California State Exam Practice Q & A – Flashcards
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No nursing facility, agency or public institution shall make or disseminate false or misleading statements or advertisements regarding training provided. (71828) A. True B. False
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A. True
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Which of the following is a requirement of the DSD or Instructor during a performance evaluation for non-certified nursing assistants? (71833) A. A performance evaluation is not a requirement. B. Must be an LVN or RN. C. Must be free from other responsibilities. D. Non-certified nursing assistants are not allowed to work in a SNF.
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C. Must be free from other responsibilities.
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In a certified training program, supervised clinical training shall be done between what hours? (71835) A. 6:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m. B. 7:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. C. 9:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. D. 6:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
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D. 6:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
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Prior to any direct contact with a patient at least 16 hours of training shall be provided in the following areas except? (71835) A. Communications and interpersonal skills. B. Promoting the independence of patients. C. Infection Control. D. Assessment and diagnosis.
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D. Assessment and diagnosis.
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Which module addresses bed making, admissions, collections of specimens, bandages and dry dressing? (71835) A. Patient care skills. B. Long term care patient. C. Patient care procedures. D. Introduction.
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C. Patient care procedures.
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When a non-certified or certified assistant has a change of address who is responsible to notify the Department? (71837) A. The DSD or instructor. B. The individual applying or holding the certificate. C. The facility. D. The administrator.
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B. The individual applying or holding the certificate.
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When an individual completes the CNA program and passes the examination, who notifies the Department? (71837) A. Administrator. B. Individual completing the program. C. The DSD or instructor. D. The facility
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C. The DSD or instructor.
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One hour of classroom theory shall be accepted as how many hours of CEU's? (71845) A. 1 Hour B. 2 Hours C. 3 Hours D. 0 Hours
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A. 1 Hour
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Three hours of clinical training shall be accepted as how many hours of CEU's? (71845) A. 1 Hour B. 2 Hours. C. 3 Hours. D. 0 Hours.
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A. 1 Hour
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What is the wage requirement for a CNA attending an in-service training session? (71847) A. Half the normal rate B. Minimum wage C. At least the normal hourly wage D. Double time
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C. At least the normal hourly wage.
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Providers who are out of compliance with Chapter 2.5 shall make the corrections to the program within what time frame? (71853) A. 30 Days B. 60 Days C. 2 Months D. 90 Days
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B. 60 Days
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An object or an article of clothing or material that is not in itself contaminated but is able to harbor pathogenic microorganisms which may by that means be transmitted to others is known as what? (72049) A. Fomites B. Scabies C. Carrier D. Host
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A. Fomites
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A voluntary agreement of a patient or representative of an incapacitated patient to accept a treatment or procedure after receiving information is known as what? (72052) A. Voluntary consent. B. Informed consent. C. Consent to treat. D. Admission agreement.
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B. Informed consent.
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A licensed Psychiatric Tech is also a licensed nurse. (72057) A. True B. False
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B. False
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Unit patient health record is also known as what? (72119) A. Financial chart. B. Patient medical record. C. Patient chart. D. Patient care plan.
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B. Patient medical record.
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Separate licenses are required for separate buildings even though they are on the same grounds or adjacent grounds. (72207) A. True B. False
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B. False
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License renewal fees are required to be paid even during the period of suspension. (72215) A. True B. False
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A. True
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How does a licensee keep their license current if their license automatically expires because it was not reinstated during an approved period of suspension. (72215) A. Apply for reinstatement. B. Automatic renewal one year after completion of suspension. C. Apply for a new license. D. At completion of suspension license will automatically renew.
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C. Apply for a new license.
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If an unusual occurrence involves the discontinuance or disruption of services occurring during other than regular business hours of the Department, which of the following would be true? (72513) A. Fax a written notice to the Department immediately. B. Call it in and leave a message. C Make a telephone report ASAP when the Department resumes business hours. D. Report verbally within hours of the next business day.
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C. Make a telephone report ASAP when the Department resumes business hours.
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How often must the advisory dentist prove oral hygiene in-service to personnel and review oral hygiene policies and procedures? (72301) A. Quarterly. B. Annually. C. Every six months. D. Not required.
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B. Annually
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An unlicensed person may under direct supervision of a licensed nurse or licensed medical personnel may administer the following except which one? (72313) A. Medicinal shampoos and baths. B. Laxative, suppositories and enemas. C. Non legend topical applications for intact skin. D. Eye and/or ear drops.
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D. Eye and/or ear drops.
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Initials may be used for administering medications or treatment only when what? (72313) A. The person's signature is in the medication/treatment record. B. It is the initials of the nurse giving the medication. C. Only if policy and procedure is being followed. D. Only when the 2 hours rule is applied.
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A. The person's signature is in the medication/treatment record.
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What must be taken upon admission? (72315) A. Weight. B. Weight and length. C. Length. D. Weight, length and height.
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B. Weight and length.
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PRN orders for physical restraints are allowed in a SNF. (72319) A. True B. False
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B. False
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Placing a patient in a room alone as a form of seclusion is allowed. (72319) A. True B. False
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B. False
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Required documentation of the episode leading to a physical restraint is all of the following except which one? (72461) A. Type of restraint used. B. Length and restraint time. C. The location in the facility where the restraint was applied. D. Name of person applying the restraint.
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C. The location in the facility where the restraint was applied.
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All of the following shall be available at the nursing station except which one? (72321) A. Infection control policies and procedures B. Administrative policies and procedures. C. Drug reference materials. D. Name, address and telephone number of local Health Department.
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B. Administrative policies and procedures.
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Recipes for all items that are prepared for therapeutic and regular diets shall be available? (72335) A. True B. False
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A. True
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Plastic ware, china and glassware with chips, cracks or only loss of glaze are not considered hazardous? (72345) A. True B. False
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B. False
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Which of the following method is not appropriate for allowing utensils to drain and dry? (72347) A. Baskets. B. Racks. C. Dry cloths. D. Non absorbent surfaces.
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C. Dry cloths.
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Canned foods with only seam and/or rim dents may still be used. (72349) A. True B. False
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B. False
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Milk may be poured from plastic water and/or juice dispensers as long as the milk is pasteurized. (72349) A. True B. False
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B. False
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There must be a policy and procedure for left over food. (72349) A. True B. False
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A. True
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The Dietary Supervisor is allowed to do what kitchen task as long a they have sufficient time to do their managerial task? (72351) A. Inspect the kitchen hood sprinkler. B. Do the food shopping. C. Cook. D. Wash dishes.
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C. Cook
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As a general rule all new drug orders, except when the drug wouldn't start until the next day shall be available when? (72355) A. The same day. B. The next day. C. Within 2 hours. D. Within 4 hours.
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A. The same day.
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What is the rule for internal and external drugs? (72357) A. They are stored together unless contraindicated. B. They must be stored separately. C. Both are stored in the freezer. D. There are no rules.
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B. They must be stored separately.
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Drugs may be transferred between containers. (72357) A. True B. False
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B. False
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What is the storage alternative to discontinued drugs that are not marked? (72357) A. Throw them in the trash. B. Store in a separate location marked solely for discontinued drugs. C. Maintain a separate log. D. Return to the pharmacy.
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B. Store in a separate location marked solely for discontinued drugs.
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Signature stamps are permissible in being used for signing orders. (72361) A. True B. False
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B. False
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A report of irregularities found during the pharmacy consultant monthly review of the drug regimen should be given to whom? (72375) A. Administrator B. Primary Physician & DON C DON D Administrator and DON
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D. Administrator and DON
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It is not a requirement to file an application with the Department for the approval of optional services. (72401) A. True B. False
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B. False
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Special Treatment Program is only allowed in a facility licensed as a what? (72443) A. SNF only B. ICF only C. SNF or ICF D. Neither
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A. SNF only
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A Special Treatment Program is specifically designed for what group? (72443) A. Alcohol and drug abuse B. Developmentally disabled. C. Mental retardation. D. Mentally disordered.
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D. Mentally disordered.
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A physician may deny or limit a patient's right for good cause except for which one? (72453) A. Right to refuse lobotomy. B. Right to refuse shock treatment. C. Right to refuse lobotomy and shock treatment. D. Right to refuse medication.
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C. Right to refuse lobotomy and shock treatment.//////
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The delegation of any authority by a licensee shall do what? (72501) A. Diminish the responsibility of the licensee. B. Alleviates 50% of the responsibility of the licensee. C. Delegate 100% of the responsibility to another authority. D. Does not diminish the responsibility of the licensee.
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D. Does not diminish the responsibility of the licensee.
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In Special Treatment Program, care plans must be approved, signed and dated by the licensed healthcare practitioner. (72471) A. True B. False
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A. True
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In the event of a language or communication barrier between staff and patients, arrangements must be made for an interpreter. (72501, 72528) A. True B. False
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A. True/////////
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Skilled nursing facilities are allowed to notify the consumer that they have been approved by the Department with the words "Approved by the California Department of Health Services." (72509) A. True B. False
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B. False
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Who is responsible to make available to staff a copy of Title 22 Division 5 Regulations specific to Skilled Nursing Facilities? (72513) A. Not required B. Licensee C. Administrator D. DON
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C. Administrator
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Who is responsible for keeping staff informed of appropriate additions, deletions and changes to skilled nursing facilities regulations? (72513) A. Not required B. Licensee C. Administrator D. DON
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C. Administrator
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Alterations in the Standard Admission Agreement may be made without the Departments approval. (72516) A. True B. False
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B. False
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Who must provide evidence of reviewing recommendations provided by outside resources such as consultants? (72511) A. The DON B. Administrator C. Not required D. Medical Records
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B. Administrator
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A licensee who follows the bed hold process in its exactness as required by Title 22 is still required to provide the next available bed even if it is beyond the 7 day bed hold. (72520) A. True B. False
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B. False
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What is the exception to the required Admission and Discharge Policy and Procedure specific to race, color, religion ancestry or national origin? (72521) A. Exempt for profits. B. Any bona fide non-profit C. Any bona fide non-profit proving that its substantial purpose is not to evade this section. D. There are no exceptions
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C. Any bona fide non-profit proving that its substantial purpose is not to evade this section.
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What type of documentation must be in the patient health record when an interpreter is used? (72528) A. The full name of the interpreter. B. The interpreter's relationship to the patient and the facility. C. The name of the interpreter, the agency an their license number. D. Both A & B.
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D. Both A & B.
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In order for there to be no violation for a treatment given in an emergency situation with no informed consent there must be what? (72528) A. A notice to responsible party. B. Documentation. C. Signed doctors orders. D. No other alternative.
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B. Documentation.
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Space approved for specific uses at the time of licensure shall be converted to other uses without the approval of the Department. (72603) A. True B. False
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B. False
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A facility discontinuing it re-certification training program must also formally discontinue any beds designated for training purposes. (72607) A. True B. False
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B. False
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In an ICF, what is the time frame for a license application approval or disapproval? (73203) A. 30 Days B. 60 Days C. 90 Days D. No time frame
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A. 30 Days
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In an ICF, what happens if the department does not give an approval or disapproval for a license application within the given time frame? (73203) A. Nothing the licensee just waits. B. It is automatically deemed approved. C. It is the licensee's responsibility to make it happen. D. Must re-apply.
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B. It is automatically deemed approval.
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If the Supervisor of Health Services is an LVN, not an RN, what must be provided? (73319) A. RN Consultant not less then 4 hours weekly. B. Part time RN consultant. C. Full time RN consultant. D. No other requirements.
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A. RN Consultant no less then 4 hours weekly.
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In an ICF, what type of milk is the exception and may be served from a dispensing device approved for such use? (73345) A. Buttermilk B. Homogenized C. Pasteurized D. Non-fat milk
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B. Homogenized
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A facilities action to expel or treat negatively a patient within a 120 days of that patient filing a formal complaint to the Department shall be considered what? (73727) A. Illegal B. Abuse C. A violation D. Retaliation for the filing of the complaint.
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D. Retaliation for the filing of the complaint.
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A resident account on site and available immediately upon request is known as a what? (72529) A. Demand Trust B. Personal Account C. Petty Cash D. Drawing Account
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D. Drawing Account
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Which of the following is not a required policy and procedure in the Administrative Manual? (72521) A. Health records B. Health & Grooming C. Nursing Services D. Out on pass
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C. Nursing Services
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An organizational chart is required to be in the Administrative Manual. (72521) A. True B. False
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A. True
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Which of the following is not a required physicians services Policy and Procedure in the Patient Care policy and procedures manual? (72523) A. Orientation to the facility B. Physician visits C. Physician alternate schedules D. All required physician services
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D. All required physician services.
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Which of the following is not a required physician service? (72303) A. Consultant to the DON. B. Health record progress notes. C. Patient diagnosis. D. Written and signed orders for all treatments.
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A. Consultant to the DON.
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The phone numbers of all of those physicians providing emergency services if the attending physician is unavailable shall be conspicuously posted in the facility. (72301) A. True B. False
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A. True
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Who is responsible to ensure that residents are served their diets as prescribed? (72311) A. Dietician B. CNA C. Dietary supervisor D. Nursing
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D. Nursing
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In an ICF, what is the basic staffing requirement for a facility with less than 100 beds? (73319) A. RN 8 hours day shift 7 day week. B. LVN 8 hours day shift 7 day week. C. Full time RN or LVN. D. RN or LVN 8 hours day shift 7 day week.
answer
D. RN or LVN 8 hours day shift 7 day week.
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How long should sanitizing and disinfecting recording thermometer charts be kept on file? (72619) A. 3 years B. 1 year C. 4 years D. No requirement
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B. 1 year//////
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Mop heads are required to be changed daily. (72621) A. True B. False
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A. True
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If a physician's discharge orders do not include provisions for drug disposition, drugs shall be furnished to the patient. (72371) A. True B. False
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A. True
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Doors to resident's rooms meet the requirement of visual privacy? (72615) A. True B. False
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B. False
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What are the requirements of the head of housekeeping? (72621) A. Experience and training B. 5 years experience in housekeeping C. No requirements D. 90 hour certification program
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A. Experience and training.
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Who is responsible for providing medical and standard dictionaries, directories of community resources and current publications relating to gerentological nursing? (72557) A. Facility B. Nursing C. Pharmaceutical services D. Medical Director
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A. Facility
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Which of the following is not required to be provided by the facility? (72557) A. Reading light B. Flash lights C. Night stand D. Transportation
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D. Transportation
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Resident identification at a minimum must include which of the following? (72555) A. Resident name, doctor's name, facility name. B. Facility name and number. C. Facility name and number, doctor's name and number. D. Resident and facility name.
answer
D. Resident and facility name.
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The name, address and telephone number of the treating psychologist, if such practitioner is primarily responsible for the treatment of the patient, is required to be on the admission record. (72545) A. True B. False
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A. True
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It is not a requirement to note whether a PRN medication was effective or not. (72547) A. True B. False
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B. False
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The Patient Care Policy Committee shall review and approve the following services except which one? (72525) A. Nursing services B. Infection Control C. Housekeeping D. Administration
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D. Administration
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Who reviews and approves Administrative Policy and Procedure Manual? (72521, 72305) A. Administration B. Patient Care Policy Committee C. Governing body or licensee and Medical Director D. Medical Director
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C. Governing body or licensee and Medical Director.
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The Pharmaceutical Committee shall be composed of all of the following except who? (72525) A. Medical Director B. DON C. Administrator D. Pharmacist
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A. Medical Director
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Who is in charge of monitoring Policies and Procedures for storage, distribution and use of drugs? (72525) A. Pharmaceutical Committee B. QA Committee C. Patient Care Committee D. Pharmacy Consultant
answer
A. Pharmaceutical Committee
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Per OBRA, who is responsible for monitoring the storage, distribution and administration of drugs? (F-Tag 520) A. Pharmaceutical Committee B. QA Committee C. Patient Care Policy Committee D. Pharmacy consultant
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B. QA Committee
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What is Task number 4 of the survey process? (SOM, Appendix P) A. Tour B. Information gathering C. Analyzing information D. Sample selection
answer
D. Sample selection
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Within what time frame must the results of an abuse investigation be submitted? (F-Tag 223) A. 7 Days B. 24 Hours C. 5 Days D. 5 Working Days
answer
D. 5 Working Days
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What are the requirements for screening a patient for tuberculosis? (72523) A. Upon admission B. 30 Days prior to 15 days after admission C. Within 90 days of the date of admission to the facility D. Both A & C
answer
D. Both A & C
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What are the requirements to be the Supervisor of Health Services? (73319) A. RN B. LVN C. Licensed Nursing Home Administrator D. RN or LVN
answer
D. RN or LVN
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In an ICF who is allowed to review medications monthly? (73313) A. Pharmacist B. RN C. RN or Pharmacist D. Licensed Nurse or pharmacist
answer
C. RN or pharmacist
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Which of the following is discussed in the second 8 hours of orientation? (71833) A. Communication System B. Facility tour C. Philosophy of care D. Unusual occurrence
answer
C. Philosophy of care
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Which of the following is not a general area of service? (72443) A. Self help skills B. Behavior intervention C. Prevocational preparation D. Interpersonal relationships
answer
C. Prevocational preparation
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Out-of-home placement is a part of what therapeutic service? (72445) A. Social counseling B. Pre-Vocational training C. Pre-Release planning D. Home Making
answer
C. Pre-Release planning ///////
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Frustration tolerance, money management, use of transportation and physical fitness are a part of what general area of service? (72445) A. Pre-Release planning B. Self help skills C. Behavior intervention D. Interpersonal relationships
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B. Self help skills
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Helium is a medical gas. (72649) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
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A Speech Pathologist in a SNF at a minimum must have the following qualifications. (72107) A. A related degree B. Masters degree in the field with authorization to practice under supervision. C. Licensed by the California Board of Medical Quality Assurance D. Approved speech tech program
answer
B. Masters degree in the field with authorization to practice under supervision.
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A class "B" violation is best described by what? (73705) A. Imminent danger B. Minimal relationship C. Direct relationship D. Isolated deficiency
answer
C. Direct relationship
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"Good faith" is considered in what process? (72711) A. Issuing a citation B. Writing a citation C. Fixing a civil penalty. D. Issuing a 2567
answer
C. Fixing a civil penalty.
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Per OBRA, irregularities found during the monthly drug regimen review are reported to who? (F-Tag 329, 428) A. Administrator and DON B. Administrator, DON and the physician C. Physician and DON D. Administrator
answer
C. Physician and DON
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How often does the QA Committee meet? (F-Tag 520) A. Annually B. Quarterly C. Monthly D. No requirements
answer
B. Quarterly
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Per Title 22, how often does the QA Committee meet? (72525) A. Not required B. 6 month intervals C. Quarterly D. Monthly
answer
A. Not required
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What is the consequence to a facility for not being found in substantial compliance within 3 months after being found out of compliance? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. Civil penalties B. Denial of payment for new admissions C. POC D. Notice of Isolated Deficiencies
answer
B. Denial of payment for new admissions
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What is another term for the Enforcement Grid? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. Citation Grid B. Scope & Severity Grid C. State Grid D. Substantial Compliance Grid
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B. Scope & Severity Grid
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Scope refers to what? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. Isolated B. Pattern C. Wide spread D. All of the above
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D. All of the above
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The best example of severity is which of the following? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. Substantial compliance B. K C. POC D. Immediate jeopardy
answer
D. Immediate jeopardy
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What is the civil money penalty for a Category 2 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P). A. $1,000.00 - $5,000.00 per violation B. $50.00 - $3,000.00 per day of non-compliance C. $3,050.00 - $10,000.00 a day D. $1,000.00 - $5,000.00 per instance
answer
B. $50.00 - $3,000.00 per day of non-compliance
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Which of the following is a part of Task 1? (SOM, Appendix P). A. Entrance B. Sample Selection C. Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Report (CASPER) D. Tour
answer
C. Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Report (CASPER)
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What report provides information from a facilities last survey compared to State, Region and National averages? (Survey Protocol, SOM, Appendix P). A. Resident Level Summary B. OSCAR/Casper Report 3 C. Facility QI Report D. OSCAR/Casper Report 4
answer
D. OSCAR/Casper Report 4
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What report shows the compliance history of a facility for the last four surveys? (Survey Protocol, SOM, Appendix P) A. OSCAR/Casper Report 3 B. OSCAR C. OSCAR Report 4 D. Facility Quality Indicator Profile
answer
A. OSCAR/Casper Report 3
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What is the allowable time span between the evening meal and the breakfast meal given that there was an evening snack? (F-Tag 368) A. 10 Hours B. 16 Hours C. 12 Hours D. 18 Hours
answer
B. 16 Hours
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Per State regulations, what is the allowable time span between the evening meal an the breakfast meal given that there was an evening snack? (72335) A. 14 Hours B. 16 Hours C. 12 Hours D. 18 Hours
answer
A. 14 Hours
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What is the full name of the regulatory changes to the Federal Social Security Act in 1987 that significantly changed how nursing homes and home health agencies are regulated for Medicare and Medicaid certification? (James Allen, NHA 5th Edition, pg. 392-393) A. National Labor Relations Act B. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) C. Surveyor Guidelines D. Older American Act
answer
B. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)
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What report shows the facilities quality indicators with State and National comparisons? (Survey Protocol, SOM, Appendix P). A. Facility Characteristics Report B. Facility Quality Measure/Indicator Profile C. Resident Level Summary Report D. Resident Listing Report
answer
B. Facility Quality Measure/Indicator Profile
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What report do the surveyors use to pick their sample selection? (Survey Protocol, SOM, Appendix P) A. Facility QI Report B. Resident Listing Report C. Facility Characteristic Report D. Resident Level Summary Report
answer
D. Resident Level Summary Report
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How often should dose reduction be attempted regarding sedatives/hypnotics? (F-Tag 329) A. Quarterly B. 2 times a year C. 3 times within 6 months D. 2 times every 6 months
answer
A. Quarterly
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What best defines a significant change? (F-Tag 274) A. A substantial improvement B. A substantial decline C. A substantial improvement or decline D. Any noticeable change
answer
C. A substantial improvement or decline
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Per OBRA, what best describes the approach towards dose reduction of psychopharmacological medications? (F-Tag 329) A. 2 times within a year B. 2 Quarters within the first year at least one month apart and annually thereafter unless contraindicated C. 3 times within 6 months D. No requirements
answer
B. 2 Quarters within the first year and at least one month apart and annually thereafter unless contraindicated.
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Which of the following best describes a Stage IV pressure sore? (F-Tag 314) A. Partial thickness of skin loss B. Area of redness C. Exposed bone and muscle D. Full thickness of skin loss
answer
C. Exposed bone and muscle
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Which of the following describes an "unnecessary drug"? (F-Tag 329) A. No indication for use B. Excessive dose C. Inadequate monitoring D. All of the above
answer
D. All of the above
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Per OBRA, which of the following is true regarding the bed hold process? (F-Tag 205-206) A. After 7 day bed hold expires not required to provide bed. B. Must give next available be even after 7 day bed hold expires. C. Bed hold are only offered to Medi-Cal residents. D. If bed hold state regs followed....not required to provide next available bed after 7 day bed old expires.
answer
B. Must give next available bed even after 7 day bed hold expires.
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What best describes a Stage I pressure sore? (F-Tag 314) A. Prevents as an abrasion, blister or shallow crater. B. Exposed bone and/or muscle. C. Full thickness of skin loss. D. Persistent area of skin redness.
answer
D. Persistent area of skin redness.
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A citation "AA" would be a result of what? (Health & Safety Code 1424.5) A. G Deficiency B. A deficiency resulting in death C. J Deficiency D. Citation C
answer
B. A deficiency resulting in death.
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Which of the following are allowable reasons for transfer or discharge? (F-Tag 177, 201-204) A. Resident's welfare cannot be met in the facility. B. Resident's health has improved no longer needing facilities services. C. Resident has not paid facility after reasonable notice. D. All of the above.
answer
D. All of the above.
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Title 22 is found in what book of regulations? (No page) A. 42 CFR (Code of Federal Regulations) B. CCR (California Code of Regulations) C. Health & Safety Code D. OBRA
answer
B. CCR (California Code of Regulations)
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The required internal temperature when cooking poultry should be what? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 145 degrees F B. 155 degrees F C. 165 degrees F D. 175 degrees F
answer
C. 165 degrees F
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The required internal temperature when cooking red meat should be what? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 145 degrees F for 15 seconds B. 165 degrees F for 15 seconds C. 155 degrees F for 15 seconds D. 175 degrees F for 15 seconds
answer
A. 145 degrees F for 15 seconds
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The required internal temperature when cooking fish should be what? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 145 degrees F 15 seconds B. 165 degrees F 15 seconds C. 155 degrees F 15 seconds D. 175 degrees F 15 seconds
answer
A. 145 degrees F for 15 seconds
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A family member and/or visitor is allowed to bring food and give it to a specific resident and/or other resident's. (F-Tag 371, 372) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
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The grievance process is a part of what program? (F-Tag 223) A. Abuse prevention B Admission packet C. Resident Council D. Family Council
answer
A. Abuse prevention
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The facility must allow a resident to keep all of their belongings in the facility regardless of quantity and/or of available space? (F-Tag 174) A. True B. False
answer
B. False
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In issuing a citation which of the following is considered regarding the likelihood that an incident/event did happen? (72701, 73701) A. Time frame to correct B. Number of residents affected C. Equipment needed to make correction D. Substantial probability
answer
D. Substantial probability
question
Which citation involves a minimal relationship? (72701, 73709) A. Citation "B" B. Citation "AA" C. Citation "C" D. Citation "A"
answer
C. Citation "C"
question
When all residents are involved in the writing of a citation what must be given? (73715) A. A partial list B. No list at all C. A list of all residents D. Not relevant what residents were affected.
answer
B. No list at all
question
What is a QIS? (SOM, Appendix P) A. Quality Insurance Survey B. Quality Indicator System C. Quality Indicator Survey D. Quality Insurance Set
answer
C. Quality Indicator Survey
question
How many tasks are in a QIS? (SOM, Appendix P) A. 7 B. 10 C. 8 D. 9
answer
D. 9
question
Substandard Quality of Care (SQOC) found during QIS standard survey will result in a QIS extended survey. (SOM, Appendix P) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A resident using the phone at the nursing station and/or staff offices satisfies the requirement of having a phone available for the resident. (72617, F-Tag 174) A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Meats being cooled after having been cooked must set the following requirements. (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 140 - 40 degrees within 6 hours B. 165 - 70 degrees within first 4 hours C. 140 - 70 degrees within the first hour D. 135 - 70 degrees within the first 2 hours
answer
D. 135 - 70 degrees within the first 2 hours
question
Menus shall be planned with consideration of cultural background and food habits of patients. (72341) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Powdered milk may be used as a beverage but not in cooking. (72349) A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Meat cooling from 70 degrees after having been cooled for 2 hours must meet what requirement? (F-Tag 371-372) A. 70-45 degrees within 4 hours B. Immediately frozen C. 70-41 degrees within the next 4 hours D. No requirements
answer
C. 70-41 degrees within the next 4 hours
question
Milk may be dispensed from an approved dispensing device in which of the following? (72349) A. Into a glass pitcher to be poured into the resident's drinking glass. B. Individual cartons of milk must be opened in front of the resident right before they drink it. C. No specific requirements. D. Must be poured directly into patient's drinking glass from the approved dispenser or served in individual cartons.
answer
D. Must be poured directly into patient's drinking glass from the approved dispenser or served in individual cartons.
question
Married couples have a right to what? (F-Tag 175) A. Share a room B. Privacy C. Choice D. Dignity
answer
A. Share a room
question
The issue of dignity most relates to what? (72527, F-Tag 241) A. Privacy B. Individuality C. Respect D. All of the above
answer
D. All of the above
question
What is the medication error rate for 45 doses of which 2 were not given and 2 were given at the wrong time? (F-Tag 332, 333) A. 8.8% B. 10% C. 4.65% D. 5%
answer
A. 8.8%
question
All facilities get a QIS survey. (SOM, Appendix P) A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Who approves the facility for the QIS survey? (SOM, Appendix P) A. CMS B. HCFA C. DHS D. The State
answer
A. CMS
question
Health & Safety Code is to Title 22 what the Code of Federal Regulations is to what? (SOM, Appendix P) A. Quality of Life B. OBRA C. Quality of Care D. Welfare and Institutions Code
answer
B. OBRA
question
Staff speaking their primary language such as Spanish in front of a resident when the resident only speaks English or any other language is a violation of what regulation? (72527, F-Tag 241) A. Privacy & confidentiality B. Free choice C. Dignity D. Abuse
answer
C. Dignity
question
What is the civil money penalty per instance of non-compliance for a Category 2 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. $3,050 - $10,000 B. $1,000 - $10,000 C. $50.00 - $3,000 D. $5,000
answer
B. $1,000 - $10,000
question
What is the civil money penalty per instance of non-compliance for a Category 3 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. $3,050 - $10,000 B. $1,000 - $10,000 C. $50.00 - $3,000 D. $5,000
answer
B. $1,000 - $10,000
question
What is the deficiency for a wide spread finding resulting in no actual harm with less than minimum potential? (Deficiencies Matrix, Appendix P) A. A B. B C. C D. F
answer
C. C
question
What is the deficiency for an isolated finding with actual harm that is not immediate? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. I B. G C. D D. E
answer
B. G
question
What is the civil money penalty per day of non-compliance for a Category 2 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. $3,050 - $10,000 B. $1,000 - $10,000 C. $50.00 - $3,000 D. $5,000
answer
C. $50.00 - $3,000
question
What is the civil money penalty per day of non-compliance for a Category 3 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P) A. $50 - $3,000 per violation B. $3,050 - $10,000 per day C. $1,000 - $10,000 per day D. No penalty
answer
B. $3,050 - $10,000 per day
question
Termination of management involves what? (Deficiencies Matrix, Appendix P) A. Category 2 deficiency B. Substantial probability C. Category 3 deficiency D. G deficiency
answer
C. Category 3 deficiency
question
What is an isolated deficiency causing actual harm that is immediate? (Deficiencies Matrix, Appendix P) A. K B. J C. I D. L
answer
B. J
question
How must wash rags in the kitchen that are currently being used for the day be stored? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. On a rack B. Laid out flat C. Soaking in a mix of sanitizer & water D. No requirements
answer
C. Soaking in a mix of sanitizer & water
question
Hand sanitizer is allowed to be used in the kitchen as a replacement for hand washing with soap & water. (F-Tag 371-372) A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Which of the following is a required part of the Infection Control program? (F-Tag 441) A. Isolation procedures B. Work restrictions for ill employees C. Screening employees for communicable disease D. All of the above
answer
D. All of the above
question
The facility should follow the CDC's "Guidelines for Hand Hygiene in Health Care Settings." (F-Tag 441) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Which of the following are "black box warning" drugs? (F-Tag 329) A. Anti psychotics B. Anti depressants C. Beta blockers and narcotics D. All of the above
answer
D. All of the above
question
An alert resident who does not have a medical necessity for full length side rails may be allowed to have them if it is his/her preference? (F-Tag 222) A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
What is true of the reduction process for side rails being used as a restraint? (F-Tag 222) A. There are no reduction requirements. B. The patient must be able to release the device themselves. C. Side rails must be removed immediately. D. Reduction must be gradual.
answer
D. Reduction must be gradual.///////
question
Life Safety Code is not an OBRA requirement but rather an OSHA requirement. (F-Tag 454-469) A. True B. False
answer
B. False//////
question
When a legal obligation is owed and that obligation is not delivered resulting in a wrong to an individual is known as what? (James Allen, NHA 6th Edition, pg. 246-247) A. Negligence B. Malpractice C. Battery D. Tort
answer
D. Tort
question
Intentional threat or action that causes fear to another individual with reasonable alarm for harm is known as what? (James Allen, NHA 6th Edition, pg. 246) A. Negligence B. Malpractice C. Battery D. Assault
answer
D. Assault
question
Intentional touching of another person without consent of that individual is known as what? (James Allen, NHA 6th Edition, pg. 246) A. Tort B. Battery C. Assault D. Abuse
answer
B. Battery
question
A consent to treat signed upon admission will also suffice as an informed consent. (72528) A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
What is the financial fine for writing an insufficient fund check or a fictitious check to the Department for CNA fees? (71841) A. $1,000 plus jail B. $500 C. $10 D. $250 plus community service
answer
C. $10///////
question
Bed and room assignments for each LN & CNA must be posted daily in a clearly visible space. (72329.1) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Which of the following is true regarding the direct care giver to patient ratio requirement? (72329.1) A. Day shift 1:8; Evening shift 1:10; Night shift 1:12 B. Day shift 1:5; Evening shift 1:8; Night shift 1:13 C. Day shift 1:6; Evening shift 1:8; Night shift 1:12 D Day shift 1:10; Evening shit 1:12; Night shit 1:13
answer
B. Day shift 1:5; Evening shift 1:8; Night shift 1:13
question
Which of the following is the required LN to patient staffing ratio? (72329.1) A. 1 LN for every 8 or less patients B. 1 LN for every 10 or less patients C. 1 LN for every 8 or less patients depending on census. D. 1 LN for every 15 or less patients.
answer
C. 1 LN for every 8 or less patients depending on census.
question
In staffing ratios regarding calculations what is the rule regarding census? (72329.1) A. Include bed holds B. Use the highest census number within the 24 hour period. C. Base on total number of licensed beds. D. Use the census at the beginning of the day rather then the end of the day.
answer
B. Use the highest census number within the 24 hour period.
question
The following statement: "This record shall be retained by the certified nurse assistant for a period of four (4) years starting from the date of enrollment" shall be kept in each CNA personnel file documenting in-service attendance. (71849) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Of all of the theory and clinical hours for the CNA training program which area has by far the greatest focus? (71835) A. Long term care patient B. Patient care procedures C. Patient care skills D. Interpersonal skills
answer
C. Patient care skills
question
Which of the following are considered direct care givers? (72038) A. CNA's and LVN's B. Psych tech's and RN's C. Nurse assistants in approved training program D. All of the above
answer
D. All of the above
question
A patient who is able to leave a building unassisted under emergency conditions is known as what? (72077.1) A. Non-ambulatory B. Independent C. Ambulatory D. High level functioning
answer
C. Ambulatory
question
A patient who is unable to leave a building unassisted under emergency conditions is known as what? (72077.1) A. Non-ambulatory B. Dependent C. Handicapped D. Low level functioning
answer
A. Non-ambulatory
question
A patient who needs a cane to leave a building under emergency conditions would be considered what? (72077.1) A. Independent B. Ambulatory C. Non-ambulatory D. There is no such definition
answer
C. Non-ambulatory//////
question
Per OBRA, what best defines the regulations for the Medical Director? (F-Tag 501) A. Liaison between administrator and attending physician B. Consultant to DON C. Implement Resident Care Policies and coordinate medical treatment and services D. Approve Administrative Manual
answer
C. Implement Resident Care Policies and coordinate medical treatment and services
question
Patient call lights should be answered promptly not because it is a regulation but because it is the right thing to do. (72315) A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Menu's shall include seasonal items. (72341) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
What is the requirement regarding consultants? (72517) A. Must visit monthly B. Must visit quarterly C. No specific requirements D. Must participate in staff development program
answer
D. Must participate in staff development program
question
If the licensee ever visits the building he/she must have what? (72535) A. Annual health exam B. No requirement C. The same health exam requirements as employees D. Clearance for TB and communicable diseases
answer
C. The same health exam requirements as employees
question
What are the basic requirements in order to admit a new patient? (72515) A. Bed available B. An admitting physician C. Able to provide adequate care D. Both B & C
answer
D. Both B & C
question
Who is responsible for screening and accepting patients for admission? (72513) A. Administrator or designee B. DON C. Medical Director D. Both A & B
answer
A. Administrator or designee
question
Refund policies and out on pass policies are required to be in what manual? (72521) A. No Requirement B. Business office manual C. Administrative manual D. Nursing manual
answer
C. Administrative manual
question
If a patient or the patient's representative cannot communicate with the Licensed Healthcare Practitioner because of a language or communication barrier the facility shall arrange for an interpreter? (72528) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A patient's medical record may be moved from the facility to an off site storage unit without a waiver from the Department under what circumstances? (72543) A. Patient has expired or discharged. B. Patient has been in the facility for more than 10 years. C. Per patient's request D. Both A & C
answer
A. Patient has expired or discharged.
question
Under what circumstance does a facility need a waiver/approval from the Department to move a patient's record off site? (72543) A. Patient has expired B. Current patient records C. Patient has discharged home D. There are no exceptions to needing a waiver.
answer
B. Current patient records//////
question
Which of the following is required to be on the admission record? (72545) A. Podiatrist B. Dentist C. Psychologist D. None of the above
answer
D. None of the above////
question
The route of the administration of drugs must be documented unless given how? (72547) A. Crushed B. Injection C. Orally D. G-tube
answer
C. Orally/////
question
Refund Policies, rate of charge for services, basic rate and type of services provided are all required to be in what Manual? (72521) A. Patient Care Policies & Procedures Manual B. Business office Policies & Procedures Manual C. Administrative Policies & Procedures Manual D. Personnel Policies & Procedures Manual
answer
C. Administrative Policies & Procedures Manual
question
All policies and procedures are available to the public. (72521) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A violation of a statute or regulation which causes direct relationship to the health, safety or security of the patient's is known as what? (73705) A. Direct relationship B. Class "A" violation/citation C. Class "B" violation/citation D. Both A & C
answer
D. Both A & C
question
A violation of a statute or a regulation relating to the operation or maintenance of any facility which the department determines has only minimal relationship to the health and safety of the patients would be considered what? (72701, 73709) A. Class "C" violation B Class "A" violation C. Direct relationship D. Class "B" violation
answer
A. Class "C" violation
question
A violation of a statute or regulation which presents an imminent danger to the patient's health and/or safety is best defined as what? (73702) A. Class "C" violation B. Class "A" violation C. Direct relationship D. Class "D" violation
answer
B. Class "A" violation
question
What is the required internal temperature for re-heating food to ensure safety from foodbourne illness? (F-Tag 371, 372) A. 165 degrees F B. 175 degreees F C. 165 degrees F for "all parts" D. Refer to standard temperature chart
answer
C. 165 degrees F for "all parts"
question
If a licensee wants to make changes to the Standard Admissions Agreement, they may receive the Department's approval by submitting specific changes. (Section 73518) A. True B. False
answer
A. True
