Abnormal Psychology Quiz Q’s (Mid Term)

While determining the cause of an abnormal behavior, which of the following can be categorized as a psychological cause?

A. disturbance in motor function due to injuries
B. abnormal structure of certain chromosomes
C. hormonal imbalance in the body
D. disturbances in thoughts/feelings

D
A(n) ___ is a label that causes us to regard certain people as different defective, and set apart from mainstream members of society.

A. independent variable
B. prejudice
C. stereotype
D. stigma

D
When using the experimental design, the variable whose level is adjusted or controlled by the experimenter is known as the ___ variable.

A. relational
B. dependent
C. independent
D. secondary

C
The ritual of diving away evil spirits which involves physically and mentally painful form of torture carried out by a shaman, priest, or medicine is referred to as.

A. cognitive
B. exorcism
C. trephining
D. electro convulsive therapy

B
In the ___, scientists experimenting with pharmacological treatments invented medications that for the first time in history could successfully control the symptoms of psychological disorders.

A. 1920s
B. 1950s
C. 1870s
D. 1890s

B
The physiologist who discovered the principles of classical conditioning was

A. Edward Thorndike
B. Albert Bandura
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Albert Ellis

C
Who is known as the founder of American psychiatry?

A. Dorthea Dix
B. Benjamin Rush
C. William Turke
D. Clifford Beers

B
The best way to eliminate demand characteristics is to use ___

A. a double-blind method
B. a multiple baseline method
C. placebo control goups
D. statistical analyses

A
Which of the following is true with regards to case studies?

A. Classic studies is early abnormal psychology rarely used the case study as a reliable research method
B. the case study method is ideal for researchers who intend to conduct an intensive investigation of an individual or a small group of individuals.
C. an in-depth case study involves high experimental control is likely to make a useful addition to the literature
D. Investigators using case studies must adopt a subjective approach in order to obtain he best results

B
In 1963, the Mental Retardation Facilities and Community Mental Health Center Construction Act proposed patient treatment in clinics and treatment centers outside of mental hospitals. This legislation paved the way for the ___ movement.

A. behaviorist
B. civil rights
C. spiritual
D. deinsitutionalization

D
Axis II ofthe DSM-IV-TR contained

A. clinical disorders
B. personality disorders and mental retardation
C. organic brain disorders
D. substance abuse disorders

B
A treatment approach used in an inpatient psychiatric facility in which all facets of the environment are components of the treatment is referred to as

A. psychoanalytic therapy
B. person-centered therapy
C. milieu therapy
D. group therapy

C
An axis is a class of information in DSM-IV regarding

A. one aspect of an individual’s functioning
B. list of individuals suffering from schizophrenia
C. the treatment of physical disabilities
D. the number of cases pending with incorrect diagnosis

A
Which of the following terms is used to refer to various forms of behavior that involve disturbed sleep patterns?

A. depression
B. nerurosis
C. delusion
D. insomnia

D
Clinical decision-making that integrates the best available research evidence and clinical expertise in the context of the cultural background, preferences, and characteristics of clients is called

A. comorbid decision-making
B. evidence-based
C. integrative expertise
D. combinatory thinking

B
Which of the following is NOT a role of a good cliniciam while treating his/her patient?

A. to infuse a deep personal interest in the matter
B. to show sense of respect toward the problem of the client
C. to judge the present condition by taking into account all available information regarding the client
D. to forcefully insert his/her own thoughts regarding the issue into the client’s mind

D
Which of the following is an individual without a graduate-level training in psychology who can also play a critical role in mental health services?

A. family therapist
B. recreational therapist
C. counseling therapist
D. psychiatrist

B
The outline for how therapy should take place is known as

A. the treatment plan
B. the case formulation
C. the primary diagnosis
D. psychoanalytic treatment

A
Which DSM-IV-TR Axis is rated the client’s overall level of functioning?

A. Axis I
B. Axis II
C. Axis III
D. Axis V

D
The process of ruling out possible alternative diagnosis is called a(n)?

A. differential diagnosis
B. compound diagnosis
C. assessment of functioning
D. multiaxial diagnosis

A
Mrs. Waltham is 75 years old and has been brought in for treatment by her daughter. Her daughter claims that Mrs. Waltham has not only become forgetful, but has begun fabricating stories about how she is a Bavarian princess who must return to her homeland to help the king. The clinician automatically diagnoses Mrs. Waltham as having schizophrenia. What important information has the clinician obviously ignored in making the diagnosis?

A. occupational status
B. client’s age
C. prevalence of this disorder
D. client’s gender

B
Shelly is being treated by a therapist along with her parents and siblings. Which form of therapy is this most likely?

A. group therapy
B. family therapy
C. milieu therapy
D. social therapy

B
Ryan has been in trouble with the law for shoplifting and vandalism. therapist has asked that Ryan’s family participate in his therapy sessions. What therapy modality is Ryan’s therapist employing?

A. group therapy
B. family therapy
C. milieu therapy
D. dynamic therapy

B
Dr. Richards is treating Joey who is suffering from extreme anxiety. Dr R%ichards finds that his patient’s symptoms could also be suggestive of a substance-abuse disorder or a serious impulse control probelm. In this case, Dr. Richards should

A. consider a principal diagnosis treatment
B. undertake a differential diagnosis treatment
C. transfer Joey to a halfway house
D. declare a simple case of dissociative identity disorder

B
Dr. Reed has a PhD in clinical psychology and was trained in administering psychological tests. Dr Davis has an MD with advanced training in treating psychological disorders and can prescribe medications. From the given information, we can infer that

A. Dr. Reed is a psychiatrist and Dr. Davis is a psychologist
B. Dr. Reed is a psychologist and Dr. Davis is a psychiatrist
C. Dr. Reed is a psychologist and Dr. Davis is a neurologist
D. Dr. Reed is a social worker and Dr. Davis is a psychologist

B
A Trail Making Test

A. assess a client’s auditory information processing speed, flexibility, and calculation ability
B. evaluates frontal lobe functioning, and focuses on attention, scanning of visual stimuli, and number sequencing
C. evaluates the functioning of the temporal lobe that is involved in auditory perception and in high-level visual processing of complex stimuli
D. assesses children with learning disabilities and adults who suffer from brain injury or dementia

B
Lian, a Chinese American, was asked by her clinician if she could speak English fluently. The clinician took into account Lian’s cultural, ethnic, and and racial background. Which of the following was performed by Lian’s clinician?

A. universal screening assessment
B. organizational assessment
C. DISC assessment
D. multicultural assessment

D
Clinicians use EEGs to evaluate clients for conditions such as

A. Alzeimer’s disease and Aspergers syndrome
B. tuberculosis, pulmonary fibrosis, and emphysema
C. epilepsy, sleep disorders, and brain tumors
D. mermaid syndrome, neutropenia, and ischemia

C
Which of the following is the most famous projective technique?

A. Kinetic Family Drawing Test
B. Thematic Apperception Test
C. Personal Orientation Inventory
D Rorschach Inkblot Test

D
A mental status examination

A. is used to determine mental retardation
B. tests for a variety of assessments, including overall cognitive evaluation
C. is a brief screening device to access dementia
D. is used to assess a client’s current state of mind

D
____ is a scanning method that measures metabolic activity of neurons, and therefore may indicate areas of brain damage

A. proton magnetic resonance (MRS)
B. electroencephalogram (EEG)
C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D. positron emission tomography (PET) scan

D
Which of the following is measure of changes in the electrical activity of the brain?

A. electroencephalogram (EEG)
B. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
C. computed axial tomography (CAT or CT scan)
D. proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)

A
Which of the following is assessed by the Paced Auditory Serial Addition Test?

A. language capacity
B. calculation ability
C. learning disabilities
D. executive functioning

B
Which of the following is test of executive functioning?

A. Paced Auditory Serial Addition Test
B. Boston Naming Test
C. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
D. Rorschach inkblot test

C
Mrs. Jones is 79 years old,. She often forgets where she is and thinks she is a teenager. Doctors have diagnosed her condition as dementia. Which of the following structured tools will used to assess her condition?

A. International Personality Disorder Examination
B. Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-III-R
C. Mini-Mental State Examination
D. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

C
Which index scale of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-IV includes symbol search tests and coding tests?

A. Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI)
B. Working Memory Index (WMI)
C. Perceptional Reasoning Index (PRI)
D. Processing Speed

D
The tasks on the Paced Auditory Serial Addition Test require that the client

A. analyze the given inkblots
B. be given a sheet of paper with a large predrawn circle on it
C. match a card to one of a set of cards that share various features
D. keep a running total of a series of numbers

D
Originally the Wechsler IQ test had two categories, verbal and

A. mathematical
B. cognitive
C. performance
D. psychomotor

C
Which of the following is assessed by the Boston Naming Test?

A. language capacity
B. calculation capacity
C. auditory information processing speed
D. flexibility

A
Testing in which the client’s responses to earlier questions determine the subsequent questions presented to them is known as ____ testing.

A. personality
B. adaptive
C. projective
D. apperception

B
___ activity reflects the extent to which an individual is alert, resting, sleeping or dreaming.

A. proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
B. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
C. Computed axial tomography (CAT or CT scan)
D. Electroencephalogram (EEG)

D
Which if the following indicates an advantage of SCL-90-R?

A. It focuses on the client’s current status rather than asking about symptoms over a previous period of time.
B. It assesses a client’s auditory information processing speed, flexibility and calculation ability .
C. Clinicians can use it with clients ho may not have the language or reading skills to complete the MMPI-2.
D. It describes a client’s “personality” as disyinct from the client’s symptoms.

A
A compound axial tomography (CAT or CT scan)

A. is useful when clinicians are looking fir structural damage to the brain.
B. is useful when clinicians are looking for a deficiency in the brain.
C. is used to inject very small amounts of radioactive labeled compounds into a person’s veins.
D. uses magnetism and an injection of radioactive materials to detect brain activity.

A
When using the ___ interview, the clinician pursues specific lines of questioning based on the client’s answers to predetermined questions.

A. structured
B. psycho diagnostic
C. family history
D. structured

D
Researchers examining brain abnormalities using fMRIs can conclude all of the following EXCEPT

A. what the test subject was thinking at the time of the test
B which parts of the brain are activated while performing a specific task.
C. the similarities and differences between brain functioning in healthy and abnormal patients.
D. that it is difficult to understand the brain areas involved in the processing of information

A
In addition to noting the answers to questions in an unstructured interview, the clinician also observes the client’s ____
A. verbal cues
B. opinion on moral issues
C. body language
D. family structure
C
What kind of psychological test yields information about cognitive evaluation?

A. projective test
B. intelligence test
C. behavioral assessment
D. self-report questionnaire

B
Which if the following is true about neuropsychological assessment?

A. The procedure for conducting a neuropsychological assessment is rigid and inflexible
B. Clinicians use neuropsychological assessment measures to attempt to determine the functional correlates of brain damage
C. There is no similarity between neuropsychological tests and WAIS-IV as they are completely different tests.
D. Clinicians cannot evaluate “executive function” through neuropsychological assessments.

B
Which of the following describes the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

A. A common test that clinicians use for determination of giftedness or mental retardation
B. A specific test that clinicians use for diagnosis of learning disabilities
C. A common test that clinicians use in cases of possible traumatic brain injury
D. A specific test that clinicians use to test working memory and processing speed.

C
Which of the following clinical scales of the MMPI-2 is designed to measure antisocial tendencies and delinquencies?

A. schizophrenia
B. psychopathic deviate
C. depression
D. psychasthenia

B
The behavioral therapy technique that focuses on replacing an undesired response to a stimulus with an acceptable response is known as

A. family therapy
B. counterconditioning
C. contingency management
D. token economy

B
To which of the following disorders is the neurotransmitter serotonin primarily related?

A. schizophrenia
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. autism

A
Which of the following perspectives is primarily based on the underlying belief that abnormality is caused by disturbances in the pattern of interactions and relationships with siblings, parents, children and partner?

A. psychodynamic perspective
D. family perspective
C. humanistic perspective
D. cognitive perspective

B
Which of the following perspectives is primarily based on the underlying belief that abnormality is caused by the disturbances in the pattern of interactions and relationships with siblings, parents, children and partner?

A. psychodynamic perspective
B. family perspective
C. humanistic perspective
D. cognitive perspective

B
____ is a form of contingency management in which a client who performs the desired activities earns chips that can later be exchanged for tangible benefits.

A. Participant modeling
B. Electroconvulsive therapy
C. Token economy
D. Person-centered theory

C
The image common to all human experience, like “hero” and “evil”, which, according to Jung, make up the deepest level of the unconscious are called

A. symbols
B. objects
C. archetypes
D. icons

C
Which of the following humanistic theory focuses on the uniqueness of each individual, the importance of allowing each individual to achieve maximum fulfillment of potential, and the need for the individual to confront honestly the reality of his or her experiences in the world?

A. psychoanalytic theory
B. cognitive perspective
C. behavioral perspective
D. person-centered theory

D
One of the two different variations of a gene is referred to as a(n)

A. dendrite
B. allele
C. leukocyte
D. chemokine

B
Which of the following neurotransmitters has been linked to Parkinson’s disease?

A. opiods
B. serotonin
C. norepinephrine
D. dopamine

D
The trait theory approach purposes that

A. there are five basic dispositions in personality.
B. there are unconscious determinants of behavior
C. the ego is the most important aspect of personality
D. abnormality is caused by faulty learning experiences

A
Abraham Maslow’s theory focuses on the idea of

A. defense mechanism
B. the oedipus complex
C. self-actualization
D. the electra complex

C
The main goal of traditional psychoanalytic treatment was to

A. suppress the expression of abnormal sexual desires
B. highlight the differences between the ego and the superego
C. turn the focus of the client from the unconscious to the conscious
D. bring repressed unconscious material into conscious awareness

D
Automatic thoughts are the product of

A. the conflict between the ego and superego
B. dysfunctional attitudes
C. negative reinforcement
D. positive reinforcement

B
Which of the following is likely to have the highest degree of genetic relatedness?

A. dizygotic twins
B. monozygotic twins
C. fraternal twins
D. marrried couples

B
In the context of the behavioral perspective, which of the following is considered to be the main reason behind most abnormalities?

A. development of Oedipus complex
B. faulty learning experiences
C. development of Electra complex
D. maladaptive personality traits

B
In the context of the humanistic perspective, which of the following is true?

A. Compared to other perspectives, humanistic theorists saw human behavior in much more negative terms
B. Humanistic theorists viewed psychological disorders as the result of restricted growth potential
C. The humanistic perspective translates principles from animal research to the behavior of people
D. The humanistic perspective holds that mental disorders occur due to fundamental flaws in an individual’s biology or thoughts

B
The difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning is that in the case of

A. operant condition, the individual associates a maladaptive response with a stimulus that is harmless
B. classical conditioning, negative reinforcemnt inscreases the frequency of particular behaviors
C. operant condition, an individual acquires a maladaptive response by learning to pair a behavior with its consequences
D. classical conditioning, positive reinforcement increases the frequency of particular behaviors

C
In the course of a family therapy, the clinician is most likely to encourage the family to

A. try new ways of relating to each other
B. analyze each other’s dreams
C. try to repress their subconscious desires
D. exclude external relationships

A
Which of the following types of family therapy might require that a subset of the family members enact a disagreement as if they were characters in a play about the family?

A. intergenerational
B. strategic
C. structural
D. experiential

C
A client’s realization that his or her problems are not unique can be facilitated most efficiently by

A. psychotherapy
B. psychodynamic therapy
C. psychoanalysis
D. group therapy

D
Which of the following is true of the ego?

A. It is governed by the pleasure principle
B. It contains the sexual and aggressive instincts
C. It uses rationality to achieve its goals
D. It is the personality’s seat of morality

C
The cient-centered approach is based on the belief that

A. people are innately bad
B. mental disturbances
C. potential for self-improvement lies within the individual rather than therapeutic techniques
D. a well-adjusted person’s self-image should be congruent with the person’s experiences and this state of congruence should be a static state

C
One of the differences between the behavioral perspective and the humanistic perspective is that

A. the behavioral perspective focuses specifically on the values and beliefs of humans
B. the behavioral perspective focuses specifically on human experiences that separate humans from other species
C. the humanistic perspective puts forth the view that people acquire maladaptive behavior through learning
D. the behavioral perspective translates principles from animal research to the behavior of people

D
In the context of operant conditioning, which of the following is typically true?

A. A person has to directly experience reinforcement in order for it to modify his/her behavior
B. Both negative and positive reinforcement increases the frequency of the behaviors that precede them.
C. It is a subconscious process as in the case of classical conditioning
D. In the process, an individual associates a maladaptive response with a stimulus that is not eve capable of affecting him/her in any way.

B
What is the primary function of the superego?

A. It protects the id from anxiety
B. It is the logical and rational structure of the personality that inhibits id impulses
C. It is a storehouse for repressed unconscious memories form childhood
D. It exerts control over the seeking of instinctual gratification

D
____ was disorder specified in DSM-IV-TR, in which the child develops normally for the first 2 years and then starts to lose language, social, and motor skills, as well as other adaptive functions, including bowel and bladder control

A. Rett syndrome
B. Childhood disintegrative disorder
C. Asperger’s disorder
D. Autism spectrum disorder

B
Which of the following is NOT one of the educational deficits typically seen in children with ADHD?

A. repeated discipline problems
B. lower grades
C. placement in special classes
D. low self-esteem

D
Deficits in brain inhibitory mechanisms in the ___ are thought to be involved in Tourette’s disorder.

A. basal ganglia
B. amygdala
C. hypothalamus
D. prefrontal cortex

D
Girls with Fragile X syndrome may show no symptoms other than

A. hyperactive or impulsive behavior
B. large head circumference
C. premature menopause or difficulty conceiving a child
D. speech and language delay

C
Which of the following term refers to conditions involving impaired expression or understanding of language?

A. disorders of written expression
B. communication disorders
C. agnosia
D. dyslexia

B
The Lovaas treatment rests on principles of

A. operant conditioning
B. hypnosis
C. gestalt theory
D. modeling

A
Specific learning disorders are found in approximately what percentage of school-aged boys in the United states?

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%

A
According to recent research, the fact that people with autism spectrum disorder are less likely to gaze into other people’s eyes when communicating with them and are less able to interpret other’s facial expression for emotional cues may be due to abnormalities in their

A. neural circuitry
B. learning processes
C. attachment formation
D. acetylcholine systems

A
In which learning disorder does a child omit, distort or substitute words when reading, and read in a slow halting fashion?

A. specific learning disorder with impairment in writen expression
B. dyslexia
C. dyscalculia
D. receptive language disorder

B
____ is a learning disorder in which the individual’s writing is characterized by por spelling, grammatical or punctuation errors, and disorganization of paragraphs

A. Specific learning disorder with impairment in written expression
B. Specific learning disorder with impairment in reading
C. Expressive language disorder
D. Receptive language disorder

A
The inability of a child with ADHD to break down observed behaviors into component parts that can be recombined into goal-oriented behaviors is referred to by Barkley as

A. internalization
B. self-regulation
C. reconstitution
D. nonverbalization

C
Mild to moderate cases of ADHD can be effectively treated with

A. second generation anti-psychotics
B. antidepressants
C. lithium carbonate
D. anticonvulsants

B
Tourette’s disorder usually involves ___ tics and ___ tics

A. motor, vocal
B. vocal, facial
C. cognitive, facial
D. bodily, motor

A
High-functioning autism spectrum disorder was formerly called

A. Asperger’s disorder
B. Rett’s disorder
C. childhood disintegrative disorder
D. Fragile X disorder

A
Dyslexia is also known as

A. expressive language disorder
B. specific learning disorder with imapirment in written expression
C. specific learning disorder with impairment in reading
D. receptive language disorder

C
____ disorder is a motor skill disorder in which an individual has difficulty carrying out simple motor activities, making him or her appear clumsy and uncoordinated

A. Rumination
B. Stereotypic movement
C. Developmental coordination
D. Tourrete’s

C
Marcus suffers from a pervasive developmental disorder, because of which he cannot communicate with others. He is unable to relate emotionally to others. However, he can remember directions to any location he has been to once. He can also recall 16 digit pin codes after having heard them only once. He can quickly solve extremely challenging mathematical puzzles. Marcus is most likely to be suffering from ___

A. Down syndrome
B. autistic savant syndrome
C. PKU syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome

B
Which of the following is characteristic of an individual with Down syndrome?

A. The face of an individual with Down syndrome includes a head that is larger than the normal and oval shaped
B. Infants born with Down syndrome are missing an enzyme called phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Some of the characteristic features of people with Down syndrome include flattened nose, small ears, small mouth, and upward slanting eyes
D. Individuals with Down syndrome reach a full adult height around the age of 10

C
The fact that autism spectrum disorder shows a pattern of familial inheritance indicates that there may be

A. truth to the notion of the “refrigerator mother”
B. an environmental cause to this disorder
C. a genetic basis for autism
D. a link between poor communication and autism

C
According to DSM-5, which of the following statement is true about the Diagnostic Adaptive Behavior Scale (DABS)?

A. The DABS specifies four severity lvels for intellectual disability in each of the domains it measures
B. American Academy of Physician Assistants (AAPA) developed the Diagnostic Adaptive Behavior Scale (DABS)
C. DABS measures only two domains, conceptual skills and practical skills
D. DABS is designed to be used with indivisuals from 14 to 40 years of age

A
Which of the following is the most effective form of intervention for children with autism spectrum disorder?

A. younger girls whose parents provide the intervention
B. younger boys whose older male siblings provide the intervention
C. younger boys whose parents provide the intervention
D. younger girls whose teachers provide the intervention

B
Which of the following statements best characterizes the expression of ADHD symptoms in teenage girls?

A. They show fewer overt symptoms than boys.
B. They are more likely to behave in a physically aggressive way
C. They are more likely to experience conflict with their parents
D. They tend to externalize symptoms less than boys

A
Which of the following is NOT one of the possible causes of mental retardation?

A. a genetically inherited condition
B. an illness that occurs during the development
C. strict and punitive parenting
D. a head injury sustained in childhood

C
Which of the following statements is true about Down syndrome?

A. The symptoms of Down syndrome are severe and are mostly similar for every person
B. An individual with Down syndrome has a head that is larger than normal and oval shaped.
C. Down syndrome is the most common cause of birth defects in humans
D. Individuals with Down syndrome reach full height around the age of 10

C
Which of the following most likely indicates the reason for children to be born with intellectual disability?

A. mother had consumed alcohol frequently before conception
B. mother had strict and punitive parenting during childhood
C. mother had a contracted Rubella just after the birth of the child
D. mother had malnutrition during the critical phase of fetal development

D
A form of cognitive disorder involving generalized progressive deficits in a person’s memory, ability to communicate , judgement and motor coordination is referred to as.

A. neurocognitive disorder
B. amnestic disorder
C. autism
D. dysphoria

A
Substance-induced amnestic disorder is most likely to be caused by

A. loss of oxygen
B. a head trauma
C. continuous exposure to environmental toxins
D. the herpes simplex virus

C
Which of the following is true about delirium?

A. The symptoms of delirium do mot fluctuate and tend to be consistent throughout the course of the disease
B. People who experience delirium permanently lose their conscious awareness
C. Vitamin deficiency can cause delirium
D. Delirium occurs only in people who are above forty

D
Which of the following is a primary cause of anoxia

A. blood sugar imbalance
B. muscle imbalance
C. excess supply of oxygen to the brain
D. carbon monoxide poisoning

D
People who are severely undernourished are prone to develop a deficiency of ____, a critical nutrient, which can lead to progressive cerebral atrophy.

A. iron
B. magnesium
C. folate
D. carbonate

C
Which of the following is one of the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A. tinnitus
B. psoriasis
C. reduction of bone mineral density
D. loss of motor coordination

D
____ therapies for AIDS have primarily been responsible for lowering the chances of developing dementia in the late stages of the disease.

A. Antiretrovial
B. Serontonergic
C. Dopaminergic
D. Lewy body

A
___ is a disease that can cause neurocognitive disorder and that involves the degeneration of neurons in the subcortical structures that control motor movements

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Down’s syndrome
D. Bipolar disorder

A
Which of the following is medication commonly used for the treatment of delirium?

A. oral anti-histamine
B. haloperidol
C. narcotic analgesic
D. OTC antihistamine

B
Which of the following is a medication commonly used for the treatment of delirium?

A. heart
B. renal artery
C. lungs
D. cerebral cortex

D
Which of the following is true about Pick’s disease?

A. People with Pick’s disease do not experience neurocognitive disorder
B Pick’s disease is caused due to the presence of a third chromosome 21
C. People with Pick’s disease appear apathetic and unmotivated
D. Pick’s disease involves neuronal degeneration of the basal ganglia

C
Multi-infarct dementia is best defined as

A. a form of neurocognitive disorder caused by transient attacks in which blood flow to the brain is interrupted by a clogged or burst artery.

A
___ is the condition in which the brain is deprived of oxygen leading dementia.

A. Anorexia
B. Apraxia
C. Anoxia
D. Agnosia

C
Which of the following is the subcortical structure that controls a person’s motor movements and whose degeneration is primarily related to Parkinson’s disease?

A. corpus callosum
B. hypothalamus
C. cerebellum
D. basal ganglia

D
Which of the following is one of the symptoms of vascular neurocognitve disorder?

A. weakness in the arms and legs
B. absence of WBCs
C. absence of RBCs
D. changes in sexuality

A
Which of the following statements about Alzheimer’s disease is true?

A. It is a neurodegenrative disorder that is sudden and causes the death of the affected individual immediately.
B. The symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease become progressively worse over time.
C. It is a genetic disorder which is characterized by the presence of a third copy of the chromosome 21
D. It refers to damage to the brain caused by exposure to trauma

B
Which of the folowing is true of individuals with mild neurocognitive disorder?

A. They show symptoms of dementia
B. They never develop Alzheimer’s disease
C. They experience hallucinations and delusions
D. They experience a clouding of consciousness that fluctuates over the course of the day

D (THROW OUT)
Which of the following is true about multi-infarct dementia?

A. There is no treatment to reverse the cognitive losses in multi-infarct dementia.
B. People with multi-infarct dementia do not experience memory impairment
C. Multi-infarct dementia is hereditary in nature
D. Multi-infarct dementia is caused by an infectious agent

A
In the context of TBI, which if the following is true?

A. Individuals below the age of forty are not at risk of experiencing TBI.
B. In older adults, falls are the most common cause of TBIs.
C. TBI is a chromsomal disorder caused by the presence of a third copy of chromosome 21
D. TBI is an acute form of dyskinesia in which the affected part of the body is paralyzed

B
In the context of major neurocognitive disorder due to another medical condition, which of the following is true?

A. The most common cause of major neurocognitive disorder due to another medical condition is head trauma.
B. Major neurocognitive disorder due to another medical condition is temporary condition that does not last for more than a month.
C. Major neurocognitive disorder due to another medical condition is not chronic
D. Industrial solvents can cause major neurocognitive disorder due to another medical condition

D
Multi-infarct dementia differs from Alzheimer’s disease in that multi-infarct dementia

A. involves gradual loss of memory and disturbances in executive functioning.
B. is caused by transient attacks where blood flow to the brain is interrupted by a clogged or burst artery
C. involves cognitive losses that can be reversed through psychotherapy.
D. is caused by an infectious agent

C
Delirium is mos likely to be caused by

A. faulty reinforcement patterns
B. mutation in the Y chromosome
C. substance intoxication
D. mutation in the X chromosome

C
Alzheimer’s disease is primarily characterized by

A. duplication of chromosome 21
B. degeneration of tissues of the cerebral cortex
C. inability of the pituitary glands to produce growth hormones
D. sexual dimorphism

B
How migt a clinician diffrentiate between the cognitive impairment seen in Alzheimer’s clients and the deficits seen in clients suffering from vascular neurocognitive disorder?

A. Client’s with Alzheimer’s suffer from physical deterioration along with with cognitive losses while clients with vascular neurocognitive disorder suffer only from cognitive losses
B. Clients with Alzheimer’s follow a gradual pattern of cognitive deterioration while clients with vascular neurocognitive disorder show a stepwise deterioration in cognitive functioning
C. Clients with Alzheimer’s suffer from selective cognitive losses while clients with vascular neurocognitive disorder suffer from global losses
D. Clients with Alzheimer’s suffer only from cognitive losses while clients with vascular neurocognitive disorder suffer from physical deterioration along with cognitive losses

B
Which of the following is a typical symptom associated with amnesia?

A. breakdown of the immune system
B. inability to register new memory
C. hallucinations
D. lower RBC count

B
In which disorder does a child have a severe disturbance in his or her ability to relate to others?

A. stereotypic movement disorder
B reactive attachment disorder
C. separation anxiety disorder
D. overanxious disorder

B
Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in leaving one’s caregivers?

A. overanxious disorder
B. avoidant disorder
C. separation disorder
D. panic disorder

C
Clinicians treating clients with BDD from a ____ perspective focus on helping them to understand that appearance is only one aspect of their total identity, while at the same time challenging them to question their assumptions that their appearance is, in fact, defective.

A. psychoanaltytic
B. sociolinguistic
C. socio-cultural
D. cognitive behavioral

D
Which of the following diagnosis is used to describe constant anxiety that is not associated with a particular object or event?

A. social anxiety disorder
B. obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. generalized anxiety disorder
D. panic disorder

C
Which pharmacological treatment for trichotillomania has shown the most promising results?

A. lithium
B. naltrexone
C. insulin
D. antidepressants

B
The preferred pharmacological treatment of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is by providing the client with

A. serotonin
B. norepinephrine
C. SNRIs
D. SSRIs

D
Which of the following disorders is a child likely to develop after experiencing a natural or manmade disaster?

A. reactive attachment disorder
B. separation anxiety disorder
C. conduct disorder
D. ADHD

B
Which of the following is the most stressful technique for the behavioral treatment of phobias since it causes so much immediate anxiety?

A. imaginal flooding
B. graded in vivo
C. thought stopping
D. in vivo flooding

D
Helgeson, Reynolds, and Tomich found that individuals who find benefit in the experience of trauma

A. usually spend more time being depressed
B. can find positive interpretations of their experiences
C. experience pessimistic thoughts about trauma
D. are more prone to a specific disorders

B
Children who have experienced an abuse pattern of social neglect and repeated changes of primary caregivers in their early years are likely to develop

A. stereotypic movement disorder
B. reactive attachment disorder
C. autistic disorder
D. rumination disorder

B
Satiation therapy is a technique sometimes adopted by clinicians to treat clients suffering from

A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. PTSD
C. specific phobia
D. acute stress disorder

A
Which if the following ailments involve intense anxiety in situations where others might be observing a person’s behavior?

A. hydrophobia
B. specific phobia
C. agoraphobia
D. social anxiety disoder

D
The most effective antianxiety medications are called

A. neuroleptics
B. amphetamines
C. benzodiazephines
D. narcotics

C
Recent research indicates that traumatic experiences can produce structural changes in the

A. cerebellum
B. hippocampus
C. pituitary gland
D. frontal lobes

B
Which of the following disorders involve the compulsive, persistent urge to pull out one’s own hair?

A. anorexia nervosa
B. pyromania
C. trichotillomania
D. kleptomania

C
The tendency to misconstrue stimuli as menacing or dangerous would be of most interest to

A. psychodynamic theorists
B. cognitive-behavioral theorists
C. humanistic theorists
D. psychoanalytic theorists

B
Which if the following is a characteristic of reactive attachment disorder?

A. It is independent of the quality of caregiving that the child receives
B.Children with reactive attachment disorder are less likely to have insecure attachment styles
C. Children with reactive attachment disorder experience a combination of chronic movement and vocal tics
D. It is placed among the trauma-and stressor-related disorders

D
According to the biological theories, phobias are essentially caused by

A. faulty assumptions regarding one’s skills and abilities
B. fear responses that are classically conditioned
C. anxiety produced by instinctually driven urges and unconscious wishes
D. a preparedness to fear things that threaten survival

D
Helping clients recognize the warning signs prior to the onset of a panic attack, so that they can take steps to relax, is an important component of which type of therapy?

A. biological
B. psychoanalytic
C. humanistic
D. behavioral

D
Which of the following of a person suffering from panic disorder is true?

A. The person becomes more prone to developing suicidal tendencies
B. The concentration of norepinephrine in the person’s blood decreases
C. The person has a heightened responsiveness to the presence of carbon dioxide in the blood
D. The person slowly becomes anemic

C
A woman who suffers from periods of intense fear and discomfort in which she feels overwhelmed and terrified by a range of bodily sensations may be diagnosed as having a(n)

A. panic disorder
B. generalized anxiety disorder
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. obsessive-compulsive personality

A
Raven is intensely anxious every time he has to sign his name in public. Assuming this anxiety is only manifested in public places, Raven might have a type of

A. specific phobia
B. social anxiety disorder
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. agoraphobia

B
When does anxiety become a source of clinical concern?

A. when it reaches a moderate level
B. when it reaches such an intense level that daily function becomes difficult
C. when the unconscious conflicts that produce it lead to troublesome dreams
D. when the person becomes unscathed by it

B
Which of the following is true?

A. Distinct from anxiety is fear, which is the emotion that people experience when confronted with a real or imagined threat
B. Anxiety disorders are the least prevalent of all psychological disorders
C. Men are 60% more likely than women to experience an anxiety disorder over the lifetime
D. Anxiety disorders are characterized by intense, irrational, and incapacitating aggression

A
Which form of psychotherapy has proven to be the most effective in the treatment of OCD?

A. humanistic therapy
B. psychoanalytic therapy
C. cognitive-behavioral therapy
D. person-centered therapy

C
Which form of psychotherapy has proven to be the most effective in the treatment of OCD?

A. humanistic therapy
B. psychoanalytic therapy
C. cognitive-behavioral therapy
D. person-centered therapy

C

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