Biology 1333 Final UTA Marquez - Flashcards

question

A hypothesis is a statement that A) can be changed throughout the experiment. B) can be avidly accepted by scientists. C) can be tested and proven true. D) can be tested and proven false. E) precedes a theory

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D

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Where are the most reliable scientific results published? A) in the daily news B) in science magazines C) in science journals D) on scientific websites E) in peer-reviewed scientific journals

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E

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Observations used as scientific evidence should NOT include A) peer-reviewed scientific literature. B) previous data generated. C) observations about past work. D) anecdotal evidence. E) other people's data.

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D

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What is the first step in the scientific process? A) designing an experiment B) choosing test subjects C) peer review of your study D) analyzing your data E) formulating a hypothesis

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E

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Based on previous published data and some preliminary experiments done in my lab, I hypothesize that a drug called "shrinkase" will inhibit the growth of a particular type of cancerous tumor. What is my next step in the scientific process? A) find people with that kind of tumor B) obtain a large supply of shrinkase C) determine what my control and experimental groups will be D) submit my hypothesis for peer review E) analyze the results of my experiments

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C

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A hypothesis must be ____ and _____. A) logical; verifiable B) logical; falsifiable C) testable; logical D) irrefutable; testable E) testable; falsifiable

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E

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In a well-designed experiment the independent variable A) does not depend on another factor or condition. B) changes from subject to subject randomly. C) can never be manipulated by the researcher. D) will depend on the dependent variable. E) None of the above

answer

A

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A scientific study looked at the effect of tanning beds on DNA damage. The scientists took skin cells and exposed them to UV radiation (the type used in indoor tanning beds) for different lengths of time: some for 1 minute, some for 5 minutes, some for 15 minutes, and some for 30 minutes. They then looked for signs of DNA damage and compared the results to cells that had never been exposed to UV light. What is the independent variable in this experiment? A) the number of skin cells B) the type of light C) the length of time the cells are exposed to UV light D) the untreated cells E) the amount of DNA damage in the cells

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E

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A scientific theory A) is a hypothesis that has been upheld by many experiments. B) is an uneducated guess. C) has not been tested. D) is an educated guess. E) can never be proven wrong.

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A

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An idea that has been examined numerous times and has never been falsified may be called a A) theory. B) hypothesis. C) conclusion. D) conundrum. E) ideology.

answer

A

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Scientific studies within a single ethnic population A) demonstrate cause and effect for that population only. B) may miss correlations in other ethnicities. C) are usually done to determine cause and effect for all populations. D) can be extrapolated to other ethnicities. E) show links between multi-variables in that population.

answer

B

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A positive correlation in a scientific study means A) both variables increase proportionately. B) one variable is linked to another variable. C) one variable increases while the other decreases. D) there is a link between the variables studied. E) both variables decrease proportionately.

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A

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Some side effects of caffeine are A) vomiting. B) fevers. C) confusion. D) fever. E) All of the above.

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E

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An epidemiologist looks at a compilation of studies done at a medical center in which they have catalogued the lifestyle and habits of thousands of women. When she looks at the women in this group who have contracted breast cancer versus those who are healthy, she finds that women who have breast cancer drink more milk then those who do not have cancer. Does this mean drinking milk causes breast cancer? A) Yes, if there is a correlation between the two, milk causes cancer. B) Yes, an epidemiologist uses statistics to look at populations, so it is not a coincidence. C) No, just because there is a correlation, it does not mean that milk is the cause of the cancer. D) No, it's just a coincidence; correlations never indicate a cause-and-effect relationship. E) None of the above.

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C

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The study of the incidence of disease in a population that cannot be directly manipulated is called A) an experiment. B) population biology. C) evolutionary biology. D) epidemiology. E) systemic biology.

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D

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16. Atoms are made up of A) positively charged protons, negatively charged neutrons, and neutral electrons. B) positively charged electrons, negatively charged neutrons, and neutral protons. C) positively charged protons, negatively charged electrons, and neutral neutrons. D) negatively charged protons, positively charged electrons, and neutral neutrons. E) positively charged neutrons, negatively charged electrons, and neutral neutrons.

answer

C

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In order for an element to have no charge, which must be equivalent in number? A) subatomic particles and electrons B) subatomic particles and protons C) electrons and neutrons D) neutrons and protons E) protons and electrons

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E

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An element's atomic number refers to its number of A) protons. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) protons and neutrons. E) protons and electrons.

answer

A

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The atomic mass is equal to A) the number of protons. B) the number of neutrons. C) the number of electrons. D) the number of protons plus the number of neutrons. E) the number of protons plus the number of electrons

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D

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How many electrons does carbon (atomic number = 6) contain in its outer valence shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6

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D

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What is the maximum number of atoms to which a single carbon can bind? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6

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D

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Which of the following is considered an inorganic molecule? A) carbon dioxide B) glucose C) protein D) sugar E) a hydrocarbon skeleton

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A

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Organic molecules are defined as having A) a carbon backbone. B) at least one carbon-oxygen bond. C) at least one carbon-hydrogen bond. D) A and B, but not C. E) A and C, but not B.

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E

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An example of a nucleic acid is A) DNA. B) protein. C) glucose. D) fat. E) sugar

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A

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Maintaining a separate and distinct internal environment from the external environment is called A) life. B) cell exclusion. C) metabolism. D) hydrophobicity. E) homeostasis

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E

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Which part of a cell membrane phospholipid is exposed to the aqueous (watery) interior? A) hydrophilic head and tail B) hydrophilic tail C) hydrophilic head D) hydrophobic head E) hydrophobic tail

answer

C

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Why is a cell membrane like a phospholipid sandwich? A) The lipid is the bread and proteins are the spread. B) It is a two-layered semipermeable structure with heads on the outside, tails in the middle, and heads on the inside. C) It is a two-layered semipermeable structure with tails on the outside, heads in the middle, and tails on the inside. D) It is a two-layered semipermeable structure with tails on the outside, tails on the inside, and heads in the middle. E) It is a one-layered semipermeable structure with heads on the outside and heads on the inside.

answer

B

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If you were to dissect a plant into smaller and smaller units, what is the smallest unit that would still be considered alive? A) whole plant B) leaves C) cells D) cell membranes E) cell DNA

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C

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A substance that is dissolved in water is called a A) solute. B) solution. C) solvent. D) suspension. E) salt.

answer

A

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If 1 liter of a solution with pH = 5 is added to 1 liter of a solution with pH = 9, what will the pH of the mixture be? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 E) 9

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C

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Which of the following are NOT composed of cells? A) bacteria B) viruses C) humans D) plants E) fungi

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B

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Which structure is found only in eukaryotes? A) cytoplasm B) cell membrane C) DNA D) nucleus E) ribosomes

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D

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Which structure is found in prokaryotes and not in animal cells? A) cytoplasm B) cell membrane C) DNA D) cell wall E) ribosomes

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D

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Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have all of the following in common EXCEPT A) DNA. B) a nucleus. C) ribosomes. D) a cell membrane. E) cytoplasm

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B

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Ribosomes A) read DNA. B) make energy. C) make proteins. D) are the main component of cell walls. E) are the main component of cell membranes.

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C

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The hydrophobic part of a phospholipid is the A) choline group. B) phosphate group. C) glycerol group. D) fatty acid group. E) adenine group.

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D

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Molecules that can cross the cell membrane by simple diffusion are A) large. B) ions. C) hydrophilic. D) uncharged molecules. E) All molecules can cross the cell membrane by simple diffusion

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D

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Gram-positive bacteria grown in the presence of penicillin swell and lyse because A) their cell wall becomes weakened. B) osmosis allows water into the cell. C) water pressure causes the cell to rupture. D) no new cell wall can be synthesized. E) All of the above.

answer

E

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Penicillin weakens bacterial A) cell walls. B) cell membranes. C) ribosomes. D) chromosomes. E) Golgi apparatus

answer

A

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Peptidoglycan is made of A) lipids. B) sugars. C) amino acids. D) A and B but not C. E) B and C but not A.

answer

E

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Penicillin kills bacterial cells but not human cells because A) human cells do not have cell walls. B) human cells use ribosomes to make protein. C) human cells have cholesterol in their cell membrane. D) bacterial cells do not have cell membranes. E) bacterial cells do not have DNA.

answer

A

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The ______ provides support and a pathway for movement of structures within a cell. A) endoplasmic reticulum B) cytoplasm C) nucleus D) cytoskeleton E) Golgi apparatus

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D

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The instructions for making proteins that a cell needs are found in the A) nucleus. B) Golgi apparatus. C) rough ER. D) smooth ER. E) mitochondria

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A

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Which of the following places the stages of the manufacture of a membrane transport protein in the correct order, from beginning to end? A) nucleus∅cell membrane∅rough ER∅Golgi apparatus B) nucleus∅ Golgi apparatus∅ rough ER∅cell membrane C) nucleus∅rough ER∅Golgi apparatus∅cell membrane D) cell membrane∅nucleus∅rough ER∅Golgi apparatus E) cell membrane∅Golgi apparatus∅rough ER∅nucleus

answer

C

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All of the following are true of the mitochondria EXCEPT A) they have a double membrane. B) they have ribosomes. C) they have their own DNA. D) they convert food energy to energy the cell can use. E) they are not found in plant cells.

answer

E

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Much of biological chemistry is the building of polymers from monomers, such as a protein made from amino acids. Many macromolecules are basically polymers made of monomers of the same chemical composition and structure. Which of the following does NOT necessarily follow this pattern? A) fats B) proteins C) nucleic acids D) carbohydrates E) All of the above follow that pattern.

answer

A

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When a fat is digested, what is released? A) fatty acids and glycerol B) fatty acids and glycogen C) nucleotides D) amino acids E) simple sugars

answer

A

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Cells utilize these macromolecules for energy requirements. A) nucleotides B) sugars C) proteins D) nucleic acids E) carbohydrates

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E

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What is the complex carbohydrate used for energy storage in animal cells? A) fat B) glucose C) glycogen D) starch E) sucrose

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C

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You have just been served a grilled piece of chicken with the skin intact. Which of the following macromolecules is NOT present in that chicken? A) proteins B) fats C) DNA D) glycogen E) starch

answer

E

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When food is being digested and broken down into its constituent molecules, which macromolecular subunits are re-used to make enzymes? A) sugars from carbohydrates B) amino acids from proteins C) fatty acids from fats D) nucleotides from nucleic acids E) All of the above.

answer

B

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Anabolic reactions _______ bonds, whereas catabolic reactions __________ bonds. A) break; make B) make; break C) loosen; tighten. D) decrease; increase. E) weaken; strengthen

answer

B

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Enzymes work by A) raising cell temperature. B) lowering cell energy. C) modifying carbohydrates. D) lowering activation energy. E) anabolizing simple sugars.

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D

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All the chemical reactions that occur in your body are collectively called A) anabolism. B) catabolism. C) metabolism. D) nutrients. E) enzymes.

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C

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When an enzyme is involved in a catabolic reaction A) its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, stressing the bond, lowering the activation energy, and breaking the bond. B) its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, bringing them close together, lowering the activation energy, and creating a bond. C) its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, stressing the bond, increasing the activation energy, and breaking the bond. D) its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, creating a bond by increasing the activation energy. E) None of the above.

answer

A

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Which of the following does NOT supply an important mineral needed for good bone health? A) milk B) ice cream C) fish D) broccoli E) starch

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E

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Osteoporosis is caused by ____ deficiency. A) calcium B) fat C) carbohydrates D) iron E) oxygen

answer

A

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Vitamins are an important dietary ingredient because most are A) inorganic cofactors. B) coenzymes. C) enzymes. D) macronutrients. E) electrolytes

answer

B

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Table salt is typically iodized to prevent A) goiters. B) thrush. C) kidney stones. D) myopia. E) chlorine poisoning.

answer

A

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Why do children under 6 months of age, in developing countries, rarely suffer from malnutrition? A) They are breast fed, and their mother's milk provides all required nutrition. B) Children do not require as many different nutrients at that young age. C) They have not been alive long enough for malnourishment to occur. D) Most cultures in developing countries have the custom of providing scarce food to infants before other family members eat. E) They have adequate food from their family's farm during this period of their life.

answer

A

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Autotrophs are useful because A) they remove carbon dioxide from the air. B) they add oxygen to the air. C) they are a source of food for humans. D) some are a potential source of fuel. E) All of the above,

answer

E

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The radiant energy of the Sun is used by autotrophs to produce A) kinetic energy for cellular functions. B) potential energy such as oils. C) kinetic energy to make cell components. D) potential energy such as carbohydrates. E) All of the above

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E

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All energy in the biological world ultimately originates from A) chemical energy. B) radiant energy. C) potential energy. D) kinetic energy. E) mechanical energy.

answer

B THE SUN MUTHAFUCHKAS

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Animal movement requires a conversion of energy from A) mechanical to potential energy. B) radiant to kinetic energy. C) chemical to kinetic energy. D) mechanical energy to kinetic. E) kinetic to potential energy.

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C

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What occurs as a cyclist pedals down a hill? A) Potential energy and kinetic energy are unchanged. B) Potential energy goes down as kinetic energy goes down. C) Potential energy goes up as kinetic energy goes down. D) Potential energy goes up as kinetic energy goes up. E) Potential energy goes down as kinetic energy goes up.

answer

E

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If your car runs out of gas, the energy that was contained in the gas has A) been destroyed. B) increased and changed form. C) been converted to several other forms of energy. D) created new energy. E) been converted into chemical energy.

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C

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The energy in our food is contained within the A) chemical bonds of biological molecules. B) carbon atoms of molecules. C) nucleus of carbon atoms. D) fat molecules. E) food's ATP molecules.

answer

A

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Which car would have the most efficient engine in terms of energy conversion? A) a luxury truck with 20 mpg B) a sports vehicle with 25 mpg C) an SUV with 28 mpg D) a compact with 30 mpg E) a bus with 32 mpg

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E

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To grow algae, all of the following are needed EXCEPT A) water. B) sunlight. C) oxygen. D) carbon dioxide. E) nutrients.

answer

C

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Chlorophyll pigments absorb __________, which in turn excite _________, which then are used in reactions to generate __________. A) photons; electrons; ATP B) protons; electrons; ATP C) photons; electrons; protein D) protons; photons; ATP E) electrons; photons; protein

answer

A

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The main energy currency of the cell (the molecule used to fuel the cell) is A) ATP. B) cyclic AMP. C) GNP. D) ADP. E) DNA.

answer

A

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Which of these forms of radiation has the most energy? A) blue light B) gamma rays C) UV radiation D) radio waves E) infrared radiation

answer

B

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Approximately how much of the energy demand in the United States is met by the consumption of fossil fuel? A) 90% B) 80% C) 70% D) 60% E) 50%

answer

B

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Which of these energy sources is considered non-renewable? A) hydroelectric B) geothermal C) biomass D) natural gas E) wind energy

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D

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All of the following are true of biofuel produced from algae EXCEPT A) when burned, they release about the same amount of carbon dioxide that they took in for photosynthesis. B) when burned, they release fewer pollutants than traditional fuels. C) to produce enough algae-based biofuel to meet human needs, algae need more carbon dioxide than is available in the atmosphere. D) algae-based biofuel requires more nutrients than corn-based biofuel. E) in addition to biofuel, algae make other products that can be used to generate electricity

answer

D

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Body Mass Index does NOT take into account A) ratio of height to weight. B) height. C) weight. D) frame size. E) All of the above

answer

D

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Americans are heavier than people living in other countries for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) Americans eat more fast food. B) portion sizes are larger in America. C) American culture encourages eating. D) Americans eat unhealthier food. E) Americans have a slower metabolism.

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E

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A Body Mass Index equal to or greater than _________ is considered obese. A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) 35 E) 40

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C

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The Body Mass Index is an estimate of _________ based on height and weight. A) waist size B) heart health C) blood pressure D) muscle mass E) body fat percentage

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E

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A person's daily energy needs depend on their A) age. B) body type. C) physical activity. D) gender. E) All of the above.

answer

E

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You go outside and take a walk down the street and back. Which of the following are you most likely to be using for energy? A) fat B) glycogen C) nucleic acids D) protein E) triglycerides

answer

B

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2. Excess Calories of energy are stored as _______ in our liver. A) triglycerides B) simple sugars C) glycogen D) starch E) cellulose

answer

C

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______ is considered short-term energy storage and ______ is long-term energy storage in humans. A) Glycogen; starch B) Starch; fat C) Glycogen; fat D) Fat; glycogen E) Glycogen; sugar

answer

C

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The energy in ATP is stored between A) the phosphate groups. B) the carbon and hydrogen atoms. C) ribose and the first phosphate group. D) adenine and ribose. E) adenine and the first phosphate group.

answer

A

question

Which of the following lists foods in order from least healthful to most healthful? A) lard∅butter∅olive oil B) butter∅olive oil∅lard C) olive oil∅lard∅butter D) lard∅olive oil∅butter E) They are all equally bad for your health

answer

A

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The cells carrying out cellular aerobic respiration in humans obtain oxygen from A) blood from tissues. B) rough ER. C) blood from the lungs. D) Golgi apparatus. E) mitochondria.

answer

C

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Glycolysis occurs in the A) mitochondria. B) chloroplasts. C) vacuoles. D) cytoplasm. E) nucleus.

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D

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The CO2 that we breathe out is generated A) in the cytoplasm. B) in the nucleus. C) in the mitochondria. D) during electron transport. E) during glycolysis.

answer

C POWERHOUSE BEECHES

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What by-product of photosynthesis is required for cellular respiration? A) glucose B) nitrates C) oxygen D) carbon dioxide E) phosphates

answer

C

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The final product of fermentation in yeast is A) pyruvate. B) glucose. C) lactic acid. D) acetic acid. E) alcohol.

answer

E

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An individual's DNA is A) different in every cell. B) varies depending on cell type. C) identical in all cells. D) identical only in some cells. E) identical to their mother's DNA.

answer

C

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You are hired as a research assistant to help determine the genome of a wild onion plant. At the end of this project, you expect to have the A) sequence of all of its genes. B) sequence of all of its DNA. C) sequence of all of its proteins. D) total amount of RNA, DNA, and protein in its cells. E) number of chromosomes in its nucleus.

answer

B

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Bases holding two single strands of DNA together into a double strand of DNA interact through ___________ bonds. A) covalent B) hydrogen C) ionic D) chemical E) carbon

answer

B *WHISPERS ANSWER INTENSELY*

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DNA can generally be extracted from A) hair. B) blood. C) saliva. D) skin cells. E) All of the above.

answer

E

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When one DNA molecule is duplicated, the resulting two DNA molecules contain A) one new and one old strand in each. B) two new strands in one and two old strands in the other. C) four new strands in each. D) four old strands in each. E) four new strands in one and four old strands in the other.

answer

A

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The process of DNA replication requires A) breaking of hydrogen bonds. B) unwinding of the DNA. C) enzymes. D) nucleotides. E) All of the above

answer

E

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DNA polymerase is an enzyme that A) breaks DNA down into fragments. B) deletes specific regions of DNA. C) makes copies of DNA. D) tightly winds DNA into chromosomes. E) removes sugars from nucleotides to link them together.

answer

C

question

When DNA is copied to make more DNA before cell division, what happens to the original DNA molecule? A) The original DNA goes to one cell; the new DNA goes to the other cell. B) Only new DNA is passed on; original DNA is broken down and recycled. C) Each of the cells contains half of the original DNA and half new DNA. D) The original DNA is twisted into a double helix and passed to one of the daughter cells. E) Either A or C are true, depending on the organism

answer

C

question

To make a copy of DNA, all of the following must occur EXCEPT A) hydrogen bonds break. B) adenine pairs with thymine. C) DNA polymerase binds to the DNA. D) the old strand is used as a template. E) the DNA coils to form a replication helix.

answer

E

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If you start with one copy of a DNA fragment, how many rounds of PCR amplification will it take to end up with a total of 16 copies? A) 1 B) 4 C) 7 D) 10 E) 15

answer

B

question

The nucleotides used in DNA replication during PCR ____ compared to the nucleotides used during DNA replication within a cell. A) are exactly the same B) are somewhat different C) are completely different D) contain the base U instead of A E) contain the base U instead of T

answer

A

question

DNA profiling is used to identify A) genes. B) a person. C) chromosome mutations. D) protein mutations. E) time of a crime.

answer

B

question

Some highly degraded DNA was collected from a crime scene. Upon analysis, forensic scientists were only able to accurately sequence one 450-nucleotide-long segment of DNA from a Y chromosome. There are five suspects in the case, but they have fled the state. However, they all have large extended families in the area. How can the police narrow the search to just one suspect? A) Collect DNA from male siblings, fathers, or paternal grandfathers. B) Collect DNA from sisters, mothers, and maternal grandmothers. C) Collect DNA from any male relatives on the mother's or father's side. D) Collect DNA from any female relatives on the mother's or father's side. E) Collect DNA from any available blood relatives of any gender.

answer

A

question

A parent gives half their DNA to their child. This means that when 10 STRs are studied, at least _____ bands will be identical on a gel comparing one parent and child. A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) more than 20 E) 5 but no more than 10

answer

B

question

You are analyzing DNA from a crime scene, but you have a very limited budget. Instead of looking at the 15 STR sites generally used to create a DNA profile, you decide to only look at eight STR sites. There are only two possible suspects in the crime, and they are brothers. Do you think the eight STR sites you examine will be adequate to make a positive identification to determine which brother committed the crime? A) Yes, because five or more sites are enough to identify most individuals. B) Yes, because siblings only share seven or eight sites, so eight STRs will be enough. C) No, because siblings have more similar DNA profiles than unrelated people. D) No, because siblings will have identical DNA profiles, even with 15 STRs. E) STRs cannot be used to distinguish between siblings.

answer

C

question

The shape of proteins A) determines what they can do and how they function. B) can be formed by more than one folded chain of amino acids. C) is determined by the side groups on its amino acids. D) can be altered by a change in gene sequence. E) All of the above.

answer

E

question

A mutation in the gene for insulin results in a protein with a drastically distorted three-dimensional shape. What is the most likely outcome? A) The insulin protein will not function properly. B) Other proteins will be mutated to replace it. C) There will be no effect; the shape is rarely important. D) The effect will be minor, and the protein will mostly function. E) None of the above.

answer

A

question

Lactose intolerance results when a person inherits two defective alleles for the lactase gene. Normally, this gene produces the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose during digestion. What would most likely happen if a person had one defective allele and the other allele was functional? A) The person would not digest lactose at all. B) The person would digest less lactose than normal. C) The person would make lactase but not use it. D) The person would make more lactase than normal. E) The person would make no lactase but could digest lactose.

answer

B

question

If a person has an antithrombin deficiency, what is the likelihood that both alleles are defective? A) 50% B) 100% C) 25% D) 75% E) 0%

answer

B

question

Alleles are alternate versions of _____ gene(s) that have ____ nucleotide sequences. A) different; the same B) different; completely different C) different; small differences in their D) the same; completely different E) the same; small differences in their

answer

E

question

The regulatory region of a gene is required for A) gene expression. B) protein secretion. C) gene activation. D) turning off a gene. E) All of the above.

answer

E

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If a DNA coding region has 12 nucleotides, how many amino acids could it encode? A) 12 B) 36 C) 3 D) 4 E) 120

answer

D

question

UAA }stop UAG }stop CAU }his CAC }his CAA }gln CAG }gln 113. CAU is a(n) A) codon. B) anticodon. C) amino acid. D) nucleic acid. E) protein.

answer

A

question

UAA }stop UAG }stop CAU }his CAC }his CAA }gln CAG }gln CAU would be found in A) DNA. B) mRNA. C) ribosomes. D) RNA. E) protein.

answer

B

question

If a cloned DNA sequence made a protein containing 600 amino acids when it should be only 500 amino acids, you would suspect a problem in A) the start signal anticodon. B) the stop signal codon. C) the regulatory region of the gene. D) the downstream region of the gene. E) Any of the above.

answer

B

question

Which of the following is NOT a stop codon? (Hint: Use the genetic code table.) A) UAA B) UGA C) ATG D) UAG E) All of the above are stop codons.

answer

C

question

Codons are groups of ______ nucleotide(s) in mRNA. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 2 E) 4

answer

B

question

What is a transgenic organism? A) an organism that contains genes from a different species B) an organism with one or more genes deleted from its genome C) an organism with one or more of its natural genes mutated by scientists D) an organism that contains genes from another animal of the same species E) an organism with two or more genes that have been rearranged between chromosomes

answer

A

question

What is the function of antithrombin? A) It's a protein that causes causing thrombosis. B) It's a protein that gives structure to blood vessels, so they don't collapse. C) It's a protein produced in the pancreas. D) It's a protein that helps to prevent blood clots. E) It's an enzyme that causes blood clotting.

answer

D

question

Antithrombin deficiency is overcome by A) monitoring one's diet. B) vein removal. C) gene therapy. D) taking anticlotting drugs. E) All of the above.

answer

D

question

Which statement is FALSE? A) Mitosis occurs during wound healing. B) Mitosis is required for embryonic development. C) Mitosis is part of the process used to repair damaged tissues. D) Mitosis is required to halve the chromosome number of cells. E) Mitosis occurs regularly in our body.

answer

D

question

Which stage of the cell cycle is the lengthiest? A) interphase B) mitosis C) cytokinesis D) All the stages are equal in duration. E) None of the above.

answer

A

question

During interphase of the cell cycle, which of the following occurs? A) All of the cell's DNA is copied. B) The cell increases in volume. C) Organelles are produced. D) The cell goes through stages called G1, S, and G2. E) All of the above.

answer

E

question

Duplicated chromosomes are also known as sister A) chromatids. B) chromosomes. C) chromomeres. D) centromeres. E) centrioles.

answer

A

question

Microtubules attach to ________ on centromeres during mitosis. A) kinetochore proteins B) DNA C) mitotic spindles D) checkpoints E) nuclear membranes

answer

A

question

The correct order of phases in mitosis is A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. B) metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase, and cytokinesis. C) G1, S, G2, M, and cytokinesis. D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and cytokinesis. E) cytokinesis, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

answer

A

question

The "S" phase of the cell cycle occurs during which of the following stages? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase E) interphase

answer

E

question

Chromosomes pull apart because the spindle gets shorter during this stage. A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

answer

D

question

Chromosomes line up in the middle of the nucleus during A) interphase. B) prophase. C) metaphase. D) anaphase. E) telophase.

answer

C

question

Cancer consists of too much A) cell division. B) translation. C) apoptosis. D) toxin production. E) DNA replication.

answer

A

question

Which of the following help(s) to prevent cancer? A) cell cycle checkpoints B) apoptosis C) DNA repair enzymes D) regulation of the cell cycle E) All of the above.

answer

E

question

Cancer is A) an organ that becomes malignant. B) a metastatic cell. C) unregulated apoptosis. D) unregulated cell division. E) regulated cell division.

answer

D

question

Physical side-effects from chemotherapy and radiotherapy could be maximally reduced by A) targeting specific tumor cells. B) reducing amounts of drug or radiation. C) reducing exposure time. D) better detection methods. E) using multiple drugs with radiation.

answer

A

question

All of the following could be effective cancer treatments EXCEPT A) a drug that enhances apoptosis. B) a drug that increases DNA replication. C) a drug that prevents formation of the mitotic spindle. D) a drug that increases the immune system response. E) a drug that makes cells more permeable to drugs.

answer

B

question

Taxol was an important new chemotherapy drug because it A) was present in only very low amounts in tree bark. B) killed ovarian and breast cancer cells. C) targeted a different step of the cell cycle compared to other drugs. D) could be extracted from widely available trees. E) was effective and inexpensive.

answer

C

question

A newly identified mutation in mice, called "darkened dorsal," causes a dark stripe along the mouse's back. This mutation is located at a specific location on chromosome 2. A different sequence at this same chromosomal position results in a fur color pattern called "nonagouti." Based on this information, darkened dorsal and nonagouti are different A) genes for fur color. B) alleles for the same gene. C) mutations of the same chromosome. D) chromatids. E) All of the above.

answer

B

question

What would happen if the enzyme that makes DNA added a nucleotide to the middle of a coding region of a gene? A) It would change the reading frame of the DNA and possibly lead to a change in the amino acid sequence of the protein made from that gene. B) It wouldn't matter because it is in a coding region. C) It is only one nucleotide so it wouldn't matter; more than one nucleotide would need to be added to change a protein. D) It would make longer mRNA and protein from that gene. E) All of the above

answer

A

question

DNA damage is usually repaired A) in the egg or sperm cells before fertilization. B) at or before checkpoints in the cell cycle. C) in the ribosome during translation. D) by the mitotic spindle. E) by the complementary strand of DNA.

answer

B

question

Mutations are A) always harmful. B) never neutral. C) always helpful. D) never helpful. E) sometimes harmful, sometimes helpful, and sometimes neutral.

answer

E

question

Is the way a protein folds important for its function? A) Yes, protein function depends on the protein's 3-D structure. B) Yes, because DNA mutations are caused by protein folding incorrectly. C) No, as long as the sequence is correct. D) No, as long as the protein is still soluble. E) None of the above.

answer

A

question

Which of the following is a mutagen? A) UV light B) smoking C) blackened meats D) excessive drinking E) All of the above

answer

E

question

Why are Ashkenazi Jews more susceptible to certain hereditary diseases? A) They have inherited predispositions and carcinogen exposure. B) They have increased occupational exposure and environmental insults. C) They are predisposed by exposure to occupational risks. D) They have an increased carrier rate for these diseases from their ancestors. E) They all have increased errors in DNA proofreading.

answer

D

question

What is the number-one preventable cause of cancer? A) smoking B) UV light exposure C) grilled meats and vegetables D) pollution exposure E) alcohol

answer

A

question

All of the following are TRUE of BRCA genes, EXCEPT A) there are two genes, and a mutation in either can lead to cancer. B) when mutated, they produce proteins that are unable to regulate the cell cycle. C) just one mutated BRCA gene increases a woman's lifetime cancer risk to greater than 90%. D) mutations in BRCA genes can lead to either breast or ovarian cancer in women. E) mutations in BRCA genes can lead to prostate cancer in men.

answer

C

question

Many cells in your body stop at the G1 checkpoint and never divide again. Some cells, like skin cells, will continue past the G1 checkpoint. What types of genes tell a skin cell to move on past the G1 checkpoint? A) proto-oncogenes B) tumor-suppressor genes C) cell-enhancing genes D) oncogenes E) tumor-deflecting genes

answer

A

question

What would happen if a tumor suppressor, such as BRCA1, was mutated? A) DNA may not be able to be repaired. B) The cell cycle could continue without stopping when needed. C) Cells would stop dividing and be unable to get through the cell cycle. D) A and B only E) All of the above.

answer

D

question

You learn from DNA testing that for BRCA1 you have one normal allele and one allele associated with cancer. For BRCA2, you have two alleles associated with cancer. How does this affect your risk for cancer? A) Your risk is the same as any other average human being. B) You will almost certainly get cancer at a very young age. C) Your risk is definitely higher than for someone with all mutant alleles for BRCA1 and BRCA2. D) Your risk is the same as that for someone with a single mutant BRCA1 allele. E) Your risk is higher than average but depends on other genes you carry and your lifestyle.

answer

E

question

The mutant BRCA2 gene predisposes people to cancer. If mutant BRCA2 runs in Isadora's family, will she automatically get cancer? A) Yes, because genes like BRCA2 are always inherited if one of your parents has a mutation. B) No. Although inherited genes may carry an increased predisposition toward cancer, it is often nonhereditary mutations that lead to cancer. C) Yes, because inherited genes that are mutated will cause cancer. D) No, because more than one mutation is needed to develop cancer. E) B and D

answer

E

question

If your mother has a single copy of a harmful BRCA gene, what are the chances you inherited the harmful BRCA allele from her? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%

answer

C

question

Women Diagnosed with Cancer (graph 10.8) Breast cancer by age 50 w/ BRACA gene 33-50% no gene 2% Breast cancer by age 70 w/ BRACA gene 56-87% no gene 12% Ovarian cancer by age 70 w/ BRACA gene 27-44% no gene <2% What is the increased risk of breast cancer by age 70 if you have one copy of a deleterious BRCA1 allele when compared with the general population? A) 12% B) 25%-42% C) 44%-75% D) 56%-87% E) 87%

answer

C

question

What is the significance of gene mutations in terms of protein function and clinical outcome? A) Changes in gene sequence can alter the shape or function of a protein. B) Analyzing specific mutations allows researchers to study overall gene function. C) Gene mutations allow researchers to identify deficient proteins and aid in therapeutic intervention, such as in cystic fibrosis. D) A and B. E) All of the above.

answer

D

question

What is a genotype? A) the genetic makeup of an individual B) defined by one's phenotype C) the same as the phenotype D) the measureable or visual traits of an individual E) A and B.

answer

A

question

Which parent contributes the chromosome that determines the gender of a child? A) Fathers determine the gender of sons, and mothers determine the gender of daughters. B) Fathers determine the gender of daughters, and mothers determine the gender of sons. C) Both parents play an equal role in determining gender. D) A mother's chromosomes determine the gender of sons and daughters. E) A father's chromosomes determine the gender of sons and daughters.

answer

E

question

A mutation in a DNA coding region of a protein can cause A) a change in primary structure of the protein. B) a change in secondary structure of the protein. C) a change in tertiary structure of the protein. D) a change in quaternary structure of the protein. E) All of the above.

answer

E

question

One of the mutations of the CFTR gene is the result of the deletion of three consecutive nucleotides. This leads to all of the following, EXCEPT A) one missing amino acid. B) incorrect base pairing. C) one missing codon. D) a deformed protein. E) incorrect mRNA.

answer

B

question

How are the X and Y chromosomes in males different from other diploid cells? A) Genes on the X and Y chromosome do not have a second copy. B) Genes on the X and Y chromosome express an extra copy of each gene. C) The X and Y chromosome in males preferentially express specific genes while silencing others. D) A and C. E) None of the above.

answer

A

question

How many chromosomes are in a gamete? A) 46 B) 23 C) 12 D) 1 E) 92

answer

B

question

Gametes differ from other cells in the body because gametes A) are only inherited from the mother. B) do not carry a gene to determine gender. C) have three copies of every gene. D) live forever. E) are haploid.

answer

E

question

What is meiosis? A) the specialized type of cellular division that generates haploid gametes B) a type of cellular division that contains two separate divisions, ultimately leading to the separation of sister chromatids C) a type of cellular division that aides in genetic diversity by containing both recombination and independent assortment D) A and B E) A and C

answer

E

question

Meiosis differs from mitosis in all of the following ways, EXCEPT A) in meiosis there are two cell divisions, in mitosis there is only one. B) meiosis only occurs in ovaries and testes. C) meiosis results in haploid cells while mitosis results in diploid cells. D) mitosis results in four cells while meiosis results in two. E) meiosis results in genetically unique daughter cells while mitosis results in genetically identical daughter cells.

answer

D

question

What two processes occur during meiosis to aide in genetic diversity? A) recombination and dependent assortment B) independent assortment and recombination C) meiosis I and II D) All of the above. E) None of the above.

answer

D

question

What is the principle of independent assortment? A) the principle that alleles of different genes are distributed together, as a package B) the principle wherein alleles of maternal and paternal genes are aligned in the cell during meiosis and separated independently of one another C) the principle that occurs only during meiosis II D) a process that only occurs if chromosome pairs are aligned in the center of the cell E) None of the above.

answer

B

question

The process responsible for making chromosomes that have pieces taken from two different chromosomes is called A) random alignment. B) independent assortment. C) recombination. D) DNA duplication. E) random realignment.

answer

C

question

All of the following are true of recessive alleles, EXCEPT A) they are never transcribed and therefore never produce protein. B) they are designated by lowercase letters. C) the phenotype encoded by the recessive allele will only be noticeable when in the homozygous state. D) a person heterozygous for a recessively inherited disease has one normal allele and one disease allele and is called a "carrier." E) not all recessive alleles cause disease.

answer

A

question

In a cross between two heterozygous parents for two genes, what is the chance that any progeny will be homozygous recessive for both traits? A) 9:16 B) 1:16 C) 1:4 D) 1:1 E) 1:32

answer

B

question

The SRY gene on the Y chromosome is responsible for A) female genitalia. B) ovary suppression. C) estrogen production. D) testes development. E) androgen receptors.

answer

E not on final

question

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A) Males are more likely than females to express X-linked characteristics. B) X-linked characteristics are almost always recessively inherited. C) X-linked characteristics are genes that are recessive on the X chromosome and dominant on the Y chromosome. D) Females with Duchenne muscular dystrophy are uncommon. E) Hemophilia rarely affects women.

answer

C

question

Which of the following chromosomes does NOT have a homologous partner in human males? A) Chromosome 1 B) Chromosome 11 C) Chromosome 17 D) Chromosome 13 E) Y chromosome

answer

E

question

What is the main difference in behavior between the X and Y chromosome during meiosis? A) The Y chromosome aligns with its homologous chromosome; the X does not. B) The X chromosome undergoes crossing over; the Y does not. C) The Y chromosome undergoes crossing over; the X does not. D) During crossing over the X chromosome donates segments to the Y chromosome. E) During crossing over the Y chromosome donates segments to the X chromosome.

answer

B

question

An example of incomplete dominance is A) hair color. B) wavy hair. C) blue eyes. D) height. E) color blindness.

answer

B

question

Codominance is when A) one allele masks the effect of the other in the phenotype. B) both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype. C) an intermediate phenotype is expressed in the heterozygote. D) more than one gene contributes to the phenotype. E) the environment contributes to the phenotype.

answer

B

question

Hair texture is an example of incomplete dominance. A person who is homozygous dominant HH has curly hair and they mate with a person who has straight hair (homozygous recessive hh). What percentage of their offspring will have wavy hair? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%

answer

E

question

A black dog is bred with a brown dog, and all the puppies have patches of black and brown. The coat color alleles for black and brown are an example of A) codominance. B) incomplete dominance. C) multiple-allele inheritance. D) multifactorial inheritance. E) polygenic inheritance.

answer

A

question

A patient with an AB blood type can receive a transfusion from a donor with blood type _______ only. A) AB B) AB or O C) AB, A, or O D) AB, A, B, or O E) AB, A, or B

answer

D

question

The letters for blood types represent A) markers on the surface of blood cells. B) types of hemoglobin in blood cells. C) different shapes of red blood cells. D) different types of white blood cells. E) different shapes of white blood cells.

answer

A

question

A person with the AB blood type recognizes which of the following blood types as foreign? A) only A B) only B C) A and B D) O E) They do not recognize any blood types as foreign.

answer

E

question

A person with the O blood type recognizes which of the following blood types as foreign? A) only A B) only B C) A and B D) O E) They do not recognize any blood types as foreign.

answer

C

question

A man with AB blood type marries a heterozygous woman with blood type A. They have children. What percentage of their offspring would have blood type O? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%

answer

A

question

Hydrangea plants have a gene that codes for having flower color or having no flower color. For those plants that do have flower color, the exact color depends on the amount of aluminum in the plant: they are pink or red when little aluminum is present and blue when aluminum is present. Plants take up more aluminum in acidic soils, so a plant with red flowers can be turned into a plant with blue flowers by lowering the pH of the soil. This is an example of ______ inheritance. A) polygenic B) multifactorial C) recessive D) codominant E) dominant

answer

B

question

A heart muscle cell of a person with Down syndrome has _____ chromosomes. A) 24 B) 23 C) 52 D) 46 E) 47

answer

E

question

Somatic stem cells are found in A) adult tissues. B) embryonic tissues. C) umbilical-cord blood. D) germ tissue. E) All of the above

answer

A

question

An organ is composed of A) three cell types. B) at least two specialized tissues. C) at least 10 specialized cell types. D) one or more tissue types. E) groups of cells randomly arranged around a scaffold.

answer

B

question

The formation of an organ through the use of stem cells differentiated into multiple cell types. However, which of the following presents a hurdle to regenerating a new organ to replace a defective one? A) Many organs contain multiple specialized cell types in an intricate design. B) Nerve innervation is necessary for the proper function of some organs. C) Proper blood supply to all the regenerated cells is necessary for the survival of organs. D) A and C E) All of the above.

answer

E

question

Although organ transplants are an available treatment option, which of the following describes potential risks of this approach? A) The demand for organs such as hearts, livers, and kidneys is greater than the supply. B) Rejection of the transplanted organ can result in a loss of organ function or potential harm to the patient. C) Transplantation surgeries do not always produce successful functional organs in the transplanted patient. D) B and C E) All of the above.

answer

E

question

Stem-cell therapy A) is not current practice. B) has been used successfully for years. C) is still undergoing clinical trials. D) will be successful in the future. E) is on its way out.

answer

B

question

Which organ has been successfully reconstructed using tissue engineering? A) kidney B) liver C) heart D) bladder E) All of the above.

answer

D

question

Stem cells are found in A) bone marrow. B) umbilical-cord blood. C) brain tissue. D) skin. E) All of the above.

answer

E

question

A heart cell is considered to be a specialized cell because A) it only expresses heart genes. B) it only makes proteins specific to the heart. C) it occurs only in the heart and nowhere else. D) without manipulation in a laboratory, it has lost the ability to differentiate into other, nonheart cells. E) All of the above.

answer

E

question

When an egg is fertilized by a sperm, all of the following result, EXCEPT A) a cell that will continue to divide, giving rise to all the cells of the body. B) a mass of cells that will include stem cells. C) a cell that will divide and give rise to cells with different DNA. D) a cell that will divide and give rise to cells with the exact same DNA. E) All of the above occur.

answer

C

question

Which of the following cell types is MOST differentiated? A) zygote cell B) bone-marrow cell C) neuron from the cerebral cortex D) neural stem cell E) mesenchymal stem cell

answer

C

question

What was the major discovery in tissue engineering that advanced the field to where it is today? A) the use of scaffolds to grow organs B) tissue antirejection techniques C) stem-cell isolation from adult tissues D) A and C E) All of the above

answer

D

question

All of the following are true of stem cells, EXCEPT A) they can be induced to grow in the lab. B) they show great potential for tissue and organ transplants. C) they can differentiate into many types of tissues. D) they are undifferentiated. E) they are only found in embryos.

answer

E

question

Why would you need to isolate more than one type of stem cell when growing a replacement organ? A) More than one type of stem cell is grown in case one type does not survive. B) Growing replacement organs requires at least three types of stem cells. C) Different tissues have different stem cells. D) Organs are composed of more than one type of tissue. E) C and D

answer

E

question

Reproductive and therapeutic cloning differ because A) Reproductive cloning uses two egg cells, while therapeutic cloning involves only one egg cell. B) therapeutic cloning uses two egg cells, while reproductive cloning involves only one egg cell. C) both methods involve implantation into a uterus for cell division, but in therapeutic cloning, the cell mass is removed from the uterus. D) reproductive cloning involves implantation of the egg cell into a uterus, while therapeutic cloning is carried out in a laboratory. E) reproductive cloning has never been successful on any organism, while therapeutic cloning has had great success.

answer

D

question

People who object to the use of embryonic stem cells object to which of the following? A) stem cell lines created from embryos discarded from fertility clinics B) stem cell lines created from somatic cell nuclear transfer C) adult stem cell lines D) induced pluripotent stem cell lines E) A and B

answer

E

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