question

Which of the following is the classification for a living organism that lacks a nucleus and other membrane-bound structures(a) organelle
(b) eukaryote
(c) spirochete
(d) prokaryote
(e) plasmid

answer

(d) prokaryote

question

Bacteria which have a spherical or ovoid shape are called ______.
(a) bacilli
(b) coccobacilli
(c) fusiform bacilli
(d) spirilla
(e) cocci

answer

(e) cocci

question

_______ are spiral bacteria that are flexible and undulating.
(a) fusiform bacilli
(b) spirilla
(c) streptobacilli
(d) spirochetes
(e) pleomorphic

answer

(d) spirochetes

question

Which of the following does not include a multicellular arrangment seen with spherical bacteria(a) streptococcus
(b) streptobacillus
(c) tetrad
(d) staphyloccocus
(e) diplococcus

answer

(b) streptobacillus

question

A patient has been diagnosed with the sexually transmitted disease gonorrhea. Which of the following would be seen microscopically when examining the patient's sample(a) streptococci
(b) diplococci
(c) coccobacilli
(d) tetrads
(e) staphylococci

answer

(b) diplococci

question

An outbreak of food poising occurs at a family picnic after the growth of Staphylococcus aureus in unrefrigerated potato salad left sitting in the hot sun for several hours. Microscopic examination of the potato salad reveals ________.
(a) long chains of cocci
(b) diplococci
(c) tetrads
(d) clusters of cocci
(e) spirilla

answer

(d) clusters of cocci

question

Which of the following is not an example of a basic dye and is repelled by capsules(a) methylene blue
(b) nigrosin
(c) safranin
(d) crystal violet
(e) carbolfuchsin

answer

(b) nigrosin

question

The _______ is not an example of a differential stain.
(a) endospore stain
(b) Gram stain
(c) acid-fast stain
(d) simple stain
(e) flagella stain

answer

(d) simple stain

question

A(n) _______ is used for the purpose of viewing the shape and arrangement of bacteria and employs a single basic dye.
(a) simple stain
(b) endospore stain
(c) negative stain
(d) acid-fast stain
(e) differential stain

answer

(a) simple stain

question

The majority of bacteria are either ______ or ________.
(a) Gram-positive; Gram-variable
(b) Gram -negative; Gram-variable
(c) Gram-positive; Gram-negative
(d) Gram-negative; Gram-nonreactive
(e) Gram-variable; Gram-nonreactive

answer

(c) Gram-positive; Gram-negative

question

_______ bacteria lose their crystal violet when the decolorizer alcohol is added during the Gram stain procedure.
(a) Gram-negative
(b) Gram-positive
(c) Gram-intensive
(d) Gram-dormant

answer

(a) Gram-negative

question

In the Gram stain, ____ is used as a mordant to stabilize crystal violet in ____ cells.
(a) alcohol; Gram-positive
(b) alcohol; Gram-negative
(c) iodine; Gram-positive
(d) iodine; Gram-negative
(e) safrinin; Gram-nonreactive

answer

(c) iodine; Gram-positive

question

Which of the following explains why it is necessary to use safrinin in the Gram stain
Which of the following explains why it is necessary to use safranin in the Gram stain(a) Gram-positive bacteria do not have a strong affinity for crystal violet, but do bind well to safranin.
(b) Gram-negative bacteria are rendered colorless after the decolorizer is added, and need to be counterstained to be visible under the microscope.
(c) Safranin is the mordant needed to set the crystal violet color and make it permanent.
(d) Gram-variable cells do not bind to crystal violet and need to be counterstained to be visible under the microscope.
(e) None of the above are true.

answer

(b) Gram-negative bacteria are rendered colorless after the decolorizer is added, and need to be counterstained to be visible under the microscope.

question

What is the function of a flagellum(a) escape from host defenses
(b) motility
(c) resistance to antibiotics
(d) resistance of disinfectants
(e) endospore formation

answer

(b) motility

question

Flagella are very difficult to observe microscopically because _____.
(a) they are very thin
(b) they resist basic dyes
(c) they resist acidic dyes
(d) they do not adhere to glass slides

answer

(a) they are very thin

question

Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false. If the answer is false, explain why.
(a) Bacteria which have a capsule are able to resist host defense mechanisms.
(b) To view a flagellum under a conventional microscope, it is necessary to coat it with layers of dye or metals.
(c) Acid-fast bacteria stain equally well with the acid-fast stain and the Gram stain.
(d) Only bacteria containing mycolic acid in their cell wall are acid-fast.
(e) The decolorizer in the acid-fast stain is alcohol.

answer

Choice (c) is false: acid-fast bacteria stain ineffectively, if at all, with the Gram stain.
Choice (e) is false: the decolorizer in the acid-fast stain is acid.

question

An appropriate stain for a sputum sample from a patient with tuberculosis is the _____ stain.
(a) Gram
(b) flagella
(c) acid-fast
(d) endospore
(e) negative

answer

(c) acid-fast

question

Which of the following leads to an increase in the susceptibility to infection(a) malnutrition
(b) poverty
(c) crowded housing conditions
(d) unsanitary conditions
(e) all of the above

answer

(e) all of the above

question

Which of the following is a mismatched pair(a) primary pathogen; disease in uncompromised host
(b) pathogenicity islands; virulence gene clusters
(c) environmental surveillance; quorum sensing
(d) aggregated assemblies of bacteria; biofilm
(e) opportunistic; mutually beneficial to host and microorganism

answer

(e) opportunistic; mutually beneficial to host and microorganism

question

Organisms that exploit a host’s decreased resistance to infection and cause disease are referred to as _____.
(a) auto-inducers
(b) opportunists
(c) primary pathogens
(d) mutualistic pathogens
(e) quorum sensors

answer

(b) opportunists

question

A successful infection by a pathogen requires that _____. (Select all that apply.)
(a) the pathogen is able to multiply
(b) the host’s immune defenses are never compromised
(c) the pathogen is transmissible to new hosts
(d) a mutualistic association between host and pathogen forms
(e) biofilms must form at the site of infection

answer

(a) the pathogen is able to multiply
(c) the pathogen is transmissible to new hosts

question

Clusters of genes encoding virulence factors are known as _____.
(a) plasmids
(b) pathogenicity islands
(c) quorum clusters
(d) adherence factors
(e) inducing genes

answer

(b) pathogenicity islands

question

Mobile genetic elements that sometimes carry pathogenicity islands are known as _____.
(a) virulence chromosomes
(b) biofilms
(c) plasmids
(d) opportunistic elements
(e) proteasomes

answer

(c) plasmids

question

All of the following are present in prokaryotic cells except ____.
(a) peptidoglycan
(b) cilia
(c) capsules
(d) pili
(e) plasmids

answer

(b) cilia

question

All of the following are present in eukaryotic cells except _____.
(a) slime layer
(b) plasmids
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) cholesterol
(e) 80S ribosomes

answer

(a) slime layer

question

_____ are membrane-bound components found in eukaryotic cells.
(a) microtubules
(b) flagella
(c) intermediate filaments
(d) ribosomes
(e) peroxisomes

answer

(e) peroxisomes

question

Which of the following is not associated with the eukaryotic plasma membrane(a) peptidoglycan
(b) proteins
(c) phospholipids
(d) cholesterol
(e) cytoskeletal microfilaments

answer

(a) peptidoglycan

question

When an antibiotic targets a pathogen-specific component, it carries out _____.
(a) receptor-mediated endocytosis
(b) ubiquitylation
(c) inhibition of a biochemical function that is unique to the pathogen
(d) quorum sensing

answer

(c) inhibition of a biochemical function that is unique to the pathogen

question

Which of the following describes the correct pathway used by eukaryotic cells for the synthesis of proteins transported out of the cell(a) endoplasmic reticulum ightarrow ribosomes ightarrow Golgi apparatus ightarrow plasma membrane
(b) plasma membrane ightarrow ribosomes ightarrow Golgi apparatus ightarrow endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Golgi apparatus ightarrow ribosomes ightarrow endoplasmic reticulum ightarrow plasma membrane
(d) ribosomes ightarrow endoplasmic reticulum ightarrow Golgi apparatus ightarrow plasma membrane

answer

(d) ribosomes ightarrow endoplasmic reticulum ightarrow Golgi apparatus ightarrow plasma membrane

question

Endoplasmic reticulum that is not bound by ribosomes is called _____.
(a) Golgi apparatus
(b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(c) a peroxisome
(d) a biofilm
(e) rough endoplasmic reticulum

answer

(b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

question

Lysosomes are produced in the _____.
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) nucleus
(d) plasma membrane
(e) proteasome

answer

(b) Golgi apparatus

question

Which of the following is a mismatched pair(a) peroxisomes; fatty acid degradation
(b) nucleus; DNA and RNA synthesis
(c) nucleolus; ribosomal RNA synthesis
(d) proteasome; protein synthesis
(e) mitochondria; ATP synthesis

answer

(d) proteasome; protein synthesis

question

The properties a pathogen possesses that permit establishment and the evasion of host defenses are called _____.
(a) portals of entry
(b) parenteral characteristics
(c) transmissibility factors
(d) virulence factors
(e) adhesion factors

answer

(d) virulence factors

question

Locations where pathogens gain access to a host are referred to as _____.
(a) access routes
(b) establishment routes
(c) portals of entry
(d) biofilm sites
(e) adhesions

answer

(c) portals of entry

question

Which of the following diseases is not likely to have been acquired through a mucous-membrane-associated port of entry(a) tetanus
(b) tuberculosis
(c) gonorrhea
(d) chickenpox
(e) cholera

answer

(a) tetanus

question

Which of the following common pathogens is mismatched with the disease it causes(a) Bordetella pertussis; whooping cough
(b) Clostridium perfringens; tetanus
(c) Vibrio cholerae; cholera
(d) Plasmodium falciparum; malaria
(e) Treponema pallidum; syphilis

answer

(b) Clostridium perfringens; tetanus

question

Which of the following is not a location where mucous membranes are found(a) lungs
(b) esophagus
(c) urinary bladder
(d) pancreas
(e) vagina

answer

(d) pancreas

question

The respiratory tract is a portal of entry for material derived from _____. (Select all that apply.)
(a) dust particles
(b) ingested food
(c) airborne moisture droplets
(d) sexual contact
(e) insect bites

answer

(a) dust particles
(c) airborne moisture droplets

question

Which of the following is not associated with the portal of entry referred to as the parenteral route(a) contaminated needles used by drug users
(b) transmission of malaria by mosquitoes
(c) fecal–oral route of contamination
(d) tick-derived Lyme disease
(e) blood products used by hemophiliacs

answer

(c) fecal–oral route of contamination

question

The fecal–oral route of contamination refers to the situation where infectious pathogens exit from the host through the ___ and enter another host through the ___.
(a) anus; skin
(b) respiratory tract; gastrointestinal tract
(c) genitourinary tract; gastrointestinal tract
(d) anus; mouth
(e) gastrointestinal tract; genitourinary tract

answer

(d) anus; mouth

question

Urinary tract infections are more prevalent in women than in men because _____.
(a) women use tampons
(b) of the closer proximity of the anus to the urethra
(c) women prefer bathing to showering
(d) the microflora of women is different from the microflora of men

answer

(b) of the closer proximity of the anus to the urethra

question

An infection in an abrasion affecting only the epidermis of the skin is unlikely to spread systemically to other sites because _____.
(a) the microenvironment of the epidermis is unfavorable for microbial growth
(b) the dermis beneath secretes antimicrobial substances that contain the infection
(c) there is no availability of blood in this layer of the skin
(d) there is availability of blood in this layer of the skin

answer

(c) there is no availability of blood in this layer of the skin

question

_____ are used by many pathogens to assist with anchoring them to host tissue.
(a) adhesins
(b) pellicles
(c) leukocidins
(d) hyaluronidase
(e) invasins

answer

(a) adhesins

question

A(n) _____ is a thick film of protein secreted by mucous membranes in the mouth that coats your teeth and provides a substrate for Staphylococcus mutans to adhere and begin the formation of a slime layer.
(a) biofilm
(b) adhesion
(c) extracellular matrix
(d) pellicle

answer

(d) pellicle

question

Infectious dose 50% (ID50) refers to the number of organisms required _____.
(a) to kill 50% of the hosts
(b) to induce the expression of virulence genes
(c) for 50% of exposed individuals to show signs of infection
(d) to outnumber the number of antibodies produced and establish an infection

answer

(c) for 50% of exposed individuals to show signs of infection

question

Which of the following pathogens are virulent only if encapsulated(a) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(b) Bacillus anthracis
(c) Yersinia pestis
(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(e) all of the above

answer

(e) all of the above

question

To phagocytose encapsulated bacteria, the host produces _____.
(a) antibiotics
(b) antibodies
(c) pseudopodia
(d) defensins
(e) adhesins

answer

(b) antibodies

question

_____ is the process by which phagocytic cells adhere to and ingest antibody-coated or complement-coated bacteria.
(a) resolution
(b) pinocytosis
(c) phagocytosis
(d) opsonization
(e) binary fission

answer

(d) opsonization

question

Which of the following is incorrect regarding M proteins of Streptococcus pyogenes(a) found in capsule
(b) contribute to virulence
(c) increase adherence to host cells
(d) provide protection from heat
(e) resist acidic environments
(f) inhibit phagocytosis
(g) involved in toxic shock

answer

(a) found in capsule

question

M protein and mycolic acid are _____.
(a) the same thing with different names
(b) part of the cell wall
(c) produced by the host as defensive molecules
(d) made by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(e) inducers of phagocytosis

answer

(b) part of the cell wall

question

_____ made by bacteria destroys red and white blood cells in the host.
(a) coagulase
(b) hyaluronidase
(c) leukocidin
(d) collagenase
(e) hemolysin

answer

(e) hemolysin

question

Connective tissue in the host is compromised by the production of _____ by bacteria.
(a) streptokinase
(b) capsules
(c) hyaluronidase
(d) M protein
(e) leukocidins

answer

(c) hyaluronidase

question

_____ enhances fibrin blood clots, whereas _____ breaks them down.
(a) hemolysin; leukocidin
(b) coagulase; streptokinase
(c) hyaluronidase; collagenase
(d) coagulase; collagenase
(e) endotoxin; exotoxin

answer

(b) coagulase; streptokinase

question

The location where infectious organisms can multiply and accumulate is referred to as the _____.
(a) vehicle
(b) vector
(c) superinfection site
(d) reservoir
(e) portal of exit

answer

(d) reservoir

question

An individual who seems healthy but infects others with disease-causing pathogens is known as a _____.
(a) vector
(b) carrier
(c) propagator
(d) common source
(e) transient transmitter

answer

(b) carrier

question

A disease that is transferred from animals to humans is called _____, with _____ serving as an example.
(a) fomite-derived; malaria
(b) zoonotic; typhoid fever
(c) vector-derived; anthrax
(d) opportunistic; methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
(e) zoonotic; bubonic plague

answer

(e) zoonotic; bubonic plague

question

Which of the following zoonotic diseases is not transmitted by a tick bite? (Select all that apply.)
(a) bubonic plague
(b) relapsing fever
(c) typhus
(d) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
(e) Lyme disease

answer

(a) bubonic plague
(c) typhus

question

Which of the following is a virus transmitted by animals and not humans(a) human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
(b) Hanta virus
(c) measles virus
(d) hepatitis B virus

answer

(b) Hanta virus

question

Tetanus, caused by Clostridium tetani, is acquired through which of the following reservoirs(a) food
(b) water
(c) ticks
(d) soil
(e) air

answer

(d) soil

question

Contact transmission may occur indirectly when a nonliving intermediate called a _____ is involved.
(a) vector
(b) fomite
(c) droplet
(e) zoonotic agent

answer

(b) fomite

question

Which of the following is not an example of contact transmission(a) A housefly transfers pathogens from cow manure to the conjunctiva of a human host.
(b) HIV is transmitted from a contaminated needle.
(c) Influenza is acquired by breathing in airborne droplets.
(d) A college student acquires mononucleosis after kissing someone infected with Epstein–Barr virus.

answer

(a) A housefly transfers pathogens from cow manure to the conjunctiva of a human host.

question

A factor that affects the disease transmission process is _____. (Select all that apply.)
(a) occupational exposure
(b) sexual promiscuity
(c) climate change
(d) sex
(e) age of the host

answer

(a) occupational exposure
(b) sexual promiscuity
(c) climate change
(d) sex
(e) age of the host

question

Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false. If the answer is false, explain why.
(a) Males and females are just as likely to acquire urinary tract infections.
(b) Neutropenia refers to a type of anemia in which red blood cell numbers are lower than normal.
(c) Patients with neutropenia are more susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections.
(d) Cytotoxic chemotherapy used to treat tumors is selectively toxic for tumor cells.
(e) Overuse of antibiotics in organ-transplant patients leads to superinfections.
(f) It is possible for a bacterium to be part of the normal flora in one anatomical location and pathogenic in a different anatomical location.
(g) Poor sanitation of sewage can lead to the presence of fecal microorganisms in water used for drinking and cooking, causing fecal–oral contamination.

answer

Choice (a) is false: females are more likely than males to acquire urinary tract infections.

Choice (b) is false: neutropenia is a condition in which the number of neutrophils is lower than normal. Choice (d) is false: cytotoxic chemotherapy affects all dividing cells, including neutrophils leading to compromised immunity.

question

Chemical with activities similar to antibiotics that are made by normal bacterial flora are called _____.
(a) super-antibiotics
(b) opportunistic inhibitors
(c) bacteriocins
(d) flora

answer

(c) bacteriocins

question

Infections with _____ are particularly problematic in burn patients.
(a) HIV
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Clostridium tetani
(d) Borrelia burgdorferi
(e) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

answer

(e) Pseudomonas aeroginosa

question

Infections acquired in clinical settings are known as _____ infections.
(a) super
(b) nosocomial
(c) opportunist
(d) multi-drug resistant
(e) ubiquitous

answer

(b) nosocomial

question

The most common anatomical site for a hospital-borne infection is _____.
(a) surgical wounds
(b) the respiratory tract
(c) the urinary tract
(d) the gastrointestinal tract
(e) the skin

answer

(c) the urinary tract

question

The number of new cases of a particular disease contracted within a defined population in a specified period is referred to as the _____ of the disease.
(a) prevalence
(b) nosocomial index
(c) common source
(d) morbidity rate
(e) incidence

answer

(e) incidence

question

Guidelines referred to as _____ are used in patient care to ensure that proper procedures are carried out for the handling of bodily fluids.
(a) patient charter
(b) universal precautions
(c) surveillance measures
(d) biohazard control regulations

answer

(b) universal precautions

question

The total number of people affected by a disease at any given time is the _____ of that disease.
(a) prevalence
(b) incidence
(c) morbidity rate
(d) mortality rate

answer

(a) prevalence

question

The term _____ refers to diseases that persist in a population at low levels.
(a) epidemic
(b) prevalent disease
(c) endemic disease
(d) sporadic disease

answer

(c) endemic disease

question

If the incidence of a disease rises sharply above normally expected levels, then a(n) _____ has occurred.
(a) superinfection
(b) sporadic outbreak
(c) index case
(d) epidemic
(e) opportunistic outbreak

answer

(d) epidemic

question

What is the term used to describe diseases that rise sharply on a global scale(a) global outbreak
(b) pandemic
(c) epidemic
(d) prospective disease
(e) international emergency

answer

(b) pandemic

question

An epidemic arising from a shared, contaminated water supply is a _____.
(a) pandemic
(b) propagated epidemic
(c) common-source outbreak
(d) sporadic outbreak

answer

(c) common-source outbreak

question

Epidemiological studies that sometimes identify the index case are known as _____ epidemiological studies.
(a) descriptive
(b) retrospective
(c) prospective
(d) analytical
(e) common-source

answer

(a) descriptive

question

Control groups are required when performing _____ studies.
(a) descriptive epidemiological
(b) universal precaution
(c) superinfection
(d) nosocomial
(e) analytical epidemiological

answer

(e) analytical epidemiological

question

Diseases that health care workers must report to the Centers for Disease Control are known as _____ diseases.
(a) incidental
(b) nationally notifiable
(c) endemic
(d) propagated
(e) common-source

answer

(b) nationally notifiable

Micro Test 2 Answers – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Haven't found what you were looking for?

Search for samples, answers to your questions and flashcards