question

1. The purpose of diet therapy for patients with dysphagia is to avoid a. sepsis. b. reflux. c. vomiting. d. aspiration.

answer

d

question

2. The three stages of swallowing are the _____ phases. a. early, middle, and late b. oral, laryngeal, and epiglottal c. bolus, pharyngeal, and posterior d. oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal

answer

d

question

3. If a patient has difficulty swallowing, the best position for meals is a. lying flat. b. sitting upright. c. lying on one side. d. leaning backward slightly.

answer

b

question

4. A nurse may suspect that a patient has difficulty swallowing if he or she a. requests frequent snacks between meals. b. coughs frequently before and after swallowing. c. prefers to drink using a straw rather than from an open cup. d. tends to gulp beverages and eat foods without adequate chewing.

answer

b

question

5. If it is left untreated, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) may lead to a. esophagitis. b. hiatal hernia. c. peptic ulcer disease. d. dumping syndrome.

answer

a

question

6. An example of a meal that is likely to relax the lower esophageal sphincter and allow gastroesophageal reflux is a. pasta with marinara sauce and sourdough bread. b. ham with rice pilaf. c. fried chicken and pasta salad. d. chicken and spinach tortilla wrap with spicy salsa.

answer

c

question

7. A patient has a higher risk of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) if they are a chronic user of a. certain antibiotics. b. laxatives and stool softeners. c. magnesium-aluminum antacids. d. nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.

answer

d

question

8. Nutrition therapy for peptic ulcers should be individualized, but most patients should a. eat a diet high in fiber. b. eat a diet low in fat. c. avoid sources of caffeine. d. drink several glasses of milk daily.

answer

c

question

9. Patients who have undergone total or partial gastrectomy may experience a. esophagitis. b. lactose intolerance. c. peptic ulcer disease. d. dumping syndrome.

answer

d

question

10. Nutrition therapy for dumping syndrome includes a. drinking thickened liquids and increasing protein intake. b. avoiding caffeinated beverages and decreasing fat intake. c. avoiding snacks between meals and increasing intake of high-calcium foods. d. drinking liquids between meals and limiting intake of simple carbohydrates.

answer

d

question

11. Patients with celiac disease should avoid foods that contain a. rice, soy, and peanuts. b. maize, corn, and flax. c. wheat, rye, and barley. d. rice, quinoa, and millet.

answer

c

question

12. An example of a meal that may contain gluten is a. baked chicken breast with rice. b. pork chop with sweet potatoes. c. grilled steak with baked potato. d. meatloaf with mashed potatoes.

answer

d

question

13. Individuals with lactose intolerance may tolerate foods that contain small amounts of lactose if they are a. consumed with other foods. b. well cooked rather than raw. c. consumed with foods that contain vitamin D. d. derived from goat's milk rather than cow's milk.

answer

a

question

14. Milk may be made suitable for patients with lactose intolerance by treating it with tablets that contain a. yogurt. b. lactase enzyme. c. vitamin D and calcium. d. Lactobacillus acidophilus.

answer

b

question

15. Major symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease include a. nausea and vomiting. b. constipation and flatulence. c. diarrhea and abdominal pain. d. weight gain and excessive thirst.

answer

c

question

16. The basic meal plan for patients with inflammatory bowel disease should be a. high protein, low fat. b. low kcal, high fat. c. high kcal, low protein. d. high kcal, high protein.

answer

d

question

17. Patients with inflammatory bowel disease may benefit from a high-fiber diet during a. acute episodes. b. times of remission. c. recovery from surgery. d. preparation for surgery.

answer

b

question

18. Fluid loss is most likely to be a problem for a patient with a. a colostomy. b. a hiatal hernia. c. an ileostomy. d. Crohn's disease.

answer

c

question

19. When the entire colon and rectum have been removed, the patient would have a. a colostomy. b. constipation. c. an ileostomy. d. dumping syndrome.

answer

c

question

20. As effluent progresses through the colon, it becomes more a. solid. b. liquid. c. acidic. d. alkaline.

answer

a

question

21. Short-bowel syndrome occurs in patients who have undergone removal of large portions of the a. colon. b. stomach. c. large intestine. d. small intestine.

answer

d

question

22. Patients with short bowel syndrome sometimes require parenteral nutrition support to achieve adequate intakes of nutrients and kcals. It is important for them to return to enteral feedings as soon as possible to prevent a. loss of sense of taste. b. loss of lean body mass. c. atrophy of the intestinal tract. d. essential fatty acid deficiency.

answer

c

question

23. Infection and inflammation of pouchlike protrusions from the muscular layer of the colon is known as a. diverticulitis. b. diverticulosis. c. Crohn's disease. d. inflammatory bowel disease.

answer

a

question

24. For patients with diverticulosis who are not experiencing active inflammation and infection, the recommended diet is a. pureed. b. low in fiber. c. high in fiber. d. high in protein.

answer

c

question

25. When consuming a high-fiber diet, it is important to also consume adequate amounts of a. fluid. b. calcium and iron. c. fat-soluble vitamins. d. complex carbohydrates.

answer

a

question

26. Gas in the colon may often be caused by a. consumption of carbonated beverages. b. swallowing air while eating or drinking. c. fermentation of foods by intestinal bacteria. d. passage of gas into the colon through the colon wall.

answer

c

question

27. A common dietary cause of constipation is a. megacolon or Hirschsprung's disease. b. inadequate intakes of dietary fiber and fluids. c. chronic intake of excessive amounts of caffeine. d. inadequate intakes of fruit and vegetable juices.

answer

b

question

28. An example of a high-fiber breakfast is a. bagel and cream cheese with juice. b. cornflakes with milk and sliced banana. c. scrambled eggs with biscuits and honey. d. oatmeal and whole-wheat toast with jam

answer

d

question

29. Chronic diarrhea is usually caused by a. foodborne pathogens. b. inadequate protein intake. c. intestinal irritation or malabsorption. d. excessive intake of dietary fiber.

answer

c

question

30. Treatment of diarrhea generally begins with a. a high-fiber, low-fat diet. b. removal of the cause of diarrhea. c. adequate fluids to hydrate the patient. d. a low-fat, low-fiber, or low-lactose diet.

answer

c

question

1. A common disorder in patients who abuse alcohol is a. diarrhea. b. fatty liver. c. cholecystitis. d. viral hepatitis.

answer

b

question

2. It is possible to reverse fatty infiltration of the liver by a. losing weight. b. reducing fat intake. c. increasing protein intake. d. removing the underlying cause.

answer

d

question

3. A type of hepatitis that is transmitted via the fecal-oral route is hepatitis a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D.

answer

a

question

4. A symptom that is common to all types of hepatitis is a. jaundice. b. headache. c. dehydration. d. muscle aches.

answer

a

question

5. The recommended diet for patients with hepatitis is a well-balanced diet with a. low protein content. b. supplemental electrolytes. c. no alcoholic beverages. d. limited amounts of alcohol.

answer

c

question

6. An individual may be at risk for hepatitis E if they travel to India and eat a. curried shrimp. b. fresh fruit salad. c. Tandoori chicken. d. cooked foods from street vendors.

answer

b

question

7. For patients with hepatitis, a significant barrier to maintaining an adequate intake of kcals is a. malabsorption. b. fat intolerance. c. loss of appetite. d. increased metabolic rate.

answer

c

question

8. In cirrhosis of the liver, liver cells a. decrease in number and increase in size. b. are displaced by growth of tumors. c. become disconnected because of breakdown of connective tissue. d. are replaced by accumulations of fibrous connective tissue and fat.

answer

d

question

9. A low-fiber, soft diet is recommended for patients with a. hepatitis A. b. cholelithiasis. c. esophageal varices. d. hepatic encephalopathy.

answer

c

question

10. Patients with ascites should restrict their intake of a. protein. b. sodium. c. dietary fiber. d. saturated fat.

answer

b

question

11. If a patient with cirrhosis of the liver becomes confused and apathetic, he or she may be developing a. fatty liver. b. hepatitis D. c. secondary depression. d. hepatic encephalopathy.

answer

d

question

12. Drugs that are used to treat hepatic encephalopathy include a. antidepressants. b. diuretics and steroids. c. neomycin and lactulose. d. laxatives and stool softeners.

answer

c

question

13. Someone who drinks one glass of wine every night with dinner plus an occasional beer when watching a football game would be considered to be a(n) a. alcoholic. b. light drinker. c. moderate drinker. d. heavy drinker.

answer

c

question

14. Moderate daily alcohol intake may help reduce risk of a. cancer. b. stroke. c. hypertension. d. heart disease.

answer

d

question

15. If a patient with cirrhosis of the liver seems to be vulnerable to development of hepatic encephalopathy, his or her diet may be supplemented with a formula that contains _____ acids. a. essential fatty b. essential amino c. aromatic amino d. branched-chain amino

answer

d

question

16. An adequate kcal intake is especially important for patients with cirrhosis of the liver to prevent a. muscle catabolism. b. development of ascites. c. essential fatty acid deficiency. d. loss of appetite and taste acuity.

answer

a

question

17. A patient with end-stage liver disease may lose fat stores and muscle mass, but this may not be evident from measurements of body weight because of a. dehydration. b. fat redistribution. c. ascites and edema. d. electrolyte imbalances.

answer

c

question

18. After liver transplantation, long-term nutrition management may need to be tailored to help prevent a. weight loss, anorexia, and nausea. b. ascites, edema, and electrolyte imbalances. c. cirrhosis, hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatic coma. d. excessive weight gain, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.

answer

d

question

19. An example of an individual who may be at high risk for gallstones is a(n) a. underweight woman who runs 3 miles four times a week. b. man who smokes and eats eggs for breakfast every day. c. overweight man who has recently begun an exercise program. d. mother with four children who has lost 25 pounds in the past 3 months.

answer

d

question

20. Cholecystitis is caused by a. blockage of the bile duct by gallstones, bacterial infection, or ischemia. b. concentration of bile in the gallbladder that favors formation of gallstones. c. failure of the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the small intestine. d. intake of excessive amounts of cholesterol and fat combined with bacterial infection.

answer

a

question

21. If a patient experiences chronic symptoms of cholelithiasis and cholecystitis, the recommended nutrition therapy is a. a low-fat diet. b. gradual weight loss. c. increased fluid intake. d. a low-cholesterol diet.

answer

a

question

22. After surgical removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy), long-term dietary recommendations are a. a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet. b. high protein and fluid intakes. c. a well-balanced diet with no other restrictions. d. small, frequent meals to ensure adequate intake.

answer

c

question

23. Pancreatitis results in a. excessive production of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate, causing duodenal ulcers. b. decreased production of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate, causing malabsorption of fats and proteins. c. increased production of pancreatic hormones, causing a decrease in blood glucose levels. d. decreased production of pancreatic hormones, causing an increase in blood glucose levels.

answer

b

question

24. During acute episodes of pancreatitis, patients often require a. a clear liquid diet. b. a high-protein diet. c. a high-fat, high-kcal diet. d. enteral or parenteral nutrition.

answer

d

question

25. When patients with pancreatitis are able to tolerate enteral feedings, the recommended formula is usually a _____ formula infused into the _____. a. low-fat elemental; jejunum. b. low-fat elemental; duodenum. c. high-kcal, high-protein; jejunum. d. high-kcal, high-protein; duodenum.

answer

a

question

26. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a. a genetic defect. b. cigarette smoking. c. bacterial infection. d. inadequate folate intake.

answer

a

question

27. Most patients with cystic fibrosis require a a. low-fat, low-energy diet and hormone replacement therapy. b. high-fiber diet, supplements of water-soluble vitamins, and diuretics. c. high-protein diet, sodium restriction, and supplements of fat-soluble vitamins. d. high-kcal diet, multivitamin supplements, and enzyme replacement therapy.

answer

d

question

28. One of the most important tools for coping with the reality of a serious chronic disease such as cystic fibrosis is a. having a sense of humor. b. avoiding talking about it. c. making friends only with others who have the same disease. d. making friends only with others who do not have the same disease.

answer

a

question

29. Infants with cystic fibrosis a. should be fed specially designed infant formulas. b. should receive vitamin and mineral supplements. c. may be breastfed with use of enzyme replacement therapy. d. should delay introduction of weaning foods if they are underweight.

answer

c

question

30. A bottle of beer that contains 13 g of carbohydrates and 16 g of alcohol provides _____ kcals. a. 116 b. 155 c. 164 d. 203

answer

c

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