants employees time off to care for children and other dependents. The federal law requires 12 weeks of unpaid leave. 2) Child care—Child care benefits may take several forms, requiring different levels of organizational involvement. The lowest level of involvement is for the organization to supply and help employees collect information about the cost and quality of available child care. At the next level, organizations provide vouchers or discounts for employees to use at existing child care facilities. At the highest level of involvement, the employer provides child care at or near the work site. Staffing a child care facility is costly and involves important liability concerns. At the same time, the results of this type of benefit, in terms of reducing absenteeism and enhancing productivity, have been mixed. 3) College savings—As workers' children grow up, their needs shift from maternity leave and child care to college tuition. Some organizations have supported this concern by sponsoring tax-favored 529 savings plans. These plans let parents and other family members defer taxes on the earnings of their deposits into the 529 account. Some states also provide a (limited) tax deduction for these contributions. 4) Elder care—As the population of the nation's elderly grows, so do the demands on adult children to care for elderly parents, aunts, and uncles. When these people become ill or disabled, they rely on family or professional caregivers. The elder care benefits typically emphasize information and support, rather than direct financial assistance.
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High-performance work systems are characterized by high employee turnover.
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FALSE Outcomes of a high-performance work system include higher productivity and efficiency. A high-performance work system may have other outcomes, including high product quality, great customer satisfaction, and low employee turnover.
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To create a learning organization, one challenge is to shift the focus of training away from merely generating and sharing knowledge toward a stronger focus on teaching skills.
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FALSE Knowledge is shared. Therefore, to create a learning organization, one challenge is to shift the focus of training away from merely teaching skills and toward a broader focus on generating and sharing knowledge.
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People experience occupational intimacy when they love their work, when they and their co-workers care about one another, and when they find their work meaningful.
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TRUE People experience occupational intimacy when they love their work, when they and their co-workers care about one another, and when they find their work meaningful.
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A standard feature of a modern HRIS is the use of relational databases, which store data in separate files that can be linked by common elements.
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TRUE A standard feature of a modern HRIS is the use of relational databases, which store data in separate files that can be linked by common elements. These common elements are fields identifying the type of data.
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A benefit of e-HRM is that employees can help themselves to information they need when they need it, instead of contacting an HR staff person.
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TRUE A benefit of e-HRM is that employees can help themselves to the information they need when they need it, instead of contacting an HR staff person.
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A high-performance work system refers to: A. an arrangement of machinery and equipment that streamlines the workflow and results in maximum efficiency and cost savings. B. the right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of the organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals. C. a computer software system designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data. D. a system used to collect, record, store, analyze, and retrieve data concerning an organization's human resources. E. a performance management system that customer satisfaction.
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B. the right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of the organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals. A high-performance work system refers to the right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of the organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals.
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_____ is the way the organization groups its people into useful divisions, departments, and reporting relationships. A. Job structure B. Organizational structure C. Value chain D. Corporate design E. Relationship management
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B. Organizational structure Organizational structure is the way the organization groups its people into useful divisions, departments, and reporting relationships.
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An organization's _____ usually makes most of the decisions about organizational structure. A. top management B. HR department C. supervisors D. middle-level managers E. technical analysts
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A. top management The organization's top management makes most decisions about structure, for instance, how many employees report to each supervisor and whether employees are grouped according to the functions they carry out or the customers they serve.
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In a high-performance work system, task design makes jobs: A. narrow in scope. B. high in task significance but low in autonomy. C. highly specialized. D. efficient while encouraging high quality. E. simple and more repetitive.
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D. efficient while encouraging high quality. Task design determines how the details of the organization's necessary activities will be grouped, whether into jobs or team responsibilities. In a high-performance work system, task design makes jobs efficient while encouraging high quality.
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Which of the following is a condition that contributes to high performance? A. Employees' rewards and compensation relate to the company's financial performance. B. Work design allows employees to use a single skill. C. Employee participation is planning changes pertaining to work method is limited. D. Employees do not receive formal performance feedback. E. Training is discouraged because of high costs.
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A. Employees' rewards and compensation relate to the company's financial performance. Certain conditions underlie the formation of a high-performance work system. Employees' rewards and compensation relate to the company's financial performance.
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One of the most popular ways to empower employees is to: A. narrow the scope of jobs. B. design work so that it is performed by teams. C. adopt a centralized decision making approach. D. pay bonuses to all employees regardless of contribution. E. provide them with simple, repetitive jobs.
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B. design work so that it is performed by teams. One of the most popular ways to empower employees is to design work so that it is performed by teams. On a work team, employees bring together various skills and experiences to produce goods or provide services.
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Each employee's and each group's ongoing efforts to gather information and apply the information to their decisions in a learning organization is referred to as: A. continuous learning. B. critical thinking. C. innovation. D. cognition. E. groupthink.
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A. continuous learning. Continuous learning refers to each employee's and each group's ongoing efforts to gather information and apply the information to their decisions.
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Which one of the following is a selection method that organizations can adopt to identify employees who innovate, share ideas, and take initiative? A. Technical proficiency test B. Psychological test C. Structured interview D. Aptitude test E. Physical ability test
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B. Psychological test High-performance organizations need selection methods that identify more than technical skills like ability to perform accounting and engineering tasks. Employers may use group interviews, open-ended questions, and psychological tests to find employees who innovate, share ideas, and take initiative.
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Merit pay, gainsharing, and profit sharing are all methods of: A. including employees in organizational planning. B. disassociating compensation from performance measures. C. disseminating organizational learning. D. increasing employee participation in strategic decision making. E. linking compensation to performance measures.
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E. linking compensation to performance measures. Organizations can reinforce the impact of a performance management system which encourages high performance by linking compensation in part to performance measures. There are a number of methods for doing this, including merit pay, gainsharing, and profit sharing
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Generally speaking, _____ bring(s) networks of people together to collaborate on projects, solve problems, or socialize. A. cloud computing B. social media C. social discrimination D. grid computing E. primary group
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B. social media As Internet use has increasingly taken the form of social-media applications, e-HRM has moved in this direction as well. Generally speaking, social media bring networks of people together to collaborate on projects, solve problems, or socialize.
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ESSAY Define a high-performance work system. What are the elements of a high-performance work system? What is the role of HRM in such a system?
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A high-performance work system is the right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of an organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals. Common elements of such a system include (1) organizational structure, (2) task design, (3) people, (4) reward systems, and (5) information systems. Human resource management plays an important role in establishing all of these. 1) Organizational structure refers to the way the organization groups its people into divisions, departments, and reporting relationships. The organization's top management makes most decisions about structure, and these decisions affect how well employees coordinate their activities and respond to change. In a high-performance work system, organizational structure promotes cooperation, learning, and continuous improvement. 2) Task design involves determining how the details of the organization's activities will be grouped into jobs or team responsibilities. In a high-performance work system, task design makes jobs efficient while encouraging high quality. 3) HRM plays a significant role in providing people who are well suited and well prepared for their jobs. Human resource personnel help the organization recruit and select people with the needed qualifications. Training, development, and career management ensure that these people are able to perform their current and future jobs with the organization. 4) Reward systems contribute to high performance by encouraging people to strive for objectives that support the organization's overall goals. These systems include the performance measures by which employees are judged, the methods of measuring performance, and the incentive pay and other rewards linked to success. HRM plays an important role in developing and administering reward systems. 5) The final element is the organization's information systems. Managers make decisions about the types of information to gather and the sources of information. They also must decide who in the organization should have access to the information and how they will make the information available. HR departments take advantage of this technology to give employees