Biology 2170 Steven Final Review (quizzes) – Flashcards

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The hydrophobicity of the planar nitrogenous ring structures of a nucleotide, leading to the exclusion of water and stability of DNA, is referred to as:
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base-stacking interactions.
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The central dogma of molecular biology states that information flows from:
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DNA to RNA to protein.
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How many covalent bonds exist between the G-C complementary base pairs between two strands of DNA?
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zero
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DNA contains genetic information in its
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sequence of bases.
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Nucleotides are composed of
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a phosphate, a sugar, and a base.
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A single unit of heredity that contains the information for an individual protein is referred to as a
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gene
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Deoxyribonucleic acid is used for:
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-transmission of information. -storage of information.
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Translation is the process by which:
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ribosomes synthesize protein from information in an RNA molecule
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Miller and Urey's initial simulation resulted in the formation of which one of the following?
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amino acids
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The base adenine pairs with ___________ in DNA.
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thymine
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Alternative splicing allows for:
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different polypeptides to be made from a single gene.
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Which one of the following statements about RNA is correct?
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RNA uses the same purine bases as DNA.
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True or false: some RNA molecules possess catalytic activity.
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true
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The type of RNA that physically interacts with a ribosome, providing the sequence information for a specific protein, is abbreviated:
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mRNA.
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Which one of the following bases in an RNA molecule would base pair (via hydrogen bonding) with adenine?
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uracil
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Which one of the following types of post-transcriptional modification is common in eukaryotes?
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-polyadenylation and intron removal -5' cap addition -polyadenylation -intron removal
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True or false: during transcription of a given protein-coding gene, both strands are used as templates.
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false
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Which one of the following is not a component of a nucleosome core particle? histone H3 histone H4 ribosomes approximately 150 base pairs of DNA histone H2B
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ribosomes
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RNA splicing is catalyzed by a complex of RNA and protein referred to as a
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spliceosome
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Using Chargaff's rules, you can determine that the DNA of organism that contains 30% adenine would contain _______ guanine.
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20%
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In recombinant DNA experiments, ____________ is used to cut pieces of DNA, and ____________ joins these segments to form recombinant DNA.
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a restriction enzyme; DNA ligase
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Describe why genome sequencing can be complicated by repeated sequences?
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The repeated sequences are often longer than the sequences obtained by automated sequencing.
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What is the difference between Sanger sequencing and PCR with regard to the materials needed to perform these reactions?
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In Sanger sequencing, dideoxynucleotides are needed, but not in PCR.
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A Southern blot is a technique that relies on:
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hybridization of labeled DNA sequences to complementary DNA sequences.
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Restriction enzymes:
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cut double-stranded DNA strands at specific sites.
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True or false: In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments migrate toward the negative pole of the electric field.
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False
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Organisms that have been modified to contain DNA from other species are known as:
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-transgenic organisms. -genetically modified organisms (GMO's).
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The type of genetic engineering that involves isolating genes from one species and introducing them into another is called ____________ technology.
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recombinant DNA
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The extrachromosomal DNA found in bacteria is called a:
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plasmid.
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During the shotgun approach to genome sequencing, the sequenced fragments orginate from:
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random sites scattered across the genome.
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The three-dimensional structure of a functional protein composed of a single polypeptide chain is referred to as the ____________ structure.
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tertiary
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The codon used to initiate protein synthesis is:
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AUG
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In a ribbon model of a polypeptide, broad arrows indicate:
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β-sheets.
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A group of functionally related genes transcribed as a single transcriptional unit under the control of a single promoter is referred to as a(n) ____________.
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operon
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Amino acid sequences evolve through:
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mutation and selection.
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Which one of the following is not a component of an amino acid?
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Triphosphate group
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Which RNA(s) is/are used in the process of translation?
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-rRNA -tRNA -mRNA
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How many different types of aminoacyl tRNA synthetases are there?
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20
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Structurally and functionally related proteins are grouped into approximately 25,000 different protein ____________.
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families
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The unfolding of a protein by heat or chemical treatment is referred to as:
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denaturation.
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A spontaneously generated and enclosed bilayer structure is called a(n):
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liposome
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Which of the following is a common function of membrane proteins?
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-signal reception -transport -catalysis -attachment
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Long, saturated fatty acid tails ____________ lipid mobility and ____________ membrane fluidity.
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reduce; decrease
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The process of a vesicle fusing with the plasma membrane and depositing its contents into the extracellular space is most specifically referred to as:
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exocytosis.
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True or False: purified phospholipids will gather together and form membranes only if the appropriate enzyme is present.
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false
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A protein that is temporarily associated with a biological membrane is a(n):
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peripheral membrane protein.
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The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration is referred to as
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osmosis
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Which of the following is not a typical component of an animal cell's plasma membrane?
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nucleic acid
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The interior region of a phospholipid bilayer can be characterized as being:
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hydrophobic.
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True or False: amino acids with hydrophobic side chains are most often found buried in the interior of folded proteins.
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true
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Prokaryotes have which of the following
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-DNA -cell membrane -cell wall
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The plant cell wall is made primarily of
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cellulose
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The process of synthesizing simple sugars using sunlight as an energy source is referred to as ____________.
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photosynthesis
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Which of the following organelles is not enclosed in a double membrane?
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RER
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In which of the following can protein synthesis occur in eukaryotes? Select all correct choices.
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-the rough endoplasmic reticulum -the cytoplasm
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Photosynthesis occurs in the
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chloroplast
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Which of the choices below can be used to correctly begin the following sentence? "____________ have a plasma membrane."
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All cells
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The Golgi apparatus is responsible for at least a portion of a eukaryote's:
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-modification of lipids synthesized in the ER. -carbohydrate synthesis. -targeting of proteins to their final destinations. -modification of proteins synthesized in the ER.
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Which of the following is physically continuous with the nuclear envelope?
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ER
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Transmembrane proteins located in the plasma membrane are first synthesized inside the cell and transported through which of the following?
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-one or more vesicles -Golgi apparatus
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Which of the following types of inhibitor permanently alters the enzyme it inhibits?
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an irreversible inhibitor
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The portion of an enzyme that binds specifically to the substrate or substrates is referred to as the _______ of the enzyme.
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active site
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The sum of all chemical reactions in a cell is referred to as
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metabolism
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The amount of energy in a system that cannot be used to perform work is referred to as ____________.
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entropy
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True or False: a given enzyme in a pathway can be activated by one molecule or inhibited by a different molecule.
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true
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The assembly of glucose into polysaccharides is:
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an anabolic process.
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True or False: the energy of a system is defined as the system's capacity to do work.
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true
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The energy of activation of a reaction is
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the energy input needed to reach the transition state.
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Which one of the following is the most common energy "currency" for a cell?
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ATP
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Which of the following is the most precise description of the role of enzymes in catalyzing biochemical reactions?
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Enzymes stabilize the transition state and decrease its free energy.
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Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate can be broken down by
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fermentation
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Glucose is stored in plants as ____________ and in animals as ____________.
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starch; glycogen
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In eukaryotic cells, glycolysis occurs in:
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the cytoplasm.
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The gaining of electrons is referred to as ____________.
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Reduction
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The loss of electrons is reffered to as ____.
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Oxidation
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The mitochondrial ATP synthase
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makes ATP using the energy of the proton gradient established by electron transport.
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True or False: an ATP synthase complex can act in reverse to function as an ATP-dependent proton pump.
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true
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True or False: the citric acid cycle is believed to have developed fairly recently in the evolution of cellular life.
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false
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Which of the following is a net product of glycolysis?
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- 2 pyruvate - 2 ATP - 2 NADH
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In most living cells, which one of the following is not a product of cellular respiration?
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oxygen
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The fluid-filled interior compartment of the thylakoid network is referred to as the:
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lumen.
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True or False: rubisco can function as either a carboxylase or an oxygenase.
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True
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The organisms believed to be the first to use two different photosystems in a single photosynthetic electron-transport chain are the:
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cyanobacteria.
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The main function of photosynthesis is the
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conversion of light energy to chemical energy.
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Reactive oxygen species are detoxified by a general category of molecules referred to as ____________.
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antioxidants
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Photosynthesis is the pathway used to synthesize carbohydrates from:
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sunlight and carbon dioxide.
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Chloroplast ATP synthases are powered by the flow of protons from the:
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thylakoid lumen to the stroma.
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Which statement given below best characterizes the properties of a photosystem?
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A photosystem is a complex of pigments, proteins and reaction center chlorophylls.
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A photosystem is a complex of pigments, proteins and reaction center chlorophylls.
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carotenoids
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In green plant photosynthesis, water is
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oxidized to oxygen gas in the light.
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Which of the following correctly lists the types of cellular communication from shortest to longest distance travelled by the signaling molecule to reach its responding cell?
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autocrine, paracrine, endocrine
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Second messengers:
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-are small intracellular molecules that participate in signal transduction. -are removed in order to terminate a cellular signaling response. -amplify the effects of the signal. -play a role in activation of intracellular signal transduction.
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Mammalian steroid hormones are signaling molecules that function in which of the following types of cell signaling?
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endocrine
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Which of the following types of cell signaling generally occurs between cells that are distant from each other?
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endocrine
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Types of steroids include:
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-lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol. -glucocorticoids that regulate blood glucose levels. -sex hormones such as estrogen and testosterone. -insect molting hormones.
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Which of the following signal molecules would most likely have a intracellular receptor?
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A small nonpolar molecule.
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A chemical that binds to a cell to cause its activity to change is an example of which of the following elements of cellular communication?
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a signaling molecule
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Which of the following types of cellular activities can be a response to cell signaling?
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-Enzyme activity patterns are changed. -Cell signals are released to communicate with other cells. -Cell division is triggered. -Gene expression patterns are changed.
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A cell that responds to an environmental condition by the release of a chemical is an example of which of the following elements of cellular communication?
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a signaling cell
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True or false: Cancer is a disease of cell division.
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true
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Dynamic instability is a:
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feature of microtubules.
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Cancer can be characterized by:
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-a mass of rapidly dividing cells called a tumor. -cells with an enhanced ability to adhere to proteins in the basal lamina. -cells that express of a type of intermediate filament that is inappropriate for that area of the body. -metastasized tumor cells that leave the tumor and invade distant parts of the body.
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The cytoskeleton of plant cells includes:
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microtubules and microfilaments.
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Cellular crawling motion is accomplished by:
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the polymerization of microfilaments along the leading edge with contraction of microfilaments along the trailing edge through the action of myosin.
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keratinocyte
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Major cell type found in the epidermis; its primary function is to protect underlying tissues and organs.
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melanocyte
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Found in the epidermis; its primary function is production of pigments to color skin.
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fibroblast
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Major cell type found in the dermis; its primary function is to secrete extracellular matrix.
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Which one of the following correctly lists the major types of tissues found in animals?
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connective, nervous, muscle, epithelial
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Intermediate filaments:
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-have a diameter that is larger than a microfilament, but smaller than a microtubule. -play an important role in maintaining cell shape. -play an important role in preventing skin from tearing by shear stress. -undergo little change in length in comparison to microtubules and microfilaments.
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Cells with cilia or flagella rely mainly on ____________ to facilitate their movement.
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microtubules
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Cilia:
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-are used by epithelial cells to move substances along cell surfaces. -are specialized organelles found on some epithelial cells.
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Which one of the following statements about intracellular transport is true?
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Kinesin and dynein move substances along microtubules.
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A benign tumor
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-rarely has life-threatening effects unless it is interfering with the function of a vital organ. -has defects in the regulation of cell division. -has clear boundaries encapsulating it and is not invading nearby tissues. -is a mass of rapidly dividing cells.
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The basal lamina
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-is a specialized extracellular matrix found beneath epithelial tissues. -links to epithelial cells through hemidesmosomes, which attach to intermediate filaments. -contains a special form of collagen. -surrounds endothelial cells found in blood vessels.
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Which of the following types of cell junctions are found in skin?
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-hemidesmosomes -desmosomes -adherens junctions -tight junctions
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Connective tissue in animals contains
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-more extracelluar matrix than cells. -fibroblasts. -collagen
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adherens junctions
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junctions that anchor cells to other cells
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tight junctions
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junctions that form a seal or a barrier between cells
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gap junctions
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junctions that permit communication between cells
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desmosomes
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junctions that anchor cells to other cells
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plasmodesmata
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junctions that permit communication between cells
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hemidesmosomes
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junctions that anchor cells to the extracellular matrix
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Which one of the following pairs includes junctional complexes that perform similar functions?
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plasmodesmata and gap junctions
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Cadherins:
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-are calcium-dependent proteins involved in attachment of cells to neighboring cells. -are cell adhesion molecules found in cellular junctions at cell surfaces.
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Which one of the following correctly lists components of extracellular matrix found in animals?
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collagen, laminin, and elastin
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Points of adhesion between adjacent cells characterized by cadherins interacting with intermediate filaments are referred to as
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desmosomes
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Which of the following correctly lists components of extracellular matrix found in plants?
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cellulose, pectin, and lignin
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Which of the following is NOT true about gametes
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They are genetically identical to other gametes formed during meiosis.
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When homologous chromosomes are aligned with each other and arranged as pairs in order of decreasing size, the resulting portrait is referred to as a(n)
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karyotype
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The second meiotic division resembles mitosis because:
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-the daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cells. -microtubules attach from opposite directions to the centromere of each sister chromatid pair. -sister chromatids are separated during anaphase II to become the chromosomes of the daughter cells. -chromosomes decondense during telophase II.
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Reproduction by cell division
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-Persists in mature plant cells for continued growth -continues in mature adults humans to replace damaged and worn-out cells -results in two daughter cells that are genetically identical -is asexual reproduction
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During meiosis I
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- Chromosomes undergo reductional division -nonsister chromatids exchange maternal and paternal DNA -bivalents are formed during prophase I and are taken apart during the anaphase I. -sister chromatids are not separated.
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Sexual reproduction results in an increase in genetic diversity because:
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-during fertilization, the gametes that fuse are random so that a large number of chromosomal combinations are possible in the new organism. -during metaphase I, the bivalents line up in a random orientation so that gametes inherit a random set of maternally and paternally derived chromosomes. -of both recombination during prophase I and random orientation of bivalents during metaphase I. -during prophase I, genes that are paternally and maternally derived are recombined on the chromosomes so that the gametes have chromosomes that are different from the parents' chromosomes.
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crossing over
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the physical breakage and reunion of non-sister chromatids during prophase I
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centromere
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the region of a chromosome where sister chromatids remain attached
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centromere
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chromatids in a bivalent that do not share a centromere
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non-sister chromatids
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chromatids in a bivalent that do not share a centromere
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bivalent
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a four-stranded structure of homologous chromosomes in alignment
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centrosome
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the microtubule organizing center
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homologous chromosomes
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paired chromosomes that share the same set of genes
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chiasmata
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cross-like structures found in bivalents as a consequence of crossing over
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synapsis
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alignment of homologous chromosomes during prophase I
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The centrosome
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is the microtubule organizing center for the mitotic spindle.
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Which of the following statements is NOT true about sister chromatids?
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They are formed when the prokaryotic circular chromosome attaches at the plasma membrane.
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Interphase involves all of the following steps except
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the condensation of chromatin.
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Which of the following regulators of the cell cycle varies in concentration during the cell cycle?
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cyclins
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Polar bodies are:
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haploid cells.
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The number of daughter chromosomes in a human cell (diploid number 46) in anaphase II of meiosis is (Hint: This is a bit tricky. Remember that in this stage chromatids have separated, but the cell has not yet completed its second division.)
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46
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Meiosis occurs in the __________ of __________.
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-testes; males -ovaries; females
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Cell division is regulated by
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-growth factor signals. -signals that indicate a sufficient size of the cell. -signals that indicate that DNA has been replicated. -signals about the nutritional status of the cell.
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True or False. All cancers are caused by viruses
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False
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The enzyme that adds phosphate groups to other proteins is a ______________.
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kinase
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Tumor suppressors can oppose oncogenes by
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-blocking the action of an oncogene. -instructing defective cells to die. -slowing cell division. -repairing mutations.
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Proto-oncogenes
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-can be mutated by cigarette smoke to become triggers for cancer. -promote cell division.
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How would the loss of p53 activity affect a cell?
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-DNA damage could accumulate. -The G1/S checkpoint would be unregulated. -CDK activity would be altered.
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Each DNA parent strand within a replication bubble acts as a template strand that produces:
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one leading strand and one lagging strand.
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Each end of a eukaryotic chromosome is capped by a repeating DNA sequence called the
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telomere
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The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to:
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generate multiple copies of a targeted region of DNA.
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As DNA is replicated, the leading strand will have ____________ RNA primer(s) and the lagging strand will have ____________.
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one; many
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When double stranded DNA is heated to about 95 degrees Celsius it denatures. Denaturation
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separates the two strands.
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Telomerase is fully active in ____________ and ____________ cells, but almost completely inactive in ____________ cells.
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germ; stem; somatic
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In a long DNA molecule, each origin of replication produces a ____________ with a ____________ on each side.
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replication bubble; replication fork
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The enzyme responsible for joining Okazaki fragments together during DNA replication is:
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DNA ligase.
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In DNA replication, each individual parent strand acts as a ____________ for the synthesis of a ____________.
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template strand; daughter strand
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The enzyme that catalyzes the addition of new nucleotides to a growing DNA strand is:
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DNA polymerase.
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Genomic pattern recognition begins with identification of sequence ____________, which are telltale sequences that identify what type of sequence it is.
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motifs
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In a Giesma-stained karyotype, each chromosome can be identified by its unique pattern of:
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bands.
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Which one of following statements explains why genome annotation is an ongoing, dynamic process in need of continued updating?
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Our understanding of macromolecules in the genome is always improving.
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Which one of the following statements about an open reading frame is true?
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-An open reading frame has no stop codon. -An open reading frame is most likely protein coding. -An open reading frame consists of a long string of codons.
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A possible negative consequence of personalized medicine could be:
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difficulty obtaining insurance if susceptibility to disease becomes public information.
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Which of the following represents a consequence of sequencing an organism's genome?
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-An individual's "personal genome" can be sequenced and compared to the species standard to determine potential for disease inheritance. -A sequenced genome can be annotated and searched for open reading frames. -Genome sequences can be compared among species to determine evolutionary relationships.
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Which one of the following types of sequence can be found in a genome?
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-Coding sequence for RNAs -noncoding introns -regulatory elements of protein-coding genes -protein-coding exons
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Having more than two sets of chromosomes in the genome is most accurately referred to as:
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polyploidy
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Approximately how much of the human genome varies between individuals?
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0.1%
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Analysis of similarities and differences in the genomes of different species is referred to as:
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comparative genomics.
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Movable DNA sequences are called ____________.
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transposable elements
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An agent that increases mutation rate is a ___________
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mutagen
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Point mutations that cause amino acid replacements are called ____________.
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nonsynonymous (missense) mutation
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The most frequent kind of mutation, point mutations, occur when:
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a single base pair is replaced by another.
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Any heritable change in the genetic material is a
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mutation
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____________ mutations affect only the individual in which they occur; ____________ mutations are passed from parent to offspring.
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Somatic; germ-line
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A point mutation that creates a premature stop codon is called a ____________.
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nonsense mutation
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Chromosomes in which the normal order of a block of genes is reversed contain a(n):
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inversion
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A point mutation that causes no change in the amino acid sequence of a protein is called a ____________.
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synonymous (silent) mutation
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When non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts, a ____________ has occurred.
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reciprocal translocation
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If blending inheritance was an accurate model of transmission genetics, which of the following would be true?
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Variation in natural populations would decrease over time.
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A phenotype is
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the expression of a trait in an individual.
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A testcross involves crossing with a(n) ____________ individual and is used to determine the ____________ of the tested parent.
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homozygous recessive; genotype
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In a homozygous genotype
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both alleles for a given trait are the same.
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In a simple Mendelian cross, true-breeding tall plants (tall is dominant) are crossed with short plants (short is recessive), and the F1 plants, which are all tall, are allowed to self-pollinate. What fraction of the F2 generation are tall?
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3/4
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A reproductive cell, or gamete, has:
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one allele for each gene.
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The statement that, in garden peas, yellow seed is dominant to green seed means that:
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when a true-breeding yellow seed parent is crossed with a true-breeding green seed parent, all offspring will have yellow seeds.
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An allele is
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one of several forms of a gene
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When Mendel crossed true-breeding yellow seed plants with true-breeding green seed plants, the offspring were phenotypically:
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yellow seed
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A genotype is
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the particular combination of alleles present in a given organism.
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You are examining a human pedigree for a trait. You notice that the trait appears in every generation; is equally likely to occur in males and females; and, when one parent is affected, about half of his/her offspring are affected. The trait is most likely:
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dominant.
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Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. If a carrier female (heterozygous for the trait) mated with a normal male, what would be the expected outcome(s)?
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None of the daughters would have hemophilia, and half of the sons would have hemophilia.
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When Thomas Hunt Morgan began studying white-eyed fruit flies, the first observation he made that departed from the results he expected based on Mendelian principles was that:
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white eyes appeared only in males.
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When chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis it is called
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nondisjunction
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When X-linked traits are recessive, females will express the traits only if they are ____________ for the recessive allele.
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homozygous
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Genes that are ____________ do not assort independently and are said to be ____________.
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close to one another on the same chromosome; linked.
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A trait with incomplete penetrance is one that
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is only expressed in some of the individuals that have the genotype for that trait.
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When one gene is able to modify the effect of a second gene, the phenomenon is known as:
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epistasis
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In many animals, including humans, sex is determined by a single __________, or by a pair of them. Both males and females have two copies each of the rest of the chromosomes, which are called __________.
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sex chromosome; autosomes
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Dominant traits
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appear in every generation.
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The genes and DNA sequence of a certain chromosome are compared to those on a chromosome homologous to it and to those on a chromosome nonhomologous to it. Which of the following observations should be anticipated?
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Its homolog has the same genes and a similar DNA sequence.
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A mutation with a deleterious effect on the function of a protein encoded by a human mitochondrial gene will be:
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maternally inherited.
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Lack of exercise is an example of a(n) ____________ for obesity and diabetes.
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environmental risk factor
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In what ways do human X and Y chromosomes differ from one another?
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The X and Y chromosomes differ both in size and in number of genes.
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Genes that are close together in the same chromosome:
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tend to be transmitted together.
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In crosses involving linked genes, recombinant offspring result from:
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crossover
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The Y-linked trait of hairy ears has been passed down for many generations in a certain family. A hairy eared male in this family should definitely have:
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a paternal grandfather with hairy ears.
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When differences in the phenotype due to the environment can be ignored:
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the genetic variation underlying phenotypic differences can be more easily identified.
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Most common traits are
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complex traits.
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Pleiotropy refers to
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a single gene having multiple effects
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In RNA editing
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enzymes change the base sequence of the primary transcript and therefore the protein for which it codes.
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Which of the following questions is about gene regulation
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-How much insulin is produced after a meal? -Where are genes for hemoglobin expressed?
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Epigentic mechanisms of gene regulation ___________ and are ___________.
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can be inherited by daughter cells; often reversible and responsive to environmental change
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General transcription factors
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interact with the RNA polymerase complex to initiate transcription Remember that transcription factors often interact with DNA, not RNA.
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Which of the following changes could cause the production of a shorter-than-normal protein from a gene
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-hanges due to RNA processing -changes due to RNA editing
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The process by which a single primary RNA transcript is used to make multiple proteins is called:
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alternative splicing.
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miRNAs are _____ in eukaryotes and they are important regulators of _____.
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widespread; gene expression
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Regulatory transcription factors
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-bind to DNA sequences called enhancers -recruit components of the transcriptional complex of proteins.
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Histone modification:
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can change over time in response to environmental cues, allowing genes to be turned on or off as needed.
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In humans and other mammals, dosage compensation is achieved by:
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females randomly inactivating one X chromosome in each cell.
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The CRP-cAMP complex binds the lactose operon when:
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glucose levels are low and cAMP levels are high
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For the lactose operon, the CRP-cAMP is a(n)
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activator
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In prokaryotes, inducers are small molecules that
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bind to repressors and promote transcription
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The human body contains approximately 200 major cell types. They look and function differently from one another because:
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each expresses a different set of genes
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The lacZ and lacY genes are transcribed when
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lactose is present and glucose levels are low
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RNA polymerase
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Binds to the promoter
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Repressor protein
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Binds to the operator
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CRP-cAMP
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Binds to the CRP-cAMP binding site
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Lactose
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Binds to the repressor
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cAMP
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Binds to CRP
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An operon is
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a region of DNA consisting of the promoter, operator, and coding sequence for structural proteins.
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For the lactose operon, lactose is a(n)
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inducer
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What is the difference between small regulatory RNAs and mRNAs?
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-Small regulatory RNAs do not code for proteins while mRNAs do code for proteins -Small regulatory RNAs exist at some point in a double stranded form while mRNAs remain single stranded
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Combinatorial control in eukaryotic transcription refers to the fact that:
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each gene has a unique combination of several different enhancers.
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