Combo with "Disease Conditions Ch 1 Test" and 4 others – Flashcards
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Signs of disease a. include abnormal objective findings. b. rarely correlate with symptoms. c. always cause symptoms. d. are always described by the patient.
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a. include abnormal objective findings.
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Predisposing factors of disease a. make a person or group more vulnerable to disease. b. never overlap or occur in combination. c. precisely predict the occurrence of disease. d. can all be controlled by prevention.
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a. make a person or group more vulnerable to disease.
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Genetic diseases may be a. produced by an abnormality in or mutation of the genetic code in a single gene. b. caused by several abnormal genes. c. caused by the abnormal presence or absence of a chromosome or an alteration of the structure of chromosomes. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Benign tumors a. tend to remain encapsulated. b. do not resemble the tissue of origin. c. do not compress surrounding tissue or obstruct organs. d. infiltrate surrounding tissue.
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a. tend to remain encapsulated.
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Malignant tumors a. tend to infiltrate other tissue. b. tend to bleed, ulcerate, and become infected. c. may spread to distant sites in the body. d. are all of the above.
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d. are all of the above.
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Which statement is true regarding the TNM (tumor, nodes, metastasis) cancer staging system? a. Assesses the size and extent of the spread of the primary tumor. b. Is a grading system based on the degree of differentiation of tumor cells. c. Both a and b are true. d. Neither a nor b is true.
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a. Assesses the size and extent of the spread of the primary tumor.
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Which of the following correctly states the sequence of an allergic response within the body most? a. Histamine produces mast cells, which stimulate plasma cells. b. IgE antibodies enter the body and produce an allergen. c. The release of histamine sensitizes mast cells and produces symptoms. d. Exposure to allergen stimulates production of IgE antibodies that can subsequently trigger symptoms of allergy.
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d. Exposure to allergen stimulates production of IgE antibodies that can subsequently trigger symptoms of allergy.
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Which of the following most accurately states the orderly steps in making a diagnosis? a. Comparison of normals, physical examination, history, treatment plan, prognosis b. Medical history, physical examination, diagnostic tests, diagnosis, integration of results, treatment c. Medical history, diagnostic tests, physical examination, treatment plan d. Physical examination, medical history, radiographs, prognosis, integration of all information
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b. Medical history, physical examination, diagnostic tests, diagnosis, integration of results, treatment
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Mechanical and chemical barriers, the inflammatory response, and the immune response are a. the combined effects of inheritance and environmental factors. b. risk factors for disease. c. included in the body's natural defense system against infection. d. agents that damage DNA.
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c. included in the body's natural defense system against infection.
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Immune disorders are the result of a breakdown in the body's defense system that may generate a. allergy. b. autoimmune diseases. c. immunodeficiency disorders. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Immunodeficiency disorders result from a. an exudative response. b. motor vehicle accidents. c. a depressed or absent immune response. d. physical trauma.
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c. a depressed or absent immune response.
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Which statement(s) is (are) correct regarding autoimmune diseases? a. The disease allows the immune system to become self-destructive. b. Many serious diseases have a strong autoimmune component. c. Both a and b are correct. d. Both a and b are incorrect.
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c. Both a and b are correct.
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Homeostasis refers to a. disease related to age. b. internal stability of the body. c. genetic predisposition to disease. d. a chronic disease process.
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b. internal stability of the body.
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Pathogens cause disease by a. invasion of living tissue. b. destruction of living tissue. c. intoxication. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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The normal protective physiologic response(s) to tissue injury and disease is (are) a. infection. b. acute inflammation. c. cachexia. d. all of the above.
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b. acute inflammation.
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MRSA refers to a "superbug" that is a. methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus. b. a common cold virus. c. a noninfectious, noncontagious skin condition. d. all of the above.
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a. methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus.
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The spread of "superbugs" can be controlled by a. frequent, thorough handwashing. b. stricter infection control in all health care facilities. c. considering everyone a risk for infection, especially in hospitals. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Anaphylaxis, serum sickness, arthralgia, and status asthmaticus are a. immunodeficiency disorders. b. systemic manifestations of severe allergic responses. c. mild allergic conditions. d. part of aging.
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b. systemic manifestations of severe allergic responses.
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Smoking, drinking, nutrition, and lack of exercise are examples of a. predisposing factors related to lifestyle. b. predisposing factors related to heredity. c. predisposing factors related to age. d. predisposing factors related to environment.
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a. predisposing factors related to lifestyle.
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In preventative health care the emphasis is on a. prophylactic medical services. b. accident intervention. c. personal rights. d. freedom of lifestyle.
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a. prophylactic medical services.
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The single greatest avoidable cause of death and disease is a. insufficient exercise. b. poor personal hygiene. c. smoking tobacco and exposure to second-hand smoke. d. a diet high in sodium.
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c. smoking tobacco and exposure to second-hand smoke.
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Vaccines that may be given to prevent cancer include a. HPV vaccine to protect against cervical cancer. b. Hepatitis B vaccine that helps prevent against liver CA. c. both a and b d. b only
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c. both a and b
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Which statement(s) is(are) true about understanding a patient's pain? a. Pain is subjective. b. Pain has individualized effects. c. Pain is a necessary entity in life. d. All of the above statements are true.
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d. All of the above statements are true.
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Osteopathy a. is not practiced by trained medical physicians. b. emphasizes the body's natural process to heal and provide well-being. c. does not use manipulation techniques. d. all of the above.
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b. emphasizes the body's natural process to heal and provide well-being.
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Pain may be described as a. dull and aching, burning, or throbbing. b. shooting, dull, stabbing. c. frightening, intense, tiring. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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The holistic concept of medical care focuses on a. the needs of the whole person: spiritual, cognitive, social, physical, and emotional. b. narrowly defining physical pathologic changes. c. discounting the needs of a patient as a whole to expedite healing. d. all of the above.
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a. the needs of the whole person: spiritual, cognitive, social, physical, and emotional.
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Which statement(s) is (are) correct concerning chemotherapy treatment for cancer? a. Chemotherapy is effective against the rapidly developing cells of cancer. b. Many of the side effects of chemotherapy are due to destruction of some normal cells in the body. c. both a and b d. neither a or b
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c. both a and b
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An alternative to conventional radiation therapy for cancer tumors in which normal tissues experience much less toxicity is called a. gene therapy. b. stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS). c. chemotherapy. d. none of the above.
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b. stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS).
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Recognizing the aspects of the cultural diversity of patients includes a. language, religious beliefs, views about health issues, and life experiences. b. dietary preferences. c. death rituals and other traditions. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Gene therapy is now a common intervention and proven cure for many diseases. True False
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False
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Tumor grade is determined through microscopic evaluation of the tumor or a biopsy specimen. True False
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True
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When a product lacks FDA approval, that may mean that the ingredients listed outside the bottle may not be inside the bottle, or may not be included in the amount listed. True False
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True
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The use of hormone therapy and immunotherapy in the treatment of cancer continues to evolve. True False
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True
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The philosophy of hospice affirms life and neither hastens nor postpones death. True False
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True
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Among some common concerns about the health issues of older adults are substance abuse and nutritional problems. True False
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True
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One of the main goals of patient teaching is to encourage the patient to comply with the treatment plan to assure recovery. True False
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True
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Match the descriptions with the appropriate terms. Mutation Antigen Neoplasm Biopsy a. Stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies b. Changes in the genetic code of a cell c. Tumor, or growth of new tissue d. Excision of tissue for microscopic examination
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Mutation b. Changes in the genetic code of a cell Antigen a. Stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies Neoplasm c. Tumor, or growth of new tissue Biopsy d. Excision of tissue for microscopic examination
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Match the correct definition to the word it describes. Redness, swelling, heat, fever, pus Redness, swelling, pain, no fever, no pus 22 pairs of chromosomes X and y chromosomes A. Infection B. Inflammation C. Autosomes D. Sex chromosomes
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Redness, swelling, heat, fever, pus A. Infection Redness, swelling, pain, no fever, no pus B. Inflammation 22 pairs of chromosomes C. Autosomes X and y chromosomes D. Sex chromosomes
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A ordered arrangement of photographs of a persons chromosomes is called a genotype. True False
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False
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A test used to check a persons clotting factors is known as an electrolyte panel. True False
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False
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Match the word to the correct definition. Used to assess blood components. Used to assess a specimen for bacteria and determine the antibiotic needed for treatment. Highly specialized imaging technique that creates three-dimensional images Uses a magnetic field to visualize internal tissues A. CBC B. C & S C. PET D. MRI
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Used to assess blood components. A. CBC Used to assess a specimen for bacteria and determine the antibiotic needed for treatment. B. C & S Highly specialized imaging technique that creates three-dimensional images C. PET Uses a magnetic field to visualize internal tissues D. MRI
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Tumor of bone is termed chondroma. True False
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False
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Tumor of blood vessels is termed hemangioma. True False
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True
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Malignant tumor of adipose is termed liposarcoma. True False
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True
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A benign tumor is fast growing and invades other tissues. True False
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False
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Match the form of Alternatve Medicine to the appropriate definition. Stresses the importance of body alignment. Inserts needles into specific body areas to adjust the bodies energy. Massage of feet and hands. Placing patient in a psychologically induced trance. A. Chiropractic care B. Acupuncture C. Reflexology D. Hypnosis
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Stresses the importance of body alignment. A. Chiropractic care Inserts needles into specific body areas to adjust the bodies energy. B. Acupuncture Massage of feet and hands. C. Reflexology Placing patient in a psychologically induced trance. D. Hypnosis
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Congenital diseases are a. always fatal. b. always genetic. c. always nongenetic. d. none of the above.
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d. none of the above.
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Attempts to halt premature labor include a. having the mother on complete bedrest. b. using drug therapy to slow or halt contractions. c. giving the mother a short course of steroids to aid fetal lung maturation. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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The collapse of a seemingly healthy young athlete during a strenuous sporting event or other period of stressful exercise is known as a. patent ductus arteriosis. b. hypertropic cardiomyography. c. respiratory distress syndrome. d. none of the above.
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b. hypertropic cardiomyography.
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Down's syndrome, a genetic syndrome, is the result of the child having ______ pairs of chromosomes: a. 45 b. 48 c. 47 d. 46
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c. 47
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The most common crippler of children is a. spina bifida. b. cerebral palsy. c. down syndrome. d. muscular dystrophy.
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b. cerebral palsy.
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All females of child-bearing age capable of becoming pregnant are encouraged to take the recommended amount of a. vitamin D. b. iron. c. calcium. d. folic acid .
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d. folic acid .
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Duchenne muscular dystrophy a. is usually the result of trauma. b. is progressive and causes crippling and immobility. c. affects males and females equally. d. is none of the above.
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b. is progressive and causes crippling and immobility.
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Hyaline membrane disease refers to a. necrotizing enterocolitis. b. bronchomalacia. c. retinopathy of prematurity. d. infant respiratory distress syndrome.
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d. infant respiratory distress syndrome.
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The symptoms and signs of anemia include a. pallor, weakness, fatigability, and listlessness. b. an abnormal reduction of red blood cells. c. tachycardia, jaundice, and mental sluggishness. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Childhood immunizations are important because a. they are needed to obtain a passport. b. they help prevent colds. c. they prevent epidemics of serious contagious diseases. d. all of the above are true.
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c. they prevent epidemics of serious contagious diseases.
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Some warning signs of lead poisoning include a. loss of appetite and vomiting. b. irritability and ataxic gait. c. both of the above. d. none of the above.
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c. both of the above.
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Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true about asthma? a. The bronchial tubes are hyperactive and hypersensitive. b. Severe attacks require hospitalization. c. It is a leading cause of absenteeism in school children. d. All of the above are true.
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d. All of the above are true.
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Cerebral palsy is a. a result of damage to the central nervous system (CNS). b. a condition that can be cured with treatment. c. a condition that primarily affects intelligence. d. all of the above.
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a. a result of damage to the central nervous system (CNS).
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Down syndrome is a. a congenital form of mild-to-severe mental retardation. b. associated with distinctive physical abnormalities and heart defects. c. caused by a chromosomal abnormality. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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The most common cyanotic congenital heart defect that is actually a combination of four defects is called a. ventricular septal defect. b. patent ductus arteriosus. c. tetralogy of Fallot. d. none of the above.
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c. tetralogy of Fallot.
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The diagnostic investigation of a congenital heart defect may include a. physical examination and patient history. b. radiographic studies of the chest and blood tests. c. heart catheterization and electrocardiogram. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Congenital hip dysplasia a. causes cleft lip. b. is more common in male infants. c. is a nontraumatic deformity of the foot. d. is an abnormal development of the hip joint.
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d. is an abnormal development of the hip joint.
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The birth defect in which the is a hole in the middle of the roof of the mouth is a. cleft palate. b. Robinow's syndrome. c. cri-du-chat syndrome. d. meningocele.
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a. cleft palate.
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Cryptorchidism is a. a congenital malignant tumor. b. also known as phimosis. c. the failure of the testicle(s) to descend into the scrotum. d. none of the above.
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c. the failure of the testicle(s) to descend into the scrotum.
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Symptoms of Wilms's tumor may include a. projectile vomiting, loss of weight, and skin rash. b. a shortening of the femur. c. hematuria, pain, and hypertension. d. nasal regurgitation during feeding.
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c. hematuria, pain, and hypertension.
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The disease that involves impairment of intestinal motility, which causes obstruction of the distal colon, is called a. cryptorchidism. b. pyloric stenosis. c. Hirschsprung's disease. d. phimosis.
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c. Hirschsprung's disease.
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Cystic fibrosis (CF), a chronic dysfunction of the exocrine glands, primarily attacks the a. nervous system. b. immune system. c. blood vessels. d. lungs and digestive system.
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d. lungs and digestive system.
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The primary treatment of phenylketonuria includes a. surgical intervention. b. oxygen therapy. c. a protein-restricted diet. d. high-sodium chloride diet.
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c. a protein-restricted diet.
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The production of copious thick and sticky mucus that accumulates and blocks glandular ducts is characteristic of a. pyloric stenosis. b. cystic fibrosis (CF). c. phenylketonuria (PKU). d. Wilms's tumor.
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b. cystic fibrosis (CF).
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Klinefelter's syndrome and Turner's syndrome are examples of a. genetic, chromosomal diseases which are not inherited. b. inherited diseases of no significant consequence. c. inherited chromosomal diseases. d. chromosomal diseases that affect females only.
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a. genetic, chromosomal diseases which are not inherited.
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Which of the following statements is (are) true about erythroblastosis fetalis? a. Antibodies in the mother's blood destroy the red blood cells of the fetus. b. It is characterized in the fetus by anemia, jaundice, and enlargement of the liver and spleen. c. Both a and b are true. d. None of the above are true.
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c. Both a and b are true.
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Sudden infant death syndrome is a. the number-one cause of death of infants between age 1 month and 12 months. b. most likely to occur in a sick infant. c. not known to have any risk factors. d. predictable and preventable.
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a. the number-one cause of death of infants between age 1 month and 12 months.
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Which of the following statements is true about lead poisoning? a. The child suffering from acute lead intoxication presents a medical emergency. b. It is hard to detect, since lead is normally present in the blood. c. It is a silent disease, because there are no warning signs or chronic symptoms. d. None of the above are true.
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a. The child suffering from acute lead intoxication presents a medical emergency.
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A systemic disease with superficial cutaneous lesions that begin as red macules that progress to papules then to vesicles that form crusts is a. rubeola. b. diphtheria . c. rubella. d. chickenpox.
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d. chickenpox.
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Pregnant women should be isolated from individuals infected with _________ to prevent perinatal infection. a. diphtheria b. rubella c. chickenpox d. rubeola
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b. rubella
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Prompt and complete treatment of acute tonsillitis caused by A Beta-hemolytic streptococci is necessary to prevent a. rheumatic fever. b. rheumatic heart disease. c. kidney complications. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Serious side effects of uncontrolled diarrhea in the infant or child include a. intestinal obstruction and rhonchi. b. dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. c. diaper rash and Reye's syndrome. d. all of the above.
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b. dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
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Which of the following statements is (are) true about leukemia? a. It is the most common childhood malignancy. b. It is a primary malignant disease of bone marrow. c. The diagnosis is confirmed by microscopic examination of the bone marrow. d. All of the above are true.
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d. All of the above are true.
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Causes of prematurity include a. incompetent cervix, bicornate uterus, and premature rupture of membranes. b. maternal physical conditions including infection and hypertension. c. multiple gestation. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Conditions often resulting from premature birth include a. necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC), infantile respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS), and retinopathy of prematurity. b. Spina bifida, hydrocephalus, anacephaly. c. muscular dystrophy, cystic fibrosis, and Down's syndrome. d. all of the above.
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a. necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC), infantile respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS), and retinopathy of prematurity.
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Conjoined twins may be joined a. head to head (cranial). b. posteriorly at the sacrum and coccyx. c. chest to chest. d. at all of the above points.
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d. at all of the above points.
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The most common childhood malignancy is a. Wilms's tumor. b. leukemia. c. anemia. d. none of the above.
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b. leukemia.
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Causes of infantile colic may be a. sensitivity to cow's milk. b. sensitivity to iron. c. excessive swallowing of air during feeding process. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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The lungs of the neonate lack the surfactant needed to allow the alveoli to expand. True False
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True
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In hydrocephalus a large amount of cerebrospinal fluid accumulates in the skull, causing increased intracranial pressure. True False
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True
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PKU is an inborn error in metabolism of amino acids causing brain damage and mental retardation when not corrected. True False
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True
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Because anemia is a symptom of various diseases, it is important to determine the cause of the anemia. True False
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True
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Reye's syndrome has been linked with the use of aspirin to treat chickenpox and influenza. True False
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True
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Leukemia is characterized by an abnormal decrease in the number of immature white blood cells. True False
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False
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The infant born with fetal alcohol syndrome may experience alcohol withdrawal shortly after birth. True False
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True
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Closure of patent ductus arteriosus may be achieved by medication or by surgical closure of the ductus. True False
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True
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Tetanus is an acute, potentially deadly, systemic infection characterized by painful involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles. True False
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True
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Necrotizing enterocolitis is an acute inflammatory process resulting from ischemic necrosis of the lining of the bronchial tubes. True False
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False
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Epiglottitis typically strikes children between ages 3 and 7 years. True False
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True
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Asthma is a leading cause of chronic illness and school absenteeism in children. True False
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True
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When the immune system reacts appropriately to an antigen and homeostasis is maintained, this is termed a. autoimmunity. b. immunocompetence. c. allergy. d. none of the above.
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b. immunocompetence.
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The acquired immunity that results when a person has a disease is a. active. b. passive. c. attenuated. d. all of the above.
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a. active.
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Immunoglobulins that provide the ability to recognize foreign organisms stimulating the antigen-antibody reaction are called a. B-cells. b. T-suppressor cells. c. T-helper cells. d. T-killer cells.
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a. B-cells.
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The group of diseases that occur when antibodies develop and begin to destroy the body's own cells is a. autoimmune diseases. b. immunocompetent diseases. c. immunodeficiency diseases. d. diseases of the reticuloendothelial system.
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a. autoimmune diseases.
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Decreased gastric production of hydrochloric acid and the resulting shortage of the intrinsic factor cause a. rheumatoid arthritis. b. systemic lupus erythematosus. c. pernicious anemia. d. autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
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c. pernicious anemia.
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A patient with a platelet deficiency and the inability of blood to clot has a. autoimmune hemolytic anemia. b. pernicious anemia. c. idiopathic thrombocytopenic anemia. d. none of the above.
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c. idiopathic thrombocytopenic anemia.
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An autoimmune condition in which erythrocytes (RBCs) are destroyed by antibodies, causing the patient to experience fatigue, chills, fever, dyspnea, and jaundice, is a. ankylosing spondylitis. b. autoimmune hemolytic anemia. c. multiple sclerosis. d. none of the above.
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b. autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
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Symptoms of fever, joint pain, malaise, weight loss, and the characteristic butterfly rash are indications of a. rheumatoid arthritis. b. Sjögren's syndrome. c. systemic lupus erythematosus. d. scleroderma.
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c. systemic lupus erythematosus.
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The systemic disease that usually begins with joint inflammation and edema of the synovial membranes surrounding the joint is a. Sjögren's syndrome. b. scleroderma. c. rheumatoid arthritis. d. systemic lupus erythematosus.
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c. rheumatoid arthritis.
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The primary treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is Selected Answer: a. reduction of inflammation and pain. b. preservation of joint function. c. prevention of joint deformity. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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The inflammatory disease of the CNS that attacks the myelin sheath is a. myasthenia gravis. b. muscular dystrophy. c. multiple sclerosis. d. none of the above.
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c. multiple sclerosis.
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A chronic, progressive neuromuscular disease that is characterized by extreme muscular weakness (generally appearing first in the face) and progressive fatigue is a. myasthenia gravis. b. muscular dystrophy. c. multiple sclerosis. d. none of the above.
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a. myasthenia gravis.
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T-cell lymphocytes are produced in the a. blood. b. thymus gland. c. bone marrow. d. spleen.
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b. thymus gland.
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A history of repeated chronic infections due to an acquired B-cell deficiency and decreased antibody production and/or function is usually indicative of a. polymyositis. b. DiGeorge's anomaly. c. common variable immunodeficiency disease (CVID). d. ankylosing spondylitis.
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c. common variable immunodeficiency disease (CVID).
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The most common form of immunodeficiency is a. selective immunoglobulin A deficiency disease. b. common variable immunodeficiency disease. c. severe combined immunodeficiency disease. d. X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
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a. selective immunoglobulin A deficiency disease.
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A chronic, progressive, systemic autoimmune disease of the skin that is characterized by hardening and shrinking of the skin is a. multiple sclerosis. b. systemic scleroderma. c. systemic lupus erythematosus. d. rheumatoid arthritis.
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b. systemic scleroderma.
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Pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) is the drug of choice for treatment of a. systemic necrotizing vasculitis. b. small vessel vasculitis. c. multiple sclerosis. d. myasthenia gravis.
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d. myasthenia gravis.
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_____ is a systemic, usually progressive inflammatory disease primarily affecting the spinal column. a. Wiskott-Aldrich's syndrome b. Ankylosing spondylitis c. Polymocytis d. Scleroderma
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b. Ankylosing spondylitis
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A child in the emergency room with multiple bruising of unknown cause and thrombocytopenia may be exhibiting signs of a. selective immunoglobulin A deficiency. b. pernicious anemia. c. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. d. multiple sclerosis.
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c. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
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With proper therapy the prognosis for children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) is a. generally good. b. total remission in 10% of cases. c. poor. d. very likely to mean a lifetime dependence on others for care.
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a. generally good.
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Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) refers to a group of disorders characterized by persistent and recurrent candidal (fungal) infection of a. skin. b. nails. c. mucous membrane. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Immunodeficiency diseases that affect only males include a. X-linked agammaglobulinemia. b. Wiskott-Aldrich's syndrome. c. both of the above. d. neither of the above
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c. both of the above.
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When an individual reports a known HIV exposure through unprotected sexual contact or an accidental puncture with a contaminated needle, a. immediate medical care should be arranged. b. there is no recommended medical attention. c. he or she is informed there is now a cure for HIV. d. none of the above.
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a. immediate medical care should be arranged.
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Some types and functions of T-cells in the body's immune system include a. cytotoxic T cells that destroy virus and tumor cells. b. helper T cells that stimulate B cells to produce antibodies. c. suppressor T cells that moderate the immune response d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
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Which statement(s) is (are) true about the chronic illness called polymyositis? a. The disease mostly affects the spinal column. b. The muscles affected are mostly those closest to the trunk or torso. c. The disease is also called lupus. d. It is an inflammatory disease of the CNS.
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b. The muscles affected are mostly those closest to the trunk or torso.
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Opportunistic infections can emerge as a result of deficiencies of the immune system. True False
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True
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Tolerance to self-antigens is believed to commence during fetal life. True False
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True
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Autoimmune diseases occur when autoantibodies develop and begin to destroy the body's own cells. True False
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True
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There are no cures for connective tissue diseases, and treatment is only palliative. True False
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True
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Injections of vitamin B12, which must be continued for life, are the primary treatment for pernicious anemia. True False
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True
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All patients with HIV will develop full-blown AIDS. True False
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False
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Side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) include GI ulceration and bleeding, blood dyscrasias, tinnitus, rash, hypersensitivity reactions, and liver toxicity. True False
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True
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Autoimmune diseases occur only in the blood and lymphatic systems. True False
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False
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HIV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and through contaminated blood and blood products. True False
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True
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Prevention measures for HIV infection relate directly to avoiding risk factors such as hugging, touching, and handshaking. True False
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False
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The master gland of the endocrine system is a. the thyroid gland. b. the pituitary gland. c. the adrenal gland. d. none of the above.
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b. the pituitary gland.
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Insulin and glucagon are produced by a. the pancreas. b. the thymus. c. the adrenal cortex. d. none of the above.
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a. the pancreas.
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Hypersecretion of human growth hormone (hGH) by the pituitary before puberty resulting in abnormal and accelerated growth is called a. Addison's disease. b. Cushing's syndrome. c. myxedema. d. none of the above.
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d. none of the above.
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A deficiency in the release of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone [ADH]) by the posterior pituitary gland causes a. hypoglycemia. b. dwarfism. c. diabetes insipidus. d. none of the above.
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c. diabetes insipidus.
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A simple, or nontoxic, goiter results from a. excessive iodine in the diet. b. inadequate amounts of iodine in the diet. c. excessive circulating cortisol levels. d. a deficiency of glucose in the blood.
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b. inadequate amounts of iodine in the diet.
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Rapid heartbeat and palpitations, increased metabolism, weight loss, nervousness, excitability, profuse perspiration, excessive thirst, muscular weakness, exophthalmos, and the presence of a goiter are symptoms and signs of a. Graves's disease. b. primary hyperthyroidism. c. overproduction of thyroid hormone. d. all of the above.
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d. all of the above.
question
Polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia, weight loss, and fatigue are the principal symptoms of a. hypoglycemia. b. diabetes insipidus. c. diabetes mellitus. d. all of the above.
answer
c. diabetes mellitus.
question
Treatment of diabetes mellitus includes a. a calculated diet and exercise. b. insulin administration if needed. c. blood and urine testing. d. all of the above.
answer
d. all of the above.
question
Hypersecretion of hGH that causes overgrowth of the hands and feet, abnormal thickening of the bones of the face, and excessive overgrowth of soft tissue, occurring after puberty, is called a. acromegaly. b. gigantism. c. cretinism. d. all of the above.
answer
a. acromegaly.
question
Damage to the pituitary gland, which causes hypopituitarism, can result from a. radiation. b. surgical removal. c. ischemia. d. all of the above.
answer
d. all of the above.
question
A chronic disease of the immune system that attacks the thyroid gland and causes a goiter is called a. Addison's disease. b. acromegaly. c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis. d. Cushing's syndrome.
answer
c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
question
A congenital hypothyroid condition that causes mental and growth retardation in the infant or young child is called a. cretinism. b. gigantism. c. acromegaly. d. none of the above.
answer
a. cretinism.
question
Hyperparathyroidism or overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) causes a. increased breakdown of bone. b. hypercalcemia, or increased circulating calcium. c. cardiac arrhythmias and renal calculi. d. all of the above.
answer
d. all of the above.
question
Insufficient secretion of PTH by the parathyroid gland is called a. hyperparathyroidism. b. hypoparathyroidism. c. hyperpituitarism. d. hypopituitarism.
answer
b. hypoparathyroidism.
question
The syndrome caused by hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex, which results in excessive circulating cortisol levels, fatigue, muscular weakness, and changes in body appearance, is called a. Cushing's syndrome. b. Hashimoto's thyroiditis. c. Addison's disease. d. none of the above.
answer
a. Cushing's syndrome.
question
Adrenal insufficiency, with progressive destruction of the adrenal gland, is called a. Cushing's syndrome. b. Hashimoto's thyroiditis. c. Addison's disease. d. none of the above.
answer
c. Addison's disease.
question
Diabetes which has its onset during pregnancy is called a. non-specific diabetes. b. type 2, non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. c. type 1, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. d. gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).
answer
d. gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).
question
The presence of a painless lump or nodule on the thyroid gland, along with complaints of persistent hoarseness and trouble swallowing, should raise the suggestion of a. hypoglycemia. b. hypoparathyroidism. c. hyperparathyroidism. d. cancer of the thyroid gland.
answer
d. cancer of the thyroid gland.
question
Insulin reaction can be caused by a. too much insulin. b. delayed meal or insufficient food. c. excessive exercise. d. any of the above.
answer
d. any of the above.
question
Symptoms and signs of diabetic coma include a. hypoglycemia, anxiety, fruity breath odor, and thirst. b. hypoglycemia, dry skin, hunger, and thirst. c. hyperglycemia, thirst, nausea and vomiting, and dry skin. d. hyperglycemia, hunger, cold sweat, trembling.
answer
c. hyperglycemia, thirst, nausea and vomiting, and dry skin.
question
What statement(s) is(are) true about a simple goiter? a. The patient may notice a swelling of the neck and experience difficulty swallowing. b. Thyroid ultrasonography can confirm the presence of a thyroid nodule. c. Both a and b. d. Neither of the above.
answer
c. Both a and b.
question
Which statements are true about insulin? a. Too much insulin, a delayed meal, or not enough food can result in insulin shock. b. A reduction in insulin or insulin resistance results in hyperglycemia. c. The functional pancreas secretes insulin and maintains glucose levels in a precise range. d. All of the above.
answer
d. All of the above.
question
Type 2 diabetes a. usually requires treatment with insulin injections. b. is seldom seen in adults. c. is the most common form of diabetes. d. is described by none of the above.
answer
c. is the most common form of diabetes.
question
Metabolic syndrome is a. defined by five main components. b. a constellation of conditions which includes obesity. c. is a collection of signs and/or conditions that may predict a risk for type 2 diabetes. d. all of the above.
answer
d. all of the above.
question
Precocious puberty is a. defined in boys as the onset of puberty before the age of 9. b. defined in girls as the onset of puberty before the age of 8. c. both a and b. d. neither of the above.
answer
c. both a and b.
question
Dysfunction of the endocrine system results in decreased or increased secretion of hormones. True False
answer
True
question
Dwarfism is the abnormal underdevelopment of the body, or hypopituitarism, occurring in children. True False
answer
True
question
Myxedema, or severe hypothyroidism, has its onset during infancy. True False
answer
False
question
Oral hypoglycemic agents such as DiaBeta and Glucophage can cause symptoms similar to diabetic coma. True False
answer
False
question
The person experiencing insulin shock requires simple sugar. True False
answer
True
question
Patients who are bedridden or unable to drink enough water to compensate for urinary loss of water can become dangerously dehydrated. True False
answer
True
question
Hyperparathyroidism increases breakdown of bone, and excessive reabsorption of calcium into the blood (hypercalcemia). True False
answer
True
question
Patients with hyperparathyroidism may be prone to fractures. True False
answer
True
question
Severe, prolonged hypoglycemia can cause irreversible brain damage. True False
answer
True
question
Addison's disease is partial or complete failure of adrenocortical function. True False
answer
True
question
A defect in the _____ results in difficulty in visual detection of color and fine detail. a. cones b. rods c. cones and rods d. lens
answer
a. cones
question
The sensor receptive cells in the retina that function best in dim light and enable night vision are the a. iris. b. cones. c. pupil. d. rods.
answer
d. rods.
question
An inflammation of the thin, transparent membrane covering the visible portion of the sclera and lining the inside of the eyelids results in a. lens distortion. b. cornea abrasion. c. choroiditis. d. conjunctivitis.
answer
d. conjunctivitis.
question
Hyperopia, myopia, and presbyopia are refractive errors that result when the a. lens of the eye becomes cloudy. b. pressure within the anterior chamber of the eye is elevated. c. tympanic membrane ruptures. d. eye is unable to focus light effectively.
answer
d. eye is unable to focus light effectively.
question
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true about nystagmus? a. It is usually treated with warm compresses. b. It is also known as strabismus. c. It necessitates a complete neurologic evaluation when acquired. d. All of the above statements are true.
answer
c. It necessitates a complete neurologic evaluation when acquired.
question
Treatment of refractive errors of the eye might include a. laser surgery. b. contact lenses. c. eyeglasses. d. all of the above.
answer
d. all of the above.
question
Inflammatory infections of the hair follicles of the eyelid are called a. styes. b. entropion. c. keratitis. d. none of the above.
answer
a. styes.
question
Conjunctivitis can be caused by a. infection, irritation, allergies, or chemicals. b. hemorrhage behind the retina. c. a deterioration of the lens. d. a drooping of the upper eyelid.
answer
a. infection, irritation, allergies, or chemicals.
question
A cloudy or opaque area in the normally clear lens of the eye is called a a. stye. b. detachment. c. cataract. d. none of the above.
answer
c. cataract.
question
Which of the following statements is true about chronic open-angle glaucoma? a. It rarely progresses. b. It is caused by a decrease in intraocular pressure. c. It produces symptoms at the onset. d. It is the most treatable cause of blindness.
answer
d. It is the most treatable cause of blindness.
question
Macular degeneration is a. caused by progressive deterioration in the macula of the retina. b. usually related to aging. c. both of the above. d. none of the above.
answer
c. both of the above.
question
Early symptoms of retinal detachment consist of a. purulent drainage. b. ringing in the ears. c. new floaters and light flashes. d. redness of the eye and a gritty feeling.
answer
c. new floaters and light flashes.
question
Vision impairment as a result of old age and the loss of elasticity in the lens is called a. emmetropia. b. diplopia. c. astigmatism. d. presbyopia.
answer
d. presbyopia.
question
A major cause of blindness in the United States is a. glaucoma. b. retinal detachment. c. eye trauma. d. strabismus.
answer
a. glaucoma.
question
Causes of conductive hearing loss might include a. otosclerosis, impacted cerumen, and otitis media. b. impacted cerumen, otitis media, and sensorineural damage. c. both of the above. d. none of the above.
answer
a. otosclerosis, impacted cerumen, and otitis media.
question
A chronic disease of the inner ear marked by a recurring syndrome of vertigo, tinnitus, progressive hearing loss, and a sensation of pressure in the ear is called a. cholesteatoma. b. mastoiditis. c. Ménière's disease. d. otosclerosis.
answer
c. Ménière's disease.
question
Placement of sharp objects into the ear canal, an explosion, a severe middle ear infection, or a blow to the ear could result in a. mastoiditis. b. a ruptured tympanic membrane. c. otosclerosis. d. cholesteatoma.
answer
b. a ruptured tympanic membrane.
question
The cause of sensorineural deafness, also referred to as occupational hearing loss, includes a. loud noise. b. the aging process. c. the side effects of certain medication. d. all of the above.
answer
d. all of the above.
question
The insertion of a tympanostomy tube as a treatment for otitis media is called a. stapedectomy. b. electronystagmography (ENG). c. myringotomy. d. cryotherapy.
answer
c. myringotomy.
question
Ankylosing of the stapes is called a. otomycosis. b. Ménière's disease. c. otosclerosis. d. exotropia.
answer
c. otosclerosis.
question
Symptoms of neoplasms of the ear commonly include a. progressive hearing loss and discharge from the ear. b. a visible mass or lesion. c. facial paralysis. d. all of the above.
answer
d. all of the above.
question
Infection or inflammation in the semicircular canals is called a. cholesteatoma. b. otomycosis. c. presbycusis. d. labyrinthitis.
answer
d. labyrinthitis.
question
Diagnostic findings for Benign Paroxysmal Vertigo (BPPV) may include a. the sensation of the room spinning and lack of coordination. b. nystagmus. c. decreased hearing. d. all of the above.
answer
d. all of the above.
question
A small, firm, nonmobile, painless, subcutaneous nodule on the margin or body of the eyelid describes a. a hordeolum (stye). b. strabismus. c. nystagmus. d. a chalazion.
answer
d. a chalazion.
question
Blepharitis defined is a. inflammation of the margins of the eyelids involving hair follicles and glands. b. inflammation or infection of the cornea. c. drooping of the upper eyelid. d. none of the above.
answer
a. inflammation of the margins of the eyelids involving hair follicles and glands.
question
The only treatment that cures otosclerosis is a surgical procedure called stapedectomy. True False
answer
True
question
The middle ear is normally air-filled. True False
answer
True
question
Serous otitis media may be either acute or chronic. True False
answer
True
question
Sensorineural hearing loss that is caused by damage to the cochlea is irreversible; therefore prevention is essential. True False
answer
True
question
Chronic open-end glaucoma results from a malfunction of the drainage system, which causes intraocular pressure to be raised. True False
answer
True
question
Symptoms of corneal abrasion or ulcer include pain, redness, tearing, and sometimes visual impairment. True False
answer
True
question
The internal lens of the eye is elastic and therefore can focus images both near and far. True False
answer
True
question
Blepharoptosis can be ectropion or entropion. True False
answer
False
question
Glaucoma only occurs after age 60. True False
answer
False
question
Keratitis is frequently caused by an infection of herpes simplex virus. True False
answer
True
question
The major risk with having a ruptured eardrum is infection in the inner ear. True False
answer
False
question
A cholesteatoma and mastoiditis can both be the result of a neglected otitis media. True False
answer
True
question
The ear's only function is hearing. True False
answer
False
question
Cochlear implants restore normal hearing. True False
answer
False
question
Certain medications can cause ototoxicity. True False
answer
True
