biology final exam – Flashcards
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An embryo produced by in vitro fertilization (IVF) may be tested for genetic disorders prior to implantation. How is this accomplished?
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A single cell is removed from a 6 to 8-celled embryo, and its DNA analyzed with a DNA microarray.
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Mutant gene alleles associated with known genetic disorders can be detected using DNA microarray analysis.
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true
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Sickle cell disease and cystic fibrosis both exhibit what mode of inheritance?
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autosomal dominant
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A child with bluish-purple skin is found to lack the enzyme diaphorase and is subsequently diagnosed with which genetic disorder?
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methemoglobinemia
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In pedigrees of autosomal dominant traits, every affected child must have at least one affected parent.
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true
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Which of the following diseases are caused by an autosomal dominant allele?
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Huntington and marfan
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Which of the following syndromes is caused by a translocation?
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alagille
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Chromosome 7 may lose an end piece resulting in Williams syndrome. This is an example of
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deletion
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A missing piece of chromosome 5 may result in a child whose glottis and larynx do not develop properly resulting in an abnormal cry. This is called?
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cri du chat
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A person with familial hypercholesterolemia is participating in an ex-vivo gene therapy trial. The procedure involves?
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removing a piece of the person's liver, infecting it with a retrovirus containing the normal cholesterol receptor gene, and replacing it after treatment.
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Inversions are chromosomal mutations that?
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rarely cause deletions or duplications during gamete formation when crossing-over occurs.
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A man carrying a translocation may appear normal, but runs the risk of having children with a syndrome because his children?
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may inherit one abnormal chromosome with one normal one from the father, and would carry a deletion or duplication.
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A karyotype shows chromosomes arranged by
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size, shape, banding pattern
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A mutation in a gene that causes the protein to acquire an abnormal activity, such as aggregating within the cell, will usually cause a dominant inherited disorder.
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false
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When a chromosome carrying an inversion undergoes crossing-over ...
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two chromatids will carry both a duplication and a deletion, one will contain the inversion, and one will be normal.
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If a man has an X-linked recessive disorder, then his daughters
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will be carriers
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A genetic profile includes
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an individual's complete genotype, including mutations
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A translocation chromosomal mutation is the exchange of segments between two homologous chromosomes
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false
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Which one of the following diseases or disorders has not been treated using gene therapy methods?
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cri du chat
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A female child with an unaffected father can exhibit an X-linked recessive disorder.
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false
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What are the current known methods of delivering genes to cells for gene therapy
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viruses, liposomes, and nasal sprays
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A DNA microarray detects
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mutant gene alleles associated with disease.
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A defective protein called fibrillin can cause an individual to possess abnormal connective tissue. This is an inherited disorder called
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marfan
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The enzyme that converts pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA requires vitamin B1, also called thiamine. Vitamin B1 has to be taken in through the diet of an individual. At what phase would cellular respiration come to a halt without B1?
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glycolysis
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The final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain is ___ resulting in formation of ___
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oxygen, water
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Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle are similar in that they both produce
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NADH ATP
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Which of the following molecules yields the most ATP from cellular respiration?
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fat
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Which of the following is an incorrect match of process to location?
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preparatory reaction - cristae of mitochondria
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What is oxidation?
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removal of H atoms to form new molecules
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The product of the preparatory reaction is-
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pyruvate
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What type(s) of organisms does cellular respiration occur in?
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autotrophs
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During hibernation the rate of cellular respiration in a mammal is typically less than half the rate measured when the mammal is not hibernating. This slowed cellular respiration is probably accompanied by which of the following.
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reduced pulse rate and increased body temperature
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In cellular respiration, most ATP produced directly as a result of
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the electron transport chain
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If you were able to stop the process of cellular respiration after the completion of the electron transport chain but prior chemiosmosis, what would you find is true about the pH in the mitochondria?
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It is highest in the intermembrane space.
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ATP is invested in glycolysis to
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break glucose into tow molecules
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What organelle is used during the process of cellular respiration?
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mitochondria
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Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?
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glycolysis→preparatory reaction→citric acid cycle→electron transport chain
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What would happen if NAD+ were not available for cellular respiration?
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There would be a great reduction in the number of ATP formed.
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As electrons are passed down the electron transport chain, the energy released is used immediately to
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concentrate H+ in the intermembrane space
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On the cellular level what process uses oxygen to break food down, producing ATP?
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cellular respiration
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Which of the following is not a product of cellular respiration?
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oxygen
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What must pyruvic acid be broken down into before it can enter the citric acid cycle?
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acetyl CoA
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The energy released from glucose by the process of cellular respiration is in the form of
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ATP and heat
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As a result of glycolysis there is a NET gain of
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2 ATP
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A product of glycolysis is
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pyruvate
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Where do the protons and electrons come from that are used in the electron transport chain?
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NADH and FADH2
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Calories are contained in sugars and fats but not in artificial sweeteners like NutraSweet. What are possible reasons that NutraSweet does not contain calories?
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We lack enzymes to break the bonds and the sweetness is from chemicals other than sugars are possible.
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When you exhale what two stages are producing the carbon dioxide you are breathing out
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preparatory reaction and citric acid cycle
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The number of ATP produced during cellular respiration from one glucose molecule is
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38
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What molecule most directly provides the energy you need for your muscles to contract?
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ATP
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By-products of cellular respiration include
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carbon dioxide and water
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If three molecules of glucose went through cellular respiration, how many times would the preparatory reaction occur?
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6
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Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
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cytoplasm
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Cellular respiration is the opposite of what other cellular process?
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photosynthesis
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In order to clone adult animals, scientists typically begin with
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an enucleated egg
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Which of the following events in gene expression control does not occur in the nucleus?
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mRNA translation
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Why do adult stem cells currently have fewer uses in therapeutic cloning than embryonic stem cells?
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Embryonic stem cells may become any type of cell, whereas adult stem cells may only become a limited number of cell types.
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?
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exhibit contact inhibition
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Many growth factors are classified as which of the following?
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proto-oncogenes
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Heterochromatin differs from euchromatin in that heterochromatin is
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transcriptionally inactive.
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If cells of a tumor have faulty, non-functional proteinase, they will be unable to undergo which of the following processes?
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metastasis
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In the regulation of the lac operon, when lactose is present
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lactose binds to the repressor, making it unable to bind to the operator and allowing transcription to proceed.
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Why is it necessary to "starve" the donor cells prior to reproductive cloning?
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to force the cells into G0 stage so that the nuclei removed from them will respond to cytoplasmic growth signals
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A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene
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stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis.
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Specialized cells differ from one another because
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they only express certain genes.
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A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that
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a cell is probably cancerous
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The unpacking of heterochromatin into euchromatin does not immediately result in DNA transcription because
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transcription factors still block the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
