ASCP Hematology Exam-MLT – Flashcards
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The light-colored zone adjacent to the nucleus in a plasmacyte is the: A. ribosome B. chromatin C. mitochondria D. Golgi area
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D. Golgi area
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The majority of the iron in an adult is found as a constituent of: A. hemoglobin B. hemosiderin C. myoglobin D. transferrin
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A. hemoglobin
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The main function of the hexose monophosphate shunt in the erythrocyte is to: A. reglate the level of 2,3-DPG B. provide reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin C. prevent the reduction of heme iron D. provide energy for membrane maintenance
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B. provide the level 2,3-DPG
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In order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly with oxygen, the iron must be: A. complexed with haptoglobin B. freely circulating in the cytoplasm C. attached to transferrin D. in the ferrous state
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D. in the ferrous state
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In which of the following disease states are teardrop cells and adnormal platelets most characteristically seen? A. hemolytic anemia B. multiple myeloma C. G-6-PD deficiency D. myeloid metaplasma
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D. myeloid metaplasia
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In the normal adult, the spleen acts as a site for: A. storage of red blood cells B. production of red blood cells C. synthesis of erythropoietin D. removal of imperfect and aging cells
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D. removal of imperfect and aging cells
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After removal of red blood cells from the circulation hemoglobin is broken down into: A. iron, porphyrin, and amino acids B. iron, protoporphyrin, and globin C. heme, protoporphyrin, and amino acids D. heme, hemoseridin, and globin
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B. iron, protoporphyrin, and globin
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Heinz bodies are: A. readily identified with polychrome stains B. rarely found in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficient erythrocytes C. closely associated with spherocytes D. denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen
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D. denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen
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Cells for the transport of O2 and CO2 are: A. erythrocytes B. granulocytes C. lymphocytes D. thrombocytes
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A. erythrocytes
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Erythropoeitin acts to: A. shorten the replication time of the granulocytes B. stimulate RNA synthesis of erythroid cells C. increase colony-stimulating factors produced by the B-lymphocytes D. decrease the release of marrow reticulocytes
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B. stimulate RNA synthesis of erythroid cells
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What cell shape is most commonly associated with an increase MCHC? A. teardrop cells B. target cells C. spherocytes D. sickle cells
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C. spherocytes
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Which of the following characteristics are common to hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis, hereditary stomatocytosis, and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria? A. autosomal dominant inheritance B. red cell membrane defects C. positive direct anti-globulin test D. measured platelet count
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B. red cell membrane defects
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Which of the following is most closely associated with iron deficiency anemia? A. iron overload in tissue B. target cells C. basophilic stippling D. chronic blood loss
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D. chronic blood loss
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Evidence indicates that the generic defect in thalassemia usually results in? A. the production of abnormal globin class B. a quantitative deficiency in RNA resulting in decreased globin chain production C. a structured change in the heme portion of the hemoglobin D. an abnormality in the alpha- or beta-chain binding or affinity
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B. a quantitative deficiency in RNA resulting in decreased globin chain production
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An enzyme deficiency assciated with moderate to sever hemolytic anemia after the patient is exposed to certain drugs and characteristized by red cell inclusions formed by denatured hemoglobin is: A. lactate dehydrogenase deficiency B. G-6-PD deficiency C. pyruvate kinase deficiency D. hexokinase deficiency
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B. G-6-PD deficiency
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Patients with A(-) type G-6-PD deficiency are least likely to have hemolytic episodes in which of the following situations? A. following administration of oxidizing drugs B. following ingestion of fava beans C. during infections D. spontaneously
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D. spontaneously
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A patient has a congenital nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia. After exposure to anti-malarial drugs, the patient experiences a severe hemolytic episode. This episode is characterized by red cell inclusions caused by hemoglobin denaturation. Which of the following conditions is most consistent with these findings? A. G-6-PD deficiency B. thalassemia major C. pyruvate kinase deficiency D. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
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A. G-6-PD deficiency
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Peripheral blood smears from patients with untreated pernicious anemia are characterized by: A. pancytopenia and macrocytosis B. leukocytosis and elliptocytosis C. leukocytosis and ovalocytosis D. pancytopenia and microcytosis
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A. pancytopenia and macrocytosis
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Laboratory tests performed on a patient indicate macrocytosis, anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Which of the following disorders is the patient most likely to have? A. anemia of chronic disorder B. vitamin B12 deficiency C. iron deficiency D. acute hemorrhage
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B. vitamin B12 deficiency
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The characteristic morphological feature in folic acid deficiency is: A. macrocytosis B. target cells C. basophilic stippling D. rouleax formation
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A. macrocytosis
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The most likely cause of the macrocytosis that often accompanies anemia of myelofibrosis is: A. folic acid deficiency B. increased reticulocyte count C. inadequate B12 absorption D. pyroxine deficiency
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A. folic acid deficiency
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A characteristic morphologic feature in hemoglobin C disease is: A. macrocytosis B. spherocytosis C. rouleax formation D. target cells
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D. target cells
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Thalassemias are characterized by: A. structural abnormalities in the hemoglobin molecule B. absence of iron in hemoglobin C. decreased rate of heme synthesis D. decreased rate of globin synthesis
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D. decreased rate of globin synthesis
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Laboratory findings in hereditary spherocytosis do not include: A. decreased osmotic fragility B. increased autohemolysis corrected by glucose C. reticulocytosis D. shortened erythrocyte survival
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A. decreased osmotic fragility
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Which of the following types of polycythemia is a severely burned patient most likely to have? A. polycythemia vera B. polycythemia, secondary to hypoxia C. relative polycythemia associated with dehydration D. polycythemia associated with renal disease
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C. relative polycythemia associated with dehydration
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Which of the following is most likely to be seen in lead poisoning? A. iron overload in tissue B. codocytes C. basophilic stippling D. ringed sideroblasts
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C. basophilic stippling
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The characteristic morphologic feature in lead poisoning is: A. macrocytosis B. target cells (codocytes) C. basophilic stippling D. rouleax formation
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C. basophilic stippling
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Which of the following technical factors will cause a decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate? A. gross hemolysis B. small fibrin clots in the sample C. increased room temperature D. tilting of the tube
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B. small fibrin clots in sample
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Which of the RBC indices is a measure of the amount of hemoglobin in individual red blood cells? A. MCHC B. MCV C. Hct D. MCH
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D. MCH
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The RDW-CV and RDW-SD performed by automated cells counters are calculations that provide: A. an index of the distribution of RBC volumes B. a calculated mean RBC hemoglobin concentration C. a calculated mean cell hemoglobin D. the mean RBC volume
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A. an index of the distribution of RBC volumes
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The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can be falsely elevated by: A. tilting the tube B. refrigerate blood C. air bubbles in the column D. specimen too old
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A. tilting the tube
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Which of the following is the formula for absolute cell count? A. number of cells counted/total count B. total count/number of cells counted C. 10 x total count D. % of cells counted x total cell count
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D. % of cells counted x total cell count
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The laboratory tests performed on a patient indicate macrocytosis, anemia , leukopenia, and thrombocytosis. Which of the following disorders is the patient most likely to have? A. iron deficiency B. hereditary spherocytosis C. vitamin B12 deficiency D. acute hemorrhage
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C. vitamin B12 deficiency
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The mean value of a reticulocyte count on specimens of cord blood from healthy, full-term newborns is approximately: A. 0.5% B. 2.0% C. 5.0% D. 8.0%
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C. 5.0%
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A red blood cell about 5 um in diameter that stains bright red and shows no central pallor is a: A. spherocyte B. leptocyte C. microcyte D. macrocyte
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A. spherocyte
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The following results were obtained on a patient's blood: Hgb: 11.5 g/dL (115 g/L) Hct: 40% MCV: 89 um^3 (89 fL) MCH: 26 pg MCHC: 29% Examination on wright's stained smear of the same sample would most likely show: A. macrocytic, normochromic erythrocytes B. microcytic, hypochromic erythrcytes C. normocytic, hypochromic erythrocytes D. normocytic, normochromic erythrocytes
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C, normocytic, hypochromic erythrocytes
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Evidence of active red cell regeneration may be indicated on a blood smear by: A. basophilic stippling, nucleated red blood cells and polychromasia B. hypochromia, macrocytes, and nucleated red blood cellse C. hypochromia, basophilic stippling, and nucleated red blood cellse D. Howell-Jolly bodies, Cabot rings, and basophilic stippling
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A. basophilic stippling, nucleated red blood cells and polychromasia
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The presence of excessive rouleax formation on a blood smear is often accompanied by an increased: A. reticulocyte count B. sedimentation rate C. hematocrit D. erythrocyte count
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B. sedimentation rate
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The characteristic peripheral blood morphologic feature in multiple myeloma is: A. cytotoxic T cells B. rouleax formation C. spherocytes D. macrocytosis
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B. rouleax formation
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In polycythemia vera, the homeoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count, and red cell mass are: A. elevated B. normal C. decreased
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A. elevated
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The M:E ratio in polycythemia vera is usually: A. normal B. high C. low D. variable
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A. normal
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Many microspherocytes, schostocytes, and budding off of spherocytes can be seen on peripheral blood smears of patients with: A. hereditary spherocytosis B. disseminated intrvascular coagulation (DIC) C. acquired automimmune hemolytic anemia D. extensive burns
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D. extensive burns
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Which of the following is most closely associated with erythroleukemia? A. ringed sideroblasts, nuclear budding, and Howell-Jolly bodies B. disseminated intravascular coagulation C. micromegakaryocytes D. lysozymuria
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A. ringed siderblasts, nulcear budding, and Howell-Jolly bodies
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The most characteristic peripheral blood smear finding in multiple myeloma is: A. plasmacytic satelitosis in the bone marrow B. many plasma cells in the peripheral blood C. many Mott cells in the peripheral blood D. rouleax formation of the red cells
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D. rouleax formation of the red cells
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A common source of interference in the cyanmethehemoglobin method is: A. hemolysis B. very high WBC count C. cold agglutinins D. clumped platelets
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B. very high WBC count
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The most appropriate screening test for detecting hemoglobin F is: A. osmotic fragility B. dithionite solubility C. Kleihauer-Betke D. heat instability test
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C. Kleihauer-Betke
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The most approprite screening test for hemoglobin S is: A. Kleihauer-Betke B. dithionite solubility C. osmotic fragility D. sucrose hemolysis
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B. dithionite solubility
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Hematology standards include: A. stabilized red blood cell suspension B. latex particles C. stabilized avian red blood cells D. certified cyanmethemoglobin solution
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D. certified cyanmethemoglobin solution
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When using the turbidity (solubility) method for detecting the presence of hemoglobin 2, an incorrect interpretation may be made when there is a(n): A. concentration of less than 7g/dL ( 70 g/L) hemoglobin B. glucose concentration greater than 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L) C. blood specimen greater than 2 hours old D. increased hemoglobin
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D. increased emoglobin
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The laboratory findings on a patient are as follows: MCV: 55 um^3 (55 fL) MCHC: 25% MCH: 17 pg A stained blood film of this patient would most likely reveal a red cell picture that is: A. microcytic, hypochromic B. macrocytic, hypochromic C. normocytic, normochromic D. microcytic, normochromic
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A. microcytic, hypochromic
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A patient has the following laboratory results: RBC: 2.00 x 10^6/uL (2.00 x 10^12/L) Hct: 24% Hgb: 6.8 g/dL (68 g/L) Reticulocytes: 0.8% The mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of the patient is: A. 35 um^3 (35 fL) B. 83 um^3 (83 fL) C. 120 um^3 (120 fL) D. 150 um^3 (150 fL)
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C. 120 um^3 (120 fL)
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A patient has a high cold agglutinin titer. Automated cell counter results reveal an elevated MCV, MCH, MCHC. Individual erythrocytes appear normal on a stained smear, but agglutinates are noted. The appropriate course of action would be to: A. perform the RBC, Hgb, Hct determinations using manual methods B. perform the RBC determination by a manual method; use the automated results for the Hgb and Hct C. repeat the determinations using a microsample of diluted blood D. repeat the determinations using a prewarmed microsample of diluted blood
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D. repeat the determinations using a prewarmed microsample of diluted blood
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A blood sample from a patient with a high titer cold agglutinin, which of the following results can occur in the presence of a cold agglutinin? A. increased MCV and decreased RBC B. increased MCV and normal RBC C. decreased MCV and increased MCHC D. decreased MCV and RBC
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D. MCV and RBC
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In polycythemia vera, leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is: A. elevated B. normal C. decreased
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A. elevated
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Which of the following is the formula for mean corpuscle hemoglobin (MCH)? A. Hct/(RBC x 1000) B. Hgb/Hct C. RBC/Hct D. (Hgb x 10)/RBC
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D. (Hgb x 10)/RBC
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What is the MCH if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 10^6/uL (2.4 x 10^12/L) and the Hgb is 5g/dL (50 g/L)? A. 21 um^3 (21 fL) B. 23 um^3 (23 fL) C. 25 um^3 (25 fL) D. 84 um^3 (83 fL)
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A. 21 um^3 (21 fL)
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What is the MCH if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 1.5 x 10^6/uL (1.5 x 10^12/L), and the Hgb is 6 g/dL (60 g/L)? A. 28 um^3 (28 fL) B. 30 um^3 (30 fL) C. 40 um^3 (40 fL) D. 75 um^3 (75 fL)
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C. 40 um^3 (40 fL)
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Which of the following is the correct formula for MCHC? A. (Hgb x 100)/Hct B. Hgb/RBC C. RBC/Hct D. (Hct x 1000)/RBC
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A. (Hgb x 100)/Hct
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What is the MCHC if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 10^6/uL (2.4 x 10^12/L) and the Hgb is 5 g/dL (50 g/L)? A. 21% B. 25% C. 30% D. 34%
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B. 25%
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What is the MCHC if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 1.5 x 10^6/uL (1.5 x 10^12/L) and the Hgb is 6 g/dL (60 g/L)? A. 28% B. 30% C. 40% D. 75%
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B. 30%
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Which of the following is the correct formula for mean corpuscular volume (MCV)? A. (Hgb x 10)/RBC B. Hgb/Hct C. (Hct x 10)/RBC D. RBC/Hct
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C. (Hct x 10)/RBC
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Given the following data: Hgb: 8g/dL (80 g/L) Hct: 28% RBC: 3.6 x 10^6/uL (3.6 x 10^12/L) The MCV is: A. 28 um^3 (28 fL) B. 35 um^3 (35 fL) C. 40 um^3 (40 fL) D. 77 um^3 (77 fL)
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D. 77 um^3 (77fL)
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What is the MCV if the hematocrit is 20%, RBC is 2.4 x 10^6/uL and the hemoglobin is 5 g/dL? A. 68 pg B. 83 pg C. 100 pg D. 120 pg
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B. 83 pg
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What is the MCV if the hematocrit is 20%, RBC is 1.5 x 10^6/uL and the hemoglobin is 6 g/dL? A. 68 pg B. 75 pg C. 115 pg D. 133 pg
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D. 133 pg
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The principle confirmatory test for hereditary spherocytosis is: A. osmotic fragility B. sucrose hemolysis C. heat stability test D. Kleihauer-Betke
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A. osmotic fragility
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A screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is: A. heat instability test B. sucrose hemolysis C. osmotic fragility D. dithionite solubility
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B. sucrose hemolysis
