Microbiology Test 2 Chaps 8,9,11-13 – Flashcards
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| Ch8q1 Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called: A)Decarboxylases B)Phosphotransfereases C)Oxidoreductases D)Kinases E)Aminotransferases |
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| Answer: C)Oxidoreductases |
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| Ch8q2 During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is BLANK; while during anaerobic respiration it might be BLANK A)H2O; CO2 B)O2; NO3- C)O2; CO2 D)CO2; NO3- E)NO3-; CO2 |
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| Answer: B)O2; NO3- |
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| Ch8q3 Exergonic reactions A)All of these answers are correct B)Include synthesis of large carbohydrates C)Occur during aerobic cellular respiration D)Do not occur during anaerobic cellular respiration E)Only occur in heterotrophs |
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| Answer: C)Occur during aerobic cellular respiration |
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| Ch8q4 Each of the following are electron carriers except A)NAD B)NADP C)FADP D)FAD E)Coenzyme A |
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| Answer: C)FADP |
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| Ch8q5 Substrate level phosphorylation occurs in A)Photosynthesis and Glycolysis B)Glycolysis, photosynthesis, Krebs Cycle, and the Electron Transport Chain C)Krebs Cycle and Electron Transport Chain D)Glycolysis and the Krebs Cycle E)Glycolysis and the Electron Transport Chain |
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| Answer: D)Glycolysis and the Krebs Cycle |
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| Ch8q6 In bacteria the electron transport system is located in the A)Mitochondria B)Cytoplasm C)Ribosomes D)Cell membrane E)Chloroplast |
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| Answer: D)Cell membrane |
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| Ch8q7 During which phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formedA)Glycolysis B)All phases produce equal amounts of ATP C)Electron Transport Chain D)Krebs Cycle |
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| Answer: C)Electron Transport Chain |
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| Ch8q8 Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to BLANK ATP, which each FADH2 from the Kreb's cycle that enters the electron transport system gives rise to BLANK ATP. A)20;15 B)5;2 C)32;4 D)4;2 E)3;2 |
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| Answer: E)3;2 |
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| Ch8q9 Which chemical causes death in many eukaryotes by blocking the action of cytochrome C oxidaseA)Carbon monoxide B)Oxygen C)Cyanide D)Iron E)Copper |
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| Answer: C)Cyanide |
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| Ch8q10 The property of organisms to integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called A)Osmosis B)Amphibolism C)Anabolism D)Catabolism E)Biosynthesis |
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| Answer: B)Amphibolism |
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| L8q1 What type of chemical reaction is illustrated with a man pushing a boulder over a hill with a stickA)Exergonic B)Endergonic C)Spontaneous D)Anabolic |
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| Answer: A)Exergonic - The products have less energy than the reactants |
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| L8q2 What is the process of making ATP directly from the degradation of phosphoenolpyruate calledADP + Pi + PEP -->Pyruvate + ATP A)Oxidative phosphorylation B)Oxidative decarboxylation C)Photophosphorylation D)Substrate level phosphorylation |
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| Answer: D)Substrate level phosphorylation - ATP is being produced from a high-energy substrate |
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| L8q3 How many net ATP are formed in glycolysisA)One B)Two C)Three D)Four |
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| Answer: B)Two. Four total less the two consumed |
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| L8q4 Which of these is the best electron acceptorA)Oxygen B)Nitrate C)Pyruvate D)NAD |
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| Answer: A)Oxygen - Oxygen is one of the most electrophilic elements |
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| L8q5 Where does aerobic respiration occur in a yeastA)Nucleus B)Cell membrane C)Mitochondria D)Cytoplasm |
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| Answer: C)Mitochondria. Yeast, being eukaryotes, perform aerobic respiration in their mitochondria (begins in the cytoplasm). |
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| Ch9q1 Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only Eukaryotes have A)Elongated, linear (not circular) chromosomes B)Several to many chromosomes C)Chromosomes in a nucleus D)Histone proteins E)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above are correct |
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| Ch9q2 Each (BLANK) is a specific segment of DNA which contains the information for the production of one functional product or information for the regulation of a cellular function A)Intron B)Gene C)Operator D)Histone E)Codon |
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| Answer: B)Gene |
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| Ch9q3 The visible expression of genetic traits is the (BLANK), while the actual genetic content is the (BLANK) A)Genotype; Phenotype B)Phenotype; Genotype C)Mutation; Phenotype D)Phenotype; Transformation E)Genotype; Mutation |
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| Answer: B)Phenotype; Genotype |
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| Ch9q4 The duplication of a cell's DNA is called: A)Translation B)Transcription C)Mutation D)Replication E)Mitosis |
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| Answer: D)Replication |
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| Ch9q5 The enzymes that can proofread DNA while replicating it, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them are: A)DNA helicases B)DNA ligases C)Histones D)DNA polymerases E)DNA gyrases |
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| Answer: D)DNA polymerases |
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| Ch9q6 A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a/an: A)Mutation B)Transcription C)Phenotype D)Transposon E)Codon |
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| Answer: A)Mutation |
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| Ch9q7 A sequence of bases within a gene that does NOT code for amino acid sequences is called a/an: A)intron B)silent codon C)operon D)inducer E)exon |
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| Answer: A)intron |
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| Ch9q8 If the wild type sequence reads: Wild Type - THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT Specify the types of mutations that produced the following: Mutant 1 - THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T Mutant 2 - THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT Mutant 3 - THE CAT ATE (stop) A)insertion; deletion; insertion B)nonsense; deletion; missense C)Deletion; insertion; nonsense D)Insertion; missense; nonsense E)Insertion; nonsense; missense |
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| Answer: D)Insertion; missense; nonsense |
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| Ch9q9 A screening system called the (BLANK) test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential. A)Cancer B)Transposon C)Iowa D)Kock E)Ames |
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| Answer: E)Ames |
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| Ch9q10 The transfer of DNA fragements from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is called: A)Specialized Transduction B)Generalized Transduction C)Mitosis D)Transformation E)Conjugation |
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| Answer: D)Transformation |
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| Ch9q11 In a double-stranded DNA (dsDNA), which of the following pairs with AdenineA)Uracil B)Guanine C)Cytosine D)Thymine E)Adenine |
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| Answer: D)Thymine |
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| Ch9q12 You are a molecular geneticist studying a certain strain of Bacillus cereus. After isolating its DNA you determine that Guanine makes up 22% of the total DNA. What % of the total DNA is ThymineA)22% B)24% C)25% D)28% E)This can not be determined from the information given |
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| Answer: D)28% |
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| Ch9q13 Which of the following occurs during transcriptionA)DNA is replicated B)RNA is used as a template to make a new DNA molecule C)RNA is read to produce a sequence of amino acids D)DNA is changed to protein E)DNA is copied to produce an mRNA molecule |
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| Answer: E)DNA is copied to produce an mRNA molecule |
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| Ch9q14 During Translation... A)DNA is replicated B)RNA is read to produce a DNA molecule C)DNA is copied to produce an mRNA molecule D)mRNA is read to produce a sequence of amino acids E)DNA is changed to protein |
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| Answer: D)mRNA is read to produce a sequence of amino acids |
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| Ch9q15 Which of the following is NOT a product of (a molecule produced during) transcriptionA)rRNA B)mRNA C)tRNA D)Protein |
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| Answer: D)Protein |
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| Ch9q16 A mutation that changes a Cytosine to a Thymine is an example of: A)A deletion B)A tautomer C)A transversion D)An insertion E)A transition |
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| Answer: E)A transition |
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| Ch9q17 Which of the following occurs in the cytosol in prokaryotes and in the nucleus in EukaryotesA) Translation B)Transcription C)Both transcription and translation D)Replication E)Both transcription and replication |
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| Answer: E)Both transcription and replication |
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| Ch9q18 An anticodon is: A) I have no idea B) A set of three amino acids C) A set of three nucleotides in a mRNA molecule D) The sequence of a mRNA molecule E) A set of three nucleotides in a tRNA molecule |
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| Answer: E) A set of three nucleotides in a tRNA molecule |
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| Ch9q19 Which of the following is correct about DNA replicationA)Produces two dsDNA molecules B)Uses mRNA as a template C)Produces a string of amino acids D)Uses sequences of three nucleotides on mRNA E)Produces a ssRNA molecule |
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| Answer: A)produces two dsDNA molecules |
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| Ch9q20 Which of the following is NOT one of the three forms of genetic recombination in bacteria discussed in this chapterA)Transformation B)Transduction C)Conjugation D)Replication |
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| Answer: D)Replication |
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| L9q1 Colstridium tetani DNA is 14% G. What percent of its DNA is AA)14% B)28% C)36% D)86% |
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| Answer: C)36%; G=C so 14+14=28% A=T=72%/2=36% |
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| L9q2 Which of the following is NOT a pyrimidineA)Cytosine B)Thymine C)Adenine D)Uracil |
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| Answer: C)Adenine; Adenine and Guanine are purines |
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| L9q3 DNA replication is semi-conservative because each strand of the original (BLANK) DNA molecule will become half of the (BLANK) molecules. A)RNA; DNA B)template; finished C)codon; anticodon D)finished; template |
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| Answer: B)template; finished - The template strand will become 1/2 of one of the final finished DNA molecules |
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| L9q4 The process of Translation results directly in the formation of which of the followingA)Ribosome B)mRNA C)Protein D)New DNA molecules |
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| Answer: C)Protein - Translation is the process where the information in a mRNA molecule is used to produce a protein. |
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| L9q5 What is the term for the DNA sequence that is bound by regulatory proteins in bacteriaA)Operon B)Promoter C)Exon D)Operator |
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| Answer: D)Operator - operator sequences are bound by activator or repressor proteins |
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| L9q6 What type of mutation is thisATG(Met) --> ATC (Ile) A)Missense B)Nonsense C)Silent |
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| Answer: A)Missense - the meaning of the codon has been changed. |
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| L9q7 In what form of a horizontal gene transfer does the donor cell surviveA)Generalized transduction B)Specialized transduction C)Conjugation D)Transformation |
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| Answer: C)Conjugation - both the donor and recipient become F+ after conjugation directed by the F plasmid |
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| Ch11q1 What is term goes with the definitionA)Removing vegetative life forms from inanimate objects B)Removing vegetative life forms from living surfaces C)Removal of ALL life forms from inanimate objects D)Cleansing method that mechanically removes microbes and other debris to reduce contamination BANK: Antisepsis Disinfection Sanitation Sterilization |
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| Answers: A)Disinfection B)Antisepsis C)Sterilization D)Sanitation |
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| Ch11q2 Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterilityA)Germicide B)Bactericide C)Virucide D)Fungicide E)Sporicide |
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| Answer: E)Sporicide |
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| Ch11q3 The shortest time to kill all microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is (BLANK); while the lowest temperature needed to kill all microbes in 10 minutes is the (BLANK) A)Thermal death time (TDT); Thermal death point (TDP) B)Thermal death point (TDP); Thermal death time (TDT) C)Sporicidal time; Thermal death point (TDP) D)Death point phase (DPP); Sporicidal time |
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| Answer: A)Thermal death time (TDT); Thermal death point (TDP) |
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| Ch11q4 Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, cider, milk, and wine is optimally achieved by: A)Pasteurization B)Boiling water C)Moist heat autoclave D)Filtration E)Chlorination |
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| Answer: A)Pasteurization |
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| Ch11q5 (BLANK) heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to (BLANK) heat. A)High, low B)High, dry C)Moist, high D)Dry, moist E)Moist, dry |
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| Answer: B)High, dry E)Moist, dry |
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| Ch11q6 Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called (BLANK) will remain preserved and viable for years. A)Desiccation B)Flash freeze C)Sterilization D)Pasteurization E)Lyophilization |
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| Answer: E)Lyophilization |
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| Ch11q7 Which of the following are typically irradiated in order to kill microbesA)Cured meats B)Human tissues such as heart valves and skin C)Operating room air D)surgical gloves E)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above are correct |
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| Ch11q8 The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for wound degerming, neonatal washes, hand scrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is: A)Hexachlorophene B)Glutaraldehyde C)Carbolic acid D)Formalin E)Chlorhexidine |
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| Answer: A)Hexachlorophene |
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| Ch11q9 Alcohols... A)Denature proteins when in a 50-95% alcohol/water solution B)Disinfect items soaked in alcohol C)Are skin degerming agents D)At 50% or higher concentrations (but below 100%) dissolve cell membrane lipids E)All of the above choices are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above choices are correct |
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| Ch11q10 Hydrogen peroxide is... A)Sporicidal B)Fungicidal C)Bactericidal D)Virucidal E)All of the above choices are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above choices are correct |
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| L13q1 We do not derive much of a direct benefit from the normal microbiota of our skin. What sort of relationship do we have with these microbesA)Mutualistic B)Commensalistic C)Parasitic D)Pathogenic |
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| Answer: B)Commensalistic - the microbes benefit, we do not care |
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| L13q2 What type of microbes colonize first in breast-fed infantsA)Clostridium B)Bifidobacterium C)Escherichia D)Vibrio |
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| Answer: B)Bifidobacterium - the Bifidobacteria are considered to be helpful microbes |
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| L13q3 Which of the following is a protozoan colonizer of the human ColonA)E. Coli B)Candida Albicans C)Entamoeba coli D)Lactobacillus sp. |
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| Answer: C)Entamoeba coli |
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| L13q4 What type sort of agent is a flea when it transmits bubonic plague to you by biting you on the ankleA)Biological vector B)Mechanical vector C)Vehicle D)Fomite |
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| Answer: A)Biological vector - this is an example of a biological vector, the flea is infected |
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| L13q5 The LPS portion of the gram negative outer membrane can function as which of the followingA)Exo-Enzyme B)Mechanical vector C)Endotoxin D)Exotoxin |
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| Answer: C)Endotoxin - this is an example of an Endotoxin |
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| L13q6 What term refers to the time when the first symptoms of a microbial infection appearA)Exposure B)Convalescense C)Incubation D)Prodromal |
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| Answer: D)Prodromal - The prodromal period is when symptoms first appear |
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| L13q7 What term refers to the rapid increase in the incidence of a disease in a localized geographical regionA)Endemic B)Pandemic C)Sporatic D)Epidemic |
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| Answer: D)Epidemic - This is the definition of an epidemic |
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| Ch12aQ1 The first commercially available (naturally produced) antibiotic was A)Protonsil / Sulfonamide B)Bactrin C)Penicillin D)Erythromycin |
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| Answer: C)Penicillin |
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| Ch12aQ2 Who discovered penicillinA)Dr. Tim Trott B)Louis Pasteur C)Howard Florey D)Edward Jenner E)Alexander Flemming |
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| Answer: E)Alexander Flemming |
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| Ch12aQ3 The use of chemicals to treat disease is the broad definition for (BLANK) while the use of chemical treatments to treat an infectious disease is most appropriately (BLANK) A)Degerming; Antisepsis B)Chemotherapy; Antimicrobial chemotherapy C)Chemotherapy; Nursing care D)Antibiotic therapy; Chemotherapy |
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| Answer: B)Chemotherapy; Antimicrobial chemotherapy |
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| Ch12aQ4 Which of the following would be most effective against gram+, gram-, and other forms of bacteriaA)Narrow spectrum antibiotics B)Antagonistic therapies C)Synergistic drugs D)Broad spectrum antibiotics |
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| Answer: D)Broad spectrum antibiotics |
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| Ch12aQ5 Sulfa drugs are Bacteriocidal in action A)True B)False |
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| Answer: B)False - they are bacteriostatic in action |
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| Ch12aQ6 The (BLANK) agent is the cause of the disease state/infection A)antagonistic B)etiologic C)synergistic D)pathogenic |
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| Answer: B)etiologic |
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| Ch12aQ7 Examine the image provided. The numbers below each tube indicate the ug/ml of the antimicrobial compound present in each. According to this data, what is the MIC[image] A)0 ug/ml B)2 ug/ml C)4 ug/ml D)8 ug/ml E)16 ug/ml F)32 ug/ml G)This can not be determined given the data provided |
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| Answer: D) 8 ug/ml |
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| Ch12aQ8 What is shown in the image[image] A)Tube dilution test of MIC B)Synergistic drug interactions C)Antagonistic drug interactions D)A slant culture E)Kirby Bauer Disk SusceptibilityDiffusion Test |
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| Answer: E)Kirby Bauer Disk Susceptibility/Diffusion Test |
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| Ch12aQ9 Injecting a patient with IV antibiotics is an example of A)Improper use of antibiotics B)Oral administration C)Parenteral route administration D)Resistance prevention |
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| Answer: C)Parenteral route administration |
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| Ch12aQ10 When two drugs given in conjunction with one another have increased effectiveness, this phenomenon is called (BLANK) A)Antibiotic therapy B)Kirby Bauer Disk Susceptibility Test C)Drug antagonism D)MIC E)Drug synergism |
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| Answer: C)Drug antagonism or E)Drug Synergism |
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| Ch12bQ1 Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they most directly inhibit... A)Phospholipid synthesis B)Folic acid synthesis C)Cell wall synthesis D)DNA/RNA synthesis E)Protein synthesis |
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| Answer: B)Folic acid synthesis |
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| Ch12bQ2 Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are most specifically called A)Non-competitive inhibitors B)Blockers C)Competitive inhibitors D)Uncompetitive inhibitors E)Inhibitors |
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| Answer: C)Competitive inhibitors |
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| Ch12bQ3 Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosisA)Isoniazid B)Synercid C)Vancomycin D)Penicillin G E)Tetracycline |
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| Answer: A)Isoniazid |
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| Ch12bQ4 Culvanic acid A)Inhibits formation of the peptidoglycan across linkages B)Inhibits B-lactamase activity C)Inhibits protein synthesis D)Inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis E)Inhibits membrane synthesis |
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| Answer: B)Inhibits B-lactamase activity |
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| Ch12bQ5 The major source of naturally produced penicillin is in the mold A)Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used B)Penicillium chrysogenum C)Penicillium notatum D)Penicillin familiaris |
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| Answer: B)Penicillium chrysogenum |
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| Ch12bQ6 Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infectionsA)Clindamycin B)Azithromycin C)Synercid D)Linezolid E)Clarithromycin |
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| Answer: D)Linezolid |
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| Ch12bQ7 Which group are the key drugs used to treat Hansen's disease (leprosy)A)Fluoroquinolones B)Penicillins C)Polymyxins D)Sulfones E)Sulfonamides |
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| Answer: D)Sulfones |
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| Ch12bQ8 The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is A)Metronidazole B)Sulfa drugs C)Nystatin D)Griseofulvin E)Amphotericin B |
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| Answer: E)Amphotericin B |
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| Ch12bQ9 Mebendazole, thiabendazole, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat (BLANK) infections A)Fungal B)Helminthic C)Gram - D)Viral E)Protozoan |
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| Answer: B)Helminthic |
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| Ch12bQ10 There are fewer antifungal, anti-protozoan, and anti-helminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths... A)are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult B)are parasites found inside human cells C)because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria D)do not cause many human infections E)are not affected by antimicrobials |
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| Answer: A)are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult |
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| Ch13Q1 Normal biota of humans include each of the following except: A)Bacteria B)Fungi C)Protozoans D)Viruses E)All of the above are normal biota of humans, thus this is the correct answer(none of the above) |
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| Answer: E)All of the above are normal biota of humans, thus this is the correct answer(none of the above) |
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| Ch13Q2 An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called(BLANK); while and infectious agent already present on or in the body is called(BLANK). A)Endogenous; exogenous B)Zoonosis; endogenous C)Axenic; zoonosis D)Exogenous; endogenous E)Exotoxin; endotoxin |
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| Answer: D)Exogenous; endogenous |
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| Ch13Q3 Which of the following is NOT a method of adhesion by microorganisms during the infection processA)Cilia B)Fimbriae C)Surface proteins D)Specialized receptors E)Adhesive slime layer or capsules |
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| Answer: A)Cilia |
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| Ch13Q4 What do the following terms mean: A) -itis B) -osis C) -emia |
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| Answers: A) -itis = an inflammation B) -0sis = a disease or morbid process C) -emia = blood |
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| Ch13Q5 Define the following terms: A)Period of invasion B)Incubation period C)Prodromal stage D)Convalescent stage |
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| Answers: A)Period of invasion = Stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity B)Incubation period = The time from when a pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear C)Prodromal stage = The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches D)Convalescent stage = Symptoms begin to decline, and patient's strength returns |
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| Ch13Q6 The subjective evidence of a disease sensed by a patient is termed a(n)(BLANK); while the objective, measurable evidence of a disease evaluated by an observer is termed a(n)(BLANK). A)Symptom; Sign B)Syndrome; Sign C)Sign; Symptom D)Sign; Pathology E)Symptom; Syndrome |
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| Answer: A)Symptom; Sign |
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| Ch13Q7 A(BLANK)is the presence of a small numbers of (not necessarily dividing) bacteria in the blood. A)Malaise B)Zoonosis C)Bacteremia D)Septicemia E)Viremia |
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| Answer: C)Bacteremia |
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| Ch13Q8 A(BLANK) is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans. A)Zoonosis B)Sequelae C)secondary infection D)chronic E)nosocomial infection |
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| Answer: A)Zoonosis |
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| Ch13Q9 Define the following terms: A)Epidemiology B)Incidence C)Endemic D)Mortality E)Morbidity |
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| Answers: A)Epidemiology = The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population B)Incidence = The number of new cases in a population in a specific period of time C)Endemic = A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geological location D)Mortality = The total number of deaths in a population due to an illness E)Morbidity = The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease |
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| Ch13Q10 Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botulinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a(n): A)Toxemia B)Pendemic C)Hemolysin D)Bacteremia E)Intoxication |
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| Answer: E)Intoxication |
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| L13Q1 We do not derive much of a direct benefit from the normal microbiota of our skin. What sort of relationship do we have with these microbesA)Mutualistic B)Commensalistic C)Parasitic D)Pathogenic |
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| Answer: B)Commensalistic - the microbes benefit, we do not care |
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| L13Q2 What type of microbes colonize first in breast-fed infantsA)Clostridium B)Bifidobacterium C)Escherichia D)Vibrio |
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| Answer: B)Bifidobacterium - they are considered to be helpful microbes |
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| L13Q3 Which of the following is a protozoan colonizer of the human colonA)E. Coli B)Candida Albicans C)Entamoeba coli D)Lactobacillus sp. |
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| Answer: C)Entamoeba coli |
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| L13Q4 What type/sort of agent is a flea when it transmits bubonic plague to you by biting you on the ankleA)Biological vector B)Mechanical vector C)Vehicle D)Fomite |
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| Answer: A)Biological vector - this is an example of a biological vector, the flea is infected |
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| L13Q5 The LPS portion of the gram negative outer membrane can function as which of the following: A)Exo-enzyme B)Mechanical vector C)Endotoxin D)Exotoxin |
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| Answer: C)Endotoxin |
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| L13Q6 What term refers to the time when the first symptoms of a microbial infection appearA)Exposure B)Convalescence C)Incubation D)Prodromal |
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| Answer: D)Prodromal - this is the period when symptoms first appear. |
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| L13Q7 What term refers to the rapid increase in the incidence of a disease in a localized geographical regionA)Endemic B)Pandemic C)Sporatic D)Epidemic |
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| Answer: D)Epidemic |
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| L13Q8 Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial infectionA)Urinary tract infection after catheterization B)Intestinal infection after camping C)STD following sexual activity D)Staphyloccal colonization during childbirth |
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| Answer: A)Urinary tract infection after catheterization - it is acquired in the hospital |
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| Name the purines of DNA |
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| Adenine & Guanine |
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| Name the Pyrimidines of DNA |
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| Thymine & Cytosine |
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| INFORMATION: 1)DNA is TRANSCRIBED to mRNA 2)mRNA is TRANSLATED to amino acids 3)Transfer of DNA from a dead to a living, competent recipient cell which results in a changed recipient cell is TRANSFORMATION |
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