Epidemiology Quiz 2: Terms, Book Q’s, & Lecture Review Q’s – Flashcards

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What is R-nought? (Hint: this was in the movie)
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Reproductive rate of the virus: for every person that gets sick, how many people are they likely to infect
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What was the name of the virus in "The Contagion"
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MEV-1 virus
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How can fomites be spread? (Hint: from the movie)
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transmission from touching surfaces: touch your face, elevator, doorknobs, etc
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What is the index case of an outbreak?
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The first person to get infected from the pathogen- introduces pathogen to the human population (in the movie it was the chef in hong kong)
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What is the difference between the independent and dependent variable?
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Independent variable = the factors or characteristic being observed or measured to establish their influence on the outcome (dependent) variable; not affected by the dependent variable's; variation in dependent variables are accounted for by the action/interaction of the independent variables Dependent variable = dependent on effects of other variables. its variation is what the study hopes to explain or account for by the effects of contributing variables
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Which variable is also known as the outcome/response/disease variable? A) independent B) dependent
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B) dependent
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Which variable is also known as the risk factor or causal/predictor/exposure/treatment variable? A) independent B) dependent
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A) Independent variable
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Attributable risk, risk difference, and population attributable risk are all measures of [absolute/relative] association.
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Absolute
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Relative risk and odds ratio are measures of [absolute/relative] association.
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Relative
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[Absolute/Relative] measures of association are often used in public health planning, intervention, and policy.
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Absolute
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[Absolute/Relative] measures of association are often used to assess causal associations.
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Relative
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What is cumulative incidence?
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The proportion of the population at risk that develops disease/event during a specified period of time
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Cumulative incidence is also known as (two things):
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-attack rate -risk/probability of getting disease
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What is incidence density?
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a person time rate; measure of incidence that incorporates time directly into the denominator: [number of new cases identified in the period of observation]/[sum of the time each person was observed, totaled for all persons]
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Which measure of incidence incorporates time into the denominator?
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Incidence density
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What is relative risk?
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The ratio of risk (incidence) of disease in exposed to risk (incidence) of disease in non-exposed [risk among exposed]/[risk among unexposed]
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In which type of study can relative risk be calculated directly?
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cohort studies
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What does a relative risk of 1 mean?
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the exposed have the same risk of developing the disease as unexposed, therefore there is no association
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What does a relative risk greater than 1 mean?
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The risk in the exposed group is greater than the risk in the unexposed; there is a positive association and possibly causal
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What does a relative risk less than 1 mean?
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The exposed are less at risk than the unexposed; there is a negative association and possibly a protective effect
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Public health officials were called to investigate a perceived increase in visits to ships' infirmaries for acute respiratory illness (ARI) by passengers of cruise ships in Alaska in 1998. The officials compared passenger visits to ship infirmaries for ARI during May - August 1998 with the same period in 1997. They recorded 11.6 visits for ARI per 1,000 tourists per week in 1998, compared with 5.3 visits per 1,000 tourists per week in 1997. Calculate the relative risk and interpret.
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Comparing 1998 group and 1997 group: Relative Risk = 11.6 ⁄ 5.3 = 2.2 Interpretation: Passengers on cruise ships in Alaska during May - August 1998 were more than twice as likely to visit their ships' infirmaries for ARI than were passengers in 1997.
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True or False. Measures of association assess the relationship between factors (exposures) that influence the likelihood of developing an outcome
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True
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One of the goals in epidemiology is to estimate the risk of disease in one group in comparison to another group. This is often referred to as the: A) Incidence Density B) Relative Risk C) Absolute Risk D) Risk Difference
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B) Relative Risk
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RR > 1 means: A) Exposed are less at risk than unexposed B) Risk in exposed is greater than risk in unexposed C) The exposed have the same risk as unexposed therefore there is no association D) Cannot tell from only this information
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B) Risk in exposed is greater than risk in unexposed
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Calculate the relative risk. A: (37 / (37 + 24)) / (68 / (68 + 121)) = 1.69 B: 37/24 = 1.54 C: (37 / (37 + 68)) / (24 / (24 + 121)) = 2.13 D: 37 / 68 = 0.54 E: 24 / 121 = 0.19
C: (37 / (37 + 68)) / (24 / (24 + 121)) = 2.13
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C: (37 / (37 + 68)) / (24 / (24 + 121)) = 2.13
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What is attributable risk?
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The proportion of disease risk (incidence) that is attributable to a specific exposure
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Attributable risk is also known as ____ _____.
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Risk difference
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Which type of risk indicates the proportion of the disease occurrence that potentially would be eliminated if the exposure to the risk factor was prevented?
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Attributable risk
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Attributable risk: How can the incidence attributable to exposure in the exposed group be calculated?
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(incidence in exposed group) - (incidence in nonexposed group)
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Attributable risk: How can the incidence attributable to exposure in the total population be calculated?
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(incidence in total population) - (incidence in nonexposed group)
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Attributable risk: How can the proportion of incidence attributable to exposure in the exposed group be calculated?
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[(incidence in exposed group) - (incidence in nonexposed group)]/ [incidence in exposed group]
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Attributable risk: How can the proportion of incidence attributable to exposure in the total population be calculated? What is this called?
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[(incidence in total population) - (incidence in nonexposed group)]/ [incidence in total population] --> This is called Population Attributable Risk (PAR)
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[Attributable/Relative] Risk is important towards intervention and policy, while [attributable/relative] risk is important towards causality.
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Attributable, relative
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Which of the following is the preferred measure of policy makers since it quantifies how much of an outcome may be prevented if a certain exposure is addressed? A. Relative Risk B. Odds ratio C. Absolute Risk D. Attributable Risk
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D. Attributable Risk
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Calculate the relative risk. A: (37 / (37 + 68)) / (24 / (24 + 121)) = 2.13 B: 37/24 = 1.54 C:(37 x 121)/ (68 x 24) = 2.74 D: (37 / (37 + 68)) - (24 / (24 + 121)) = 0.19 E: (37 / (37 + 24)) - (68 / (68 + 121)) = 0.25
D: (37 / (37 + 68)) - (24 / (24 + 121)) = 0.19
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D: (37 / (37 + 68)) - (24 / (24 + 121)) = 0.19
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Odds ratio is used to determine the approximate relative risk in ______ studies.
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case-control
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The odds ratio compares the exposure odds among ____ vs _____.
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Cases, controls
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Relative risk or odds ratio can be used in cohort studies, but ____ studies can only use odds ratio.
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case control
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True or false. The odds ratio always approximates the relative risk if the disease is frequent.
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False; The Odds Ratio approximates the relative risk if the disease is rare.
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Which of the following do you use to calculate the odds ratio in a matched-pairs case-control study? A) Concordant pairs B) Discordant pairs C) Both concordant and discordant pairs
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B) Discordant pairs
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Calculate the odds ratio. A: (37 / (37 + 68)) / (24 / (24 + 121)) = 2.13 B: 37/24 = 1.54 C: 37 / 68 = 0.54 D: (37 x 121) / (68 x 24) = 2.74 E: (68 x 24) / (37 x 121) = 0.36
D: (37 x 121) / (68 x 24) = 2.74
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D: (37 x 121) / (68 x 24) = 2.74
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Relative risk or odds ratio can be used in cohort studies, but ____ studies can only use odds ratio.
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Case-control (rare diseases)
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What is the p-value?
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the probability that the difference observed could have occurred by chance alone (there is no difference between study groups)
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What is the null hypothesis?
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The assumption made about the result before a test is conducted is that there is no difference: this is the Null Hypothesis (H0); RR=1, OR=1
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At what p-value is the null hypothesis likely to be rejected?
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p<=0.05
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What is a confidence interval?
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Range within which the true magnitude of effect lies with a stated probability, or degree of assurance (usually 95%).
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If the confidence interval includes 1.0 (the null), is it statistically significant?
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No
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Pesticides and Breast Cancer: RR = 1.4 95% CI = 0.7 - 2.6 p-value = .10 What does the RR indicate? A) Positive association between pesticides and breast cancer hence, a protective association B) Positive association between Pesticides and breast cancer hence, there may be a causal association C) 60% risk of breast cancer among those exposed to pesticides compared to those not exposed
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B) Positive association between Pesticides and breast cancer hence, there may be a causal association
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Pesticides and Breast Cancer: RR = 1.4 95% CI = 0.7 - 2.6 p-value = .10 What does the 95% CI indicate? A) The result is statistically significant B) Pesticides can either be protective or harmful as regards to breast cancer incidence depending on mode of contact C) The result is not statistically significant
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C) The result is not statistically significant
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Pesticides and Breast Cancer: RR = 1.4 95% CI = 0.7 - 2.6 p-value = .10 What does the CI indicate about the null hypothesis? A) Reject the null since the CI contains 1 B) Do not reject the null since the CI contains 1
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B) Do not reject the null since the CI contains 1
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Pesticides and Breast Cancer: RR = 1.4 95% CI = 0.7 - 2.6 p-value = .10 What does the p-value suggest (α=0.05)? A) Do not reject the null since p-value is greater than 0.05 B) Reject the null since p-value is greater than 0.05
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A) Do not reject the null since p-value is greater than 0.05
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Pesticides and Breast Cancer: RR = 1.4 95% CI = 0.7 - 2.6 p-value = .10 What would be a good summary statement about these data?
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"Although there seems to be a 40% risk of developing breast cancer among those exposed to pesticides compared to those not exposed, the result is however not statistically significant based on the 95% CI and p-value."
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What is an infectious disease?
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an illness caused by a pathogen or its products that has been transmitted from an infected person or a reservoir either directly or indirectly
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How does infectious disease epidemiology differ from traditional epidemiology in relation to the number of populations it deals with?
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ID epidemiology deals with 2/+ populations while traditional epidemiology deals with one.
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How does infectious disease epidemiology differ from traditional epidemiology when it comes to the relationship between risks and cases?
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In ID epidemiology, a case is often a risk factor, with the outcome being the exposure (someone is sick, how many people will they be exposed to and infect). In traditional epidemiology, risks are associated with cases.
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How does infectious disease epidemiology differ from traditional epidemiology in relation to identifying the cause of a disease?
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In ID epidemiology, the cause is often known, where as traditional epidemiology aims to identify the cause of disease.
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What are the 4 objectives of infectious disease epidemiology? (not sure if we need to know this)
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1) To identify the cause, risk factors for a disease, condition, or health state - new & existing 2) Develop infectious disease surveillance 3) To study the natural history and prognosis of disease 4) To evaluate both preventive measures, therapies and facilitate research
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What is infectivity?
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an agent's ability to infect: (#infected/#susceptible) x 100
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What is pathogenicity?
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An agent's ability to cause disease: (# with specific disease/ #infected) x 100
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What is virulence?
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The degree of pathogenicity, the agent's ability to cause death (case fatality rate) (# deaths/ # with disease) x 100
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What are the 4 health care associated infections (HAIs)?
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-UTIs -surgical site infections -ventilator associated pneumonia -MRSA
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What are the 8 common STIs? (not sure if we need to know this)
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-Chlamydia -Gonorrhea -Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) -Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 (HSV-2) -HIV -HPV -Syphilis -Trichomoniasis (G-H4-C-S-T = almost like GHOST)
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What is active surveillance?
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Health departments petition healthcare providers to report cases
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What is passive surveillance?
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Periodic and regular report given at providers' discretion
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What is syndromic surveillance?
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monitoring of symptoms/syndromes. --> look at what over the counter medications people are buying
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Which of the following types of study designs will be helpful in an infectious disease investigation? (Pick 3) Prospective Cohort Design Case-Control Study Retrospective Cohort Design Randomized Community Trial Case study Case series
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Case-Control Study Case Study Case series
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An outbreak with a common source and single incubation is a ____ _____.
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Point source
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An outbreak with a common source and multiple incubations is a ______ ______.
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Continuous source
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An outbreak that reoccurs has an ______ source.
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Intermittant
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What type of outbreak is this?
Intermittent- reoccurs
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Intermittent- reoccurs
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What is a food-specific attack rate?
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# of people who ate a food and became sick/ # who ate the same food
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What is a secondary attack rate?
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attack rate for susceptible people exposed to primary case
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What are the three elements for investigating an outbreak?
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1) when did the exposure occur? 2) when did disease begin? 3) what was the incubation period?
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Infectious diseases still contribute significantly to the global burden of illness and death especially in the developing world. A) True B) False
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A) True
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The prevalence of HAI's among hospitalized patients in the US is: A) 20% B) 10% C) 5% D) 30%
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C) 5%
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One of the two most commonly reported infectious diseases in the US is: A) West Nile Disease B) Influenza C) Gonorrhea D) HIV
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C) Gonorrhea (the other one is chlamydia)
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Which of the following are data sources for public health surveillance? A) Reporting of notifiable diseases B) Lab specimens C) Sentinel surveillance D) All of the above
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D) All of the above
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20 people ate a contaminated meal and were infected with salmonella. 4 people came down with salmonellosis. Which of the following is correct? A) The infectivity is 20% B) The pathogenicity is 20% C) The case fatality is 20% D) All of the above
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B) The pathogenicity is 20%
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When death is the only criteria, an agent's / pathogen's ability to cause death is known as: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Infectivity D) All of the above
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B) Virulence
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Which of the following is a critical variable in outbreak investigation? A) Time of exposure B) Onset of disease C) Incubation period D) Any two of the above
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D) Any two of the above
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West Nile Virus is an example of an ongoing outbreak investigation. A) True B) False
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A) True
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At an initial examination in Oxford, Mass., migraine headache was found in 5 of 1,000 men aged 30 to 35 years and in 10 of 1,000 women aged 30 to 35 years. The inference that women have a two times greater risk of developing migraine headache than do men in this age group is: A) Correct B) Incorrect, because a ratio has been used to compare male and female rates C) Incorrect, because of failure to recognize the effect of age in the two groups D) Incorrect, because no data for a comparison or control group are given E) Incorrect, because of failure to distinguish between incidence and prevalence
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E) Incorrect, because of failure to distinguish between incidence and prevalence
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A prevalence survey conducted from January 1 through December 31, 2012, identified 1,000 cases of schizophrenia in a city of 2 million persons. The incidence rate of schizophrenia in this population is 5/100,000 persons each year. What percent of the 1,000 cases were newly diagnosed in 2012? ___
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10%
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Which of the following is an advantage of active surveillance? A) Requires less project staff B) Is relatively inexpensive to employ C) More accurate due to reduced reporting burden for health care provider D) Relies on different disease definitions to account for all cases E) Reporting systems can be developed quickly
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C) More accurate due to reduced reporting burden for health care provider
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What would be the effect on age-specific incidence rates of uterine cancer if women with hysterectomies were excluded from the denominator of the calculations, assuming that there are some women in each age group who have had hysterectomies? a. The rates would remain the same b. The rates would tend to decrease c. The rates would tend to increase d. The rates would increase in older groups and decrease in younger groups e. It cannot be determined whether the rates would increase or decrease
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c. The rates would tend to increase
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Population of the city of Atlantis on March 30, 2012 = 183,000 Number of new active cases of TB occurring between January 1 and June 30, 2012 = 26 Number of active TB cases according to the city register on June 30, 2012 = 264 The incidence rate of active cases of TB for the 6-month period was: a. 7 per 100,000 population b. 14 per 100,000 population c. 26 per 100,000 population d. 28 per 100,000 population e. 130 per 100,000 population
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b. 14 per 100,000 population
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Population of the city of Atlantis on March 30, 2012 = 183,000 Number of new active cases of TB occurring between January 1 and June 30, 2012 = 26 Number of active TB cases according to the city register on June 30, 2012 = 264 The prevalence rate of active TB as of June 30, 2012, was: a. 14 per 100,000 population b. 130 per 100,000 population c. 144 per 100,000 population d. 264 per 100,000 population e. None of the above
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c. 144 per 100,000 population
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The major purpose of random assignment is a clinical trial is to: a. Help ensure that study subjects are representative of the general population b. Facilitate double blinding (masking) c. Facilitate the measurement of outcome variables d. Ensure that the study groups have comparable baseline characteristics e. Reduce selection bias in the allocation of treatment
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e. Reduce selection bias in the allocation of treatment
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An advertisement in a medical journal stated that "2,000 subjects with sore throats were treated with our new medicine. Within 4 days, 94% are asymptomatic." The advertisement claims that the medicine was effective. Based on the evidence given above, the claim: a. Is correct b. May be incorrect because the conclusion is not based on a rate c. May be incorrect because of failure to recognize a long-term cohort phenomenon d. May be incorrect because no test of statistical significance was used e. May be be incorrect because no control or comparison group was involved
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e. May be be incorrect because no control or comparison group was involved
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The purpose of a double blind or double masked study is to: a. Achieve comparability of treated and untreated subjects b. Reduce the effects of sampling variation c. Avoid observer and subject bias d. Avoid observer bias and sampling variation e. Avoid subject bias and sampling variation
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c. Avoid observer and subject bias
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In many studies examining the association between estrogens and endometrial cancer of the uterus, a one-sided significance test was used. The underlying assumption justifying a one-sided rather than a two-sided test is: a. The distribution of the proportion exposed followed a "normal" pattern. b. The expectation before doing the study was that estrogens cause endometrial cancer of the uterus. c. The pattern of association could be expressed by a straight-line function d. Type II error was the most important potential error to avoid e. Only one control group was being used
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b. The expectation before doing the study was that estrogens cause endometrial cancer of the uterus.
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In a randomized clinical trial, a planned crossover design: a. Eliminates the problem of a possible order effect b. Must take into account the problem of possible residual effects of the first therapy c. Requires stratified randomization d. Eliminates the need for monitoring compliance and noncompliance e. Enhances the generalizability of the results of the study
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b. Must take into account the problem of possible residual effects of the first therapy
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A randomized trial comparing the efficacy of two drugs showed a difference between the two (with a P value < 0.05). Assume that in reality, however, the two drugs do not differ. This is therefore an example of: a. Type I error b. Type II error c. 1- a d. 1- B e. None of the above
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a. Type I error
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All of the following are potential benefits of a randomized clinical trials, except: a. The likelihood that the study groups will be comparable is increased b. Self-selection for a particular treatment is eliminated c. The external validity of the study is increased d. Assignment of the next subject cannot be predicted e. The therapy that a subject receives is not influenced by either conscious or subconscious bias of the investigator
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c. The external validity of the study is increased
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Of 2,872 persons who had received radiation treatment in childhood because of an enlarged thymus, cancer of the thyroid developed in 24 and a benign thyroid tumor developed in 52. A comparison group consisted of 5,055 children who had received no such treatment (brothers and sisters of the children who had received radiation treatment). During the follow-up period, none of the comparison group developed thyroid cancer, but benign thyroid tumors, developed in 6. Calculate the relative risk for benign thyroid tumors: ___
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15.3
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In a study of a disease in which all cases that developed were ascertained, if the relative risk for the association between a factor and the disease is equal to or less than 1.0 , then: a. There is no association between the factor and the disease b. The factor protects against development of the disease c. Either matching or randomization has been unsuccessful d. The comparison group used was unsuitable, and a valid comparison is not possible e. There is either no association or a negative association between the factor and the disease
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e. There is either no association or a negative association between the factor and the disease
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In a small pilot study, 12 women with uterine cancer and 12 with no apparent disease were contacted and asked whether they had ever used estrogen. Each woman with cancer was matched by age, race, weight, and parity to a woman without disease. The results are shown below: What is the estimated relative risk of cancer when analyzing this study as a matched-pairs study? a. 0.25 b. 0.33 c. 1.00 d. 3.00 e. 4.20
d. 3.00  [the number of pairs in which the case is exposed, control is not exposed]/[the number of pairs in which the control is exposed, case is not exposed]
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d. 3.00 [the number of pairs in which the case is exposed, control is not exposed]/[the number of pairs in which the control is exposed, case is not exposed]
question
In a small pilot study, 12 women with uterine cancer and 12 with no apparent disease were contacted and asked whether they had ever used estrogen. Each woman with cancer was matched by age, race, weight, and parity to a woman without disease. The results are shown below: Unmatch the pairs. What is the estimated relative risk of cancer when analyzing this study as an unmatched study design? a. 0.70 b. 1.43 c. 2.80 d. 3.00 e. 4.00
e. 4.00
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e. 4.00
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Talbot and colleagues carried out a study of sudden unexpected death in women. Data on smoking history are shown in the following table. Calculate the matched-pairs odds ratio for these data.
4.5
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4.5
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Talbot and colleagues carried out a study of sudden unexpected death in women. Data on smoking history are shown in the following table. Using data from the table, unmatch the pairs and calculate an unmatched odds ratio.
6.3
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6.3
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Talbot and colleagues carried out a study of sudden unexpected death in women. Data on smoking history are shown in the following table. What are the odds that the controls smoke 1+ pack/day?
1:7
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1:7
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The relative risk for developing ASHD subsequent to entering this study in men as compared to women is: a. Approximately equal in all age groups b. Highest in the oldest age group c. Lowest in the youngest and oldest age groups, and higest at ages 35-44 and 45-54 years d. Highest in the youngest and oldest age groups, and lowest at ages 35-44 and 45-54 years e. Lowest in the oldest age group
e. Lowest in the oldest age group
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e. Lowest in the oldest age group
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The most likely explanation for the differences in rates of ASHD between the initial examination and the yearly follow-up examinations in men is: a. The prevalece and incidence of ASHD increase with age in men b. Case-fatality of ASHD is higher at younger ages in men c. A classic cohort effect explains these results d. The case-fatality in ASHD is highest in the first 24 hours following a heart attack e. The initial examination measures the prevalence of ASHD, where the subsequent examinations primarily measure the incidence of ASHD
e. The initial examination measures the prevalence of ASHD, where the subsequent examinations primarily measure the incidence of ASHD
answer
e. The initial examination measures the prevalence of ASHD, where the subsequent examinations primarily measure the incidence of ASHD
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Several studies have found that approximately 85% of cases of lung cancer are due to cigarette smoking. This measure is an example of: a. An incidence rate b. An attributable risk c. A relative risk d. A prevalence risk e. A proportionate mortality ratio
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b. An attributable risk
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The incidence of CHD in smokers that can be attributed to smoking is:
27.5/1000
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27.5/1000
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The proportion of the total incidence of CHD in smokers that is attributable to smoking is:
84.6
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84.6
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In a cohort study of smoking and lung cancer, the incidence of lung cancer among smokers was found to be 9/1,000 and the incidence among nonsmokers was 1/1,000. From another source we know that 45% of the total population were smokers. The incidence of lung cancer attributable to smoking in the total population is:
answer
3.6/1000
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In a cohort study of smoking and lung cancer, the incidence of lung cancer among smokers was found to be 9/1,000 and the incidence among nonsmokers was 1/1,000. From another source we know that 45% of the total population were smokers. The proportion of the risk in the total population that is attributable to smoking is:
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78.3%
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What is a vector?
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a living organism that serves to communicate disease
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What is a reservoir?
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The natural habitat of an infectious agent (i.e. animal, plan, soil)
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What does vehicle mean in relation to infectious diseases?
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an inanimate object which can communicate disease (i.e. contaminated surfaces, used syringes, etc)
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