AP. American Government (institutions and policies) Ch.1 -Ch.4 – Flashcards
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Which statement best describes the performance of the government in the aftermath of the 9/11 terrorist attacks on the United States? a. Bipartisan homeland security policies and programs were adopted immediately. b. A fraction of the bipartisan homeland security policies and programs were implemented after many years of debate. c. Recommendations with respect to homeland security were summarily rejected. d. Almost all of the bipartisan homeland security policies and programs were implemented within a year. e. Homeland security programs and policies were considered too controversial for congressional action.
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b.
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Today, on average, Americans pay _____ percent of their income to federal payroll taxes. a. 1 b. 4 c. 21 d. 75 e. 83
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c.
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Most national political officeholders are middle-class, middle-aged, white Protestant males. Knowing this, we a. still cannot explain many important policies. b. have identified the power elite. c. can answer the question, "To what ends?" d. can predict little of importance to politics. e. can predict most of the policies that come out of Washington.
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a.
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What do the authors define as "the ability of one person to get another person to act in accordance with the first person's intentions"? a. authority b. power c. influence d. legitimacy e. legislation
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b.
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Which of the following statements concerning power is correct? a. Its exercise can sometimes be obvious. b. It can be exercised in subtle ways. c. It involves a person getting another person to act in accordance with the first person's wishes. d. It is found in all human relationships. e. All of the above.
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e.
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Which of the following statements about authority is correct? a. It is defined as the right to use power. b. It resides in government, not in the private sector. c. It typically results from the naked use of force. d. It is the opposite of legitimacy. e. All of the above.
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a.
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A survey of 450 history and political science professors resulted in ___________ being listed as the most significant achievement of government since 1950. a. devolution b. female suffrage c. social security d. the reduction of the federal deficit e. the rebuilding of Europe
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e.
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Americans seem to agree that the exercise of political power at any level is legitimate only if, in some sense, it is a. systematic. b. democratic. c. bipartisan. d. partisan. e. traditional.
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b.
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In Aristotle's view, democracy would consist of a. the effective representation of the interests of the whole population. b. political representation by all individuals in a society, regardless of race, age, or gender. c. participation by all or most citizens in either holding office or making policy. d. an elite group of policy makers elected by the will of the people. e. a nocturnal council that made decisions without regard to public opinion.
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c.
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Aristotle's notion of democracy is also referred to as a. New York Democracy. b. direct democracy. c. commoner democracy. d. participatory democracy. e. b and d.
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e.
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In the ancient Greek city-state, the right to vote was not extended to a. those who did not own property. b. women. c. minors. d. slaves. e. All of the above.
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e.
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Which of the following is a basic tenet of representative democracy? a. Individuals should acquire power through competition for the people's vote. b. It is unreasonable to expect people to choose among competing leadership groups. c. Government officials should represent the true interests of their clients. d. The middle class gains representation at the expense of the poor and minorities. e. Public elections should be held on every issue directly affecting the lives of voters.
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a.
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Sometimes, representative democracy is disapprovingly referred to as the ________ theory of Democracy. a. institutional b. elitist c. popular d. Aristotelian e. Jeffersonian
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b.
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If you fear that people often decide big issues on the basis of fleeting passions and in response to demagogues, you are likely to agree with a. recall elections. b. the New England town meeting. c. the referendum. d. participatory democracy. e. many of the Framers of the Constitution.
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e.
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The text suggests representative democracy is justified by all of the following concerns except that a. the people have limited information and expertise. b. direct democracy is impractical. c. the people may decide large issues on the basis of fleeting passions. d. the people cannot choose among competing leadership groups. e. the people may respond to popular demagogues.
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d.
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In sharp contrast to the United States, very few offices in some European democracies are a. elective. b. appointive. c. full-time. d. constitutional. e. structured.
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a.
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The text suggests the Founders thought the government should ____ popular views. a. reflect b. enlarge c. minimize d. mediate e. be guided by
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d.
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The Founders granted that representative democracy would a. prevent factions from having any influence on government. b. prevent sweeping changes in policy. c. result in highly controversial elections. d. often proceed slowly. e. B and D.
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e.
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The Founders might agree that ______ ought to hinge on popular vote. a. the right to a fair trial b. freedom of speech c. freedom of press d. freedom of religion e. none of the above
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e.
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Issues can be handled in a majoritarian fashion if a. they are important enough to command the attention of most citizens. b. they are sufficiently clear to elicit an informed opinion from citizens. c. they are sufficiently feasible to address so that what citizens want can in fact be done. d. all of the above. e. none of the above.
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d.
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In the Marxist view government is a reflection of underlying ________ forces. a. economic b. political c. ideological d. social e. teleological
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a.
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Marx concluded "modern" societies generally feature a clash of power between a. farmers and industrialists. b. capitalists and workers. c. slaveowners and the landed aristocracy. d. monarchists and anarchists. e. intellectuals and spiritualists.
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b.
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C. Wright Mills, an American sociologist, suggests politics and government are dominated by a. the tyranny of the majority. b. pork-barrel legislation. c. a nocturnal council. d. neo-Marxist policy. e. the power elite.
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e.
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Which of the following statements is not consistent with Mills' position? a. Corporate leaders are the primary, dominant nongovernmental influence in policy making. b. Top military officials play an important role in the formulation of governmental policy. c. The most important policies are made by a loose coalition of three groups. d. A handful of key political leaders play an important role in the formulation of governmental policy. e. Nongovernmental elites play an important role in the formulation of governmental policy.
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a.
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Max Weber felt that the dominant social and political reality of modern times was that a. "the Establishment" was dominated by Wall Street lawyers. b. all institutions have fallen under the control of large bureaucracies. c. capitalism is essential to modern-day forms of government. d. conflict increased between the government and the press. e. a dialectical process made communism inevitable.
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b.
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Weber's theory suggests it would be wise for scholars who want to study power to focus on a. the President. b. mid-term elections. c. appointed officials and career government workers. d. members of Congress. e. critical national elections.
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c.
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The view that money, expertise, prestige, and so forth are widely scattered throughout our society in the hands of a variety of groups is known as the a. pluralist view of American society. b. economic theory of democracy. c. elitist view of American society. d. dispersed power theory of American politics. e. monetary displacement theory of American politics.
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a.
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A pluralist might agree with all of the following statements except a. political resources are not equally divided. b. mass opinion and the interests of citizens are irrelevant to policymaking. c. political resources are divided among different kinds of elites. d. elites are not a united front. e. policies are the outcome of complex patterns of haggling, compromises and shifting alliances.
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b.
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The text suggests _________ theory "does the most to reassure one that America has been, and continues to be, a democracy in more than name." a. Marxist b. bureaucratic c. pluralist d. power elite e. Weberian
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c.
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Ronald Reagan's policy initiatives on social and economic problems sought to a. return citizens' assumptions to what they had been during World War II. b. make the government more efficient and capable of addressing social problems. c. broaden government's social net for the truly needy. d. move the United States into the front rank of nations involved in forward social planning. e. return citizens' assumptions to what they had been before the 1930s.
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e.
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American foreign policy, according to the text, tends to alternate between a. cold wars and hot wars. b. idealism and realism. c. bipolarism and multilateralism. d. interventions and isolationism. e. realism and existentialism
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d.
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The fact that people have been willing to die over competing views of the public interest suggests that a. such views are more than mere window dressing. b. politics concerns who gets what, when, where, and how. c. delusions are central to the political process. d. human nature is fundamentally inconsistent. e. political issues are rarely understood.
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a.
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The kinds of answers that political scientists usually give to the fundamental political questions tend to be a. highly abstract and speculative. b. clear, concrete, and consistent. c. partial, contingent, and controversial. d. qualified to the point of unintelligibility. e. empirical and void of theory.
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c.
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According to the text, before making judgments about institutions and interests, we must first observe them a. from a disinterested vantage point. b. as manifestations of underlying economic relationships. c. firsthand. d. on a variety of different issues. e. through the lenses of bureaucrats.
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d.
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The logical place to begin the study of how power is distributed in U.S. politics is a. the Constitutional Convention and events leading up to it. b. your local town hall or courthouse. c. the day-to-day lives of Americans. d. the pages of this morning's newspaper. e. the Civil War.
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a.
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1. The goal of the American Revolution was a. equality. b. stability. c. fairness. d. liberty. e. fraternity.
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d.
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The colonists believed that most politicians tended to be a. aristocratic. b. idealistic. c. benevolent. d. corrupt. e. incompetent.
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d.
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The colonists fought to protect liberties that they believed were a. discoverable in nature and history. b. based on a "higher law." c. essential to human progress. d. ordained by God. e. all of the above.
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e.
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When he wrote the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson replaced _______ with "the pursuit of happiness." a. life b. property c. justice d. liberty e. equality
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b.
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At the time of the American Revolution, most citizens were a. self-employed. b. indentured servants. c. highly literate. d. propertyless. e. concerned with economic rather than political issues.
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a.
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The essential complaints itemized in the Declaration of Independence are remarkable because a. each had been primary features in other revolutions. b. they were never actually mentioned to the King. c. most of the colonists were unable to understand them. d. none spoke of social or economic conditions in the colonies. e. Jefferson got most of the material from Washington and Adams.
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d.
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An "unalienable" right is a. supported by a majority of any society. b. created by legislators. c. based in a written constitution. d. without restriction. e. based on nature and Providence.
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e.
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The colonists new vision of government insisted that a. the executive branch be superior to the legislative branch. b. the judicial branch be superior to the legislative branch. c. the branches of government be unified. d. each branch of government be equal. e. the legislative branch be superior to the executive branch.
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e.
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One notable feature of colonial governments by 1776 was the presence of a. weak governors. b. authority in community groups and local organizations. c. bicameral legislatures. d. elected judges who could be removed from office by people. e. written constitutions with detailed bills of rights.
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e.
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The Articles of Confederation attempted to create a. a league of friendship among the states. b. a centralized government. c. a strong state commitment to the national government. d. weak state governments. e. none of the above.
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a.
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Under the Articles, Congress had the power to a. make peace. b. coin money. c. appoint key army officers. d. run the post office. e. all of the above.
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e.
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All of the following were true of the government under the Articles except a. each state had one vote in Congress. b. the national government could not regulate commerce. c. the national government could not levy taxes. d. there was no national judicial branch. e. amendments required the support of nine of thirteen states.
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e.
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The critical meeting that was scheduled by those who met at George Washington's house and later held at Annapolis, Maryland, focused on the topic of a. the quartering of soldiers. b. naval defense. c. trade regulation. d. qualifications for citizenship. e. the official recognition of several new colonies.
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c.
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The original purpose of the Constitutional Convention was to a. draw up a bill of rights. b. discuss regulations on intrastate commerce. c. levy taxes. d. build an army. e. revise the Articles of Confederation.
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e.
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What influential Founder concluded history — to that point in time — provided no truly desirable model of government? a. John Adams b. Alexander Hamilton c. George Washington d. James Madison e. Patrick Henry
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d.
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French political pundits and Thomas Paine praised the state constitution of Pennsylvania because it was radically a. centralized. b. democratic. c. legalistic. d. monarchical. e. elitist.
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b.
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Shays's Rebellion stirred the fears of some that state governments were a. becoming too powerful. b. about to collapse. c. controlled by British interests. d. opposed to liberty. e. seeking independence.
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b.
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Thomas Jefferson responded to the news of the Rebellion by noting a. it was the logical result of the American Revolution. b. no such problems were likely to occur again. c. a little rebellion now and then is a good thing. d. confederations are always plagued by such disturbances. e. dissenters should be arrested and jailed as soon as possible.
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c.
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The Philadelphia Convention attracted about ____ delegates from the states. a. 12 b. 30 c. 39 d. 55 e. 74
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d.
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About ___ of the delegates at the Convention participated regularly. a. 12 b. 30 c. 39 d. 55 e. 74
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b.
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The majority of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention were a. veterans of the Continental Army. b. lawyers. c. governors. d. doctors. e. intellectuals.
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b.
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The text suggests some names made famous by the Revolution were conspicuously absent from the Convention, including a. Thomas Jefferson. b. John Adams. c. Patrick Henry. d. Samuel Adams. e. all of the above.
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e.
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The various speeches given by the delegates at the Convention are known to us from a. an official report provided to Congress. b. newspaper reports and a series of leaks throughout the summer. c. detailed notes kept by Madison. d. a variety of speeches made by Alexander Hamilton. e. the personal diaries of Benjamin Franklin.
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c.
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The delegates to the Constitutional Convention shared a commitment to a. democracy. b. equality. c. fraternity. d. liberty. e. competition.
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d.
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When John Locke theorized about the "state of nature," he was speculating about a period of time when a. there was no private ownership of property. b. governments had legislative powers, but no executive. c. power was equally divided and there was no "instinct" for self-preservation. d. the people freely consented to detailed restrictions of their natural rights. e. there were societies, but no governments.
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e.
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The philosophy of John Locke strongly supported the idea that a. government ought to be limited. b. property rights should be subordinated to human rights. c. the state of nature was without flaw. d. reason is an inadequate guide in establishing a political order. e. equality of goods and income is necessary to political order.
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a.
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The Pennsylvania experience led the Framers to be concerned about the tyranny of a. lawyers. b. the executive. c. the judiciary. d. the legislature. e. the majority.
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e.
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To many conservatives in the late eighteenth century, democracy meant a. political equality. b. mob rule. c. stability. d. liberty and justice. e. quality representation through competitive elections.
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b.
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In the Federalist papers, Madison quipped that government would not be "necessary" if a. men were angels. b. laws were memorized. c. aristocrats labored in the field with commoners. d. Americans were not so stubborn. e. the King had no army.
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a.
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The presiding officer at the Constitutional Convention was a. James Madison. b. Benjamin Franklin. c. Patrick Henry. d. George Washington. e. Thomas Jefferson.
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d.
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31. Supporters of a strong national government favored the a. Virginia Plan. b. New Jersey Plan. c. Georgia Plan. d. Rhode Island Plan. e. Pennsylvania Plan.
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a.
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All of the following were features of the Virginia Plan except a. the government was divided into three major branches. b. the national legislature was divided into two houses. c. each state had one vote in the national legislature. d. the executive was chosen by the national legislature. e. one house of the legislature was elected directly by the people.
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c.
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The high degree of contentiousness at the Convention was evident in the fact that Benjamin Franklin suggested beginning each meeting with a. prayer. b. hand shaking. c. the sharing of positive experiences. d. informal chat. e. a formal pledge to be civil.
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a.
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The Great Compromise a. required Supreme Court justices to be confirmed by the Senate. b. based House representation on population and Senate population on equality. c. solved the conflict between those who wanted a powerful House and those who did not. d. provided that the president be selected by the electoral college. e. dealt with, without mentioning by name, "slavery."
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b.
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The Constitution called for Senators to be a. elected by the people. b. selected by members of the House. c. selected by the previous administration. d. chosen by the electoral college. e. selected by the state legislatures.
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e.
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The Great Compromise was supported by the votes of delegates from ______ states. a. 13 b. 12 c. 10 d. 5 e. 2
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d.
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Before a committee created the electoral college, convention delegates suggested the president be a. chosen by Congress. b. chosen by the state legislatures. c. selected by members of the Supreme Court. d. elected directly by the people. e. A and D.
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e.
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With regard to the power of judicial review, the text suggests a. few scholars have ever doubted the widespread support for this power at the Convention. b. it is not clear whether the Framers intended the Supreme Court to have such a power. c. only state courts can exercise the power in relation to federal laws. d. the Constitution explicitly grants this power to the federal courts alone. e. the Constitution explicitly granted this power to local courts alone.
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b.
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All of the following statements regarding the amendment process are correct except a. amendments can only be proposed by the Senate. b. Congress can call a National Convention at the request of two-thirds of the states. c. amendments must be ratified by three-fourths of the states. d. states may ratify amendments through their legislatures or special ratifying conventions. e. almost all amendments to date have been proposed by Congress and ratified by state legislatures.
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a.
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The American version of representative democracy was based on two major principles: a. self-interest and institutionalism. b. separation of powers and federalism. c. commerce and competition. d. liberty and equality. e. unification and centralism.
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b.
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The power to print money would be an example of a(n) "_______ power." a. enumerated b. reserved c. concurrent d. dispositive e. partitioned
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a.
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Powers that are exclusively given the states are referred to as "_______ powers." a. enumerated b. reserved c. concurrent d. dispositive e. partitioned
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b.
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The power to collect taxes would be an example of a(n) "________ power." a. enumerated b. reserved c. concurrent d. dispositive e. partitioned
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c.
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The Antifederalists are best described as a. nationalists. b. radicals. c. neo-institutionalists. d. Framers. e. states' righters.
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e.
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The Federalist papers were written a. at the suggestion of Benjamin Franklin. b. to explain democracy to European governments. c. to help win ratification of the Constitution in New York. d. principally by Madison and Jefferson. e. principally by John Jay.
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c.
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Which of the following liberties was included in the Constitution before the Bill of Rights was added? a. Habeas corpus. b. Freedom of speech. c. Right to petition the government for redress of grievances. d. Right to bear arms. e. Protection from double jeopardy.
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a.
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In the Constitution, slavery was a. not specifically mentioned. b. recognized as a necessary institution. c. outlawed after twenty years. d. denounced as inhuman. e. expressly permitted in the South.
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a.
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Sophisticated statistical analysis of the voting behavior of the Framers of the Constitution suggests a. they generally pursued the interests of wealthy land owners and businessmen. b. they generally acted in a manner to protect the interests of the poor. c. they consciously ignored the interests of the commercial classes. d. they generally represented the interests of their respective states. e. they consciously ignored the interests of the slaveowners.
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d.
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Those who favor reforming the Constitution by lessening the separation of powers between the branches often draw their inspiration from the model of a. Germany. b. the Articles of Confederation. c. Great Britain. d. France. e. the United Nations.
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c.
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Women are specifically mentioned in the original Constitution a. in the "privileges and immunities" clause [Art. IV]. b. under qualifications for office [Art. I]. c. in language regarding treason [Art. III]. d. in Article I, Section 8, Clause 3. e. nowhere.
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e.
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No women voted in state elections in the United States until a. 1838, in Kentucky school board elections. b. 1869, in territorial elections in Wyoming. c. the ratification of the Fifteenth Amendment in 1875. d. The Great Panic of 1872. e. the ratification of the Twentieth Amendment in 1920.
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b.
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The Supreme Court's controversial 2005 decision Kelo v. City of New London involved a. government seizure of private property. b. taxation without representation. c. judicial oversight of private daycare facilities. d. protests outside of abortion clinics and adult bookstores. e. private use of drugs for medicinal purposes.
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a.
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The response of many state legislatures to the Court's decision in the Kelo case was to a. legalize some drugs for medicinal purposes. b. remove judges who had violated state codes of ethics. c. expand its scope by amendments to state constitutions. d. restrict its scope by passage of new laws. e. restrict freedom of speech near certain public buildings and private businesses.
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d.
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Today's effort to scale back the size and activities of the national government and shift responsibilities back to the states has become known as a. devolution. b. anti-federalism. c. reverse-federalism. d. statism. e. repatriation.
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a.
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A system is not federal unless local units of government a. are the official distributors of the national government's resources. b. exist independently and can make decisions independent of the national government. c. answer solely to the national government. d. make decisions in conjunction with national goals and needs. e. are mere administrative subunits of the national government.
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b.
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The text identifies all of the following has having federal systems except a. Canada. b. Australia. c. India. d. Germany. e. Great Britain.
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e.
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William H. Riker, an American political scientist argued that the "main effect" of federalism since the Civil War has been to a. increase ideological conflicts. b. increase the tax burden. c. fuel economic recessions. d. frustrate the efforts of law enforcement. e. perpetuate racism.
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e.
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According to the text, the most "obvious" effect of federalism has been to a. modify ideological conflicts. b. protect the interests of the upper classes. c. facilitate the mobilization of political activity. d. reverse the democratic tendency in the states. e. increase the scope of the president's power.
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c.
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All of the following statements are correct except a. the Constitution does not spell out the powers that the states are to have. b. the delegates at Philadelphia used "federalism" as a synonym for "unitary." c. the Tenth Amendment was added at the insistence of the states. d. the Founders assumed the federal government would have only those powers given to it by the Constitution. e. the Tenth Amendment has rarely had much practical significance.
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b.
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Alexander Hamilton's view of federalism held that a. the federal government and the state governments are equals. b. state governments were superior to the federal government. c. the federal government was superior to the state governments. d. the principle threat to the rights of the people would be the federal government. e. the government was the product of an agreement among the states.
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c.
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The national supremacy view of the newly formed federal government was powerfully defended by Chief Justice a. John Marshall. b. James McCulloch. c. Roger Taney. d. John C. Calhoun. e. James Madison.
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a.
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The landmark case McCulloch v. Maryland determined that a. a state had the power to tax the federal government. b. the federal government had the power to tax a state. c. Congress did not have the power to set up a national bank. d. the "necessary and proper clause" allowed for the creation of a bank. e. the Constitution was established by the states.
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d.
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Although the doctrine of nullification is commonly associated with John C. Calhoun, the notion is plainly evident in a. the Declaration of Independence. b. the Articles of Confederation. c. Madison's notes at the Constitutional Convention. d. the Bill of Rights. e. the Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions.
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e.
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After the Civil War the debate about the meaning of federalism focused on the ________ clause of the Constitution. a. defense b. tax c. currency d. full faith and credit e. commerce
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e.
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The text suggests that, by the 1940s, Supreme Court rulings concerning the commerce clause a. centered on a rigorous definition of interstate commerce. b. centered on a rigorous definition of intrastate commerce. c. almost always distinguished between interstate and intrastate commerce. d. abandoned hard distinctions between interstate and intrastate commerce. e. consistently struck down federal attempts to regulate commerce.
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d.
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According to the text, federal anti-trust laws do not affect a. artists. b. morticians. c. professional baseball players. d. lawyers. e. window washers.
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c.
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In the 2000 case United States v. Morrison, the Supreme Court refused to connect or extend the scope of the commerce clause to a. school restrictions on guns. b. background checks for gun owners. c. copyright law suits. d. abortion laws. e. violence against women.
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e.
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Which of the following statements regarding state constitutions is incorrect? a. They tend to be far more detailed than the federal Constitution. b. They tend to embody a more expansive view of government responsibilities. c. They tend to embody a more expansive view of individual rights. d. None of the above. e. All of the above.
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d.
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Which procedure allows voters to reject a measure adopted by the legislature? a. Referendum b. Initiative c. Recall d. Roll back e. Addendum
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a.
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Which procedure allows voters to remove an elected official from office? a. Referendum b. Initiative c. Recall d. Roll back e. Addendum
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c.
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The Constitution guarantees the existence of a. cities. b. counties. c. municipal governments. d. townships. e. the states.
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e.
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At first, federal money seemed attractive to state officials because a. there were budget surpluses. b. the federal income tax was a flexible tool of public finance. c. the production and distribution of currency was managed by the federal government. d. it seemed to be "free." e. All of the above.
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e.
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One odd effect of the fair-share formulas used to determine grants for Homeland Security is a. lack of support for major metropolitan areas. b. lack of support for activities and materials related to public safety. c. a skew in funding toward states and cities with low populations. d. confusion of material for personal and public safety. e. a reduction in the number of public safety workers.
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c.
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During the 1960s, federal grant programs were increasingly devised on the basis of _________ needs. a. local b. state c. national d. regional e. A and B
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c.
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In 1960, over 40 percent of all federal grants to state and local government went to a. Education. b. Medicaid. c. Income Security. d. transportation and highways. e. community and regional development.
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d.
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As of 2006, the largest percentage of federal grant money goes toward a. Education. b. Medicaid. c. Income Security. d. transportation and highways. e. community and regional development.
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b.
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The requirement that a state or locality match federal money is most common with a. categorical grants. b. land grants. c. share-pay loans. d. block grants. e. revenue sharing.
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a.
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The Law Enforcement Assistance Act is an example of a a. categorical grant. b. share-pay loan. c. land grant. d. nullification. e. block grant.
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a.
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Block grants and revenue sharing were efforts to a. ensure that state spending was sensitive to federal policies and goals. b. reverse trends by allowing states and localities freedom to spend money as they wished. c. increase the dependency of state governments on federal money. d. accelerate states spending in areas long ignored by Congress. e. increase "strings" on money given to state and local officials.
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b.
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Which of the following has (have) grown fastest in recent years? a. Categorical grants b. Block grants c. Revenue sharing d. All have grown at about the same rates e. None have actually grown
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a.
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30. Which of the following is (are) not among the coalition that prefers categorical grants to block grants and revenue sharing? a. Congress b. The federal bureaucracy c. Organized labor d. Liberal interest groups e. State and local officials
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e.
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The intense debate over the manner in which the federal government distributes funds and awards contracts has been precipitated by a. the reemergence of the Tenth Amendment in Supreme Court jurisprudence. b. the lack of two party competition in a handful of states. c. reductions in discretionary spending. d. a shift in population to the South, Southwest and Far West. e. popular demand for a balanced federal budget.
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d.
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With the advent of grants based on distributional formulas, the ________ has taken on monumental importance. a. balance of trade b. electoral college c. gross national product d. crime rate e. census
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e.
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Most federal mandates concern a. sexual harassment. b. civil liberties and civil rights. c. civil rights and environmental protection. d. waste management. e. law enforcement.
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c.
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A 2006 study found that the highest number of unfunded mandates could be found in the area of ________ policy. a. environmental b. education c. health d. transportation e. law enforcement
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a.
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Which of the following statements is correct? a. It is difficult to obtain a waiver from an administrative agency with regard to education. b. There are a high number of unfunded mandates in education policy. c. The government tends to use more mandates in areas where it spends a great deal of money. d. The government tends to use more mandates in areas where it spends less money. e. Environmental protection waivers are fairly easy to obtain.
answer
d.
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The text suggests the growth of mandates has been fueled by the fact that a. local citizens can use a federal court to change local practices. b. Congress has taken a greater interest in busing, state prisons, and police brutality. c. few courts have an interest in hearing cases related to mandates. d. the Reagan and Bush administrations supported them so enthusiastically. e. none of the above.
answer
a.
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The conditions attached to grants are by far the most important federal restriction on state action because a. the Tenth Amendment amplifies their effect. b. they can change, depending upon the size of the state. c. they are not subject to review in the courts. d. state officials play a major role in their interpretation. e. the typical state depends for a quarter or more of its budget on federal grants.
answer
e.
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When the election of 1994 brought Republican majorities in the House and the Senate, the first key issue in the drive to shift important functions back to the states was a. the war on drugs. b. welfare. c. Social Security. d. law enforcement. e. gender discrimination.
answer
b.
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The text suggests devolution was actually an "old idea" that acquired "new vitality" because a. courts no longer stood in the way of state policies. b. state constitutions were modified in accordance with federal policies. c. governors and mayors supported the effort. d. Congress, rather than the president, was leading the effort. e. Democratic leaders spearheaded the effort.
answer
d.
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Compared with people in other democracies, Americans are particularly preoccupied with a. elections. b. the assertion of rights. c. social harmony. d. institutions. e. equality.
answer
b.
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Which of the following is not among the important elements in the American view of the political system? a. Civic duty. b. Individualism. c. Equality of opportunity. d. Democracy. e. Equality of condition.
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e.
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Scholars infer the existence of political culture by observing a. the kinds of books Americans read. b. the political choices Americans make. c. the slogans Americans respond to. d. the speeches Americans hear. e. all of the above.
answer
e.
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The Civil War provides an illustration of a. political behavior inconsistent with personal values. b. a radical rejection by the Confederacy of the constitutional order. c. how governments cannot last long without internal conflict. d. the conflict between existing constitutional values and institutional values. e. the persistence of shared beliefs about how a democratic regime ought to be organized.
answer
d.
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One important piece of evidence that Americans have believed themselves bound by common values and common hopes has been a. that free elections could indeed be conducted. b. their hostile attitudes toward free speech. c. their use of the word Americanism. d. the importance of the frontier in American history. e. their tendency toward idealism.
answer
c.
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Scholars such as Kinder and Sears worry that the widely shared commitment to economic individualism and personal responsibility might be a kind of camouflage for a. symbolic racism. b. class centered biases. c. anti-Americanism. d. ethnic socialization. e. partisan groupthink.
answer
a.
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When a 1924 study in Muncie, Indiana, was repeated in 1977, it found that 1977 respondents a. judged those who failed more harshly. b. were more sympathetic with failure. c. had about the same attitudes as 1924 respondents. d. were more critical of those who had great wealth. e. were much more desirous of material success.
answer
c.
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8. Which of the following statements regarding Swedish political culture is incorrect? a. It is more deferential than participatory. b. Voter turnout is low. c. Swedes rarely challenge governmental decisions in court. d. Swedes value harmony. e. Swedes value equality as much as (or more than) liberty.
answer
b.
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Compared with Americans, the Japanese are more likely to a. emphasize the virtues of individualism and competition in social relations. b. reach decisions through discussion rather than the application of rules. c. emphasize the virtue of treating others fairly but impersonally, with due regard for their rights. d. see conflict as a means of getting to know and understand the psyche of other people. e. rely on individual decision-making rather than decisions made by groups.
answer
b.
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A classic study of political culture in five nations concluded Americans a. were generally much like the citizens in four other nations. b. exhibited little that could be described as "culture." c. had a stronger sense of civic duty than citizens in other nations. d. had a stronger sense of civic competence than citizens in other nations. e. had a stronger sense of civic duty and civic competence than citizens in other nations.
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e.
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A classic study of political culture in five nations found some degree of similarity between citizens of the United States and citizens of a. Germany. b. Great Britain. c. Italy. d. Mexico. e. Sweden.
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b.
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Polls suggest Americans have less trust in government than they once did, but it is important to keep in mind that a. trust tends to increase when the economy is struggling. b. we actually have very little data on the topic. c. polls can rarely accurately measure such attitudes and opinions. d. levels of trust were never very high to begin with. e. confidence in political institutions remains higher than in most places abroad.
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e.
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A 1985 study by Sidney Verba and Gary Orren compared the views of trade union and political party leaders in the United States and a. Germany. b. Great Britain. c. Italy. d. Mexico. e. Sweden.
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e.
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Which statement is incorrect? a. In the 1830s, de Tocqueville was amazed at how religious Americans were. b. The average American is more likely to believe in God than the average European. c. Religious revival movements of the 1700s transformed political life in the colonies. d. Today, America is less religious than most European countries. e. Candidates for national office in most contemporary democracies rarely mention religion.
answer
d.
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Research has found that religious persons are a. more likely to donate money to charity. b. more likely to volunteer time. c. more likely to donate their time to nonreligious organizations. d. more likely to give money to nonreligious organizations. e. all of the above.
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e.
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The unusual degree of concern about religion in the United States was apparent in 2002 when a federal appeals court issued a controversial ruling regarding a. the Pledge of Allegiance. b. the Salvation Army. c. religious paraphernalia in public schools. d. Christmas cards. e. prayer in legislative chambers.
answer
a
question
The American preoccupation with assertion and maintenance of rights has imbued the daily conduct of U.S. politics with a. irregular sensitivity. b. a willingness to compromise at great costs. c. a lack of concern about the larger issues of politics. d. a kind of adversarial spirit. e. confusion.
answer
d.
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The colonial distrust of British rule was the byproduct of both experience and a. dire predictions by sociologists. b. the public speeches of European leaders. c. folk music in the Southern colonies. d. writings of popular novelists. e. the religious beliefs of many.
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e.
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While there has been no established religion in the United States, there has certainly been a dominant religious tradition. That tradition can be best described as a. Catholicism. b. Protestantism. c. Protestantism, especially Lutheranism. d. Protestantism, especially Puritanism. e. none of the above.
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d.
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Max Weber explained the rise of _________ , in part, by what he called the "Protestant ethic." a. two-party competition b. elitism c. totalitarianism d. democracy e. capitalism
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e.
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Erik Erikson, the psychologist, found considerable difference between the ___________ of Americans and Europeans. a. marital relations b. social organizations c. religious beliefs d. family characteristics e. pop icons
answer
d.
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Which of the following statements about class-consciousness in America is accurate? a. It has been relatively unimportant. b. It has had a powerful effect upon attitudes. c. It is particularly salient among the unemployed. d. It implies an ideology of class struggle. e. It steers the campaigns of most presidential candidates.
answer
a.
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The terms "progressive" and "orthodox" were first used in the context of a "culture war" by James Davison, a(n) a. political scientist. b. historian c. anthropologist. d. economist. e. sociologist.
answer
e.
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According to Davison, a person of "orthodox" beliefs is not likely to believe a. morality is as important as self-expression. b. moral rules derive from the commands of God and the laws of nature. c. moral commands and laws are relatively clear. d. moral commands and laws are dependent upon individual preferences. e. moral commands and laws do not generally change.
answer
d.
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The culture war is basically a conflict over a. economic issues. b. foreign affairs. c. international norms. d. differing religious ideologies. e. private and public morality.
answer
e.
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Morris Fiorina explains the "culture war" as an artifact of a. deep divisions in American culture on most policy issues. b. the emergence of a politically active middle class. c. polarization of political leaders. d. media emphasis on so-called "red" and "blue" states. e. C and D.
answer
e.
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The increase in cynicism toward our government has been specifically directed at a. government officials. b. the system of government itself. c. the Constitution. d. the Declaration of Independence. e. capitalism in America.
answer
a.
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The authors suggest levels of confidence in government in the 1950s may have been a. abnormally high. b. abnormally low. c. inflated as a result of poor polling techniques. d. the byproduct of false responses. e. the result of economic stress and a lack of military power and might.
answer
a.
question
When people feel that they have a say in what the government does, that public officials pay attention to them, and they feel that they understand politics, then they are said to have a sense of political a. trust. b. tolerance. c. efficacy. d. legitimacy. e. reciprocity.
answer
c.
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Which is a correct description of trends in the political efficacy of Americans from the mid-1960s to today? a. Internal efficacy has dramatically increased. b. External efficacy has dramatically increased. c. Internal efficacy and external efficacy have dramatically increased. d. Internal efficacy appears to be in decline while external efficacy has remained the same. e. Internal efficacy appears to be the same while external efficacy appears to be in decline.
answer
e.
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The less voters trust political institutions and leaders, the more likely they are to support candidates a. who are incumbents. b. who are economically liberal. c. from the non-incumbent major party or a third party. d. who have the highest name recognition. e. with little or no experience in politics.
answer
c.
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Robert D. Putnam's "civic health index" includes measures for which of the following? a. Membership in civic groups. b. Online "chat." c. Trust in the government and other institutions. d. Trust in other people. e. All of the above.
answer
e.
question
Which of the following statements concerning recent trends in tolerance is most accurate? a. Female candidates are less tolerated than they once were. b. Americans are increasingly less tolerant than they were in the 1950s. c. The level of tolerance in America has not changed in the last twenty or thirty years. d. Americans appear to be more tolerant than they were twenty or thirty years ago. e. Americans are less tolerant of Communists than they once were.
answer
d.
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Judgments about political tolerance should be made with caution because a. Americans rarely have a clear idea of what is meant by the word "tolerance." b. there is actually very little reliable data on the topic. c. there is so very little intolerance in the world. d. no nation is completely tolerant of every kind of political activity. e. one person's intolerance is another person's civic "concern."
answer
e.