Test#1 – Microbiology – Flashcards

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question

 Serological testing is based on which principle?

answer

Serological (immunologic) tests are based on antibodies specifically binding to an antigen

question

How are Ab-Ag reactions measured?

answer

Must be visible or measurable - visible by clumps, precipitates, color changes or release of radioactivity

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What substance are you testing if you are testing for the antibody?

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The patient’s serum
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What about when you are testing for the antigen?

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An isolated colony or swab from the patient that contains antigen

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What is specificity?  

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Reacts only with the certain ab or ag that it is testing for
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What is sensitivity?
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able to react with a very small amount of ab or ag 

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What are some types of immunologic assays?

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Agglutination tests; Precipitation reactions; Immunoelectrophoresis; Complement fixation; Fluorescent antibody tests; Immunoassay tests

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A urine pregnancy test is which type of test?

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Latex aggultination - latex particles that are coated with the antigen 

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What type of sample is used for testing in the RPR, cold agglutinin, and Weil-Felix test?

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The patient’s serum – testing for antibodies

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What is the difference between agglutination and precipitation?

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The size, solubility and location of the antigen – agglutination=whole cells (RBCs) or bacteria; precipitation=the antigen is soluble.  Both will form a insoluble aggregate

 

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What is the tube agglutination test used for?

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Determining how many antibodies are in a patients serum – a titer

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What is being testing in precipitation testing?

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Patient’s serum for antibodies
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How is precipitation testing performed?
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Usually performed in an agar gel medium; Ouchterlony method is a double diffusion method – Ag and Ab are placed in wells in the agar; Antigen and antibody diffuse toward each other, forming a line of precipitate on contact

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What are some examples of precipitation tests?

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VDRL, oucherlony method, immunoelectrophoresis, western blot

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What is complement fixation testing for? 

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Can be testing for the antigen or the antibody

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What is the visible result if the Ab-Ag complex is present?

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There will be NO hemolysis of the sheep RBCs

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How is the test interpreted if lysis does occur?

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As a negative response – no immune complexes were formed

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How is the presence of an immune complex visualized in the fluorescent antibody test?

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a monoclonal antibody labeled by a fluorescent dye and interacts with antigens and antibodies

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What is the difference between direct and indirect testing with fluorescent antibody testing?

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Direct=testing for antigen; indirect=testing for antibody

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Give an example of each type (direct & indirect).

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Direct – syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, pertussis, plague; indirect - FTA-ABS

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What types of tests are RIA and ELISA tests?

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Immunoassays - Extremely sensitive testing that permits rapid and accurate measurement of trace antigens or antibodies

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What is principle of Radioimmunoassay (RIA)?

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RIA - Ags or Abs are labeled with radioactive isotopes and measured

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What is the principle of Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent assay (ELISA)?

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ELISA - A positive result is visualized when a colored product is released by an enzyme-substrate reaction (Ab or Ag)

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Give examples of ELISA testing.

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Antibody testing for HIV, Hep A & C, cholera, helicobacter, and rickettsia; antigen testing - useful for measuring nanogram (ng) amounts of hormones, drugs, and serum proteins

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Which test is useful in following HIV patients?

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Specific testing for CD4 and CD8 t-cells

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Which test is an example of in vivo testing?

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TB skin testing - PPD

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Which types of cocci bacteria are the most clinically important?

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Staph, strep and neisseria.

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Which are gram positive and gram negative?

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Staph and strep; neisseria 

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What test will differentiate staph species from streptococcus species?  Which one is positive?

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Catalase – staph is catalase positive

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What species appears as gram + cocci in chains?  Gram + cocci in clusters?

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Streptococcus

 

staphylococcus

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 Why are cocci called pyogenic?

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They produce pus

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 What substance aids S. aureus in tissue destruction?

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Hemolysins – most alpha

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Where is S aureus isolated from in patients who are carriers of the organism?

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Anterior nasal pharynx (nares)

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What are some local diseases that are caused by S. aureus?  Systemic?  Toxic diseases?

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Localized – abscess, folliculitis, furuncle, carbuncle, impetigo

Systemic – osteomyelitis, pneumonia, meningitis, bacteremia

Toxigenic disease – food poisoning, scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome

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You have a 2 y/o patient with yellow blisters and some erythema on his arm – what is the DX and the bacterial agent?

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Bullous impetigo – S. aureus 

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 What substance is responsible for food poisoning from S aureus?

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Enterotoxins

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What substance is responsible for a painful bright red rash occurs over the entire body then causes desquamation of the epidermis?

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Exfoliative toxin

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 Which species of staphylococcus can cause wound infections?

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S. aureus, S. epidermidis, S. hominis, S capitis 

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Which species of staphylococcus can cause UTI’s especially in sexually active adolescent females?

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S. Saprophyticus 

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Are penicillins effective against staph infections?  Why?

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No – they produce penicillinase 

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 What is a common initial presentation of MRSA? 

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“spider bite” or small pimple type lesion

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 What types of classification systems are used for streptococcus species?

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Lancefield and the hemolysis reaction on blood agar

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Which species are Beta hemolyic?  

 

Alpha hemolytic?

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A,B,C,G & some D strains;


S. pneumoniae  and the viridans group

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Which strep species causes the most serious disease?  Why?

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Group A (S. pyogenes) – enzymes and toxins

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What are some diseases caused by strep Gp A?

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Pharyngitis, scarlet fever, impetigo, erysipalis, necrotizing fasciitis, pneumonia, rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis 

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Why is Gp B streptococcus medically significant?

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May cause premature delivery of the fetus and neonatal septicemia, meningitis and pneumonia

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Why is the viridans group of bacteria medically significant?

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May cause subacute bacterial endocarditis 

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What is the most common pathogen of bacterial pneumonia?  What else is it commonly seen in?

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S. pneumoniae; otitis media

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What is unique about the structure of S. pneumoniae?

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Several strains form capsules providing virulence

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Are there vaccines available for S. pneumoniae?  Which ones?

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The capsular vaccine is for older patients and the new conjugate vaccine is for children.

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Describe the gram stain results from the discharge in a patient with gonorrhea.

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Intracellular gram negative diplococci 

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What other disease commonly occurs with gonorrhea?

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Chlamydia 

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 What is a serious disease seen in neonates born to moms with gonorrhea?  How is it prevented?

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ophthalmia neonatorum – antibiotic eye drops given at birth to all babies

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What is meningococcus?  Why is it medically significant?

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N. Meningitis – epidemic bacterial meningitis - very rapid onset; endotoxin causes hemorrhage and shock; can be fatal quickly. 

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A 45 y/o male is complaining of fevers/chills, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain.  On exam, he has crackles/rales in his LLL.  What is the most likely bacterial pathogen?

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S. Pneumoniae 

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What type of skin lesions may be seen with bacterial meningitis?  Why does it occur?

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Endotoxin causes vascular collapse, hemorrhage, clotting disorders and visible petechiae on the body.

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Which species of bacteria form endospores?

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Bacillus spp and Clostridium spp 

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What is the causative agent of anthrax?  

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Bacillus anthracis 

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What form of anthrax is most common and the least pathogenic?

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Cutaneous anthrax

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Describe a lesion of cutaneous anthrax.

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Starts as a papule that becomes necrotic which ruptures and becomes a painless black eschar 

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What is the major pathogenicity of pulmonary anthrax?

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Exotoxins that produce toxemia which results in capillary thrombosis and cardiovascular shock.  Death can occur in a few hours.

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How is it treated?  Is there a vaccine?

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Treated with penicillin or tetracycline which is effective against the bacteria however does not resolve the effects of the toxins. Vaccine – purified toxoid given in 6 injections over 1.5 years with annual boosters

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What are the 2 forms of illness seen with B. cereus?

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Emetic form and diarrheal form

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What is the causative agent of gas gangrene?  What type of environment is needed for optimal growth?

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C. Perfringens 

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What causes the RBC rupture, edema & tissue destruction seen in gas gangrene?

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Alpha toxin

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How can it be prevented?

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rigorous cleansing of wounds, decubitus ulcers and surgical sites

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What is the causative agent of antibiotic-associated colitis that is a major cause of diarrhea in hospitals?
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C. Difficile 

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How does it occur and what is the pathophysiology of the disease?
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Treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics kills the other bacteria, allowing C. difficile to overgrow - Produces entertoxins that damage intestine – necrosis of the intestinal mucosa

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What is the causative agent of tetanus?  What toxin is responsible for the disease?
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Clostridium tetani ; Tetanospasmin 

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What causes the muscle spasms?
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Tetanospasmin stops the inhibition of contractions resulting in uncontrollable severe muscle contractions

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How is tetanus treated?  Is there a vaccine?

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Antitoxin – tetanus immune globulin (TIG); PCN or TCN and removing infected tissue; Vaccine – 5 doses during infancy/childhood with boosters every 10 years

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What is the causative agent of botulism?  What 3 diseases are caused by this agent?

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Clostridium botulinum – food poisoning, infant botulism, wound botulism

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What is the most potent microbial toxin known?  How does it cause disease?

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Botulin - prevents the release of acetylcholine preventing muscle contraction – death occurs from respiratory compromise

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Is there a vaccine for botulism?

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No vaccine available

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What types of patients are most susceptible to Listeria monocytogenes?

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immunocompromised patients, fetuses (mother infected and passes through the placenta harming fetus) & neonates

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What is the causative agent of erysipeloid?

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Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae 

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What is the causative agent of diphtheria?
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Corynebacterium diptheriae 

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What physical exam findings may be seen with diphtheria?

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sore throat, enlarged lymph nodes and severe swelling of the neck – Pseudomembrane of the oropharynx 

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What is the causative agent of acne?


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Propionibacterium acnes
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The Mycobacteria species have which type of staining properties? 

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acid fast staining
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 Which Mycobacteria species causes TB?  Leprosy?  Pneumonia in HIV patients?

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Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium leprae, Mycobacterium avuim-M. intracellular complex

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If a patient is exposed to TB, what is the likelihood that he will get the disease?

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Only 5% infected people develop clinical disease – generally humans are resistant to TB

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 Which organs may be affected by TB?

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Majority of cases (85%) are pulmonary but can occur in any organ of the body

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What type of lung lesions may be seen in TB?

 

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Tubercles, caseous lesions, cavitations, calcified lesions, tiny to small nodules
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What is secondary TB?

 

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Reactivation of bacilli - patient experiences more severe symptoms - Violent coughing, greenish or bloody sputum, fever, anorexia, weight loss, fatigue
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What is the screening test for TB?  What are some other tests?

 

 

answer

tuberculin skin testing, Chest x-rays, Direct identification of acid-fast bacilli in specimen, Laboratory cultural isolation

 

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What are some contraindications to PPD testing?

 

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previous + reactions, history of BCG vaccine

 

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Is the PPD test reliable in all patients?

 

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No, false negatives occur in patients who lack t-cells
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 Which medications are used for the treatment of TB?  Is there a vaccine?


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Rifater (isoniazid (INH), rifampin, pyrazinamide) is considered the best combination to cure the disease and prevent further resistance.  Yes, but not completely effective
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 How is M. Leprae cultured?  What are the 2 forms of the disease?  Which is worse?

 

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It has never been grown in the lab – unable to be cultured; Tuberculoid and Lepromatous; Lepromatous 
question

Which areas of the body are more prone to disfiguring lesions of leprosy?

 

answer
Cooler areas like the nose, chin, brows, 
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What type of neurological symptoms are seen in leprosy?

 

answer
Nerve damage leads to wasting of muscles – drop foot and claw hands.  Sensory nerve damage leads to trauma and loss of fingers and toes.
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 What causative agent is involved with a complication of tooth extractions, necrotizing lung disease, peritonitis after trauma, ulcers and appendicitis?


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Actinomyces species
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What causative agent is causes a lung disease very similar to TB?


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Nocardia Species
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Which gram negative bacilli are aerobic?  Which of those are opportunistic pathogens?

 

answer
Species, Brucella Species, Francisella Species, Bordetella Species, Alcaligenes Species; pseudomonas and Alcaligenes 
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What are some of the diseases caused by pseudomonas species?  Is it easy to treat?

 

answer
Otitis externa, hot tub folliculitis, pneumonia, UTI, abscesses, otitis, corneal disease, Endocarditis, meningitis – mostly as an opportunistic pathogen – not easy to treat
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What is the causative agent of undulant fever?  How is it contracted?


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Brucella Species; zoonotic disease from infected animals
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What is the causative agent of tularemia?


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Francisella tularensis 
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What is the causative agent of pertussis?  What are the 2 phases of the disease? 


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Bordetella pertussis; catarrhal and paroxysmal 
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Why is the incidence of pertussis increasing?

 

answer
Decreased number of people getting immunized
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What is the causative agent of Legionnaires disease & Pontiac fever?  What is a common reservoir for this agent?


answer
Legionella pneumophila - artificial aquatic environments like a water cooler or air conditioning systems
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What are some of the clinical features of Legionnaires disease?

 

answer
Fever, cough, diarrhea, abdominal pain, pneumonia fatality rate of 3-30%
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Which bacterial species are considered enteric pathogens?  Do they cause disease in the GI tract?


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E.coliklebsiellaproteusenterobacterserratia and citrobacter – usually pathogenic in other systems not the GI tract (opportunistic)
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What is a coliform?  Non-coliform?

 

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Coliforms are gram neg bacteria that ferment lactose
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 Which strain of E.coli causes hemorrhagic syndrome & permanent kidney damage?


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E. coli O157:H7 strain
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What are some diseases caused by E.coli?

 

answer

traveler’s diarrhea, UTIs, neonatal meningitis, pneumonia, septicimia and wound infections

 
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Which coliform causes pneumonia and produces a red pigment?


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Serratia marcescens 
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Which non-coliform lactose-negative enterics are true pathogens?


answer
Salmonella & Shigella 
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What is the causative agent of typhoid fever?


answer
Salmonella typhi 
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Which part of the GI tract is affected by salmonella species?  Shigella species?

 

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Small intestines, large intestines
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What is the causative agent of dysentery?

 

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Shigella species
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What is the causative agent of plague?  What is the most common vector for plague?

 

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Yersinia pestis - fleas
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What the 3 types of plague?  Is there treatment available?  Vaccine available?


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Bubonic, pneumonic, septicemic; 95% survival rate with antibiotic Tx; Killed or attenuated vaccine available but only lasts for a few months


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What pathogen is implicated in animal bites?


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Pasteurella multocida
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What is the common causative agent of acute bacterial meningitis, epiglottitis, otitis media, sinusitis, pneumonia, & bronchitis?


answer
Hemophilus influenzae 
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What is the causative agent in bacterial conjunctivitis?


answer
Hemophilus aegyptius 
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What is the causative agent of chancroid?
answer

                                                               ·      Hemophilus ducreyi

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Which species are spirochetes?
answer

Treponema, Leptospira, Borrelia

1. Treponema had 8-20 evenly spacced coils

Lives in the oral cavity, intestinal tract and perigenital regions of humans and animals, strict parasites that can only be cultivated in live cells

2. Leptospira has numerous fine, regular coils and one or both ends curved

3. Borrelia has 3-10 loose irregular coils

 

 

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What is the causative agent of syphilis?
answer

T. Pallidum

Other pallidum subspecies cause yaws and non-vernereal endemic syphilis

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What is the hallmark of primary syphilis? 
answer
Primary:Non-tender chancre; non-tender shallow crater with firm margins, lymphadenopathy is a comon finding and resolves spontaneously within 3 to 6 weeks 
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Can syphilis cross the placenta?
answer

Yes

A common characteristic of late congenital syphilis is notched, barrel shaped incisros 

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What are some tests used to diagnose syphilis?
answer

RPR, VDRL, FTA-Abs, dark field microscopy

screening are RPR and VDRL; confirm with FTA-Abs

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What is the tx for syphilis?
answer

high doses of penicillin

parental PCN G is the drug of choice in all stages

question
Secondary syphilis? 
answer

                                                               ·       generalized lymphadenopathy and rash; flu like symptoms

                                                               ·      About 6 weeks after chancre heals, 2ndary signs will appear, fever, headache, sore throat, generalized lymphadenopathy and a red/brown rash (doesn’t hurt or itch) on the palms and soles, lesions also have spirochetes present; can affect bones, hair follicles, joints, liver, eyes and brain

question
Tertiarty syphilis?
answer

neurological symptoms and gummas

tender tumor that can be errosive gumma apears on the nose of the pts 

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      What is unusual about the rash of secondary syphilis? 

answer

It can affect the hands and feet and spirochetes are in lesions

It can also be painful or itchy

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     What other symptoms may be present?

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HA, fevers, sore throat, lymphadenopathy
question

    How long can the latency period of syphilis be?

answer
Very long-even 20 years
question
What is a gumma?
answer
Tumors of tertiary syphilis that affect many organs, may be erosive
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What is argyll-robertson pupil?
answer
Sign of tertiary syphilis-pupil reacts better to accomodation that reaction to light 
question
What is the causative agent of leptospirosis? 
answer

Leptospira interrogans

Bacteria shed in urine; infection occurs by contact (not human to human); targets kidneys, liver, brain, eyes 50-60 cases a year in US

Early tx with Penicillin or tetracycline reduces symptoms, vaccine for livesotck workers and military personnel 

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How is leptospirosis contracted?
answer
zoonotic disease from livestock
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What are s/sx of leptosirosis?
answer
suddne high fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, conjunctivitis, petechial rash and vomitting 
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Secondary syphilis rash
answer
the sking rash in secondary syphilis can form on the trunk, arms and even palms and soles. The rash does not hury or itch and can persist for months
question
What is the causative agent of relapsing fever?
answer
borrelia hermsii
question
Why is it called relapsing fever and what are other sx?
answer

an antigenic change occurs and a new immune response occurs causing a fever a few days later

2-15 day incubation; parasite changes and immune system tries to control it

Other sx: high fever, shaking, chills, headache & fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle aches, abdominal pain; extensive damage to lover, spleen, heart kidneys and cranial nerves

question

What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?

 

What is the vector?

answer

Borrelia burgdorferi

non-fatal, slowly progressive syndrime that mimics neuromuscular and rheumatoid conditions

 

vectos is blacklegged (or deer) ticks

question
Describe the rash that often occurs with Lyme disease. 
answer
bull's eye rash (erythema migrans)
question
Other sx and tx of Lyme disease?
answer

Fever, headache, stiff neck ; dizziness with ccardiac damage, neurological s/x and polyarthritis

Tx: tetracycline or amoxicillin;

question
What is the causative agent of cholera?
answer

Vibrio cholerae

a gram negative rod, comma shaped that possess unique O and H Ags

question
How serious is cholera?
answer
Top 7 causes of morbidity and mortality
question
How is cholera contracted?
answer

Ingested with food or water

infects surface of small intesting, non-invasive, cholera toxin causes electrolyte and water loss through secretory diarrhea (rice water stool) resulting dehydration leads to muscle, circulatory and neurological sx

question
Most significant sx of cholera?
answer
rice water stools
question
Tx of cholera?
answer

Oral rehydration and tetracycline

vaccines are available

question
What are the causative agents of gastroenteritis from eating raw seafood and oysters?
answer

Vibrio vulnificus and Vibrio parahaemolyticus

1. vibrio parahaemolyticus-gastroenteritis from raw seafood, shrimp, tuna, squid, crabs and others

2. Vibrio vulnificus-gastroenteritis from raw oysters, poor outcome in patients with diabetes or lover disease

question
What causes the symptoms related to C. jejuni?;
answer

Heat-liable enterotoxin CJT, one of most common from poultry

C, jejuni is an important cause of bacterial gastroenteritis, incubation period is 1-7 days; it is tranmsitted by food and beverages; once it reaches the muscosa at the ileum near the colon it adheres and burrows through the mucous to multiply

question
What are the symptoms of C. jejuni?
answer
headaches, fever, abdominal pain, bloody or watery diarrhea;
question

What bacterial agent causes 90% of stomach and duodenal ulcers?

;

How is it contracted?

answer

H. pylori

Also a factor in gastric adenocarcinomas; natural of human stomach (resistant to gastric acid)

;

Probbly transmitted from person to person

question
Which type of patients are the most at risk of developing gastritis or ulcers from H. pylori?
answer

Patients with type O blood and patients who take NSAIDS chronically;

Produces a large amount of urease which can be measured by a urea breath test;

question

How is H. pylori diagnosed?;

;

Tx?

answer

biopsy, breath test or antibody test of serum

;

Tx: triple therapy provides a 95% cure rate-Proton pump inhibitor/ranitidine+amoxicillin+clarithomycin;

question
What is unique about the rash caused by Rickettsia species?
answer
vasculitis, vascular leakage ; thrombosis-the lesions will blanch with pressure
question
What is the causative agent of RMSF?
answer

Rickettsia rickettsii

Dog and wood ticks are principal vectors

Ticks are infected from a mammalian reservoir during a blood meal

TRansovarial passage of Rickettsia rickettsii to tick eggs serves as a continual source of infection within the tick population

A tick attaches to a human, embeds its head in the sking, feeds and shreds rickettsias into the bite

Systemic involvement includes severe headache, fever, rash, coma and vascualr damage such as blood clots and hemorrhage;

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Where do most Lyme disease cases occur in the US?
answer

Southeast and on eastern seaboard not often in the West

;

question
What is the causative agent of Q-fever?
answer

Coxiella burnetti

an intracellular parasite that produces an unusal resistant spore

Harbored by a wide assortment of vertebrates and arthropods especially ticks

Transmitted by air, dust unpasteurized milk and ticks;

question
What is unique about Coxiella burnetti?
answer
produces unique endospores that are released when the cell disintergrates;
question

What is cat-scratch fever?

;

What is the causative agent?

;

What are the symptoms?

answer

lymphatic infection associated with a clawing injury by cats

Batonella henselae

a small gram negative fastidious, not obligate parasites and ca nbe cultured on a blood agar

Starts as a small patch of papules then progresses to tender lymph nodes

question
What are the 2 stages of chlamydia lifecycle?
answer

Elementry body and reticulate body

Elementry body-smallmetabolically inactive, extracellular, infectious form

Reticulate body-grows with host cell vacuoles, differentiate into elementry bodies

question
What test is used to differentiate staph aureus from other staph species?;
answer
question
What is immunoelectrophoresis used for?
answer
used to detect disorders in the production of antibodies;
question
What is the western blot test used for?;
answer
confirmation of HIV antibodies in ap patient-can be used for other antibody and antigen testing;
question
What type of testing is utilized with ABO blood grouping? What substances are being tested?;
answer
agglutination; antisera combined with patient's RBCs 
question
Antigen-Antibody Reactions 
answer

Primary basis of the immunologic testing is the binding of antigens with specific antibodies

The tests must involve some type of visible endpoint.

Visible agglutination or precipitation

Dry, fluroescent reagents and radioactive isotopes are also used

May also be read as a titer using dilutions of serum and observing the rxn at the lowest concentration 

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