question

Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with chronic renal failure (CRF)? a. Milk b. Bananas c. Soy sauce d. All of the above

answer

D

question

"Chronic inflammatory condition of the bladder clinically characterized by irritable voiding symptoms or urgency and frequency, in the absence of objective evidence of another disease"

answer

Interstitial cystitis

question

A 30-year-old patient presents with pain on urination. The urine microscopy of unspun urine showed greater than 10 leukocytes/mL, and a dipstick was positive for nitrites. What is probable diagnosis? a. Lower urinary tract infection b. Chlamydia infection c. Candidiasis d. Pyelonephritis

answer

A

question

A 34-year-old patient was treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next? a. Send a urine specimen for microscopy looking for fungal colonies. b. Increase the dose of antibiotic. c. Order a cytoscopy. d. Order a different antibiotic.

answer

A

question

Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient with nephrolithiasis? a. Take ibuprofen 600 mg every 8 hours. b. Take Tums for stomach upset. c. Drink more black tea. d. Increase intake of vegetables like spinach.

answer

A

question

Which of the following patients is at risk for developing urinary tract cancer? a. The 45-year-old woman who is 100 lbs overweight b. The 78-year-old man who smokes three packs of cigarettes a day c. The 84-year-old man who worked in the asbestos mines d. All of the above

answer

D

question

The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF). Which of the following conditions is the most common cause? a. Renal calculi b. Acute tubular necrosis c. Cardiac failure d. Acute glomerulonephritis

answer

B

question

What are the most frequently reported symptoms of a UTI?

answer

Dysuria Urinary frequency or urgency Nocturia Hematuria Low back or suprapubic pain Urinary incontinence Cloudy, foul-smelling urine

question

In a UA how many organisms are necessary per ml would be indicative of an infection?

answer

Sample showing more than 100,000 organisms/mL is indicative of infection PLUS presence of characteristic clinical symptoms

question

What is the treatment for a Fungal UTI?

answer

Fluconazole 200 mg qd 7-14 days

question

A patient is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of hematuria. Which of the following shouquestions should be asked in order to make a differential diagnosis? a. "Do you have a history of liver disease?" b. "What medications are you currently taking?" c. "Have you noticed swelling in your ankles?" d. All of the above

answer

B

question

The result of the patient's 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions? a. Repeat the test. b. Refer to a nephrologist. c. Measure the serum protein. d. Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

answer

B

question

The patient is seen complaining of "leaking urine when I sneeze." Which of the following actions should the clinician take first? a. Order a cystometrogram b. Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan c. Instruct the patient on Kegel exercises d. Prescribe Imipramine

answer

C

question

A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria? a. NSAIDs b. Beets c. Vitamin A d. Red meat

answer

A

question

A 27-year-old female presents with a chief complaint of burning and pain on urination. She has no previous history of urinary tract infection (UTI). What are some additional symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of lower UTI? a. Back and abdominal pain b. Fever, chills, costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness c. Blood in urine and frequency d. Foul-smelling discharge, perineal itch

answer

C

question

The patient presents with costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness and a several day history of high fever and chills and dysuria. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely given the above information? a. Pyelonephritis b. Cystitis c. Renal calculi d. Bladder tumor

answer

A

question

Which of the following information is essential before prescribing Bactrim DS to a 24-year-old woman with a urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. Last menstrual period b. Method of birth control c. Last unprotected sexual contact d. All of the above

answer

D

question

The patient is diagnosed with urge incontinence. Before prescribing oxybutynin chloride (Detrol XL), the provider should question the patient about which of these contraindications to this medication? a. Diarrhea b. Parkinson's disease c. Closed-angle glaucoma d. Breast cancer

answer

C

question

The patient is diagnosed with overactive bladder (OAB). Which of the following instructions should be given to this woman? a. "Limit the amount of water that you drink." b. "Eliminate caffeine from your diet." c. "Wear panty liners." d. All of the above

answer

B

question

Which of the following are predisposing factors for pyelonephritis? a. Pregnancy b. Dehydration c. Smoking d. Alkaline urine

answer

A

question

A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with fever, chills, vomiting, and severe dysuria. She is diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. How should this patient be managed? a. 3-day course of oral antibiotics b. Hospitalization c. Encourage cranberry juice intake d. 6-week course of antibiotics

answer

B

question

A patient is seen in the clinic and diagnosed with Stage I renal cancer. The provider should refer to a nephrologist for which of these appropriate treatments? a. Chemotherapy b. Nephrectomy c. Palliative treatment d. Radiation

answer

B

question

A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses? a. Pancreatitis b. Peptic ulcer disease c. Diverticulitis d. All of the above

answer

D

question

Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer? a. KUB (kidneys, ureter, bladder) x-ray b. Cystoscopy with biopsy c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d. Urine tumor marker (NMP22)

answer

B

question

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with Stage D bladder cancer and asks the provider what that means. Which is the best response? a. "There is no such thing as Stage D cancer." b. "You have cancer that has spread to the surrounding tissue." c. "Your cancer has spread to other organs." d. "Your cancer can be cured by removing your bladder."

answer

C

question

The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF). Which of the following information obtained from the history should alert the provider that this is a case of prerenal azotemia? a. Recent heat stroke b. Nephrolithiasis c. Recent infection where gentamicin was used in treatment d. All of the above

answer

A

question

An 82-year-old woman with renal failure is seen in the clinic. The provider should question the patient about the intake of which of these substances that can cause renal toxicity? a. Ibuprofen b. Captopril c. Losartan d. All of the above

answer

D

question

Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in acute renal failure (ARF)? a. Pruritis b. Glycosuria c. Irritability d. Hypotension

answer

A

question

Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of chronic renal failure (CRF)? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine b. Electrolytes c. Creatinine clearance d. Urinalysis

answer

C

question

True or false: The urine osmolality is greater than 500 mOsm/L in patients with postrenal acute renal failure (ARF).

answer

False

question

True or false: Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for chronic renal failure (CRF)

answer

True

question

What defines an Acute UTI ?

answer

It is characterized by the onset of UTI in a previously symptom-free individual

question

What causes chronic UTI?

answer

Chronic UTI's may be caused by Obstruction Antibiotic resistant bacteria Multiple strains of bacteria

question

What defines a Complicated UTI ?

answer

A Complicated UTI is accompanied by factors that complicate the infection (diabetes, etc)

question

UTI's are most prevalent in which individuals?

answer

Sexually Active Adults Very young children Frail older adults

question

What are Predisposing factors to UTI's?

answer

Suppressed immune system Pregnancy Urinary obstruction Catheter dependency Neurogenic bladder Diabetes mellitus

question

A Clean-catch, midstream urine sample for urinalysis may exhibit what characteristics?

answer

Cloudy appearance Alkaline pH Hematuria Elevated levels of nitrites Leukocyte esterase Urine sediments of RBCs, WBCs, mucus, and bacterial overgrowth

question

What is the GOLD STANDARD for diagnosing UTI?

answer

Laboratory confirmation / UA with microscopy and Urine Culture and Sensitivity

question

Name some differential dx's for UTI:

answer

Tumors Upper UTI Vaginitis STDs

question

Lower UTI's do not exhibit signs of what?

answer

Sepsis - characterized by: Fever Chills WBC casts CVAT

question

What is the primary antimicrobial management for an UNCOMPLICATED UTI for non-pregnan women?

answer

Nitrofurantoin seems most effective on gram-negative and gram-positive cocci; 100 mg orally (modified-release) twice daily for 5 days OR trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole : 160/800 mg orally twice daily for 3 days OR The fluoroquinolones have widespread efficacy; not first line therapy for uncomplicated UTI

question

What is the primary antimicrobial management for a COMPLICATED UTI for a non-pregnant women?

answer

Primary Options ciprofloxacin : 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days OR levofloxacin : 750 mg orally once daily for 5 days OR trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole : 160/800 mg orally twice daily for 14 days

question

What is the treatment for chronic recurrent UTI's?

answer

Prophylactic treatment either on a daily basis or after sexual intercourse.

question

What are some important patient education items the clinician should instruct the patient on?

answer

Instruct patient to notify clinician if flank pain, hematuria, or lack of response to treatment occurs Advise patient to Complete full course of antibiotic therapy Increase fluid intake to eight 8-ounce glasses of H2O Take cranberry supplement and drink cranberry juice Wear cotton underclothes Avoid harsh soaps or feminine hygiene products Empty bladder frequently and completely Take showers instead of tub baths

question

What is Pyelonephritis ?

answer

An Upper UTI

question

Pyelonephritis is characterized by infecting what structures?

answer

Infects the renal pelvis Tubules or Interstitial tissue

question

Can Pyelonephritis be bilateral?

answer

Yes, it can be bilateral or unilateral.

question

What are predisposing factors to Pyelonephritis?

answer

Anatomical abnormalities such as ureterovesical reflux Urinary obstruction Stress incontinence Multiple or recurrent UTIs Renal disease Kidney trauma Pregnancy Metabolic disorders

question

What is the Clinical Presentation of Pyelonephritis?

answer

Sudden onset of: Fever Chills, Shaking, Nausea, Vomiting Unilateral or localized flank pain Fatigue Diarrhea In the ELDERLY the only presenting symptom may be mental status changes.

question

What may you find on the physical exam of a person with pyelonephritis?

answer

CVA Tenderness Marked tenderness on deep abdominal palpation

question

What is the management for patients with pyelonephritis?

answer

Oral antibiotics for mild cases Hospitalization for pregnant patients who are vomiting or dehydrated Treatment course should typically be 7-10 days for mild to moderate cases 14 days for severe 21 days for slow responders

question

After 48 hours of treatment of the patient for pyelonephritis, what steps should be considered?

answer

Reevaluate patient and cultures Renal US IVP DMSA Renal Scan IV antibiotics Increase fluid intake Avoid mechanical insertion of instruments for diagnostic studies

question

What is the follow up treatment for Recurrent Pyelonephritis?

answer

Reculture at 2, 6 and 12 weeks after ABX therapy

question

When do you refer the patient to a nephrologist?

answer

With Chronic pyelonephritis

question

What is the appropriate patient education to prevent pyleonephritis reoccurance

answer

Complete ABX therapy Prevent lower UTI's Increase fluid intake Report recurrence of symptoms immediately Take cranberry supplements and drink cranberry juice

question

When obtaining a Hx for possible UTI what are some Questions to ask?

answer

Fever, n/v Pain LMP, type of contraceptive use New sexual partner Vaginal discharge

question

What is the Oral Treatment for Acute Uncomplicated UTI?

answer

Bactrim or Septra 1 DS BID x 3 d Ciprofloxacin 250 mg BID x 3 d Amoxicillin 500 mg x 3 d Levofloxacin 250 mg qd x 3 d Nitrofurantoin 100 mg BID x 7 d Ofloxacin 200 mg BID x 3 d

question

Which patients should be considered for prophylactic coverage for recurrent UTI?

answer

2 or more symptomatic UTIs w/in 6 months 3 or > within 12 months

question

After diagnosing recurrent UTI what is the typical management?

answer

Prophylaxis should be initiated after previous UTI resolution is confirmed Daily dosing for 6 months Post-coital prophylaxis Self-medication (3-4 days of therapy when symptoms begin)

question

What is Patient Education for UTI?

answer

Complete the antibiotic regimen Proper hygiene Drink plenty of water (8 - 8oz glasses) Cotton undergarments Empty bladder after sexual intercourse Empty bladder frequently No tub baths or bubble baths.

question

What are the 3 most common disorders causing Chronic Pelvic Pain?

answer

Endometriosis Interstitial Cystitis IBS

question

Interstitial Cystitis is worsened by what?

answer

Intercourse Perimenstral status

question

What is Chronic Pelvic Pain?

answer

"Non-cyclic pain of 6 or more months' duration that is localized to the pelvis and is of sufficient severity to cause functional disability"

question

What is the common clinical presentation for UTI in males?

answer

Dysuria Urgency/ frequency Cloudy urine

question

What is the clinical presentation for Pyelonephritis?

answer

chills, fever flank pain CVA tenderness urinary symptoms may accompany

question

What are typical Bladder Irritants?

answer

cold remedies (Sudafed) chocolate carbonation colas citrus cranberry juice or pills vitamin C certain wines and beers Crystal Light candy and high sugar foods.

question

A basic urinary continence evaluation done by the FNP should include: a. History, physical exam, postvoid residual volume, and UA b. Postvoid, residual volume, BUN, serum creatinine, and UA c. History, physical exam, serum glucose, BUN, serum creatinine, and UA d. Urodynamic/endoscopic/imaging tests, UA, and serum creatinine

answer

A

question

Which one of the following is the MOST USEFUL tool in diagnosing congenital anomalies, stone formation, and foreign bodies in the urinary tract? a. Intravenous urography (IVU) b. Voiding cystourethrography c. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) d. Computed tomography urography (CTU)

answer

D

question

Which of the following patients would be a good candidate for urodynamic studies (UDS)? A. Patient with history of stress incontinence and urge incontinence B. Patient with recent surgery for bladder suspension C. Patient with initial incontinence episode after total knee replacement D. Older male with residual volume of 45 mL after 250 mL voiding

answer

A

question

The FNP is evaluating blood chemistries on a patient who is experiencing a slight increase in blood pressure. She has no previous history of high BP or other chronic disease. Which serum lab value would be of most concern? A. Serum creatinine 4.2 mg/dL B. BUN 30 mg/dL C. Serum K+ 4.5 mEq/L D. Serum osmolarity 290 mOsm/kg

answer

A

question

When taking a history on voiding patterns in adults, the FNP knows: A. Adults normally void q 2-3 h in a 24-h period (8-12x/day) B. First sensation to void occurs when the bladder fills to 200-300 mL C. Normally, 15-20 minutes pass between first urge to void and reaching functional capacity D. Adults typically reach functional (comfortable) capacity at 200-300 mL and normally experience some leakage if voiding is delayed

answer

B

question

The FNP expects which findings on exam of an older adult with dehydration? A. Tongue furrows and skin tenting over the clavicle B. Specific gravity of urine 1.004 C. Pulse rate 58 bpm, strong and regular and BP 100/62 D. Geographic tongue and reduced saliva pool

answer

A

question

Which diagnostic test is considered essential in the preliminary workup of a patient with incontinence? A. UA with C&S B. Bedside urodynamic studies C. Intravenous and retrograde phelography D. Renal sonography

answer

A

question

A young female patient reports that she has been having frequent and painful urination. The FNP orders a clean catch urine specimen for routine UA with C&S. Lab results show 10^5/ml (10 to fifth power) of Eschericia coli (E. Coli) and 10^4/mL of Staphylococcus epidermidis. The FNP would: A. Treat E. coli B. Order amoxicillin C. Treat the S. epidermidis D. Encourage citric fruit juices

answer

A

question

An older female is incontinent of urine. Her perineal area is red and excoriated. What should you advise to family caregiver to avoid using on the skin in the perineal area? A. Petrolatum B. Moisture-barrier films C. Mild soap and water D. Zinc oxide ointment

answer

B

question

A young adult comes to the student health clinic complaining of severe abdominal discomfort and bloody urine. An initial priority in the diagnostic workup would include: A. IV pyelography to r/o kidney stone B. Straining all urine C. Microscopic urine exam D. 24 hour urine culture

answer

C

question

Which plan would be most appropriate for an older patient with functional incontinence? A. Evaluate need for incontinence pads B. Limit fluid intake in the evenings C. Perform Credes maneuver D. Provide a bedside commode

answer

D

question

A 60 year old man presents with recurrent UTI. What is the most likely cause? A. Blanitis B. Epididymitis C. Chronic bacterial prostatitis D. BPH

answer

C

question

What is a possible cause of transient and reversible urinary incontinence? A. Poor pelvic support causing hypermobility of the base of the female bladder B. Lower urinary tract problems, such as carcinoma C. Cystocele or uterine prolapse in women D. Ingestion of certain medications, such as sedatives, diuretics, anticholinergics, and alpha-adrenergic agents

answer

D

question

Which statement best characterizes functional incontinence? A. Leakage of urine during activities that increase abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, and laughing B. Mainly caused by factors outside the urinary tract, especially immobility, that prohibit proper toileting habits C. Characterized by the inability to delay urination, with an abrupt and strong desire to void D. Occurrence of incontinence with overdistention of bladder

answer

B

question

What is the most common bacteria that causes UTI?

answer

E. coli

question

What is the most common cause of the UTI infection? A. eating too much B. wiping from front to back C. gram-negative bacteria from colon D. only A and B

answer

C

question

What are the common symptoms of UTI?

answer

Dysuria, urgency, frequency, hematuria, foul-smelling urine, sensation of incomplete emptying, scant voiding, lower abdominal pain and/or back pain.

question

Which of the following would indicate a UTI from a midstream UA lab result? A. UA midstream >100,000 organisms B. UA midstream <100,000 organisms C. UA midstream <1,000 organisms D. UA midstream <20,000 organisms

answer

A

question

Which of the following would indicate a UTI from a catheter UA lab result? A. >100,000 organisms B. >10,000 organisms C. > 5,000 organisms D. >1,000 organisms

answer

D

question

Do we do urine culture on everyone we think to have a possible UTI?

answer

no

question

Which of the following would you order a urine culture for? A. 71 year old female with recurrent UTI symptoms after being treated with Bactrim for 5 days B. 8 year old female with complaint of dysuria, frequency, urgency, and foul-smelling urine C. 24 year old pregnant female with complaint of dysuria, frequency, urgency, and foul-smelling urine D. All of the above

answer

D

question

What is the difference between nitrates and nitrites in urine?

answer

Nitrates are normally found in the urine and do not indicate infection. Nitrites are produced by bacteria (E. coli) and indicate a possible infection

question

Is it normal to have WBCs in the urine?

answer

No

question

Would a lab result that shows >10 WBC indicate a UTI?

answer

Yes

question

Would leukocyte esterase indicate a UTI?

answer

Usually

question

UA shows no blood, but positive nitrites and leukos. What does this possibly indicate? A. nothing B. menstruation C. UTI D. STI

answer

C

question

UA shows no blood, no nitrites, positive leukocytes. What does this possibly indicate? A. UTI B. STI C. Vaginal flora contamination D. All of the above

answer

D

question

UA shows positive blood, no nitrites, no leukocytes. What does this possibly indicate? A. menstruation B. kidney stone C. none of the above D. both A and B

answer

D

question

UA results show no blood, nitrites, or leukocytes, but the patient is still complaining of frequency and urgency. What is the possible diagnosis? A. pregnancy B. herpes C. vaginitis D. all of the above

answer

D

question

Which class of antibiotics are saved for women and children to treat UTIs? A. penicillin B. cephalosporins C. quinolones D. tetracyclines

answer

B

question

Can you order levofloxacin for pregnant patient with a UTI?

answer

No

question

A 35 year old female who has DM type I has a UTI. How many days should she be treated? A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 5 days D. 7-10 days

answer

D

question

A 35 year old man presents with a UTI. How many days should he be treated? A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 5 days D. 7-10 days

answer

D

question

A 35 year old woman presents with a UTI that is uncomplicated. How many days should she be treated? A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 5 days D. 7-10 days

answer

B

question

A patient with comorbidities presents with a UTI. How many days should the patient be treated? A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 5 days D. 7-10 days

answer

D

question

Which of the following would be appropriate to prescribe for a patient with a UTI to treat painful voiding? A. Macrobid B. phenazopyridine (Pyridium) C. flavoxate (Urispas) D. both b and c are right, but not to be ordered together

answer

D

question

Patient with positive blood in UA results must follow up if there is blood in the urine initially, because there is high liability of: A. possible bladder cancer B. possible tampering of evidence C. possible drug intoxication D. none of the above

answer

A

question

85% of bladder cancer presents with: A. stool that contains pus B. discharge that smells fishy C. hematuria, even if gross or microscopic D. all of the above

answer

C

question

What are some differential diagnosis for hematuria? A. malignant neoplasms (renal or bladder), BPH, glomerular disease B. renal calculi, infection, coagulopathy, exercise induced C. trauma, hydronephrosis, polycystic kidneys, medications D. all of the above

answer

D

question

A patient presents with classic symptoms of a kidney stone. What lab abnormality is most common? A. elevated white count on CBC B. bacteria present on UA C. hematuria D. positive nitrites

answer

C

question

Which of the following is appropriate management of a patient with a kidney stone? A. alpha blocker (off label use) and pain medication, or could refer to ER B. refer for hospitalization if infection present, stone is >6mm, or has excessive N/V C. urological consult due to obstruction or if symptoms present >3-4 days D. all of the above

answer

D

question

Infection of the upper urinary tract and renal parenchyma is known as: A. UTI B. acute pyelonephritis C. BPH D. a normal finding

answer

B

question

What are risk factors for pyelonephritis? A. untreated or undertreated UTI B. urinary tract abnormalities or pregnancy C. being elderly and fecal incontinence D. all of the above

answer

D

question

Why is an upper urinary infection such a concern in pregnancy? A. can cause the baby to be abnormally large B. low birth weight C. can cause preterm labor D. can delay labor time

answer

C

question

What findings may be present in a patient who has pyelonephritis? (select all that apply) A. CVA tenderness B. fever C. pyuria D. white cells in urine E. trichomonads F. casts

answer

all except E

question

Which of the following are diagnostic studies and physical exam techniques for pyelonephritis? (select all that apply) A. UA B. urine culture with sensitivity C. CBC D. CVA tenderness E. fever F. ESR (sed rate)

answer

all are right

question

Is proteinuria found with pyelonephritis?

answer

Yes

question

Is leukocytosis found with pyelonephritis?

answer

Yes

question

Is sed rate elevated or lowered with pyelonephritis?

answer

elevated

question

Which class of drugs is the recommended first line outpatient treatment for pyelonephritis? A. penicillin B. cephalosporins C. quinolones D. none of the above

answer

C

question

If a patient has pyelonephritis and is going to be treated on an outpatient basis, but is allergic to quinolones, what is to be given as the alternate treatment? A. PCN G IM x1 B. ceftriaxone 1 gram stat plus Augmentin for 14 days C. tramadol 50 mg PO every 3 hours while awake D. none of the above

answer

B

question

What should be obtained before starting antibiotic therapy for pyelonephritis? A. pap smear B. prostate exam C. culture D. contraceptives

answer

C

question

Which of the following is a known contraindication to the prescription of oral contraceptives? A. Current pregnancy B. History of blood clots C. Known or suspected estrogen-related cancer D. Undetermined uterine bleeding E. All of the answer choices are correct

answer

E

question

When counseling a woman about the use of oral contraceptions, you should provide her with which of the following pieces of information? A. Antibiotics may decrease their effectiveness and she should use a backup method of protection when taking them B. They don't protect against STIs C. They may worsen mood D. They must be taken every day E. All are correct

answer

E

question

All of the following are examples of excessive androgens except: A. acne and oily skin B. hirsutism C. increased libido D. syncope E. weight gain and edema

answer

D

question

Which of the following statements should the NP include in medication teaching about oral contraceptives? A. Benefits of combined oral contraceptives may include decreased menstrual cramps and PMS B. Benefits of progestin-only pills include a daily schedule that's easy to remember and less nausea than with combined oral contraceptives C. Progestin-only contraceptive pills thicken the endocervical mucus, alter the endometrium, and suppress ovulation D. Progestin-only pills are as effective as the combined pill with typical use E. Progestin-only pills may be less effective than the combined pills

answer

A, B, C, and E

question

Your 33 year-old patient is still breastfeeding her fourth child and wants to be reassured that she will not get pregnant again. Since she is breastfeeding, you recommend which of the following contraceptives? A. Contraceptive ring (NuvaRing) B. Ortho Evra patch C. Progestin-only pill D. She should avoid contraception until she has finished breastfeeding since breastfeeding offers protection

answer

C

question

The incidence of which of the following cancers are reduced with the use of oral contraceptives? A. Endometrial and breast B. Lung and ovarian C. Ovarian and breast D. Ovarian and endometrial

answer

D

question

Which of the following patients could be considered for use of combination oral contraceptives? A. 25 year old with thyroid disease B. 28-year-old with menorrhagia C. 35-year-old with cervical cancer D. 40 year old with a family history of breast cancer E. All of the above

answer

E

question

A patient visits the clinic with complaints of oral contraceptive side effects. Which one of the following is NOT a sign of excessive estrogen? A. Breast tenderness B. decreased blood pressure C. HA D. increased blood pressure E. Melasma

answer

B

question

One of the NP's patients plans on using a diaphragm for contraception. While counseling her on how to use it, she asks when she should remove the diaphragm following intercourse. What would be the most appropriate answer to her question? A. 1 hour following intercourse B. 6 hours following intercourse C. immediately following intercourse D. whenever is most convenient

answer

B

question

One of your patients is pleased that her acne has diminished on her oral contraceptives (ethinyl estradiol 30 mcg/dropirenone 3 mg). You advise her that this is likely due to which of the following? A. Her bleeding reduction B. Her cycles normalizing, giving her fewer hormonal fluctuations that trigger her acne C. The androgen-reducing effects of the medication D. The estrogenic effects of the medication

answer

C

question

Your 30-year-old patient has been taking oral contraceptives for over 10 years. She has recently stopped taking them and wonders how quickly she can safely conceive. How do you respond? A. She can safely conceive immediately B. She may conceive after about one month off of the oral contraceptives C She may have over one year to return to safe fertility D. She will only be able to safely conceive after 3 months off of the hormones

answer

A

question

Your patient is currently menstruating and forgot to take her combined oral contraceptive pill yesterday. She calls the clinic. You advise her of which of the following? A. Discard this pack and start a new pack B. If she missed a nonactive, nonhormonal pill, that is ok. She should resume taking her pills as scheduled again tomorrow. C. Resume taking her pills as scheduled again tomorrow D. Take 2 today and get back on schedule tomorrow by taking one again

answer

B

question

Which is incorrect regarding the use of a vaginal diaphragm? A. It may increase the risk for urinary tract infections B. It must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse C. It should be refitted if one has a weight gain of greater than 10 pounds D. All of the above

answer

D

question

The NP is seeing an adult female patient with 2 school-aged children in a monogamous relationship. She is asking about non-oral contraceptive methods but doesn't want to consider permanent sterilization for herself or her partner. This patient has no significant medical history but smokes 1 pack of cigarettes daily. Which of the following is the BEST contraceptive option for this patient? A. Diaphragm B Etibigestrek Subdermal implant C. Levonorgestrel Intrauterine Device (IUD) D. Transdermal contraceptive patch

answer

C

question

Which of the following is not true about the use of Depo-Provera? A. May cause menstrual irregularities B. May reduce low-density lipoprotein cholesterol C. May result in a delayed return to fertility for up to one year D. Must be injected

answer

B

question

Your 32-year-old patient has been using Depo-Provera and recently received her shot before getting married. She would like to start planning to have a family. She visits your clinic hoping to get pregnant within the next 3 months. Your response to her is that: A. She may have a delay in her return to fertility for up to one year or longer B. She should have an immediate return to fertility C. She will have an immediate return to fertility after 3 months since she just received a shot D. She will have an immediate return to fertility as soon as her period is regular again

answer

A

question

The NP receives a phone call from an 18-year-old female patient on combined oral contraceptive pills, stating that she missed the previous 2 days of her birth control pill. She is inquiring as to what she should do now, as these are the "active pills". The NP advises her to: A. Discard the current pack and begin with a new one the following day B. Resume taking the pills as scheduled the following day C. Take the most recent missed active pill as soon as possible, discard other missed pills, and continue with the regular schedule, even if it means taking 2 pills in one day. Use backup contraception or avoid intercourse for 7 days. D. Take 2 active pills today and 2 active pills tomorrow, then resume the regular schedule

answer

C

question

The NP is seeing a new patient, an adult female, who recently discovered that she is HIV positive. This patient is asking about the best method of contraception as well as preventing transmission of HIV to her partner. What would be the most appropriate contraceptive for this patient? A. Cervical cap B. Condom C. Levonorgestrel intrauterine Device (IUD) D. Transdermal Contraceptive patch

answer

B

question

Which of the following is false regarding emergency contraception? A. A copper intrauterine device may be an effective emergency contraception if placed within 5-6 days of intercourse B. Emergency contraception medication may cause N/V, and HA C. Levonorgestrel (Plan B) should be taken within 48 hours of intercourse D. Oral emergency contraceptives work by delaying ovulation

answer

C

question

True of false: 60% more estrogen is absorbed with the Ortho Evra patch than with oral contraceptives, increasing the risk for thromboembolic events.

answer

True

question

Your patient is worried about which contraceptive option would be best for her. She states that she often forgets to take her vitamins. For this particular candidate, you would discuss which of the following? A. IUD B. Depot medroxyprogesterone C. NuvaRing D. Progestin-only pills

answer

A, B, and C

question

Which of the following is false regarding the usage of NuvaRing? A. If the ring falls out, it should be reinserted within 24 hours B. It is a combination of synthetic estrogen and progestin C. It is left in place for 21 days and then removed to allow for menstruation D. It is vaginally inserted

answer

A

question

Which of the following contraceptive options are progestin-only? Choose 3 answers. A. Depo-Provera B. Implanon C. Mirena intrauterine device D. NuvaRing E. Paraguard intrauterine device

answer

A, B, and C

question

Which of the following is false regarding usage of the Ortho Evra patch? A. After 3 applications, the patch is removed for 7 days, allowing for menstruation B. IF the patch falls off and stays off for greater than 12 hours, restart a new 4-week cycle and use a backup method of protection C. The patch is removed every 7 days and another one is applied D. The patch may be applied to the arm, buttocks, or abdomen

answer

B

question

A 25-year-old female patient has been using Depo-Provera, but has experienced an 8 pound weight gain in the past year and is already significantly overweight. She asks if the weight gain is common. How should you respond? A. "This is very abnormal side effect associated with the use of this drug". The NP should advise her to switch to a different form of contraception B. "This is abnormal for this drug, but if this weight is tolerable for you, you can continue it" C. "This is unfortunately common for this drug. If your weight has normalized and this is tolerable for you, you can continue it" D. "This is unfortunately common for this drug". As she is already overweight, the NP should offer to switch to a different form of contraception like the nonhormone intrauterine device.

answer

D

question

Which is a common side effect when using spermicides? A. Allergic reaction B. PID C. STIs D. Urinary tract infections E. All of the above

answer

D

question

Which of the following statements should the NP include in medication teaching about oral contraceptives? A. Benefits of combined oral contraceptives may include decreased menstrual cramps and PMS B. Benefits of progestin-only pills include a daily schedule that's easy to remember and less nausea than with combined oral contraceptives C. Progestin-only contraceptive pills thicken the endocervical mucus, alter the endometirum, and suppress ovulation D. Progestin-only pills are as effective as the combined pills with typical use E. Progestin-only pills may be less effective than the combined pill

answer

A, B, C, and D

question

Your 28-year-old patient who is suffering from chronic migraine HA visits your clinic for contraceptives. She is otherwise healthy and does not smoke. You advise that the best option for her is: A. Combined estrogen and progestin pills B. NuvaRing C. Ortho Evra patch D. Progestin-only pills

answer

D

question

The incidence of which of the following cancers are reduced with the use of oral contraceptives? A. Endometrial and breast B. Lung and ovarian C. Ovarian and breast D. Ovarian and endometrial

answer

D

question

When counseling a patient on the risks associated with an intrauterine device, you include all of the following except: A. Intrauterine device strings may migrate due to poor positioning and become difficult to find B. Intrauterine device use increases the risk for candidiasis C. Intrauterine device use increases the risk for PID D. Risk of expulsion of the intrauterine device is 10% the first year of use

answer

D

question

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer? A. Cigarette smoking B. Family history C. HPV D. Long term use of birth control pills (> 5 years)

answer

C

question

A 16-year-old gymnast has stopped menstruating this year after having normal cycles from age 12-15. What is this diagnosed as? A. Anorexia B. Hypothyroidism C. Primary amenorrhea D. Secondary amenorrhea

answer

D

question

The management of dysmenorrhea may include all of the following except: A. antibiotics B. exercise C. ibuprofen D. oral contraceptive pills

answer

A

question

When reviewing the results of Papanicolaou tests, you know the role of the primary care provider is to refer which of the following to a specialist? Select the best answer: A. Atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance B. CIN I (mild dysplasia) and CIN II (moderate dysplasia) C. CIN II and CIN III (severe dysplasia) D. CIN III only

answer

C

question

Your patient visits the clinic with N/V, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. During a pelvic exam, you notice she has cervical motion tenderness. This helps to confirm the diagnosis of which GYN concern? A. Bacterial vagniosis B. Candidiasis C. PID D. Trichomoniasis

answer

C

question

A physical exam of your 50-year-old female patient reveals vaginal thinning and uterine prolapse. She wants to know if she is experiencing menopause because she has not in 15 months. Based on this information, you explain to her that she meets the criteria for menopause. What finding would the NP expect if the patient is in menopause? A. Decreased TSH B. Elevated prolactin level C. Increased serum estrogen D. Elevated FSH level

answer

D

question

An 18-year-old woman presents to the clinic with reports of never having had a menstrual cycle. To rule out secondary causes, what are the next steps of the primary care provider? (Choose 3 answers): A. Check TSH levels and prolactin B. conduct a physical exam C. Order a pituitary MRI D. Order a pregnancy test E. Refer to endocrinology

answer

A, B, and D

question

The NP is seeing an adult female patient with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding (soaking 1 pad every 3-4 hours all morning) and sharp abdominal cramping. The patient reports that her last period was bout 4 weeks ago; she doesn't know if she is pregnant or not. What diagnostic test should be part of the initial workup for this patient? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Pap smear C. Serum beta-hCG level D. Transvaginal ultrasound

answer

C

question

What would you suspect in a patent who has strawberry patches on her cervix, with yellowish-green vaginal discharge and dyspareunia? A. BV B. Candidiasis C. Chlamydia D. Trichomoniasis

answer

D

question

What is the recommended intake of calcium for a 52-year-old woman taking estrogen replacement therapy? A. 1000 mg B. 1250 mg C. 1500 mg D. 750 mg

answer

A

question

Metronidazole can be used to treat all of the following except: A. BV B. Candidiasis C. Giardiasis D. Trichomoniasis

answer

B

question

Your 66-year-old patient asks if she should have a Papanicolaou cytology screening this year. How do you respond? A. For those aged >65 with 3 normal consecutive tests, no abnormal tests in the past 10 years, Papanicolaou cytology screenings are no longer needed B. Papanicolaou cytology tests should be continued every 2-3 years until age 70 C. Papanicolaou cytology tests should be continued every eyar until age 65 D. There is insufficient evidence as to whether she should or shouldn't have the test, thus, you leave the decision up to her

answer

A

question

A healthy adolescent female patient asks the NP about when she needs her fist pap smear. When should the NP recommend routine screening for precancerous cells on the cervix for this patient? A. When the individual is 21 years of age B. Whenever she becomes sexually active C. Whenever she begins menses D. WIthin 3 years of onset of sexual activity, but no later than age 21

answer

A

question

When offering dietary recommendations to your patient with osteoporosis, you recommend which of the following foods because they are high in calcium? A. dairy products B. green leafy veggies C. nuts D. oily fish

answer

A, B, and D

question

A 16-year-old presents with her mother who is concerned because her daughter has never had a period even though her 2 other daughters started at age 12. On further questioning, the patient reveals that for about 2 days each month she experiences a consellation of symptoms including crampy lower abdominal pain, bloating, and pain with defecation, however, she has never experienced menstrual bleeding. On exam, the patient exhibits normal breast and pubic hair development, but during pelvic exam, it is noted that there is significant vaginal distension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Endometriosis B. Imperforate hymen C. IBS D. Uterine fibroids

answer

B

question

Which of the following may contribute to and be responsible for vulvovaginitis? (Select all that apply): A. BV B. Candidiasis C. Chlamydia D. Trichomoniasis

answer

A, B, D

question

What tests would you order for a 16-year-old gymnast who has stopped menstruating this year after having normal cycles from age 12-15? (Select all that apply): A. CBC B. Pregnancy test C. Prolactin levels D. TSH

answer

B, C, D

question

For a 35-year-old woman who has had 3 negative Papanicolaou cytology tests, how often do you recommend she continue screening? A. Annually B. every 5 years C. not needed again D. not needed if in a monogamous relationship

answer

B

question

Your 33-year-old patient has been experiencing intermittent breast tenderness. She felt a mobile, soft round mass in her breast despite normal mammograms. What management options might you recommend? A. Minimize caffeine B. Minimize dietary sodium C. Vitamin C D. Warm compresses

answer

A, B, D

question

Which of the following diseases is considered sexually transmitted? A. Atrophic vaginitis B. BV C. Candidiasis D. Trichomoniasis

answer

D

question

Which is an example of the typical management of trichomoniasis? A. butoconazole B. clindamycin C. metronidazole D. miconazole

answer

C

question

When managing a 32-year-old woman with an abnormal Papanicolaou cytology test, post-colposcopy, when is the next recommended pap cytology screening? A. 1 month B. 12 months C. 3-6 months D. never again

answer

C

question

When teaching a patient about how to take her bisphosphonate medication and the possible side effects, you state all of the following except: A. common side effects include nausea, abdominal pain, and loose bowel movements B. Do not eat for an hour after taking this medication C. Sit upright for 30 minutes after taking this medication D. Take with vitamin C to help facilitate absorption

answer

D

question

Which of the following breast exam findings is suggestive of something other than fibrocystic changes? A. a soft mass B. a mobile nodularity C. A nontender, painless mass D. breast tenderness

answer

C

question

All of the following are examples of oral bisphosphonates for osteoporosis except: A. Alendronic acid (Fosamax) B. Ibandronic acid (Boniva) C. Risedronic acid (Actonel) D. Teriparatide (Forteo)

answer

D

question

Your patient has come to the clinic after experiencing HA, backache, and cramping with the onset of her menses. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Dysmenorrhea B. Nephrolithiasis C. PID D. Premenstrual syndrome

answer

A

question

After the NP administers the HPV-vaccine to a 15-year-old female patient, the patient asks when and how often she will need a pap smear. What is the most appropriate answer to her question? A. Her 1st pap smear would be performed as soon as possible, and then every 3 years after her initial pap smear B. She should undergo a pap smear at age 21, then every 3 years after her initial pap smear C. she should undergo a pap smear once she is sexually active, and then every 3 years after her initial pap smear D. she will not need to undergo a pap smear in the future since she has received the HPV-vaccine

answer

B

question

The NP is providing teaching to a postpartum Catholic client who wishes to use natural family planning. Which of the following would the NP include in teaching about how to utilize this method? (Select all that apply): A. Basal body temperature graphing B. Calendar charting C. Cervical mucous observation D. Extended breastfeeding E. The use of condoms with no spermicide

answer

A, B, C, D

question

A 40-year-old female patient with hx of DM II presents complaining of vaginal discharge, vaginal pruritus, and irritation. Pelvic examination reveals an odorless, thick, white and lumpy discharge. Wet mount reveals pseudohyphae. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? A. Clindamycin B. Fluconazole (Difulcan) C. Metronidazole (Flagyl) D. Topical corcicosteroid

answer

B

question

Which of the following medications is not appropriate for the treatment of an upper urinary tract infection (pyelonephritis)? A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) B. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) C. nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) D. trimethoprim.sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

answer

B

question

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for erectile dysfunction (ED)? A. Depression B. DM C. HTN D. Treatment for epididymitis

answer

D

question

What is the most common causative organism of UTI in men? A. Chlamydia B. E. coli C. Mycoplasma D. Proteus species

answer

D

question

Your 25-year-old male patient has had a fever, dysuria, low back pain, and scrotal edema. Which of the following is likely the correct diagnosis and best option for treatment? A. Acute bacterial prostatitis; trimethoprim.sulfamethoxazole (BactrimO B. Acute pyelonephritis; Bactrim C. Epididymitis; ceftriaxone (Rocephin) D. UTI; Bactrim

answer

C

question

Which diagnostic tests help support the proper diagnosis of a 25-year-old male patient who has fever, dysuria, low back pain, and scrotal edema? (Select all that apply): A. CBC B. Scrotal US C. STI testing D. UA E. Urine culture

answer

A, C, D, E

question

What is considered a normal prostate-specific antigen level for a 65-year-old man? A. less than 2.5 B. less than 3.5 C. less than 4.5 D. less than 6.5

answer

C

question

When differentiating if your patient has testicular torsion, you know all of the following would be true in torsion except: A. Cremaster reflex is absent in the case of torsion B. Elevated CBC C. It is a surgical emergency and must be relieved within 6 hours D. Negative Prehn's sign

answer

B

question

Which of the following medications and dosing is included in a treatment option for gonorrhea? A. Azithromycin (Zithromax) 500 mg PO B. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 250 mg IM C. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) 200 mg PO D. Valacyclovir (Valtrex) 500 mg PO

answer

B

question

Which of the following is an example of an oral treatment option for genital herpes simplex virus infection? A. Ceftriaxone B. Indinavir C. Terazosin D. Valacyclovir

answer

D

question

Which of the following indicates a positive Prehn's sign? A. No pain relief with lifting the affected testicle, which points to epididymitis B. No pain relief with lifting the affected testicle, which points to testicular torsion C. Pain relief with lifting the affected testicle, which points to epididymitis D. Pain relief with lifting the affected testicle, which points to testicular torsion

answer

C

question

Which is an example of an alpha blocker used in the management of BPH? A. Doxazosin (Cardura) B. Leuprorelin (Lupron) C. Metoprolol (Lopressor) D. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

answer

A

question

What are the expected microscopic and pH findings in a female patient with white, clumpy, cottage cheese-like vaginal discharge? A. Clue cells and a pH less than 4.5 B. Clue cells and a pH level greater than 4.5 C. Hyphae and a pH level greater than 4.5 D. Hyphae and a pH level less than 4.5

answer

D

question

Your 55-year-old patient states she has been leaking urine with sneezing, laughing, and coughing. Which type of incontinence is she experiencing and which of the following is the common treatment for this specific type? A. Stress incontinence, prescribe Kegel exercises, periurethral bulking agent injections, and pessary use B. Stress incontinence, use anticholinergic agents and bladder retraining C. Urge incontinence, try bladder retraining D. Urge incontinence, use anticholinergic agents

answer

A

question

The NP is evaluating a patient with complaints of polyuria for the last 3 days. Of the following exam findings, which would help to confirm a diagnosis of pyelonephritis? A. Costovertebral angle tenderness B. Dysuria C. Fever D. Suprapubic pain

answer

A

question

When managing a 67-year-old male with a UTI who is on warfarin, which is the best antimicrobial option? A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) B. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) C. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) D. Bactrim

answer

C

question

You realize that the most common cause of epididymitis in a young man is: A. chlamydia B. E. coli C. Mycoplasma D. Proteus species

answer

A

question

Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy? A. Carvedilol (Coreg) B. Doxazosin (Cardura) C. Prazosin (Minipress) D Terazosin (Hytrin)

answer

A

question

When prescribing tolterdine for your patient suffering from urge incontinence, you know the following are potential side effects except: A. Confusion B. Diarrhea C. Dizziness D. Dry mouth E. HA F. Urinary retention

answer

B

question

For men over age 50, what is the most common cause of bladder obstruction? A. Acute bacterial prostatitis B. Acute pyelonephritis C. BPH D. Epididymitis E. UTI

answer

C

question

As you formulate a plan of care for a patient with chronic renal failure, you understand that according to guidelines, initiating treatment with an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent will be indicated when which of the following hemoglobin levels are noted? A. hgb <10 mg/dl B. hgb <9.5 mg/dl C. hgb <9.0 mg/dl D. hgb <11 mg/dl

answer

A

question

A 25-year-old male presents with a diffuse rash involving palms and soles, swollen lymph glands, fatigue, malaise, and a low-grade fever. What further diagnostic testing is indicated? A. Scraping a sample of tissue for viral culture B. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS0 test C. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test D. Taking a urethral swab for culture and sensitivity

answer

B

question

To obtain objective information for a patient with symptoms consistent with acute renal failure, you understand that which diagnostic test(s) is MOST specific in confirming this potential diagnosis? A. Urine sediment analysis B. Serum creatinine and BUN C. Renal biopsy D. Renal ultrasound

answer

B

question

You are providing care for a 28-year-old male patient presenting with symptoms including fever, irritative voiding symptoms, and perineal pain. A digital rectal exam reveals a tender, boggy prostate. UA reveals presence of leukocytes in the urine. Which diagnostic test should also be ordered? A. Urine culture B. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing C. Urine gram stain D. Urethral culture

answer

A

question

A 23-year-old female presents to clinic for her well woman exam. She forgot to schedule her WWE last year and is now stating that she has not experienced any menstrual bleeding for the previous 6 months. Home pregnancy tests have been negative. The patient denies any other symptoms. A review of her chart reveals a levonorgestrel-containing intrauterine device (such as Mirena, Skyla, Kyleena, or Liletta) was placed during her previous WWE. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding LNG-IUD? A. LNG-IUD may contribute to an increased risk of upper reproductive tract infection B. LNG-IUD causes heavier than usual menstrual bleeding in approximately 80% of users C. LNG-IUD induces amenorrhea in about 50% of users at the end of 2 years of use D. LNG-IUD reduces menstrual volume by about 60%

answer

C

question

A 32-year-old heterosexual male presents with symptoms of acute epididymitis. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered? A. Syphilis and HIV testing B. Radiologic studies C. Voiding cystourethrogram D. Tests for gonorrhea and chlamydia

answer

D

question

What does the mnemonic for primary syphilis PRESS mean?

answer

P= painless lesion R= regional lymphadenopathy E= exudate S= single lesion S= sexual contact can cause it

question

What does the mneumonic for secondary syphilis CAMP mean?

answer

C= condyloma lata (wart-like lesion on genitals) A= acute infection symptoms (fever, sore throat, malaise, weight loss) M= mucocutaneous lesion, mucous patches P= pruritic papules and pustules

question

What does the mneumonic for teritary syphilis "CLASS" mean?

answer

C= cardiovascular disorder L= late benign syphilis (gumma) A= asymptomatic neurosyphilis S= symptomatic neurosyphilis S= seizures and apathy (signs of meningeal involvement)

question

What is the mnemonic for anticholinergic side effects?

answer

"red as a beet (flushing), mad as a hatter (confusion), hot as a hare(hyperthermia), can't see (blurred vision), can't pee (urinary retention), can't spit (dry mouth), can't...rhymes with spit (constipation)

question

What is the mnemonic "DUNG" mean for E. Coli causes?

answer

D= diarrhea U= UTI N= neonatal meningitis G= gram-negative sepsis

question

What is the mnemonic for acidosis/alkalosis "ROME" and RUB MUB for compensation mean?

answer

RO= respiratory opposite ME= metabolic equal RUB= Respiratory uses bicarb MUB= metabolic uses bicarb

question

Treatable causes of urinary incontinence have DIAPPERS mnemonic, which stands for what?

answer

D= delirium I= infection (urinary) A= atrophic urethritis and vaginitis P= pharmaceuticals (diuretics, others) P= psychological disorders (depression) E= excessive urine output (Heart faillure, hyperglycemia d/t undetected or poorly controlled DM) R= restricted mobility S- stool impaction

question

Atypical cells of undetermined significance

answer

ASC-US

question

This epithelial abnormality cannot exclude high-grade lesion.

answer

ASC-H

question

This epithelial abnormality is low-grade, mild dysplasia, CIN I

answer

LSIL

question

This epithelial abnormality is high-grade moderate-severe dysplasia, CIN 2/3

answer

HSIL

question

This epithelial abnormality means carcinoma in situ.

answer

CIS

question

This glandular cell abnormality is atypical glandular cells.

answer

AGC

question

This grandular cell abnormality is endocervical adenocarcinoma in situ.

answer

AIS

question

Repeat at 6 and 12 months or HPV DNA testing.

answer

ASC-US

question

True or false: ASC-H requires colposcopy.

answer

True

question

Colposcopy if not pregnant is recommended.

answer

LSIL

question

LEEP or colposcopy is recommended.

answer

HSIL

question

Colposcopy unless atypical endometrial cells, then endometrial Bx.

answer

AGC

question

What are some ways to prevent HPV?

answer

HPV vaccination, not having sex, limited number of sexual partners (one partner), condom use, circumcision, Pap testing after age 21, not having sex too young, and healthy lifestyle (nutrition, exercise, not smoking)

Adult 1 Exam 3 (renal and GYN) – Flashcards

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