Final – Microbiology Flashcard Answers

The secondary structure of a protein relates to the

a. nucleic acid sequence of the DNA

b. messenger RNA

c. sequence of amino acids

d. presence of helix and sheet

Functional groups are often involved in reactions involving ______ reactions.

a. inorganic

b. ionic

c. organic

d. inelastic

Which of the following do not have either chains or rings of carbon?

a. nucleic acid

b. proteins

c. lipids

d. carbohydrates

e. none of the above

A ____ IS MONOSACCHARIDE SUCH AS RIBOSE MADE UP OF 5 CARBONS.

a. hexose

b. heptose

c. polysaccharide

d. pentose

The ends of a chain of ___ are designated 5' and 3' (5-prime and 3-prime)

a. protein

b.carbohydrate

c. DNA

d. RNA 

e. both c and d

A scientist looks for the incorporation of uracil into a cell. Which of the following is she measuring?

a. amount of protein produced

b. DNA synthesis

c. RNA synthesis

d. fatty acid synthesis

An amphipathic molecule is

a. both hydrophilic and hydrophobic

b. a carbohydrate

c. a cation

d. an amino acid

The three-dimensional shape of a protein is primarily determined by the protein's

a. pH

b. R groups

c. glycerol content

d. enzymes.

Hydrogen bonds can form between ___ adjacent to each other.

a. two hydrogen atoms

b. two oxygen atoms

c. a hydrogen atom and an oxygen atom

d. negative charges

Poly saccharides are formed by linking monosaccharides into a macromolecule. What is the most common process that links each subunit together?

a. complexation reaction.

b. saturation linkage.

c. dehydration synthesis

d. hydrolysis

The fatty acid tails of a phospholipid are chemically charged.

a. True

b. False

In a water molecule, the hydrogens carry a partial positive charge

a. True

b. False

An atom is the smallest particle of an element to retain all the properties of the element.

a. True

b. False

A glove box is used to grow

a aerobes

b. facultative anaerobes

c. obligate anaerobes

d. viruses

The term ___ describes two solutions having the same osmotic pressure such that, when separated by a semi-permeable membrane, there is no net movement of solvent in either direction.

a. hypotonic

b. isotonic

c. hypertonic

d. equilibrated diffusion

An autotroph

a. uses inorganic carbon dioxide as its carbon source

b. uses organic carbon as its carbon source

c. obtains its carbon from the bodies of other organisms.

d. is nutritionally dependent on other living things

Turbidity is measured with a;

a. microscope

b. Coulter counter

c. spectrophotometer

d. anemometer

e. chemostat

Capnophiles grow best at high ___ concentration.

a. oxygen

b. water

c. carbon dioxide

d. salt

A bacterial culture began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the population go through?

a. 64

b. 32

c. 6

d. 5

e. 4

;

Organisms that benefit from a relationship with other without harming the other organism are called

a. parasites

b. mutualists

c. promotionals

d. commensals

____ are bacteria that grow best at human body temperatures (37C).

a. mesophiles

b. psychrophiles

c. thermophiles

d. halophiles

____ is movement of a substance against a concentration gradient and requires a ____.

a. Facilitated diffusion; carrier

b. Facilitated diffusion; pump

c. Active transport; carrier

d. Active transport; pump

A(n) ____ is an organism that grows best in the absence of oxygen.

a. aerobe

b. anaerobe

c. facultative anaerobe

d. microaerophile

Which is NOT among the six most essential elements required for microbial growth?

a. sodium

b. sulfur

c. hydrogen

d. phosphorus

A ___ metabolizes the organic matter of dead organisms.

a. saprobe

b. parasite

c. autotroph

d. All of the above are correct

Phagocytosis is the ingestion of fluid by a cell.

a. True

b. False

Facultative anaerobes can grow both with and without oxygen, but they grow better with oxygen.

a. True

b. False

In osmosis, water moves from low water concentration to high water concentration.

a. True

b. False

Gluconeogenesis is the opposite of ____ and is ___.

a. Krebs cycle; anabolism

b. Krebs cycle; catabolism

c. glycolysis; anabolism

d. glycolysis; catabolism

Inhibition of an enzyme by a molecule binding at the active site is called ____ inhibition.

a. noncompetitive

b. competitive

c. allosteric

d. active

An enzyme ___ the activation energy required for a chemical reaction.

a. increases

b. converts

c. lowers

d. catalyzes

Glycolysis takes place in the ___ of bacteria and generates ___ ATP directly.

a. cytoplasm; 2

b. cytoplasm; 3

c. membrane; 2

d. membrane; 3

Oxidation is the;

a. addition of protons

b. addition of neutrons

c. removal of protons

d. removal of electrons

e. addition of electrons

Glycolysis produces ATP and a vital intermediary, ____, which can be used in respiration, fermentation, or anabolic reactions.

a. pyruvic acid

b. glucose

c. acetyl group

d. glyceraldehydes

The compound that enters the Kreb (TCA) cycle is

a. citric acid

b. oxaloacetic acid

c. pyruvic acid

d. acetyl coenzyme A.

The substance on which an enzyme acts is the ___ and the process is called ___.

a. allosteric inhibitor; catalysis

b. substrate; catalysis

c. apoenzyme; anabolism

d. substrate; catabolism

WHere does election transport occur in prokaryotes?

a. mitochondrial membrane

b. cell membrane

c. ribosomes

d. cytoplasm

Which pathway produces the most energy from a glucose molecule?

a fermentation

b. glycolysis

c. anaerobic respiration

d. aerobic respiration

Fermentation is immediately preceded by ___.

a. glycolysis

b. Krebs cycle

c. electron transport

d. Entner-Doudoroff pathway

Aerobic bacteria and mitochondria are able to produce additional energy from the breakdown of glucose by harvesting ___ and using them to bring protons across the membrane via ___. Finally, ATP is produced as the protons flow back into the cell through ATP synthase.

a. OH- ions; hydrolysis

b. electrons; electron transport chain

c. pyruvic acid; facilitated diffusion

d. water molecules; fermentation

In fermentation, the terminal electron acceptor is

a. oxygen (O2)

b. hydrogen (H2)

c. carbon dioxide (CO2)

d. an organic compound

FADH2 is produced during

a. glycolysis

b. Krebs cycle

c. group translocation

d. electron transport

ATP synthase complexes can generate ___ ATP for each NADH that enters electron transport.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

Where does glycolysis occur in eukaryotes?

a. mitochondrial membrane

b. cell membrane

c. ribosomes

d. cytoplasm

The electrons on NADH are transferred eventually to ____, the final electron acceptor in aerobic bacteria.

a. oxygen

b. protons

c. water

d. pyruvate

In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the reduced compound has more energy than the oxidized compound.

a. True

b. False

More ATP molecules are synthesized by substrate level phosphorylation than by oxidative phosphorylation.

a. True

b. False

When lipids are broken down, completely separate pathways from aerobic respiration are used.;

a. True

b. False

A DNA triplet encodes ___ codon(s) and ___ amino acid(s)

a. 3;1

b. 3;3

c. 1;3

d. 1;1

____ occurs just before the bacterial cell divides.

a. Replication

b. Translation

c. Transcription

d. Electron transport

All of the following are complementary nucleotide base pairs EXCEPT

a. C-G

b. A-U

c. T-A

d. U-C

Bacterial DNA is ___ and plasmid DNA is ___.

a. circular; linear

b. single-stranded; double-stranded

c. circular; circular

d. linear; linear

____ mutations nearly always result in nonfunctional proteins because every amino acid after the mutation is different from what was coded for in the original DNA.

a. Substitution

b. Replication

c. Frameshift

d. Translation

The primary enzyme responsible for bacterial replication is

a. RNA polymerase

b. reverse transcriptase

c. restriction endonuclease

d. DNA polymerase

Synthesizing amino acid sequences from messenger RNA is called ____.

a. transduction.

b. transformation

c. translation

d. transcription

1. Involves plasmids
2. Contains a P site
3. Requires bacteriophages
4. Has an anticodon
5. Results from alterations in cell walls

UGA is a stop codon.

a. True

b. False

Transcription enzymes work in a 5' to 3' (5-prime to 3-prime) direction.

a. True

b. False

The ribosome is made up of two subunits

a. True

b. False

During recombinant DNA technology DNA is inserted by a vector. Identify a vector from the list below:

a. genome

b. plasmid

c. recombinant

d. protein

DNA fragments separate on an electrophoresis gel with the

a. largest segments traveling farthest

b. smallest segments traveling farthest

c. most negatively charged pieces traveling fastest

d. most positively charges pieces moving backwards

For which of the following would a nucleic acid probe NOT be used?

a. locating a gene on a chromosome

b. developing a Southern blot

c. identifying a microorganism

d. constructing a recombinant plasmid

Which of the following is used to determine the father of a child?

a. gene therapy

b. xenotransplant

c. DNA fingerprinting

d. vaccines

Whick enzyme would you use to make DNA from RNA?

a. DNA polymerase

b. restriction endonucleases

c. reverse transcriptase

d. DNA ligase

Which of the following techniques allows an investigator to start with a single piece of DNA and produce billions of copies in a matter of hours?

a. transduction

b. gene cloning

c. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

d. recombinant technology.

e. restriction analysis

"Scissors" that are used to cut DNA into specific pieces at defined sites are the

a. repair enzymes

b. unrestricted endonucleases

c. restricted endonucleases

d. exonucleases

In hybridization, oligonucleotides function as

a. restriction enzymes

b. vectors

c. ligases

d. probes

;

Gel electrophoresis seperates DNA fragments using

a. ribose gel

b. electric current

c. gene probes

d. hybridization

The primary intent of recombinant DNA technology ;is to deliberately remove genetic material from one organism and combine it with that of a different organism

a. True

b. False

Machines are now available that can synthesize nucleic acids of any sequence that an investigator might desire.

a. True

b. False

Recombinant DNA techniques are being used to make plants resistant to herbicides.

a. True

b. False

Which of these are not considered part of the innate immune response?

a. neutropils

b. stomach acid

c. T cells

d. macrophages

The increased phagocytosis of bacteria covered with C3b or antibody is called

a. inflammation

b. optimization

c. antigenesis

d. opsonization

Which of the following is a chemical that is released by white blood cells and regulates inflammation and immunity?

a. MHC protein

b. CD4

c. C3b

d. cytokine

WHich of the following is the correct order of complement activity?

a. initiation, polymerization, amplification, membrane attack

b. initiation, amplification, membrane attack, polymerization

c. polymerization, initiation, amplification, membrane attack

d. initiation, amplification, polymerization, membrane attack.

The clear, yellowish blood fluid that does not contain clotting factors is known as

a. plasma

b. serum

c. lymphatic fluid

d. complement

Hematopoietic stem cells

a. are the precursor of new blood cells

b. are maintained in the bone marrow

c. proliferate and differentiate into red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

d. are all of the above

The accumulation of serous exudate leads to;

a. fever

b. redness

c. edema

d. complement activation

Which of the following is a granulocyte?

a. macrophage

b. lymphocyte

c. basophil

d. monocytes

All of the following are part of the inflammatory responcse EXCEPT

a. increased vascular permeability

b. lowered temperature around pathogen

c. redness

d. pain

;

The transmigration of white blood cells out of capillaries into deeper tissues is called

a. diapedesis

b. opsonization

c. cell-mediated immunity

d. humoral immunity

Lymph nodes are considered primary lymphoid tissue.

a. True

b. False

The skin is considered part of the first line of defense.

a. True

b. False

The variable regions of antibodies are located in all of the following EXCEPT

a. Fc region

b. Fab regiom

c. light chain

d. heavy chain

What is the appropriate response when antigen is presented by MHC class II molecules?

a. An effector CD8 cell should kill the presenting cell

b. An effector CD4 cell should kill the presenting cell

c. An effector CD8 cell should activate the presenting cell.

d. An effector CD4 cell should activate the presenting cell

Perforins are used by ___ cells to destroy infected target cells.

a. B

b. T helper

c. cytotoxic T

d. neutrophil

Poor immunogens include all of the following EXCEPT

a. small molecules

b. repetitive polymers

c. complex proteins

d. simple molecules

The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine consists of capsule components. This would be classified as a(n)

a. attenuated vaccine

b. toxoid

c. subunit vaccine

d. inactivated (killed) vaccine

"Self" markers in human cells

a. are lipopolysaccharides of the GALT

b. are clonally selected

c. are identical between individuals

d. are glycoproteins of the MHC

The ___ response to previously seen antigens is the basis for the success of vaccinations

a. primary

b. anamnestic or memory

c. hypersensitive

d. phagocytic

The type of white blood cell that SECRETES antibody is called

a. plasma cell

b. B cell

c. NK cell

d. antigen-presenting cell

The type of antibody seen in the highest concentration in a secondary immune response is

a. IgD

b. IgM

c. IgA

d. IgG

Clonal selection theory has to do with;

a. B cell diversity

b. antigen presentation

c. MHC class I restriction

d. MHC class II restriction

Which cells express MHC class I molecules?

a. red cells

b. all nucleated cells

c. antigen-presenting cells only

d. dendritic cells only

The type of antibody seen most commonly on mucosal surfaces such as the intestines is;

a. IgD

b. IgM

c. IgA

d. IgG

"Cell mediated immunity" refers to

a. B cells activation and plasma cell production

b. monocyte conversion

c. T cell responses to antigen

d. MHC markers on "self" cell surfaces

CD8 is found on

a. B cells

b. plasma cells

c. all nucleated cells

d. cytotoxic T cells

Antigen presenting cells include

a. macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells

b. T cells, B cells, mast cells

c. memory cells, macrophages, Tc cells

d. plasma cells, mast cells, immunoglobulin cells

Basophils originally come from the bone marrow

a. True

b. False

B cells that recognize self as foreign are removed in the thymus.

a. True

b. False

A hapten doesn't elicit an immune response by itself but does when it's coupled with a foreign protein carrier.

a. True

b. False

What occurs when T-cells encounter cells displaying foreign MHC molecules?

a. They recognize and react against the foreign cells.

b. They produce antibodies that react against the foreign molecules.

c. They mediate the change of the surface molecules to self.

d. Both a and b are correct

A ___ is a leukocyte that binds IgE and contains cytoplasmic granules with the mediators of anaphylaxis and atrophy.

a. macrophage

b. neutrophil

c. mast cell

d. plasma cell

1. Involves IgE
2. Involves antigen on tissue or cells
3. Involves circulating antigen and antibody
4. Involves T cells

Autoimmunity is usually treated by

a. immune stimiulators

b. antibodies

c. immune suppressants

d. antibiotics

Which of the following is NOT a cause of secondary immunodeficiency?

a. HIV

b. pregnancy

c. mutation on X chromosome

d. leukemia

With hemolytic disease of the newborn, the Rh factor is a problem when the mother is ___ and the fetus is ___.

a. Rh positive; Rh negative

b. Rh negative; Rh negative

c. Rh negative; Rh positive

d. Rh positive; Rh negative

Which of the following is NOT used to prevent type I hypersensitivity reactions?

a. drug therapy

b. avoidance of the allergen

c. removal of the thymus

d. desensitization therapy

Which antibodies will be found naturally in the serum of an adult male with blood type A+?

a. anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh

b. anti-A, anti-Rh

c. anti-A

d. anti-B

___ is a birth defect usually caused by missing or incomplete thymus gland that results in abnormally low or absent T cells and other developmental abnormalities.

a. DiGeorge syndrome

b. lupus

c. agammaglobulinemia

d. rheumatoid arthritis

Rejection of a transplant is accomplished through type IV hypersensitivity.

a. True

b. False

A primary immunodeficiency is present at birth.

a. True

b. False

An autoimmune disease is a pathological condition arising from the production of antibodies against self molecules.

a. True

b. False

____ uses complementary strands of nucleic acid to locate specific sites of DNA or RNA in an organism in order to identify that organism.

a. Western blot

b. Hybridization

c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

d. Precipitation reaction

Which technique is used to improve the sensitivity of genetic testing by increasing the amount of DNA in a sample?

a. Western blot

b. PCR

c. gene probing

d. hybridization

Which of the following techniques uses specialized dyes to visualize antibody-antigen reactions for diagnosis?

a. immunofluorescence test

b. immunoelectrophoresis

c. Western blot

d. agglutination test

Cell shape, size, and special characteristics can be determined by

a. Gram staining

b. acid-fast staining

c. endospore staining

d. all of the above

Which of the following is used to label the known antibody in an ELISA test?

a. radioactive isotope

b. enzyme

c. colored dye

d. substrate

Immunologic methods of diagnosis test a patient's ___ for the presence of antibodies to a suspected pathogen.

a. serum

b. red blood cells

c. tissue

d. antigens

Immunoassays are useful

a. to diagnose viral infections

b. to detect very small quantities of antigen

c. to detect very small quantities of antibody

d. all of the above

Sampling methods vary by site. It is important to sample correctly because

a. dichotomous keys will not work otherwise

b. invalid sampling invalidates test results

c. storage of the sample will be ineffective

d. only doctors can take proper precautions

Colony appearance of bacteria is a phenotypic trait

a. True

b. False

ABO blood typing is accomplished using a complement fixation test.

a. True

b. False

The bacteria that form nitrates are ___ with respect to plants.

a. parasitic

b. toxic

c. mutualistic

d. antagonistic

Indicator bacteria in water quality testing are

a. intestinal residents of birds and mammals

b. readily identifiable

c. usually coliforms and enterics

d. all of the above

Where would thermophiles be found?

a. on the ocean's surface.

b. in the soil

c. in hot springs

d. at the bottom of the ocean

Where would barophiles be found?

a. on the ocean's surface

b. in the soil

c. in hot springs

d. at the bottom of the ocean

Autotrophs are most likely to be

a. decomposers

b. primary consumers

c. secondary consumers

d. producers

A(n) ____ is defined as a collection of populations sharing a given habitat.

a. biosphere

b. community

c. biome

d. ecosystem

The amount of energy ___ from lower levels of the trophic cycle to higher levels.

a. increases

b. decreases

c. remains stable

d. cycles

Combustion and respiration are involved in the ____ cycle.

a. nitrogen

b. water

c. carbon

d. phosphorus

Biogeochemical cycles maintain a balance of nutrients in the biosphere.

a. True

b. False

Biofilms are composed of single species of bacteria

a. True

b. False

Microorganisms are used in the food industry for all of the following EXCEPT

a. fermentation products

b. vaccine production 

c. protein supplements

d. food additives

Ultraviolet light is less effective than gamma radiation in sterilizing food because UV

a. is too hot

b. is too dangerous to humans

c. doesn't penetrate as well as gamma radiation

d. alters the taste of food

Salt and sugar preserve food by

a. lysing bacterial cell walls

b. osmotically removing water from bacteria

c. providing nutrients to bacteria

d. lowering the temperature for bacteria

Bacteria are specially engineered to degrade oils spills in a process known as

a. tertiary sewage treatment

b. a biofilm

c. bioremediation

d. composting

Which of the following converts organic compounds into inorganic compounds?

a. pohotosynthesis

b. production

c. consumption

d. decomposition

Which of the following is NOT used in treating drinking water?

a. chlorination

b. filtration

c. removal of oxygen

d. settling

Which of the following is NOT a biogeochemical cycle mentioned in class?

a. carbon cycle

b. oxygen cycle

c. nitrogen cycle

d. sulfur cycle

Secondary metabolites of microbes are formed during the ____ stage of growth.

a. lag

b. log(exponential)

c. stationary 

d. death

The process that produces alcohol in beer and wine is called fermentation.

a. True

b. False

Microbes can be used to produce cheese.

a. True

b. False

1.  Cause of scalded skin syndrome  

2.  Cause of shingles  

3.  Cause of gas gangrene  

4.  Cause of cold sores  

5. Cause of German measles  

a. herpes simplex virus type

b. Staphylococcus aureus    

c. rubella virus

d.varicella zoster virus 

e. Clostridium perfringens

Which of the following species uses coagulase to cause plasma clotting?

a. Micrococcus luteus

b. Staphylococcus aureus      

c. Candida albicans

d. alpha-hemolytic streptococcus       

Which of the following is passed by respiratory droplets but causes skin rashes?

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b. Bordetella pertussis

c. measles virus

d. respiratory syncytial virus

Which of the following causes neonatal conjunctivitis?

a Staphylococcus aureus

b. rubella virus

c. Chlamydia trachomatis

d. Leishmania donovani

Which of the following organisms causes coal-black lesions on the skin?

a. Staphylococcus aureus

b. Chlamydia trachomatis

c. Bacillus anthracis

d. parvovirus

Fifth disease is caused by

a. papillomavirus

b. parvovirus

c. herpes simplex virus

d. rubeola virus

The cause of thrush and diaper rash is

a. Candida albicans

b. Streptococcus pyogenes

c. Staphylococcus aureas

d. Mycobacterium leprae

The cause of genital warts is

a. human herpesvirus 3

b. herpes simplex virus

c. morbillivirus

d. papillomavirus

Diptheria is caused by an RNA virus

a. True

b. False

Chlamydia trachomatis can cause a serious eye infection.

a. True

b. False

The most severe rubella infections occur in a fetus during pregnancy.

a. True

b. False

1. Causes spastic paralysis of facial muscles
2. Causes fungal meningitis, mostly in the southwestern US
3. Spread by breathing in respiratory droplets containing the pathogen
4. Causes African sleeping sickness
5. Causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis

Which of the following causes Valley fever?

a. Mycoplasma

b. Coccidioides

c. Histoplasma

d. Mycobacterium

Neisseria meningitidis is spread by

a. sexual contact

b. respiratory droplets

c. fecal-oral route

d. mosquitoes

West Nile virus is spread by

a. contaminated water

b. mosquitoes

c. animal bite

d. respiratory droplets

Toxoplasma gondii is a ____ spread by ____.

a. bacterium; cat feces

b. protozoan; airborne droplets

c. bacterium; airborne droplets

d. protozoan; cat feces

Rabies virus is spread by

a. insects

b. touching an infected animal

c. the bite of an infected animal

d. eating an infected animal

e. both b and c are correct

In the US, dogs are a common reservoirs for rabies.

a. True

b. False

Aseptic meningitis can be diagnosed by finding bacteria in the CSF.

a. True

b. False

1. Cause of bubonic plague
2. Cause of "rabbit fever"
3. Cause of hemorrhagic fever
4. Cause of malaria
5. Cause of Rocky Mountain spotted fever

The primary effects of HIV infection is

a. harm to B cells

b. harm to the circulatory system

c. an increase in stem cells

d. lower number of T cells

The enzyme used by HIV to produce DNA is called

a. integrase

b. protease

c. reverse transcriptase

d. replicase

gp41 and gp120 make up the _____ of HIV

a. capsid

b. glycocalyx

c. nucleic acid

d. spike

HTLV-1 causes

a. AIDS-like symptoms

b. hemorrhagic fever

c. leukemia

d. mononucleosis

This virus is a frequent cause of retinitis and other disease associated with HIV infection.

a. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

b. cytomegalovirus (CMV)

c. Marburg virus

d. rubella virus

Borrelia burgdorferi is spread by

a. respiratory droplets

b. direct contact with skin lesions

c. mosquitoes

d. ticks

The vector for malaria is the sand fly

a. True

b. False

A distinct bull's-eye-shaped rash is associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

a. True

b. False

The common stain used to identify Mycobacterium species is

a. Gram stain

b. acid-fast stain

c. negative stain

d. spore stain

Legionella is mostly associated with

a. insects

b. pools of water

c. dogs and cates

d. sexual transmission

Which of the following results in the formation of a pseudomembrane in the trachea?

a. Epstein-Barr virus

b. Legionella pneumophila

c. Histoplasma capusulatum

d. Corynebacterium diptheriae

1. Causes the common cold
2. Causes yearly pandemics
3. Especially common in young children
4. Causes whooping cough
5. Causes bacterial pneumonia and has a prominent capsule

Which of the following causes the common cold?

a. respiratory syncytial virus

b. Bordetella pertussis

c. Corynebacterium diptheriae

d. rhinovirus

Normal microbiota are confined to the upper respiratory tract and therefore are absent from the lower respiratory tract.

a. True

b. False

SARS is obtained from other people by respiratory droplets.

a. True

b. False

1. Cause of dental caries (cavities)
2. Cause of intestinal blockage
3. Tapeworm
4. Cause of typhoid fever
5. Cause of gastric ulcers

"Food poisoning" should be suspected with persons who shared food within the previous 1-6 hours, and share the signs and symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Typically, this is due to;

a. infection

b. emetics

c. intoxication

d. inebriation

Which of the following causes dysentery?

a.;Entamoeba

b.;Shigella

c.;Salmonella

d.;both a and b

e. all of the above

Which of the following causes gastroenteritis after antibiotic use?

a. Clostridium difficile

b.;Serratia marcescens

c. rotavirus

d.;Campylobacter

Which of the following causes typhoid fever?

a. Salmonella

b. Shigella

c. E. coli

d. rotavirus

___ is an inflammatory disease marked by necrosis of liver cells and a mononuclear response that swells and disrupts the liver.

a. Cholera

b. Hepatitis

c. Periodontitis

d. Giardiasis

Which of the following leads to swelling of the salivary glands?

a. mumps virus

b. rotavirus

c. Clostridium perfringens

d. Ascaris lumbricoides

Which of the following is also called a pinworm?

a. Taenia

b. Ascaris

c. Ancylostoma

d. Enterobius

Traveler's diarrhea is caused by E. coli.

a. True

b. False

Pathogens that infect the GI tract must survive the acidic environment of the stomach.

a. True

b. False

Camplyobacter jejuni is the most common diarrheal disease in the US.

a. True

b. False

Which of the following is an infection of the kidney?

a. urethritis

b. pyelonephritis

c. cystitis

d. Salpingitis

The first manifestation of syphilis is usually

a. flu-like symptoms

b. chancre

c. rash

d. meningitis

1. Causes gonorrhea
2. Causes fungal vaginosis (yeast infection)
3. Protozoan
4. Causes genital warts
5. Causes syphilis

Herpes simplex type 2 is primarily associated with genital infections.

a. True

b. False

Chlamydia is primarily spread by respiratory droplets.

a. True

b. False