MICRO Final LCC – Flashcards
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| 1. A threadlike DNA molecule is known as a: a) gene. b) chromosome. c) genome. d) supercoil. |
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| B chromosome. |
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| 2. A permanent alteration in a DNA sequence is known as a/an: a) mutation. b) transcription. c) allele. d) transduction. |
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| A mutation. |
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| 3. The process of duplicating the DNA molecule is known as: a) replication. b) transcription. c) translation. d) transformation. |
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| A replication |
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| 4. Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template is called: a) replication. b) transcription. c) translation. d) transformation. |
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| B transcription. |
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| 5. Synthesis of a protein molecule from information encoded in RNA is called: a) replication. b) transcription. c) translation. d) transformation. |
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| C translation. |
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| 6. The particular RNA which encoded a protein sequence is known as: a) transfer RNA b) ribosomal RNA c) nuclear RNA d) messenger RNA |
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| D messenger RNA |
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| 7. The point at which DNA strands unwind and separate to allow new strand synthesis is called the: a) DNA polymerase b) promoter c) replication fork d) ribosome |
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| C replication fork |
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| 8. The two strands of DNA as it replicates are know as the: a) leaping and jumping strands b) leading and lagging strands c) leading and following strands d) leaping and hopping strands |
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| B leading and lagging strands |
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| 9 Plasmids contain genetic information essential for the survival of the organism T/F |
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| F |
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| 10. Discontinuous DNA fragments may be joined by DNA ligase enzyme T/F |
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| T |
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| 11. The last codon on a messenger RNA molecule is called the stop codon. T/F |
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| T |
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| 12. Transfer RNA molecules have fatty acids attached to them. T/F |
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| F |
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| 13. Enzymes that are continuously synthesized within a cell are called constitutive enzymes T/F |
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| T |
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| 14. Mutations that change one base pair to another are called frameshift mutations. T/F |
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| F |
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| 1. A linear sequence of DNA nucleotides which provides the genetic information for a single characteristic is a A) chromosome B) plasmid C) gene D) base pair |
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| C gene |
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| 3. A plasmid is a/an: A) extrachromosomal piece of DNA B) chromosomal site to which genetic activity can be traced C) body found in the cytoplasm that directs protein synthesis D) molecule that carries the genetic message of the chromosomal DNA |
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| A extrachromosomal piece of DNA |
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| 7. Replication results in the formation of what type of new moleculeA) DNA B) RNA C) Protein D) lipid |
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| A DNA |
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| 8. Transcription results in the formation of what type of new moleculeA) DNA B) RNA C) Protein D) lipid |
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| B RNA |
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| 9. The process of ________ results in the synthesis of a new protein. A) replication B) transcription C) translation D) transversion |
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| C translation |
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| 10. Reverse transcription occurs when A) RNA is used as a template to produce DNA B) DNA is used as a template to produce RNA C) Protein is used as a template to produce RNA D) RNA is used as a template to produce protein |
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| A RNA is used as a template to produce DNA |
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| 11. Reverse transcription takes place A) only in fungi B) in some viruses C) in all bacteria D) in some bacteria |
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| B in some viruses |
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| 12. Which statement is trueA) proofreading that occurs during transcription changes the RNA into DNA B) translation is a less accurate process than transcription C) reverse transcription is a less accurate process than regular transcription D) errors in replication can be proofread during transcription |
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| C reverse transcription is a less accurate process than regular |
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| 14. Bacterial genomes A) have rarely been sequenced as it takes a very long time B) only contain adenine, uracil, cytosine and guanine C) contain all the information for the structure and functioning of a cell D) when sequenced 100% of the genes are with known cellular function |
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| C contain all the information for the structure and functioning of a cell |
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| 15. Bacterial chromosomes A) must be present for bacteria to stay alive and reproduce B) are small segments of DNA that have the ability to move from one position to another C) contain genetic information that is helpful but not necessary for survival D) are always circular and only one is present in each bacteria |
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| A must be present for bacteria to stay alive and reproduce |
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| 16. During replication, DNA is synthesized by A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) ribosomes D) ribozymes |
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| A DNA polymerase |
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| 17. During DNA replication A) the leading strand is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction B) the leading strand is synthesized discontinuously C) the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction D) both strands are synthesized discontinuously |
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| C the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction |
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| 18. Okazaki fragments make up A) part of the small ribosomal subunit B) part of the tRNA C) part of the lagging strand of newly synthesized DNA D) part of the mRNA |
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| C part of the lagging strand of newly synthesized DNA |
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| 19. After DNA replication of a bacterial chromosome, the new DNA contains A) 2 newly synthesized strands of DNA copied from the original parent strands B) one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand C) small segments of parent DNA interspersed with newly synthesized segments of DNA D) two of the above |
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| B one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand |
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| 20. Which of the following statements is trueA) during DNA replication the leading strand serves as a template for replication of the lagging strand B) fragments on the lagging strand are joined together by ligase C) a bacterial chromosome is made up of individual units called Okazaki fragments D) two strands of a double helix combine by base pairing in a parallel fashion |
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| B fragments on the lagging strand are joined together by ligase |
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| 21. Messenger RNA A) is formed in the 3' to 5' direction B) is found only in prokaryotes C) contains uracil instead of thymine D) is synthesized using the enzyme ligase |
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| C contains uracil instead of thymine |
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| 22. RNA polymerase uses ________ as a template to synthesize ________. A) RNA, proteins B) RNA, DNA C) DNA, RNA D) DNA, proteins |
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| C DNA, RNA |
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| 24. The information carried by DNA is used to create a ________ which then moves to the ribosome for protein synthesis. A) tRNA B) rRNA C) siRNA D) mRNA |
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| D mRNA |
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| 25. A mRNA molecule can be broken down into three nucleotide units called A) amino acids B) bases C) codons D) anticodons |
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| C codons |
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| 30. Protein synthesis A) in bacteria can occur with several ribosomes attached to the same mRNA molecule B) uses very little of a bacterial cell's energy C) can occur at the same time as an mRNA is being transcribed D) two of the above |
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| D two of the above |
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| 31. In eukaryotes, transcription takes place in the ________ while translation takes place in the ________. A) nucleus, nucleus B) nucleus, cytoplasm C) cytoplasm, nucleus D) cytoplasm, cytoplasm |
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| B nucleus, cytoplasm |
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| 32. Which of the following properties are exclusive to mRNAA) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein C) molecules contain an anticodon D) contains the nucleotide thymine |
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| B carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein |
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| 33. Which of the following properties are exclusive to tRNAA) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein C) molecules contain an anticodon D) contains the nucleotide thymine |
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| C molecules contain an anticodon |
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| 34. Which of the following properties are exclusive to rRNAA) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein C) molecules contain an anticodon D) contains the nucleotide thymine |
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| A combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes |
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| 42. ________ refers to the specific characteristics displayed by an organism. A) Genotype B) Mutation C) Phenotype D) Genes |
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| C Phenotype |
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| 2. Gene transfer from parent to offspring is called: a) lateral gene transfer b) horizontal gene transfer c) vertical gene transfer d) diagonal gene transfer |
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| C vertical gene transfer |
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| 3. The uptake of DNA molecules from the surrounding medium is called: a) transduction b) transformation c) transcription d) translation |
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| b) transformation |
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| 4. In ______________, plasmid DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another via a sex pilus. a) transformation b) conjugation c) transduction d) transposition |
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| B conjugation |
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| 5. In transduction, _______________ carry bacterial DNA into a new recipient cell. a) fungi b) plasmids c) bacteria d) viruses |
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| D viruses |
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| 7. An organism with its cell wall removed is called a: a) chloroplast b) mitochondrion c) protoplast d) elastoplast |
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| C protoplast |
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| 1. When genes are passed on from parent to offspring, which of the following events has taken placeA) horizontal gene transfer B) transduction C) vertical gene transfer D) retrograde gene transfer |
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| C vertical gene transfer |
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| 2. Bacterial conjugation is an example of A) transduction B) vertical gene transfer C) horizontal gene transfer D) bacterial transformation |
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| C horizontal gene transfer |
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| 3. In horizontal gene transfer A) genes are passed between bacteria of different generations B) genes are passed from mother cells to daughter cells C) genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation D) none of the above |
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| C genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation |
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| 4. Which of the following processes increases variation seen in bacteriaA) transformation B) conjugation C) transduction D) all of the above |
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| D all of the above |
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| 6. In Griffith's experiments, the “transforming substance” was A) RNA B) Protein C) Polysaccharides D) DNA |
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| D DNA |
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| 8. A bacterium that is transformed A) cannot form a conjugation pilus B) has acquired naked DNA from the environment C) will probably die within 48 hours D) if injected, it always will result in the death of a mouse |
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| B has acquired naked DNA from the environment |
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| 8. A bacterium that is transformed A) cannot form a conjugation pilus B) has acquired naked DNA from the environment C) will probably die within 48 hours D) if injected, it always will result in the death of a mouse |
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| B has acquired naked DNA from the environment |
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| 10. The transfer of DNA between bacteria cells by a virus is A) transformation B) transduction C) transferration D) conjugation |
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| B transduction |
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| 11. A lytic viral cycle is usually the result of infection by a A) prophage B) virulent phage C) temperate phage D) antiphage |
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| B virulent phage |
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| 12. A virus which incorporates its DNA into the DNA of its host organism is a A) virulent phage B) prophage C) lytic phage D) none of the above |
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| B prophage |
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| 13. A phage is A) a virus which can infect bacteria B) a virus which can infect humans C) a small bacterial cell which needs to live inside another cell D) a virus that shares its DNA with its host cell |
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| A a virus which can infect bacteria |
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| 14. Which of the following happens earliest in a typical bacteriophage lytic cycleA) phage inserts its DNA into the host cell B) phage DNA is inserted into the bacterial chromosome C) bacterial cell lyses D) viral DNA and proteins are produced by the host cell |
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| A phage inserts its DNA into the host cell |
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| 15. A viral cycle which ends with the rupture of the cell and release of new viral particles is the A) temperate cycle B) lytic cycle C) lysogenic cycle D) prophage cycle |
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| B lytic cycle |
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| 19. Which of the following processes requires contact between donor and recipient cellsA) transduction B) transcription C) conjugation D) transformation |
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| C conjugation |
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| 20. The genetic information needed for a cell to participate in conjugation resides in the DNA of a cell's A) bacterial chromosome B) F plasmid C) F pilus D) mitochondria |
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| B F plasmid |
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| 22. When cells conjugate for longer periods of time, which of the following will occurA) fewer genes will be transferred B) more genes will be transferred C) the same number of genes will be transferred D) It is impossible to tell. Conjugation time and number of genes transferred are not related |
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| B more genes will be transferred |
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| 24. F' plasmids A) are responsible for high frequency recombination B) carry some chromosomal genes C) are those plasmids that have never been incorporated into a bacterial chromosome D) none of the above |
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| B carry some chromosomal genes |
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| 29. Plasmids do which of the following A) direct synthesis of conjugation pili B) provide resistance to certain antibiotics C) induce the formation of tumors in plants D) all of the above are functions of plasmids |
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| D all of the above are functions of plasmids |
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| 31. A ________ is a genetic sequence able to move from one location in a chromosome to another. A) plasmid B) F factor C) transposon D) R factor |
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| C transposon |
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| 10. Viruses may be classified: a) by the type of nucleic acid they possess b) by the presence or absence of an envelope c) as plus (sense) RNA strand or minus (antisense) RNA strand d) as single or double stranded e) by all the criteria mentioned above |
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| D as single or double stranded |
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| 11. In viral replication the order of events is: a) adsorption, penetration, synthesis, maturation, release b) adsorption, synthesis, penetration, maturation, release c) penetration, synthesis, adsorption, maturation, release d) release, synthesis, maturation, adsorption, penetration e) maturation, adsorption, penetration, synthesis, release |
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| A adsorption, penetration, synthesis, maturation, release |
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| 12. Bacteriophages: a) infect fungal cells b) infect animal cells c) are cultured in embryonated eggs d) may undergo a lytic cycle e) may be used to cure viral diseases |
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| D may undergo a lytic cycle |
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| 14. Prions are not: a) pathogens for which no nucleic acid chromosome can be found b) destroyed by incineration c) sensitive to proteases and protein denaturing agents like phenol d) responsible for Mad Cow Disease e) affected by radiation that would damage a virus |
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| E affected by radiation that would damage a virus |
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| 1. Viruses have some of the properties of living organisms. Which of the following is a characteristic of all organisms, but not of virusesA) presence of a plasma membrane B) capable of metabolism C) ability to reproduce D) grow in response to their environment conditions |
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| A presence of a plasma membrane |
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| 6. A naked virus A) has no protein wrapping around its nucleic acid. B) is unable to attach itself to a host cell. C) has no membranous envelope D) has no infectious piece of DNA |
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| C has no membranous envelope |
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| 10. The families of RNA viruses are distinguished from one another by all of the following except A) presence of an envelope B) presence of a capsid and its shape C) sense or nonsense RNA D) whether RNA is linear or circular |
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| D whether RNA is linear or circular |
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| 11. Viruses that have a single strand of RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis are known as A) retroviruses. B) proviruses. C) viroids. D) bacteriophages. E) lytic phages. |
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| A retroviruses. |
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| 13. Common cold and flu are caused by which of the following pair of virusesA) rhinovirus – orthomyxoviridae B) enterovirus – retrovirus C) flavivirus – rhinovirus D) poxyvirus – papillomavirus |
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| A rhinovirus – orthomyxoviridae |
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| 21. Reactivation of chickenpox long after the initial infection leads to the disease A) cancer B) influenza C) shingles D) varicella |
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| C shingles |
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| 22. Viruses can be grouped into the following categories except: A) animal viruses B) bacterial viruses C) plant viruses D) fungal viruses |
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| D fungal viruses |
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| 23. A virus that is specific for a bacterial host is called A) phage B) prion C) viroid D) virion |
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| A phage |
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| 28. Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in a typical virus replication cycleA) maturation a adsorption a penetration a release B) adsorption a penetration a release a maturation C) adsorption a penetration a synthesis a maturation D) adsorption a penetration a maturation a synthesis |
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| C adsorption a penetration a synthesis a maturation |
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| 29. Assembly of new viral components into a complete virion takes place during viral A) maturation B) adsorption C) penetration D) synthesis |
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| A maturation |
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| 32. Bacteriophages contain the enzyme lysozyme, which is used to A) replicate viral DNA. B) shut down bacterial cell metabolism. C) weaken bacterial cell walls. D) help recognize the proper bacterial host. |
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| C weaken bacterial cell walls. |
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| 38. Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a ________ while the combination of a bacterial cell and its temperate phage is called a ________. A) prophage, lysogen B) plaque, lysogen C) lysogen, prophage D) prophage, retrovirus |
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| A prophage, lysogen |
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| 40. Growth of a bacterium which contains a prophage represents a A) lytic cycle B) temperate cycle C) lysogenic cycle D) induction |
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| C lysogenic cycle |
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| 41. A lysogenous phage which enters a lytic cycle is said to have undergone A) transformation B) induction C) transcription D) lysogenic conversion |
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| B induction |
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| 46. A drug or other agent that induces defects during embryonic development is known as a A) syncytia B) capsomere C) teratogen D) carcinogen |
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| C teratogen |
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| 47. A prion is made of which of the followingA) RNA B) DNA C) proteins D) both DNA and RNA |
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| C proteins |
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| 49. Viroids are composed of A) single infectious proteins B) double stranded RNA C) single-stranded linear DNA D) single-stranded circular RNA |
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| D single-stranded circular RNA |
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| 55. The only RNA tumor virus that causes human cancer is A) retroviruses B) proviruses C) rhinovirus D) rubella virus |
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| A retroviruses |
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| 45. Enveloped animal viruses typically leave the host cell by A) host cell lysis B) host cell rupture C) budding D) animal viruses never leave the host cell |
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| C budding |
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| 36. Plaques are A) bacterial colonies B) another name for single viruses C) areas where bacterial cells have been lysed D) bacterial film |
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| C areas where bacterial cells have been lysed |
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| 2. Adaptive defenses respond to molecules known as: a) antigens. b) antibodies. c) bacteria. d) viruses. |
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| A antigens. |
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| 3. Innate defenses include: a) skin and mucous membranes. b) mucus. c) phagocytic white blood cells. d) all of the above. |
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| D all of the above. |
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| 4. Physical barriers to pathogens include: a) fever. b) interferon production. c) inflammation. d) hairs in the nose. |
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| D hairs in the nose. |
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| 5. Chemical barriers to pathogens include: a) fever. b) stomach acid production. c) inflammation. d) hairs in the nose. |
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| B stomach acid production. |
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| 6. The “first-response” phagocytic cell in an infection is the: a) lymphocyte. b) neutrophil c) basophil. d) monocyte. |
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| B neutrophil |
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| 7. Phagocytes engulf and destroy microbes in a process known as: a) chemotaxis. b) adherence. c) digestion. d) phagocytosis. |
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| D phagocytosis. |
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| 8. In order, the four stages of phagocytosis are: a) chemotaxis, adherence, digestion, ingestion. b) adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion. c) chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion. d) digestion, chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion |
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| C chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion. |
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| 9. During phagocytosis, microbes are digested in the phagosome.T/F |
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| F |
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| 10. Leukocytes that kill intracellular viruses are called natural killer cells. T/F |
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| T |
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| 1. All of the following are components of the nonspecific host defenses except A) fever B) mucus C) antibodies D) interferon |
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| C antibodies |
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| 2. Which of the following is not a chemical barrierA) mucous membrane B) saliva C) gastric juice D) complement |
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| D complement |
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| 4. Physical barriers of nonspecific defenses A) include both the cells that line the body surfaces and the chemicals they secrete B) include phagocytes and interferon C) respond to antigens by making thousands of different antibodies D) are part of the host cellular defenses |
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| A include both the cells that line the body surfaces and the chemicals they secrete |
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| 7. The granulocyte that releases the inflammatory agent histamine is a A) neutrophil B) monocyte C) lymphocyte D) basophil |
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| D basophil |
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| 8. Which of the following does not partake in the process of phagocytosisA) chemotaxis B) granulation C) adherence D) ingestion |
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| B granulation |
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| 15. Phagocytic leukocytes that contain oxidative chemicals to kill internalized microorgansisms are called A) lymphocytes B) platelets C) mast cells D) neutrophils |
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| D neutrophils |
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| 16. Granulocytes include all of the following except A) basophils B) neutrophils C) lymphocytes D) eosinophils |
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| C lymphocytes |
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| 17. A phagocyte A) contains phagolysosomes that fuse with a phagosome to produce a lysosome B) must first adhere to an infectious agent before it can find it C) in the blood include monocytes and neutrophils D) refers to the oxidative chemicals that kill internalized microorganisms |
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| C in the blood include monocytes and neutrophils |
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| 18. Steps in a phagocytic cell destroying an invading microorganism include A) chemotaxis a adherence a ingestion a digestion B) finding a filtering a secreting enzymes a streptolysin C) chemotaxis a granuloma a adherence a histamine D) finding a invading a clotting a regulating temperature |
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| A chemotaxis a adherence a ingestion a digestion |
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| 33. A protein that interferes with the ability of a virus to replicate inside a host cell is called: A) streptolysin B) leukocidin C) interferon D) histamine |
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| C interferon |
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| 37. Interferons are stimulated by viruses and A) are produced only by macrophages B) stimulate the production of antiviral proteins in neighboring cells C) form membrane attack complexes D) none of the above |
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| B stimulate the production of antiviral proteins in neighboring cells |
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| 38. The classical pathway of complement activation involves which of the following proteinsA) C1, C4 and C2 B) C3 only C) factor B D) factor D and factor D |
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| A C1, C4 and C2 |
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| 39. Complement activation results in all of the following physiological processes except A) opsonization B) formation of membrane attack complexes C) inflammation D) fever |
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| D fever |
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| 40. What non-specific immune component is directly responsible for the lysis of invading microorganismsA) chemotaxis B) membrane attack complex C) opsonin D) chronic inflammation |
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| B membrane attack complex |
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| 45. Complement A) system consists of over 20 proteins that function in a cascade-like manner B) activation results in the onset of fever C) pathway involves factors B, D and P D) all of the above |
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| D all of the above |
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| 47. The binding and coating of the surfaces of invading microbes by either antibodies or C3b is A) aided by the release of cytokines by phagocytes B) necessary for phagocytosis of all microbes C) called oposonization D) responsible for the direct lysis of invading microrganisms |
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| C called oposonization |
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| 50. Cytokines A) are soluble proteins B) function in host defenses such as macrophage chemotaxis C) include interferons D) all of the above |
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| D all of the above |
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| 2. Adaptive defenses respond to molecules known as: a) antigens. b) antibodies. c) bacteria. d) viruses. |
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| A antigens. |
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| 3. Innate defenses include: a) skin and mucous membranes. b) mucus. c) phagocytic white blood cells. d) all of the above. |
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| D all of the above |
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| 2. Immunity gained when a person’s own lymphocytes respond to an antigen is called: a) active. b) passive. c) natural. d) artificial. |
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| A active. |
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| 3. Immunity gained when antibodies from an outside source are administered is called: a) active. b) passive. c) natural. d) artificial |
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| B passive. |
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| 4. Immunity resulting from exposure to a pathogen is called: a) natural active. b) natural passive. c) artificial active. d) artificial passive |
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| A natural active. |
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| 5. Immunity resulting from exposure to a vaccine is called: a) natural active. b) natural passive. c) artificial active. d) artificial passive |
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| C artificial active. |
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| 6. Sites on an antigen which bind specific antibodies are called: a) polysaccharides b) epitopes c) variables d) heavy chains |
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| B epitopes |
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| 7. Lymphocytes that produce antibodies are called: a) T lymphocytes b) natural killer cells c) B lymphocytes d) antigen presenting cells |
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| C B lymphocytes |
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| 8. The two types of immunity are described as: a) humoral and cell-mediated b) humorous and serious c) lymphocytic and phagocytic d) inflammatory and cellular |
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| A humoral and cell-mediated |
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| 10. T cells protect best against virally infected cells and eukaryotic foreign cells such as pathogens, cancer cells and transplanted tissues. T/F |
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| T |
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| 12. Helper T cells are needed for both humoral and cell-mediated immunity. T/F |
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| T |
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| 13. Ig M is the largest antibody.T/F |
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| T |
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| 14. Cytotoxic T cells and NK cells destroy target cells by releasing perforin protein. T/F |
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| T |
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| 15. Monoclonal antibodies are produced from lymphocytes isolated from the human body. T/F |
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| F |
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| 2. Hypersensitivity is also known as: a) overtiredness. b) allergy. c) hysteria. d) toxicity. |
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| B allergy. |
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| 3. Immediate hypersensitivity is also known as: a) anaphylaxis. b) delayed hypersensitivity. c) antigen hypersensitivity. d) allergen hypersensitivity. |
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| A anaphylaxis. |
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| 4. In delayed hypersensitivity ______________ react with the foreign antigens, causing tissue destruction. a) T cells b) B cells c) NK cells d) neutrophils |
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| A T cells |
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| 5. A disease where the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues is called: a) allergic disease. b) antigen disease. c) clonal disease. d) autoimmune disease. |
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| D autoimmune disease. |
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| 7. Anaphylaxis is caused by an excess response of: a) Ig A. b) Ig G. c) Ig M. d) Ig E. |
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| D Ig E. |
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| 1. Which refers to the ability of a host organism to recognize and defend itself against the onslaught of pathogenic microorganismsA) immunity B) passive immunity C) susceptibility D) innate immunology |
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| A immunity |
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| 2. Adaptive immunity is A) the ability of a host to mount a defense against a specific inherited agent B) only acquired artificially C) only acquired naturally D) immunity obtained in some manner other than by heredity |
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| D immunity obtained in some manner other than by heredity |
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| 4. Injection of a person with a vaccine that induces protective immunity in that individual is an example of what type of immunityA) active natural B) innate natural C) active artificial D) passive natural |
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| C active artificial |
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| 6. What is a substance that is recognized by the body as foreign and normally induces an immune responseA) Fc fragment B) Fab fragment C) Fab and Fc fragment D) epitope or antigenic determinant |
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| D epitope or antigenic determinant |
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| 7. An area on an antigen molecule to which an antibody molecule binds is called: A) Fc fragment B) Fab fragment C) Fab and Fc fragment D) epitope or antigenic determinant |
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| D epitope or antigenic determinant |
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| 8. Antigens are found on A) human cells B) bacteria and viruses C) antibodies D) A and B |
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| D A and B |
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| 9. A protein molecule produced in a host in response to an antigen and is capable of binding specifically to that antigen is called: A) perforin B) antigen C) antibody D) cytokine |
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| C antibody |
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| 10. Most antigens are A) large and complex molecules B) polysaccharides C) are proteins with molecular weights less than 10,000 Da D) proteins that bind to a specific antigenic determinant |
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| A large and complex molecules |
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| 11. The concentration of antibody needed to bind to and neutralize an antigen is called: A) tolerance B) T-cell C) titer D) antitoxin |
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| C titer |
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| 13. All of the following cells are types of T lymphocytes except A) regulatory B) delayed hypersensitivity C) helper D) plasma |
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| D plasma |
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| 14. Cells that synthesize and release antibody molecules are A) plasma cells B) stem cells C) cytotoxic T lymphocytes D) helper T lymphocytes |
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| A plasma cells |
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| 15. What is the site where stem cells develop into B lymphocyte in humansA) bursa of Fabricius B) thymus C) blood D) bone marrow |
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| D bone marrow |
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| 16. Cells that are neither T or B cells, but function to non-specifically kill cells infected by viruses are called: A) natural killer cells B) phagocytic cells C) memory cells D) blood cells |
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| A natural killer cells |
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| 17. Immunity that is mediated by antibodies is called A) innate B) humoral C) cell-mediated D) non-specific |
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| B humoral |
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| 18. Immunity that is mediated by T lymphocytes is called A) cell-mediated B) antibody-mediated C) innate acquired D) innate natural |
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| A cell-mediated |
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| 20. Both humoral and cellular immunity share the following attributes except A) distinguishes self from non-self B) specificity C) memory D) first-line of defense |
answer
| D first-line of defense |
question
| 22. After differentiation how do B cells migrateA) bone marrow a blood cirulation a lymph nodes B) bone marrow a thymus a blood circulation C) bone marrow a bursa of Fabricius a lymph nodes D) lymph node a bone marrow a blood circulation |
answer
| A bone marrow a blood cirulation a lymph nodes |
question
| 23. The ability of the specific immune system to recognize self from non-self is mediated by A) cross reaction B) clonal selection C) gamma globulin D) species immunity |
answer
| B clonal selection |
question
| 24. The process whereby lymphocytes which recognize self antigens are removed, thus producing tolerance in the host is A) heterogeneity B) memory C) primary response D) clonal deletion |
answer
| D clonal deletion |
question
| 25. The ability of the humoral response to produce a vast array of antibodies, each with uniqueness to a given antigen is responsible for the immune system's A) memory B) hyperimmune serum C) heterogeneity D) homogeneity |
answer
| C heterogeneity |
question
| 27. All of the following pertain to the structure of an antibody molecule except A) two identical light chains B) heavy and light chains held together by disulfide bonds C) binds 2 antigens per molecule D) two Fc fragments and one Fab fragment |
answer
| D two Fc fragments and one Fab fragment |
question
| 28. Which class of immunoglobulins consists of five units and is connected by a J chainA) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE |
answer
| C IgM |
question
| 29. Antibodies produced by the humoral response help eliminate foreign antigens in all of the following ways except A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement activation D) natural killer cells |
answer
| D natural killer cells |
question
| 30. All of the following have correctly matched antibody class with their function except A) IgD – function largely unknown B) IgE – binds to mast cells and basophils C) IgM – plays a role in mediating allergies and asthma D) IgG – crosses placenta |
answer
| C IgM – plays a role in mediating allergies and asthma |
question
| 31. Monoclonal antibodies are all of the following except A) antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body B) made by hydridomas which make only one specific antibody C) produced by a clone of cultured cells D) used for diagnostic tests and to treat rheumatoid arthritis |
answer
| A antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body |
question
| 33. All of the following pertain to the role of activated helper T cells in cellular mediated immunity except A) differentiation into memory TC cells B) recognizes MHC with antigenic peptide on macrophages C) differentiation into TH1 cells D) differentiation into TH2 cells |
answer
| A differentiation into memory TC cells |
question
| 34. Which of the following immune cells kills infected cells by releasing the lethal protein perforinA) NK cells B) B cells C) macrophages D) TH2 cells |
answer
| A NK cells |
question
| 35. Antigens that have the capacity to activate huge numbers of immune T cells non-specifically resulting in a large immune response that results in diseases are A) self antigens B) non-self antigens C) superantigens D) antitoxins |
answer
| C superantigens |
question
| 37. Which region of an antibody determines the class of that particular antibodyA) constant B) variable C) light chain D) Fab |
answer
| A constant |
question
| 38. Agglutination A) is inactivation of bacterial toxins due to the binding of an antibody B) leads to the ingestion of the particle by macrophages due to opsonization C) requires complement D) occurs when antibody-antigen complexes form large clumped particles |
answer
| D occurs when antibody-antigen complexes form large clumped particles |
question
| 40. Which of the following T cells is activated by interleukin-1 and in turn activates B cells to differentiate into plasma cellsA) NK cells B) Tc cells C) T regulatory D) TH cells |
answer
| D TH cells |
