NBCOT exam prep-Therapy Ed book – Flashcards
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An OTA leads a community integration group for individuals with mild intellectual disabilities who reside in a group home. During a travel training session, a member of the group slips while going up the stairs of a bus. The client quickly gets up, pays the fare, sits down, and jokingly states, "Good thing I bounce well". Which action should the OTA take after assessing that the person is not injured? A. Cancel the planned activity and retrn to the group home to file an occurrence report. B. Ask the bus driver to radio for an ambulance to obtain a medical assessment to validate that the client was not injured,. C. Continue with the activity and ask the client to report any development of symptoms related to the fall. D. Continue with the planned activity and file an occurrence report upon return to the group home.
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C. Continue with the planned activity and file an occurrenc report upon return to the group home. Rationale: Upon determination that the client has not been injured there is no need to cancel the planned activity. It is standard policy to file a report about any incidents that involve clients but occurrence reports about minor events do not have to be done immediately There is no information in the scenario provided to indicate a need to call an ambulance. Asking the client to report any symptoms related to the fall is appropriate, but it is not the most important action for the OTA to take. Proper documentation is a professional and legal requirement that must be met.
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An adult is hospitalized and diagnosed with mild COPD. During the discharge planning session, the person identifies a desire to exercise regularly. Which of the following should the OTA recommend the client pursue? A. The hospital wellness program's yoga group. B. low impact aerobics at a local gym C. weight lifting under the direction of a personal trainer D. jogging with friends
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A. The hospital wellness program's wellness program's yoga group Rationale: The yoga and stretching program put the least amount of pressure on the pulmonary and cardiovascular systems. Also, the program is monitored by hospital personnel. All of the other activities can stress the cardiovascular and pulmonary systems too much. Also, they are not monitored by health care professionals familiar with COPD.
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In a program for survivors of domestic violence which of the following would the OTA do when using a client-centered approach? A. offer specific suggestions for more effectively dealing with confrontations B. respond to self-deprecating comments with positive feedback on person characteristics C. reinforce only the consumers' neutral comments about themselves and their skills D. paraphrase the consumers' statements about past difficulties to help clarify feelings.
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D. paraphrase the consumers' statements about past difficulties to help clarify feelings Rationale: The focus of client-centered therapy is to be directed by the consumer. The goal is to encourage awareness of feelings and exploration of possible consequences of future actions. Offering suggestions is not a component of client-centered therapy. The OTA should use techniques to encourage the consumers to generate such suggestions. In the client-centered approach, the OTA should withhold judgment on self-deprecating comments. The best approach is to accept the consumer unconditionally. To foster self-esteem, the OTA does best to focus on the consumers' ability to discover positive feelings independent of what other people may say.
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An OTA working on an acute psychiatric inpatient unit conducts a series of groups for clients newly admitted to the unit. Which group leadership style is most effective for the OTA to assume when leading these groups? A. Advisory B. Facilitative C. Laissez-faire D. Directive
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D. Directive Rationale: Directive leadership involves the provision of structure, clear directions, and immediate and consistent feedback. These qualities are needed in a group whose members are acutely ill with psychiatric disorders. The other choices do not provide the structure or organization needed for individuals whose symptoms often include decreased attention span, distractibility, poor social skills and/or thought disorders.
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An OTA works with an eight year-old with pervasive developmental disabilities in order to improve self-care skills. In teaching the child to brush teeth, the OTA places the toothbrush in the child's hand and guides it to the mouth. To help the child learn to complete the activity the OTA uses the somatosensory system. Which of the following is most effective for the OTA to use next during intervention with this child? A. Tell the child to brush up and down. B. Provide hand-over-hand assistance to brush the child's teeth. C. touch the child's hand to prompt hand-to-mouth movements D. Instruct the child to follow a pictorial sequence card depicting tooth-brushing
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B. Provide hand-over-hand assistance to brush the child's teeth. Rationale: In providing hand-over-hand assistance, the OTA is using tactile, proprioceptive, and movement stimuli to cue the child. The somatosensory system is inclusive of these sensory systems. providing auditory, tactile, or visual input does not provide sufficient input for the child to learn the task.
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An individual with advanced Huntington's chorea is admitted to a skilled nursing facility. The resident weighs 280 lbs and cannot independently transfer. What is the best recommendation for the COTA to make to the resident's direct care staff to ensure a safe transfer? A. A mechanical lift transfer B. a two-person lift transfer C. a standpivot transfer D. an assisted sliding board transfer
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A. a mechanical lift transfer Rationale: A mechanical lift transfer is the safest for both the resident and the staff. The other transfers require motor and cognitive abilities that are beyond the capacity of an individual with advanced Huntington's chorea. Huntington's chorea, an autosomal dominant neuromuscular disease, is characterized by choreiform movements, progressive intellectual deterioration, and psychiatric disturbances. The individual's movement disorder combined with potential confused and/or agitated behaviors requires the use of a mechanical lift for safe and efficient transfers.
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Two weeks after beginning kindergarten, a five year old with myelomengingocele develops sudden onset of headaches, vomiting, irritability, and "sunken" appearance of eyes without signs of a fever. When the OTA reports the child's presneting symptoms, which condition should the OTA identify as a concern? A. stomach flue B. tethered cord C. school anxiety D. shunt malfunction
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D. shunt malfunction Rationale: These identified symptoms, along with seizures, are all symptoms of shunt malfunction. Shunt malfunction is a medical emergency. Stomach flu might be a possible reason for several of these symptoms, but given the clustering of the symptoms, the child should be checked for shunt malfunction. The signs of tethered cord include difficulties with bowel and bladder, gait disturbances, and/or foot deformities. A child may have a tendency to complain of stomach aches and other complaints to avoid school, if anxious. However, school anxiety would not include physical evidence of illness such as sunken eyes.
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A client with a spinal cord injury and an OTA set a goal for the client to be independent in all aspects of bowel and bladder care, including skin inspection. Which of the following is the highest or most severe level of complete spinal cord injury the client can have to be able to achieve this goal? A. C7-C8 B. C4-5 C. C5 D. C6
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A. C7-8 Rationale: These skills correspond to the C7-8 level. Individuals with SCIs at the other levels do not have the fine motor control to perform the skills independently.
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The members of a clubhouse attain a level of cohesion which enables them to perform at a cooperative level. Two members disagree with the others on the details of a group project. How should the OTA leading this group respond to this conflict? A. Clarify all viewpoints and facilitate the members in decision making B. Listen to all viewpoints and suggest that members vote to determine the project details C. Mediate only when the members have reached a deadlocked situation D. encourage the members to explore alternative methods to resolve the conflict
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D. Encourage the members to explore alternative methods to resolve the conflict. Rationale: In a cooperative group, the OTA acts an an advisor. Group members are mutually responsible for giving feedback and meeting group needs. The OTA's interventions should facilitate group problem-solving rather than direct the course of actions or decisions. Waiting until a group is deadlocked would not be beneficial to group cohesion.
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After a word-related injury to the left index finger, an assembly line worker is fit with a buddy strap incorporating the index and middle fingers. In describing the primary purpose of the strap to the client, which of the following explanations is most accurate for the OTA to state? A. The strap provides passive ROM to the index finger B. the strap reduces edema in the index finger C. The strap immobilizes the index finger D. The strap provides active ROM to the index finger
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A. the strap provides passive ROM to the index finger Rationale: The buddy strap provides passive ROM to the injured finger. The buddy strap can also help to improve a deformity that has been caused by immobilization due to injury, weakness, or casting. Elevation of the finger, retrograde massage, and contrast baths are techniques that help to reduce edema. Sometimes the strap on the finger can actually restrict circulation and increase edema. The strap mobilizes the finger and limits active ROM.
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Several patients in a cardiovascular unit are referred to OT for rehab in areas of occupation. Which diagnosis would be an inclusive criterion for participation in the home management activity group conducted in the department's simulated apartment? A. hypotension B. unstable angina C. venous thrombosis D. Uncontrolled atrial arrhythmia
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A. hypotension Rationale: Persons with hypotension can be included in a rehab group that includes IADL's. Engagement in these activities would be contraindicated for patients with the other conditions. Unstable angina is a coronary insufficiency with risk for myocardial infarction or sudden death. The person's pain is difficult to control and it is present with low level activity or rest. Venous thrombosis and uncontrolled atrial arrhythmia must be monitored closely and a person with these diagnoses would be better candidates for OT services that are provided bedside.
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An OTA is conducting a community transportation group with individuals attending a TBI day treatment program in an urban area. Which should the group do first? A. read a subway map B. take a subway as a group C. determine a destination D. purchase a subway fare card
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C. determine a destination Rationale: The firs step is to determine a desired destination. Map reading skills would be the next step in determining the subway route(s) to take to arrive at the desired destination. Purchasing a fare card and taking the subway as a group comes after planning a route.
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A child with tactile defensiveness is receiving intervention from an OTA who uses a sensory integrative approach. Which method is most effective for the OTA to use when introducing tactile stimuli to the child? A. provide deep touch and firm pressure where the child can see the stimuli B. apply the stimuli in the direction opposite of hair growth with vision occluded C. apply light touch across the face and abdomen with vision occluded D. provide light brushing across the palmar surfaces of the extremities with the child watching
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A. provide deep touch and firm pressure where the child can see the stimuli Rationale: Deep touch and firm pressure help to decrease tactile defensiveness. The decrease defensiveness, the child needs to see the stimuli. The self application of stimuli can also increase tolerance. Light touch, brusing across the face and abdomen, and application of stimuli in the direction opposite of hair growth are all aversive to a person with tactile defensiveness. Stimuli should be applied in the direction of hair growth for this is less aversive.
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An OTA uses the Rood approach to facilitate motor development. A pediatric client has mastered the neck co-contraction pattern. Which pattern is best for the OTA to implement next? A. Quadruped B. prone on elbows C. rollover D. standing
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B. prone on elbows Rationale: According to Rood there are eight different patterns which occur in the following sequence: 1) supine withdrawal 2) rollover 3) prone extension 4) neck co-contraction 5) prone on elbows 6) quadruped 7) standing 8) walking
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The parents of a five year old with ADHD express difficulty managing the child's aggressive behavior towards older siblings. Which is the most effective strategy for the OTA to recommend to the parents? A. allow the child to vent aggressive feelings on a stuffed animal or doll B. redirect the child's energy into acceptable and safe play activities C. provide consistent punishment for aggressive behavior D. send the child to stay with a family member or close friend for an extended "time-out"
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B. redirect the child's energy into acceptable and safe play activities Rationale: Redirecting the child's energy to activities can be an effective management of the child's aggressive behavior. It would also be appropriate to have the parents observe and record the precipitants to these behaviors to determine potential environmental modifications. This is not an option provided. Allowing the child to vent aggression onto a stuffed animal or doll would not provide the structure the child needs to learn appropriate, safe behaviors. Also, aggressive behaviors are not always coupled with aggressive feelings. Sometimes the hyperactivity of a child simply asserts itself in socially unacceptable ways, such as when a child pushes a sibling very hard in an effort to get the sibling to play "chase". Punishing the child or removing the child from the family does not address the child's needs. Taking punitive actions towards the child can increase feelings of resentment and promote a decrease in feelings of self-worth, which are typically already low in children with ADHD, which can fuel aggressive behavior.
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An individual with a spinal cord injury at the level of T-1 is practicing a stand pivot transfer in the OT department of a rehab center. The patient c/o dizziness and nausea. Which action is most important for the OTA to take first? A. call for help according to facility procedures B. return the pt to the w/c for a 5 min break C. return the person to the w/c and immediately recline it D. return the pt to the w/c and transport the pt back to rest in bed
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C. return the person to the w/c and immediately recline it Rationale: Individuals with SCI are at risk for orthostatic hypotension. C/O of dizziness and nausea are indications of orthostatic hypotension and require an immediate response. Reclining the individual in his/her w/c will return blood pressure to a normal range. The other choices do not address the need for imeediate remediation of this crisis.
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The members of a group are not working well together and show decreased levels of trust. Which action is most effective for the OTA to take to enhance the group's cohesiveness? A. begin the group with inspirational phrases B. verbally reinforce the goals and norms of the group C. have each member write a journal about his/her perspectives about the group D. ask members to talk about what they do not like about the group
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B. verbally reinforce the goals and norms of the group Rationale: The most effective choice is to verbally reinforce the goals and norms of the group. This helps to direct the focus of the members and to address difficulties in keeping that focus. Inspirational phrases can be helpful to instill a positive attitude but they do not address the need to develop group cohesion. Writing in a journal can help develop personal insights but it would not increase group cohesion. Asking for self-disclosure in a group with decreased levels of trust will decrease cohesion. Also, the topic of what members do not like about the group is not likely to facilitate trust, openness, and willingness to share.
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A child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis wears bilateral night resting splints with wrists in zero degrees of extension, MPs and IPs flexed, ulnar deviation of 10 deg, and thumbsin opposition. The child c/o pain in wrists upon awakening. No redness is noted upon removing splints. ROM measurements show ulnar deviation of 5 degrees. Which action should the OTA take in response to this complaint and these observations? A. modify the splints at the wrist B. pad the ulnar aspect on the inside of the splints C. d/c the splints and monitor the status of pain for two weeks D. construct volar cock-up splints for use during the day
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A. modify the splints at the wrist Rationale: The splints should be adjusted by use of heat to accommodate to the current position of ulnar deviation. Padding is frequently used to attempt to modify the position of the splint, but it does not correctly allow distribution of pressure. Discontinuing the splints will serve to increase deformities and pain. The child might benefit from day splints, but this does not address the issue of the night resting splints causing pain and being set an an incorrect angle for the child's ulnar deviation measurement.
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An adolescent with myelomeningocele (spina bifida) at the C8 level wants to access a new computerized play system. Which is the best adaptation for the OTA to recommend the adolescent use to access this system? A. A chin switch B. a tenodesis splint C. a dorsal wrist splint with a universal cuff D. a joy stick control
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D. a joystick control Rationale: At the level of C-8, the teenager can independently use a joy stick control. A chin switch woul be indicated for a C-3, C-4 level lesion; a tenodesis splint is indicated for a C-6 level lesion; and a dorsal splint with a universal cuff is indicated for a C-5 level lesion
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An individual is scheduled for a right hip total arthroplasty (THA). Following surgery, which is the most appropriate bed positioning intervention for the OTA to recommend? A. sidelying with the lower extremities adducted B. use of an abductor pillow between the lower extremities C. use of a hospital bed to elevate the lower extremities to 90 deg. D. change of position from supine to prone every 2 hours
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B. use of an abductor pillow between the lower extremities Rationale: An abductor pillow will prevent adduction of the operated hip, which is an important post-surgery precaution. Using a hospital bed to elevate the lower extremities to flex the hips to 90 degrees is contraindicated bc a major hip precaution is not to flex beyond 90 deg. Changing position from supine to prone requires rolling which can result in internal rotation of the hip. External rotation should be avoided if an anterolateral approach is used. This is contraindicated for it can result in dislocation.
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An OTA works with an individual recovering from a TBI in a rehab hospital. The OTA uses a transfer of training approach to help the pt develop and carry out a daily schedule of activities upon the patient's return home. What is the most effective activity for the OTA to use during an intervention session with this client? A. preparation of a simple meal B. organization of a list of daily activities C. composition of a shopping list D. completion of an interest checklist
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B. organization of a list of daily activities Rationale: A transfer of training approach is a remedial/restorative approach that focuses on restoration of components to increase skill. It is deficit specific and utilizes tabletop and computer activities as treatment modalities. According to this approach, the activity of organizing a list of daily activities will help with the ability to formulate a schedule in one's home environment. Preparing a meal, composing a shopping list, and completing an interest checklist are each discrete activities that would develop skills related to the performance of these activities, but they do not address the skills needed to schedule the multiple activities of a typical day.
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An OTA observes a colleague using fluidotherapy on a pt. with an insensate hand after being informed by the supervising therapist that this physical agent modality (PAM) is contraindicated for this specific case. The colleague justifies the use of this PAM based on the patient's request for the intervention. The OTA meets with the OT supervisor to express concern about the colleague's behavior. Which ethical principle does the OTA identify the colleague is violating? A. judgment B. competence C. autonomy D. justice
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B. competence Rationale: Competence means practicing correctly. In this scenario, the colleague is incorrectly performing or administering the therapeutic activity. Judgment refers to decision-making skills in implementing services and is not an ethical principle of practice. Autonomy refers to having the pt. involved in the decisions of therapy to reflect personal goals, values, and interests. Justice refers to complying with the laws of the profession as well as legality of local, state, and federal laws. While not practicing competently is a violation of state practice regulations and licensure laws, there is not law specifically against providing fluidotherapy for a person with an insensate hand.
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A person is recovering from a major cardiac infarct. During the initial session, the pt loudly and vigorously expresses plans to immediately resume a daily rigorous exercise routine. The OTA reports the individual's plan to the cardiac rehab team and explains that the individual appears to be in which of the following disability adjustment stages? A. shock B. denial C. acting out D. acceptance
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B. denial Rationale: During the psychosocial adjustment to disability/illness, denial is characterized by unrealistic expectations of recovery and minimizing one's difficulties. Shock is characterized by emotional numbness, depersonalization and reduced speech and mobility. Acceptance is reflected in the acknowledgement of the situation and the development of a new self-concept reflective of one's assets and potentialities. Acting out is a term used to describe behavior that challenges societal norms.
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An OTA working on an acute cardiopulmonary rehab unit collaborates with the OT to plan intervention for an individual who can complete activities in Stage II of cardiac recovery at a MET level of 1.4-2.0. Which activities should the OTA recommend be included in this intervention plan? A. shaving and crafts B. self-feeding and reading C. deep breathing exercises and table top games D. showing and isometric exercises
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A. shaving and crafts Rationale: Shaving and crafts meet the 1.4-2.0 MET criteria of stage II of cardiopulmonary recovery. Self-feeding, reading, deep breathing and table top games are at a 1.0-1.4 MET level and would be appropriate for an individual in stage I. Showering is at the MET level of 2.0-3.0 and would be appropriate for an individual in stage III of recovery. Isometrics are contraindicated during stage II.
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Several adolescents with behavior problems attend a school-based after-school program. They work at an egocentric-cooperative level in a group dealing with issues related to peer pressure. Which of the following would be most likely for the OTA to observe the participants doing in the group? A. actively taking on roles such as energizer, coordinator, or opinion giver B. focusing on the group tasks rather than the feelings of the participants C. making decisions with minimal to no supervision from the group leader D. performing group skills consistent with the developmental level of 15 to 18 years of age
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B. focusing on the group tasks rather than the feelings of the participants Rationale: The egocentric-cooperative group tends to focus on the tasks to be completed with little attention devoted to the feelings of the participants. At this level, members do not actively assume diverse group roles. A mature group would require little or not supervision and performs at the 15 to 18 year old developmental level. An egocentric-cooperative group performs at the five to seven year developmental level.
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An OTA conducts an intervention session with a client recovering from a CVA to develop transfer skills. The client has a co-morbidity of epilepsy. As the client stands to complete a transfer from the w/c to the bed, the client reports feelings sensations that are indicative of an aura. Which is the best immediate action for the OTA to take in response to this situation? A. provide reassurance ad ask for guidance from the OT B. return the client to a seated position in the w/c until the sensations pass C. end the session so the client can rest D. guide the person into a sidelying position on the bed
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D. guide the person into a sidelying position on the bed Rationale: An aura is the brief warning stage before the tonic phase of an epileptic seizure. During an aura, changes in tactile, gustatory, olfactory, or other sensations are experienced (e.g., numbness, unexplained smells). After this brief stage, a tonic-clonic seizure will occur. The tonic phase includes a loss of consciousness, stiffening of the body, heavy and irregular breathing, drooling, skin pallor, and occasional bladder and bowel incontinence for a few seconds before the clonic phase begins. The clonic phase includes alternating ridigity and relaxation of muscles. since a person could fall and harm him/herself during a seizure, the OTA must immediately ensure the client's safety. Therefore, the best action for the OTA to take is to place the person in sidelying on the bed. If there are bed rails these should be raised. this will prevent the client from falling or choking. Providing reassurance, having the client remain seated, and ending the session does not effectively deal with the immediate need to provide interventions for the impending seizure. The OTA does not need (nor should wait for) the input of the OT.
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An OTA provides intervention for an individual with a swallowing disorder. To elicit a swallow reflex, the OTA provides sensory input to the inferior faucial arches. Which should the OTA use to provide this intervention? A. a tongue depressor B. a moistened cotton swab C. a chilled dental examination mirror D. a warmed metal teaspoon
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C. a chilled dental exam mirror Rationale: The use of a cold stimulation to the inferior faucial arches via a chilled dental examination mirror will elicit a swallow reflex. The others will not.
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A two year old child receives home care early intervention services. The OT intervention plan includes a goal to develop the child's pincer grasp. Which is the most appropriate activity for the OTA to work on with the child during an intervention session? A. finger-feeding of O-shaped cereal B. picking up marbles C. drawing with jumbo crayons D. stacking one inch cubes
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A. finger feeding of o-shaped cereal Rationale; Picking up O-shaped cereal to finger feed will facilitate the use of a pincer grasp. While picking up marbles also uses a pincer grasp, this activity presents a potential choking hazard, as two year olds frequently put items they pick up into their mouths. Drawing with a jumbo crayon uses a gross grasp. Stacking cubes uses a radial digital grasp.
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A child with autism receives home care OT intervention services. The parent identifies a primary goal of developing the child's independent toileting skills. The child is completely dependent and the parent reports not attempting toilet training for several years. The OTA collaborates with the OT to establish the first intervention goal for the child. Which behavior should this goal address? A. the child's ability to sit on the toilet with supervision. B. the child's ability to verbally tell someone of the need to go to the bathroom C. the child's ability to non-verbally indicate the need to go to the bathroom D. The child's ability to indicate when the diaper is wet or soiled
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D. the child's ability to indicate when the diaper is wet or soiled. Rationale: The first toileting skill that must be developed is the child's recognition of being wet or soiled. This typically occurs at 12 months. Subsequent toileting skills such as sitting on the toilet with supervision and indicating the need to go to the bathroom can develop after this initial recognition of being wet or soiled.
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A client with arthritis of both hands has ulnar drift of MPs during finger extension and flexion and at rest. The person also has a lengthening of the central slips of the extensor digitorum communis tendon of the right endex and middle fingers. Which of the following should the OT report the person is exhibiting? A. swan-neck deformities B. trigger-finger deformities C. MP palmar subluxation-dislocations D. Boutonniere deformities.
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D. Boutonniere deformities Rationale: A boutonniere deformity is caused by a lengthening or rupture of the extensor digitorum communis tendons and is expressed by DIP hyperextension and PIP flexion. A swan-neck deformity can result from the rupture of the lateral slips of the extensor digitorum communis or flexor digitorum superficialis tendon and results in DIP flexion and PIP hyperextension. A trigger-finger deformity results from a thickening of the flexor digitorum superficialis tendon at the flexor tunnel, also called a tendon sheath. The affected joint tends to stay open upon attempt to close or fist the hand. Synovitis of the MP joints can cause damage to the MP ligaments with palmar dislocation in conjunction with, or independent of, ulnar drift.
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An OTA is hired to work in the OT department of an acute psychiatric unit. The OTA requests an orientation to hospital policies and procedures. Which is the most important focus for the OTA to learn the policies and procedures of during the initial orientation session? A. crisis intervention B. reimbursement C. employee benefits D. group program scheduling
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A. crisis intervention Crises can occur at any time in any acute facility. All employees must immediately learn the policies and procedures for dealing with crises to ensure the safety of patients and staff. Reimbursement issues and group program scheduling can be reviewed during regular supervisory sessions. These issues are not immediate concerns. Employee benefits are the responsibility of the personnel/human resources department.
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An individual with bilateral lower extremity amputations and cataracts is newly admitted to a skilled nursing facility. The individual retains some residual vision. During intervention sessions, which is the most effective placement for the OTA to use when presenting materials to the person? A. to the side of the person, with no direct lighting B. directly in front of the person, at eye level C. directly in front of the person, at table top level D. to the side of the person, with a strong light shining
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A. to the side of the person, with no direct lighting Rationale: An individual with cataracts loses central vision first; therefore, presenting evaluation materials directly in front of the person will be ineffective. Peripheral vision gradually decreases with cataracts, so presenting materials to the side will enable the person to use his/her residual vision. Individuals with cataracts have increased difficulty with glare, so indirect lighting is indicated.
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An adult who incurred a CVA has difficulty dealing with increasing amounts of stimuli. This is noted in all modalities. The OTA documents these observations. Which cognitive perceptual dysfunction should the OTA report the client is exhibiting? A. inability to abstract B. poor organizational skills C. poor semantic memory D. generalized attention deficit
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D. generalized attention deficit Rationale: Attention requires the ability to focus on a specific stimulus without being distracted by external or internal stimuli. The other options describe deficits with different manifestations. (The ability to abstract requires the person to see relationships between concepts, ideas and events. Organization is the ability to structure thoughts and actions. Semantic memory is the general knowledge shared by groups of people, such as social norms).
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An adolescent with spinal muscle atrophy shows decreased trunk balance and strength during intervention sessions. Upper extremity strength and ROM appear unchanged. When discussing these observations with the OT, which is the best recommendation for the OTA to make? A. a re-evaluation of the client be completed B. the client be referred to an orthotist for a soft spinal support C. the client be measured for a power w/c D. a trunk strengthening program be initiated with the client
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A. A re-evaluation of the client be completed Rationale: The most important action to take after noticing a change in the functional status of a person with a progressive condition is to re-evaluate. Based on the results of the eval, interventions can be planned. These interventions can include orthotics, powered mobility and/or a strengthening program; only the results of a re-evaluation can appropriately determine intervention needs. The OT would perform the re-evaluation.
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The parent of a newborn infant has bilateral should weakness and is referred to OT for training in energy conservation techniques for the performance of parenting and home management tasks. Which adaptation(s) is/are most effective for the OTA to recommend the parent use? A. A top-loading washer and dryer for clothing care B. A steamer, steamer basket, and/or crock pot for meal prep C. a front pack carrier for holding the infant D. cloth diapers and the use of a weekly diaper care service
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B. A steamer, steamer basket, and/or crock pot for meal prep Rationale: A steamer, steamer basket and crock pot eliminate the need to move and lift heavy pans and pots; tasks which require intact bilateral UE strength. A top-loading washer and dryer require more work than frontloading machines. The extra lifting required for top-loading appliances would be difficult with shoulder weakness. A front pack infant carrier has straps which cross the shoulders so this would be contraindicated in this case. The child's weight in the carrier could contribute to shoulder strain. While a weekly diaper service can provide clean diapers each week, cloth diapers require additional care (i.e. rinsing) which can consume the client's time and energy. Lifting the week's load of wet diapers to bring to the door and picking up the week's allotment of clean diapers can be difficult with shoulder weakness.
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An OTA provides home care services to an individual with advanced stages of dementia. The family caregiver expresses increased concern over the person's wandering behavior during late night and early morning hours. The caregiver expresses fear that the individual will leave the house while everyone is asleep. Which recommendation is best for the OTA to initially make to the caregiver in response to this potentially dangerous situation? A. Consult with the home care case manager for an assessment for skilled nursing facility placement B. Use bed guard rails to ensure that the individual remains in bed at night. C. Install a deadbolt lock on the individual's bedroom door D. Use full-length mirrors or wallpaper to camouflage exit doorways
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D. use full-length mirrors or wallpaper to camouflage exit doorways Rationale: Camouflaging the doorways is often an effective intervention to decrease wandering behavior in individuals with dementia or other cognitive deficits. One cannot open a door if one does not see a door. There are many additional intervention options to explore to decrease wandering prior to placing an individual in a SNF (e.g., the use of personal alarms, Velcro doors, and/or diversional activities, and/or the rearrangement of furniture). The use of bed guard rails can be dangerous as the individual may attempt to climb over the rails and fall. The installation of a deadbolt lock on the person's bedroom door is very dangerous for it can prevent timely rescue in the event of a fire or accident.
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A four month old with arthrogryposis remains in a position when placed and shows little spontaneous movement. The OTA implements intervention to work on rolling. Which positional changes should the OTA include in the intervention session? A. prone to supine B. supine to side-lying C. prone to side-lying D. supine to prone
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B. supine to side-lying Rationale: Developmentally, rolling from supine to side-lying starts at about two months. Rolling from prone to supine is the next stage that begins at about four months. The other options begin at about seven months. Supine to side-lying is the first skill to develop, therefore the OTA should initiate mobility with this skill first.
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An OTA implements intervention using a contemporary neurorehabilitation approach by having a person with a neurological impairment practice an activity in different contexts. Which is the primary purpose of this approach? A. to facilitate the generalization of learning B. to make it more difficult to transfer learning C. to foster an unstructured approach to different situations D. to determine if the client is easily confused
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A. To facilitate the generalization of learning Rationale: A major principle in contemporary approaches in neurorehabilitation is the use of multiple contexts to facilitate the generalization of learning. This generalization can then make it easier for an individual to transfer his/her learning to new situations which increases performance consistency, decreases confusion, and helps the person perform effectively in diverse situations. *Practice in different contexts can facilitate the generalization of learning.
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An eight year old with hypotonic cerebral palsy receives school-based OT to improve fine motor skills. The child holds a thick marker with a static tripod grasp and holds a No. 2 pencil with a gross grasp. The OTA collaborates with the OT to modify the intervention plan. The improvement of which grasp would be best to include in the revised OT intervention plan as a short-term goal? A. dynamic tripod with the thick marker B. static tripod with a pencil C. lateral pinch with a thick marker D. dynamic tripod with a pencil
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B. static tripod with a pencil Developmentally, the best way to progressively grade the grasp is to work on static tripod with a thinner object before going to work on dynamic tripod. A lateral pinch is not an effective grasp for holding a thick marker.
question
A pt with a left CVA and resulting contralateral hemiplegia participates in OT. When documenting the patient's performance during an intervention session, which ability is most likely for the OTA to state is intact? A. temporal sequencing of a morning self-care routine B. receptive language during a leisure planning group C. spatial perception while in the ADL apartment D. motor planning during a Tai Chi group
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C. spatial perception while in the ADL apartment Rationale: Difficulties in spatial perception are typically related to a right CVA. With a left CVA, these abilities would remain intact. The other options are all typically affected by a left CVA.
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An elder expresses concerns about the ability to perform daily tasks. The individual has somatosensory deficits consistent with the normal aging process. The OTA recommends adaptive equipment to assist with task performance. Which adaptive equipment should the OTA recommend the person use during meal prep and feeding? A. utensils with narrow smooth grips B. utensils with wide textured grips C. a rocker knife D. Dycem pads
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B. Utensils with wide textured grips Rationale: Wide textured grips will provide augmented sensory feedback to the individual and will be easier to grip than narrow smooth handles. Somatosensory changes associated with aging include decreased tactile sensation, decreased proprioception, and increased pain thresholds. A rocker knife and dycem pads would not address these deficits. A rocker knife is suitable for one-handed cutting and dycem pads are used to provide stability to an object.
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An OTA works on feeding with a toddler who has a hyperactive gag reflex. What should the OTA do to decrease the gag reflex? A. have the child suck through straws of progressively longer lengths B. walk a tongue depressor from the front of the tongue to its back. C. quickly ice the child's throat laterally D. have the child blow bubbles
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B. walk a tongue depressor from the front of the tongue to its back Rationale: Walking a tongue depressor from the front of the tongue to the back can desensitize a hyperactive gag reflex. The other interventions do not address a hyperactive gag reflex. Sipping on a straw can increase the sucking reflex. Quick icing is a traditional Rood technique that theoretically stimulates a muscle group. Stimulating the neck muscles would not influence a gag reflex.
question
During an intervention session, an eight month-old child demonstrates a positive downward parachute reflex. Which is the most accurate statement for the OTA to include in the documentation of this observed behavior? A. The child exhibits normal reflex development B. the child exhibits a developmental delay C. the child's protective extension downward reflex needs to be evaluated by the OT D. the child's standing tilting reflex needs to be evaluated by the OT
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A. The child exhibits normal reflex development Rationale: A downward parachute reflex is normal from four months and persists throughout one's lifetime unless neurological damage occurs. It is also called the protective extension downward reflex. The onset of the standing tilting reflex is from 12 to 21 months, so an evaluation of this reflex is premature
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An OTA provides caregiver education to the family of an individual who is dependent in all self-care. During instruction, on proper w/c positioning, where should the OTA advise the family to place the w/c seatbelt? A. at waist level B. midway between waist and trunk C. at the widest part of the individual's midsection D. at hip level
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D. at hip level Rationale: w/c seat belts are to extend across the hips and into the lap at a 45 degree angle
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An OTA works with an individual with cubital tunnel syndrome who reports numbness and tingling. Which of the following is the most likely location for this person's sensory symptoms? A. the ulnar aspect of the forearm and hand B. along the radial nerve distribution of the hand C. the medial aspect of the forearm and hand D. along the ulnar nerve distribution of the hand
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A. the ulnar aspect of the forearm and hand Rationale: cubital tunnel syndrome is an ulnar nerve compression at the elbow. Its presenting symptoms are numbness and tingling along the ulnar aspect of the forearm and hand, pain at the elbow with extreme elbow flexion, weakness of power grip, and a positive Tinel's sign at the elbow.
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An adult diagnosed with MS over 10 years ago experiences an exacerbation of symptoms. The individual's principle complaint is decreased strength and endurance. The person can ambulate short distances with a cane in the home and uses a w/c outside of the home. The client asks for suggestions to enable independent home maintenance. Which is the best positioning recommendation for the OTA to suggest the person use during meal prep? A. sitting in the w/c with a tray table B. sitting at the kitchen table C. leaning against the counter while standing D. leaning against a tall stool while standing
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B. sitting at the kitchen table Rationale: MS is characterized by fluctuations in abilities. The best choice for an activity that will be performed frequently is to perform the activity in an adequately supported position. The avoidance of fatigue is important in the management of MS. Doing meal prep while sitting at the kitchen table achieves these aims and uses the person's natural context. There is no need indicated in this scenario for the use of a w/c and a tray. The client can do meal prep activities with readily available supports. Standing might require using too much energy and does not provide good support or stability for performing the fine motor aspects of meal prep. Leaning against the counter or a stool requires more energy, and does not provide good support or stability for performing the fine motor aspects of meal prep, and may not be safe.